UPSC ESE 2027 Syllabus

FOR UPSC ESE PREPARATION

UPSC ESE 2027
Syllabus
EXAM YEAR TYPE

UPSC ESE 2027 Syllabus

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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ENGINEERING SERVICES EXAMINATION, 2027

EXAMINATION NOTICE NO. 02/2027-ENGG.

Date of Notification of Examination 16.09.2026
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Last date for filling up of Application 06.10.2026
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Date of (Preliminary). Examination e
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Date of (Main)asExamination 18.06.2027 g
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(The Commission's website - https://upsc.gov.in)

IMPORTANT INFORMATION FOR THE CANDIDATES

The Online Application Portal of Union Public Service Commission for
registration and filling up of application form online has four cards/modules, three of
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which namely, Account creation, Universal Registration and Common Application

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Form are common to all examination applications and can be filled anytime by the

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candidate while the fourth card/module is examination specific and can be filled during
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the time period allowed in notification of an examination. Applicants are required to
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apply online by using the website https://upsconline.nic.in.
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Once a candidate has registered on the Online Application Portal, a Universal
Registration Number (URN) is generated which is common for all the examinations of
the Commission. After filling up of the Examination Specific Form, an Application
Number is generated which is examination specific and is to be retained by the
applicant alongwith the URN for any future communication with the Commission. The
URN has to be registered only once in lifetime. While the URN will be unique and will
remain constant, the Application Number will be dynamic in nature and will vary from
examination to examination.
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all. profiles/modules to guide the candidates for filling up of the application
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and

s uploading the documents. Candidates are advised
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Applicants are strongly advised to use their Aadhaar Card as ID document for
easy, effortless and seamless verification and authentication of ID and other details.

1. CANDIDATES TO ENSURE THEIR ELIGIBILITY FOR THE EXAMINATION:

All the candidates are requested to carefully read the Rules of Engineering Services
Examination, 2027 notified by the Government (Ministry of Communications, Department of
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Telecommunications) and the Notice of Examination derived from these Rules. The

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candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfil all eligibility conditions
for admission to the Examination. Their admission at all the stages of the examination will
be purely provisional subject to satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions.
Mere issue of e Admit Card to the candidate will not imply that his/her candidature
has been finally cleared by the Commission. Commission takes up verification of eligibility
conditions with reference to original documents only after the candidate has qualified for
Personality Test/Interview.

2. HOW TO APPLY

Candidates are required to apply Online only by using the Commission’s
website https://upsconline.nic.in. Candidates are advised to go through the General
instructions, Profile/Module-wise instructions and instructions for uploading of documents
before proceeding to fill up the form. These instructions are available on the menu bar of the
Home page. A candidate who is willing to apply for Engineering Services Examination,
2027 shall be required to submit the requisite information and supporting documents towards
various claims, such as date of birth, educational qualification etc. as may be sought by the
Commission along with the Universal Registration Number (URN), Common Application Form
(CAF) and the fourth module i.e. Examination Specific Module (including fees and centre etc.).
Failure to provide the required information/documents along with the Common Application
Form (CAF) will entail cancellation of candidature for the examination. Brief instructions are
given in Appendix-IIA. Detailed instructions for filling up online applications are available on
the above mentioned website.

NOTE 1:- ONE-TIME EDIT FACILITY FOR URN PROFILE:

The Commission provides a one-time facility for candidates to update or modify their
Universal Registration Number (URN) profile. Please note that any changes made to the URN
Profile will not be reflected in applications already submitted. The updated information will
apply only to applications submitted after the candidate has made the necessary changes
and successfully re-locked the URN Profile.

NOTE 2:- LIVE PHOTO CAPTURE FOR FILLING UP OF COMMON APPLICATION FORM
(CAF):

Applicants are required to upload their photograph and also capture their live
photograph while filling up the Common Application Form (CAF). Applicants must ensure that
the uploaded photograph and the live photograph captured is clear as per instructions given
on “Instructions and FAQs > Instruction for filling the form > Photos and Signature” available
on the Commission’s website https://upsconline.nic.in.

NOTE 3 :- UPLOADING OF SIGNATURE:

Applicants are required to sign three times (one below the other) on a plain white paper
using black ink and upload the same while filling up the Common Application Form (CAF).
The uploaded signatures should be clear and legible. The candidates are advised to refer to
the instruction for uploading the signature available under the header “Instructions and FAQs”
on the Commission’s website: https://upsconline.nic.in.

NOTE 4 :- UPLOADING OF PHOTOGRAPH:

Please follow the Instructions in respect of uploading of Photograph as elaborated in
the Instructions to upload documents in the home page of the online application portal.
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se 2.1 WITHDRAWAL OF APPLICATION:
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The candidate will not be allowed to withdraw his/her application after the submission
of the same. Further, no correction/alteration/modification in any field(s) of the Application
Form is allowed after submission.

2.2 The candidate should also have details of one photo ID viz. Aadhaar Card/ Voter
Card(EPIC)/ PAN Card/ Passport/ Driving License/Any other Photo ID Card issued by the
State/Central Government. The details of this Photo ID Card will have to be provided by the
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candidate while filling up the Universal Registration Number (URN) Profile. This Photo ID
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Card will be used for all future reference and the candidate is advised to carry this ID Card
while appearing for the Examination
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e strongly advised to use their Aadhaar Card as ID document for easy,
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Applicantssare g
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effortless and seamless verification and authentication of ID and other details. a
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3. LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATIONS:

The Online Applications can be filled from 16.09.2026 to 06.10.2026 till 06:00 P.M. after
which the link will be disabled.

4. ISSUANCE OF e-ADMIT CARD:
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The eligible candidates shall be issued an e- Admit Card on the last working
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day of the preceding week of the date of the examination. Further, those candidates,
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who have opted for change of Scribe seven (07) days prior to the date of the examination,

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shall be issued e-Admit Card three (03) days prior to the date of examination The e- Admit
Card will be made available on the Commission’s website [https://upsconline.nic.in] for
downloading by the candidates. No Admit Card will be sent by post. All the applicants
are requested to provide valid & active eMail ID while creating account as the
Commission may use electronic mode for contacting them at different stages of
Examination process.

5. MARKING ANSWERS IN THE OMR SHEET:

For both writing and marking answers in the OMR sheet (Answer Sheet), candidates
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must use black ball pen only. Pen of any other colour is not permitted. Do not use Pencil or
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Ink pen. Candidates should note that any omission/mistake/discrepancy in encoding/filling of
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details in the OMR answer sheet especially with regard to Roll Number and Test Booklet
s e Series Code will render the answer sheet liable for rejection. Candidates are further
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advised to read carefully the “Special Instructions” contained in Appendix III of the
a Notice.

6. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS:

Candidates should note that there will be penalty (Negative Marking) for wrong
answers marked by a candidate in the Objective Type Question Papