CUSAT CAT 2021 Question Paper Ph.D IP IPR

IP/IPR (Ph.D)

ENGLISH

1. Select the correctly spelt word
(A) Apratheid
(B) Aprathied
(C) Apartheid
(D) Aparthied

2. Select the correctly spelt word
(A) Sabultren
(B) Subaltern
(C) Sabultrean
(D) Sabaultern

3. Select the correctly spelt word

(A) Parochel
(B) Parochail
(C) Parochial
(D) Porachail

4. Choose the meaning of the idiom used in the sentence below

We had a whale of a time at the party.

(A) A song
(B) A song and dance sequence
(C) A secret conversation
(D) Enjoyed ourselves very much

5. Choose the meaning of the idiom used in the sentence below

My recent sprained ankle was the last straw; I need to get surgery.

(A) Something trivial
(B) Something physical
(C) The final deciding factor
(D) Something recoverable

6. Choose the meaning of the idiom used in the sentence below

After Ram quits, we may just have to pull the plug on the whole operation.

(A) To examine
(B) To reschedule
(C) To terminate
(D) To finance

7. Replace the highlighted word with correct alternative

The cyclist burst into the pack.

(A) Broke into
(B) Broke out
(C) Broke through
(D) Broke away

8. Replace the highlighted word with correct alternative

I could barely see the traffic signs through the rain.

(A) Make out
(B) Look through
(C) Look in
(D) Make off

9. Find the correct alternative to replace the underlined part of the sentence

The workers are hell bend at getting what is due to them

(A) hell bent upon getting
(B) hell bent to get
(C) hell bent for getting
(D) hell bent for getting

10. Find the correct alternative to replace the underlined part of the sentence

If the room had been brighter, I would have been able to read for a while
before bed time.

(A) Had the room been brighter
(B) If the room was brighter
(C) If the brightness of the room was more
(D) Had there been more brightness

11. From the given alternatives, choose the one which best express the given sentence in
Direct/Indirect speech

I told him that he was not working hard

(A) I said, “You are not hard working”
(B) I said, “He is not working hard”
(C) I said to him “You are not working hard”
(D) I told “He is not working hard”

12. From the given alternatives, choose the one which best express the given sentence in
Active/Passive voice

After driving Professor Kumar to the museum she dropped him at his hotel

(A) After being driven to the museum, Professor Kumar was dropped at his hotel
(B) Professor Kumar was being driven dropped at his hotel
(C) After she had driven Professor Kumar to the museum was she had dropped him
at his hotel
(D) None of the above

Directions (Question No. 13 to 16): Select the correct meaning for each of the following
words.

13. Select the correct meaning for the following word.
cumbersome (adj.)
(A) Cumulative
(B) Wedge-shaped
(C) Unwieldy
(D) None of the above

14. Select the correct meaning for the following word.
grievous (adj.)
(A) Hard to bear
(B) Repellent
(C) Kept safe
(D) None of the above

15. Select the correct meaning for the following word.

epithet (n).

(A) A disparaging name
(B) A period of time
(C) An epic poem
(D) None of the above

16. Select the correct meaning for the following word.

vitriolic (adj.)

(A) Visible
(B) Necessary
(C) Extremely caustic
(D) None of the above

17. Choose the most appropriate “One word Substitute” for the following.

“To send back a person to his own country”

(A) Expatriate
(B) Delegate
(C) Expel
(D) Repatriate

18. Choose an appropriate word from the alternatives given to supply a “conjunction” for
completing the following sentence.

“He acts …………… he were already the boss”.

(A) like
(B) that
(C) as if
(D) so that

19. Identify the correct “indirect expression” of the below imperative

He says to us, “Keep the gate closed”.

(A) He says us to keep the gate closed
(B) He says to keep the gate closed
(C) He says that we are to keep the gate closed
(D) He asked that we were supposed to close the gate

20. Select the group of words that is most nearly similar in meaning to the most top
Idiom/Phrase in capital letters.

“GORDIAN KNOT”

(A) Utmost hatred for someone
(B) Close family tree
(C) To twist hair into a particular shape
(D) A seemingly impossible or difficult take or problem

21. Choose the miss-spelt word-

(A) Embarrassment
(B) Harassed
(C) Cdiosyncracies
(D) Unparalleled

Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below.

Throughout the night we continued to feel our way southward along the left bank of the river,
and by four o’clock reached a village which was temporarily deserted; this was fortunate for
us as thanks to our incompetent guide, we plundered into it without any warning. It was only
five miles north of Myo, where a tributary stream entered the river from the east. We still
had four miles to cover before meeting the boatman who had promised to take us across to
the comparative safety of the right bank.

In the two hours before dawn, therefore, there was much to be accomplished and many
difficulties had to be surmounted. We had long since decided that our guide was more of a
liability than an asset; our rate of progress along an unknown track was unavoidably slow; the
good faith of the boatman was problematical ;the river, normally two hundred yards wide at
the point of crossing, had been swollen by the recent rains. On the other hand, the men were
in good heart and excellent physical condition; the rain had stopped and the moon no longer
obscured by the black clouds, offered her friendly light when we most needed it; the enemy
did not patrol the left bank above the confluence at Myo. The odds, so overwhelmingly
against us when we started our march, were now in our favour.

Five words are given below.;

22. Choose the right meaning of the word from the options given below

Plunder

(A) An act of merry making
(B) An act of rejecting a person
(C) An act of stealing
(D) None of the above

23. Choose the right meaning of the word from the options given below

Surmounted

(A) To overcome a difficulty
(B) To climb up a mountain
(C) To climb down a mountain
(D) None of the above

24. Choose the right meaning of the word from the options given below

Tributary

(A) To pay contribution
(B) A river that flows to a larger river
(C) Three different direction
(D) None of the above

25. Choose the right meaning of the word from the options given below

Obscured

(A) To secure good marks
(B) To prevent something from being seen
(C) To clear the way
(D) None of the above

26. Choose the right meaning of the word from the options given below

Confluence

(A) To influence a person illegally
(B) To make a person diffident
(C) The meeting place of two streams
(D) None of the above

27. The village they reached was ……………

(A) situated on the top of a hillock
(B) temporarily deserted
(C) situated on the right bank of the river
(D) None of the above

28. What did they do when they reached the village?

(A) They mingled with the villagers
(B) They did not stop over
(C) They plundered the village
(D) None of the above

29. Where did the tributary stream enter from?

(A) From the north east
(B) From the west
(C) From the east
(D) None of the above

30. They were waiting to cover four miles. Name the reason

(A) To meet their relatives
(B) To reach the right bank side of the river
(C) To reach their respective homes
(D) None of the above

31. What is stated to be ‘unavoidably slow’?

(A) Due to injuries their guide was slow in movement
(B) Their progress along the track
(C) A few tortoises found in the river moved with slow pace
(D) None of the above

32. ‘The good faith of the boatman was problematical’ here it means

(A) He was unaware of the fact that the river was swollen
(B) He was addicted to drinks
(C) He was absent when they reached that point
(D) None of the above

33. Who offered a friendly light?

(A) The boatman’s wife
(B) The moon
(C) The poor village man
(D) None of the above

34. The word odds here means

(A) The unfavorable conditions
(B) Opposite of even number
(C) The strange behavior of the boatman
(D) None of the above

35. How far they were from safety?

(A) A hundred miles
(B) Four miles
(C) A few yards
(D) None of the above

Directions (Question No. 36 to 38): Choose the proper synonym of the underlined word.

36. Choose the correct synonym of the underlined word.

Suddenly Rani heard the sound of water trickling.

(A) Dripping
(B) Crawling
(C) Gushing
(D) Pouring

37. Choose the correct synonym of the underlined word.

Raju was exhausted after a long Journey.

(A) Dull
(B) Brisk
(C) Ill
(D) Tired

38. Choose the correct synonym of the underlined word.

Judges must not be partial.

(A) Fairless
(B) Unequal
(C) Favouring
(D) Biased

Directions (Question No. 39 to 40): Complete the sentence by using appropriate words.

39. Complete the sentence by using appropriate words.

The president has a …………… of …………… around him when he makes public
appearances.

(A) catalyst, individuals
(B) barrier ,contrast
(C) derrick, protection
(D) hedge, protection

40. Complete the sentence by using appropriate words.

A small selection of terms was found at the back of the textbook.
It was a ……………

(A) glossary
(B) preface
(C) diction
(D) kefir

(B) GENERAL KNOWLEDGE:

41. In which IIT, India’s first B.Tech course in Artificial Intelligence (AI) is launched?

(A) IIT Hyderabad
(B) IIT Bombay
(C) IIT Kanpur
(D) IIT Indore

42. Which company has launched India's first Policy Hack for Teachers?

(A) Infosys
(B) Reliance
(C) Wipro
(D) Dell

43. Diffo Bridge, is located in which of the following states?

(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Andhra Pradesh

44. India’s largest start up ecosystem has launched in which of the following states?

(A) Rajasthan
(B) Kerala
(C) Punjab
(D) Tamil Nadu

45. Dr.Shivakumara Swamiji, (Known as walking God) who passed away at the
age of 111, was the renowned pontiff belongs to …………….

(A) Sri Sidda Ganga Math, Karnataka
(B) Sri Ramakrisnhna Asharam, Calcutta
(C) Sri Kanchi Kamamkoti Peetham, Tamil Nadu
(D) Udupi Srikrishna Math, Karnataka

46. Double-helical structure of DNA was given by whom?

(A) Jacob and Manod
(B) James Watson and Francis Crick
(C) H.G. Khorana
(D) None of the above

47. The Veer Savarkar International Airport has declared as an authorized Immigration
Check post, it is located in which of the following UTs /States?

(A) Daman and Diu
(B) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(C) Bombay
(D) Karnataka

48. Which of the following pairs is NOT matched correctly?

(A) M.S.Subbulakshmi - Vocal
(B) Kunnikudi Vaidyanathan – Violin
(C) Ramani.N – Flute
(D) Lalgudi Jayaraman – Tabala

49. Which University manages the largest endowment fund in the world?

(A) Stanford University
(B) Yale University
(C) National University Singapore
(D) Harvard University

50. Who called Rabindranath Tagore as “Great Sentinel of modern India?

(A) Jawarlal Nehru
(B) Sardar Vallabhai Patel
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Sarojini Naidu

51. The purpose of the Ramsar Convention is ……………

(A) to promote wetland conservation and wise use
(B) to prevent industrial pollution
(C) to mitigate population explosion
(D) to prevent soil pollution

52. ‘Kyoto Protocol’ is related to ……………

(A) Biodiversity Conservation
(B) Climate Change
(C) E-waste Management
(D) Conservation of Water bodies

53. Reservation on the basis of economic condition was introduced by whcih
Constitutional Amendment?

(A) 102
(B) 103
(C) 99
(D) None of the above

54. What is the full form of VVPAT Machines used in election system in India?

(A) Verified Voter Paper Audit Trail
(B) Voter Verified People Audit Trail
(C) Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail
(D) None of the above

55. Which Indian Academician was awarded posthumous Padma Bhushan in 2020?

(A) Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan
(B) Dr. Latika Sarkar
(C) Dr. N.R. Madhava Menon
(D) Shri. Mahatma Hansraj

(C) GENERAL APTITUDE IN INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY LAW

56. Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) protect the use of information and ideas that are of

(A) ethical value
(B) moral value
(C) social value
(D) commercial value

57. Which of the following can be patented?

(A) Machine
(B) Process
(C) Composition of matter
(D) All of the above

58. Trade mark

(A) is represented graphically
(B) is capable of distinguishing the goods or services of one person from those of
others
(C) may include shapes of goods or combination of colours
(D) All of the above

59. In India, the literary work is protected until

(A) lifetime of author
(B) 25 years after the death of author
(C) 40 years after the death of author
(D) 60 years after the death of author

60. Design does not include

(A) features of shape
(B) composition of lines or colours
(C) mode or principle of construction
(D) None of the above

61. Which of the following is (are) included in Geographical indications of Goods?

(A) Handicraft
(B) Foodstuff
(C) Manufactured
(D) All of the above

62. U.S. courts have ruled that trademark protection cannot be issued to “weak marks”.
Which of the following would constitute weak marks?

(A) Descriptive marks
(B) Geographic marks
(C) Surnames
(D) All of these

63. Who administer Uniform Dispute Resolution Policy?

(A) WTO
(B) WIPO
(C) The Supreme Court
(D) The High court

64. Geographical Indication is

(A) Private right
(B) Community right
(C) Intellectual property right
(D) Both (B) and (C)

65. Who can register Geographical Indication?

(A) Individual
(B) Company
(C) Producers
(D) All of the above

66. Certification mark can be registered in

(A) Trademark Registry
(B) Certification Board
(C) Quality Control Board
(D) MHRD

67. A singer, who wishes to assign the rights to reproduce her original work can do so
under which of the following Act

(A) Copyrights
(B) Trademark
(C) Patent
(D) Geographical indications

68. A Perfume company decided to invest in outer shape design of bottle in which they
would fill the perfume which is distinctive, and they wish to ensure adequate
protection under

(A) Trademark
(B) Patent
(C) Industrial designs
(D) Geographical indications

69. An Intellectual Property created by an artist is protected under

(A) Registered Design
(B) Geographical Indication
(C) Copyright
(D) None of the above

70. Which of the following is geographical indication?

(A) World Wide Web
(B) Microsoft
(C) Darjeeling Tea
(D) All of the above

71. Which of the following is not a characteristic of ‘Moral Rights’ in the Indian
Copyright Act, 1957?

(A) Limited monopoly
(B) Negative right
(C) Transferability
(D) Both (A) and (B)

72. RG Anand v. Delux Films (1978) is a landmark decision of Supreme Court of India in
the area of

(A) Copyright
(B) Trademark
(C) Registered Design
(D) None of the above

73. Which of the following Supreme Court of India’s Judgement is dealing with the issue
of Compulsory License?

(A) Novertis v. Union of India
(B) NATCO v. Bayer
(C) Diamond v. Chakrabarty
(D) Carlsberg Breweries v. Som Distilleries

74. The National Gene Fund has been established under:

(A) Patents Act, 1970
(B) Biodiversity Act, 2002
(C) Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmer’s Rights, 2001
(D) Convention on Biological Diversity, 1992

75. Ministerial Declaration at the WTO Ministerial Conference in Doha in 2001 on
TRIPS Agreement deals with

(A) Compulsory Licensing
(B) Parallel Import
(C) Extension of transition period for Least-Developed Countries for
implementation of TRIPS
(D) All of the above

(D) ANALYTICAL AND REASONING CAPABILITY:

76. There are eight poets, namely, A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H in respect of whom
questions are being asked in the examination. The first four are ancient poets and the
last four are modern poets. The question on ancient and modern poets is being asked
in alternate years. Those who like H also like G, those who like D like C also. The
examiner who sets question is not likely to ask question on D because he has written
an article on him. But he likes D. Last year a question was asked on F. Considering
these facts, on whom the question is most likely to be asked this year?

(A) B
(B) C
(C) D
(D) G

77. Which letter is seventh from left of 16th from right in English alphabet?

(A) D
(B) W
(C) R
(D) E

78. Tanya is older than Eric,
Cliff is older than Tanya,
Eric is older than Cliff.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is …………….

(A) True
(B) False
(C) Uncertain
(D) None of the above

79. All the trees in the park are flowering trees
Some of the trees in the park are dogwoods
All dogwoods in the park are flowering trees
If the first two statements are true, the conclusion is ……………

(A) True
(B) False
(C) Uncertain
(D) None of the above

80. Apartments in the Riverdale Manor cost less than apartments in The Gaslight
Commons. Apartments in the Livingston Gate cost more than apartments in the The
Gaslight Commons. Of the three apartment buildings, the Livingston Gate costs the
most. If the first two statements are true, the conclusion is ……………

(A) True
(B) False
(C) Uncertain
(D) None of the above

81. In communication, more should happen in less

Assumptions: I. The more you talk, the less you communicate
II. The process of communication is never complete

(A) Assumption I is implicit
(B) Assumption II is implicit
(C) Both I and II is implicit
(D) Neither I or II is implicit

82. Success of economic policy in India has to be judged by its success on the poverty
front

Assumptions: I. Success of the economic policy is determined by the level of
poverty in the country
II. Economic policy for India should be formulated keeping in
mind the state of the poor people

(A) Assumption I is implicit
(B) Assumption II is implicit
(C) Neither I or II is implicit
(D) Both I and II are implicit

83. Dancing on the edge of the volcano is the most beautiful metaphor I know for “risk”

Assumptions: I. Having the courage to take risk is the greatest motivation to
dance
II. Taking a risk is as dangerous as dancing on the edge of a
volcano

(A) Assumption I is implicit
(B) Assumption II is implicit
(C) Both I and II is implicit
(D) Neither I or II is implicit

84. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

66 40 67 45 69 ?

(A) 50
(B) 60
(C) 75
(D) 49

85. Insert the missing number:

4 : 17 : : 7 : ?

(A) 48
(B) 49
(C) 50
(D) 51

86. Choose the odd word:

(A) Nun
(B) Knight
(C) Monk
(D) Priest

87. Ravi is too intelligent to fail in the examination.

Assumption I: Very intelligent boys do not fail in the examinations.
Assumption II: Those who are not intelligent at all may fail in the examinations.

(A) Assumption I is implicit
(B) Assumption II is implicit
(C) Both I and II are implicit
(D) Neither of them is implicit

88. Let the government increase the present rate of taxation to recover the deficit in the
budget.

Assumption I: Present rate of taxes is very low.
If government wants to get away with the budgetary deficit it
Assumption II:
should increase tax rate.

(A) Assumption I is implicit
(B) Assumption II is implicit
(C) Both I and II are implicit
(D) Neither of them is implicit

89. Find the next letter for the series YVSP ...............

(A) N
(B) M
(C) O
(D) L

90. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle. B is between F and C, A is
between E and D, F is to the left of D. Who is between A and F?

(A) B
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E

91. If STREAMERS is coded as UVTGALDQR, then
KNOWLEDGE will be coded as ……………

(A) MQPYLCDFD
(B) MPQYLDCFD
(C) PMYQLDFCD
(D) YMQPLDDFC

92. A is brother of B. B is the brother of C. C is the husband of D. E is the father of A.
D is related to E as ...............

(A) Daughter
(B) Daughter-in-law
(C) Sister-in-law
(D) Sister

93. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.
moolokarn means blue sky
wilkospadi means bicycle race
moolowilko means blue bicycle
Which word could mean "race car"?

(A) Wilkozwet
(B) Spadiwilko
(C) Moolobreil
(D) Spadivolo

94. In a one day cricket match, the total runs made by a team were 200. Out of these 160
runs were made by spinners.

Conclusion: I. 80% of the team consists of spinners.
II. The opening batsmen were spinners.

(A) Only conclusion I follows
(B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Both I and II follows
(D) Neither I nor II follows

95. Which of the following proportion is not correct?

(A) 12:20 :: 15:25
(B) 6:8 :: 15:24
(C) 8:10 :: 36:45
(D) None of the above

96. A clock that looses 4 minutes every 24 hours was set at 6.a.m. on April 1. What this
clock will show on April 6 of the same month at 12 noon?

(A) 11.37 a.m.
(B) 11.38 a.m.
(C) 11.39 a.m.
(D) 11.40 a.m.

97. In a Badminton match, Ramesh’s team got more scores than Murugesh’s team but not
as many as Yathish’s team. Yathish ‘s team got more scores than Mallesh’s team.
Mallesh team got less score than Murugesh’s team. Which team is in second place in
the descending order of scores?

(A) Yathish’s team
(B) Mallesh’s team
(C) Ramesh’s team
(D) Murugesh’s team

98. Assertion (A): The Reserve Bank of India is entrusted with the management of the
public debt and issue of new loans and treasury bills on behalf of
the Central and State Governments.
Reasoning(R): The Governor and the Deputy Governors of Reserve Bank of India
are appointed by the Central Government.

(A) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(B) (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the right explanation of (A)
(C) (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A)
(D) (A) and (R) both are not correct

99. Assertion (A): In real terms, workers’ participation in management has failed in
India.
Reasoning(R): There is lack of attitudinal change, multiplicity of unions and
absence of a procedure to determine a sole bargaining agent in an
organization.

(A) (A) is correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(B) (A) is correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(D) (A) is correct but (R) is correct

100. Principle: No Person shall be prosecuted for the same offence twice.
Facts: Rakesh was driving his BMW when he drove the car on the pathway and
crushed three people to death. Due to lack of evidence he is acquitted.
Now the prosecution finds eye witness and evidence against him. They
want to prosecute him again.

(A) Rakesh cannot be prosecuted again
(B) He can be prosecuted since there is fresh evidence against him
(C) He cannot be prosecuted as his grandfather was the chief of Army
(D) He can be prosecuted again as he was not punished at all

101. Direction: In the following question find out the alternative
which will replace the question mark.

Elephants : trumpet :: Humans : ?

(A) Talk
(B) Wail
(C) Roar
(D) Bleat

102. Direction: In the following question find out the alternative
which will replace the question mark.

Ulterior : Expressed :: Radiant : ?

(A) Dull
(B) Warlike
(C) Jovial
(D) Revengeful

103. Which one of the following belongs to the category of homogeneous data?

(A) Trees in a garden

(B) Vehicular traffic on a highway
(C) Multi-storeyed houses in a colony
(D) All of the above

104. Logical reasoning is based on:

(A) Truth of involved propositions
(B) Employment of analogical language
(C) Employment of ordinary language
(D) Valid relation among the involved propositions

105. Choose the appropriate alternative given in the codes to replace the question mark.

Examiner – Examinee, Pleader – Client, Preceptor –?

(A) Consumer
(B) Student
(C) Customer
(D) Disciple

106. “If a large diamond is cut up into little bits, it will lose its value just as an army is
divided up into small units of soldiers, it loses its strength”. The argument put above
may be called as

(A) Analogical
(B) Counter-analogical
(C) Observatory
(D) Causal

107. If the statement ‘None but the brave wins the race’ is false which of the following
statements can be claimed to be true? Select the correct code:

(A) Brave persons win the race
(B) Some persons who win the race are not brave
(C) Those persons who win the race are brave
(D) Brave persons never win the race

108. Given below are some codes of arrangements of three items in order of wider scope.
Select the correct code.

(A) Garments, Cloth and Shirts
(B) Cloth, Garments and Shirts
(C) Shirts, Garments and Cloth
(D) Garments, Shirts and Cloth

109. Assertion (A): The purpose of higher education is to promote critical and
innovative thinking abilities among students.
Reason (R): Students job placements are responsible on these abilities
Choose the correct code:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true

110. In a certain code, GAMESMAN is written as AGMEMSAN. How would DISCLOSE
be written in that code?

(A) IDSCOLSE
(B) IDCSOLES
(C) IDSCOLES
(D) IDSCLOSE

111. Find out the wrong number in the sequence: 125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165

(A) 130
(B) 142
(C) 153
(D) 165

112. Choose the number which is different from others in the group:

(A) 49
(B) 28
(C) 77
(D) 81

113. If water is called food, food is called tree, tree is called earth, earth is called world,
which of the following grows a fruit?

(A) Water
(B) Tree
(C) World
(D) Earth

114. E is the son of A, D is the son of B, E is married to C, C is the daughter of B. How is
D related to E?

(A) Brother
(B) Uncle
(C) Father-in-law
(D) Brother-in-law

115. Two girls and two boys are playing bridge and seated at North, East, South and West
of a table. No girl is facing East. Players sitting opposite to each other are not of the
same sex. One boy is facing South. Which direction are the girls facing to?

(A) East and West
(B) North and West
(C) South and East
(D) None of the above

(E) APTITUDE TO DO RESEARCH

116. A successful teacher is one who is

(A) Quite and reactive
(B) Passive and active
(C) Compassionate and disciplinarian
(D) Tolerant and dominating

117. Teachers should study the educational philosophy because

(A) Philosophy is the backbone of all disciplines
(B) They do not know it
(C) They do not have their own philosophy
(D) They may improve their work by clarifying their own philosophy

118. A teacher commands prestige, authority, esteem and respect. He should make use of it
through suggestion. He should not try to command respect through ---

(A) Experience
(B) Tact
(C) Scholarship
(D) Punishing and creating revolting situation

119. Teachers use teaching aids for

(A) the sake of its use
(B) making teaching interesting
(C) making student attentive
(D) making teaching with understanding level of students

120. How a teacher should behave with the students?

(A) Friend
(B) Father
(C) Leader
(D) General

121. Random sampling is helpful as it is . . . . . . . . . .

(A) An economical method of data collection
(B) Free from personal biases
(C) Reasonably accurate
(D) All the above

122. …. . . . . . . . is a preferred sampling method for the population with finite size.

(A) Area sampling
(B) Cluster sampling
(C) Purposive sampling
(D) Systematic sampling

123. To cater to the needs of slow learners in the class, a teacher should give

(A) allow them to do what they are doing
(B) punish by sending them out of the class
(C) ask them to sit on the front seats
(D) not mind them as it may disturb the rest of the class

124. “ Learning readiness ” involves . . . . . . .

(A) disposition of learning
(B) adequate cognitive functioning
(C) an ideal situation and knowledge base for present content
(D) All of the above

125. A hypothesis that proposes no relationship between two variables is called

(A) Casual hypothesis
(B) Directional hypothesis
(C) Null hypothesis
(D) Correlative hypothesis

126. A reasoning from general to particular is called –

(A) Induction
(B) Deduction
(C) Scientific method
(D) Dialectical method

127. A plan that guides the investigator in the process of collecting, analyzing and
interpreting observations is ---

(A) Concept
(B) Hypothesis
(C) Research design
(D) Variables

128. A researcher does not fix the ultimate size of the sample in advance but determines
according to mathematical decisions on the basis of information yielded as data
collection progresses. This is technically called –

(A) Systematic Sampling
(B) Random Sampling
(C) Sequential Sampling
(D) Quota sampling

129. Which of the following is not a characteristic of action research?

i. Results are generalizable
ii. Hypotheses were tested
iii. Developed a theory
iv. Data were qualitative

(A) i, ii and iii
(B) i, ii and iv
(C) i, iii and iv
(D) ii, iii and iv

130. The research ethics means –

(A) The quality of the research
(B) Proved a particular point intentionally
(C) The quantity of the research
(D) All of the above

131. A Blue print of research work is called –

(A) Research method
(B) Research design
(C) Research techniques
(D) Research problem

132. A researcher divides the populations into PG, graduates and 10 + 2 students and using
the random digit table he selects some of them from each. This is technically
called …………..

(A) stratified sampling
(B) stratified random sampling
(C) representative sampling
(D) None of the above

133. The essential qualities of a researcher are

(A) Spirit of free enquiry
(B) Reliance on observation and evidence
(C) Systematization or theorizing of knowledge
(D) All the above

134. Which of the following research types focuses on ameliorating
the prevailing situations?

(A) Fundamental Research
(B) Applied Research
(C) Action Research
(D) Experimental Research

135. Which of the sets of activities best indicate the cyclic nature of
action research strategy?

(A) Reflect, Observe, Plan, Act
(B) Observe, Act, Reflect, Plan
(C) Act, Plan, Observe, Reflect
(D) Plan, Act, Observe, Reflect

136. Name the function of bibliography in research report

(A) List of authorities consulted
(B) Description of literature review
(C) No relevance to the report
(D) Citation of the authorities

137. Fundamental to begin a research, a researcher should identify

(A) research hypothesis
(B) literature survey
(C) research problem
(D) data collection tools

138. Concept, Skills, Attitude and Knowledge are products of

(A) Research and Learning
(B) Teaching
(C) Heredity
(D) Observation

139. A research problem is feasible only when

(A) it has utility and relevance
(B) it is researchable
(C) it is new and adds something to knowledge
(D) All of the above

140. How can the objectivity of the research be enhanced?

(A) Impartiality
(B) Reliability
(C) Validity
(D) All of the above

141. Factorial Analysis Method is used for

(A) to establish the relationship between two variables
(B) to know the difference between two variables
(C) to establish the relationship between hypothesis and research objective
(D) None of the above

142. A hypothesis is a

(A) Cannon
(B) Supposition
(C) Law
(D) Rules of research methodology

143. To study the working efficiency of a nationalized bank in India the sampling method
to be adopted is

(A) Area Sampling
(B) Multi-stage Sampling
(C) Sequential Sampling
(D) Quota Sampling

144. Research is unethical if

(A) it is not of high standard
(B) the researcher has not submitted his research for publication after award of
PhD degree
(C) data is not analyzed by using scientific method
(D) report has substantial portion plagiarized from another research

145. Which among the following is not a method of reasoning in research?

(A) Deductive reason
(B) Inductive reasoning
(C) Abductive reasoning
(D) Formulate reasoning

146. Which of the following is not a type of Research Design?

(A) Action research
(B) Qualitative research design
(C) Quantitative research design
(D) None of the above

147. Snowballing is a technique of

(A) Qualitative research
(B) Questionnaire
(C) Sampling
(D) Experimental research

148. Which of the following sampling technique is a probability sampling method?

(A) Random sampling
(B) Accidental sampling
(C) Convenience sampling
(D) All of the above

149. Survey Research Questionnaire is a tool for collection of

(A) Qualitative data
(B) Quantitative data
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

150. Government of India conducts Census after every 10 years. The method of research
used in this process is:

(A) case study
(B) developmental
(C) survey
(D) experimental

ANSWER KEY
Subject Name: 620 LLM (IP) PhD AND LLM (IPR) PhD
SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key
1 C 31 B 61 D 91 B 121 D
2 B 32 A 62 A 92 B 122 D
3 C 33 B 63 B 93 D 123 C
4 D 34 A 64 D 94 D 124 D
5 C 35 B 65 D 95 B 125 C
6 C 36 A 66 B 96 C 126 B
7 A 37 D 67 A 97 C 127 C
8 A 38 D 68 C 98 B 128 C
9 A 39 D 69 C 99 A 129 A
10 A 40 A 70 C 100 A 130 A
11 C 41 A 71 D 101 A 131 B
12 A 42 D 72 A 102 A 132 B
13 C 43 C 73 B 103 C 133 D
14 A 44 B 74 C 104 D 134 C
15 A 45 A 75 D 105 D 135 D
16 C 46 B 76 D 106 D 136 A
17 D 47 B 77 A 107 B 137 C
18 C 48 D 78 B 108 C 138 A
19 C 49 D 79 A 109 B 139 D
20 D 50 C 80 A 110 A 140 D
21 C 51 A 81 D 111 D 141 B
22 C 52 B 82 D 112 D 142 B
23 A 53 B 83 B 113 C 143 A
24 B 54 C 84 A 114 D 144 D
25 B 55 C 85 C 115 B 145 D
26 C 56 D 86 B 116 C 146 A
27 B 57 D 87 C 117 D 147 C
28 C 58 D 88 B 118 D 148 A
29 C 59 D 89 B 119 D 149 B
30 B 60 C 90 C 120 C 150 C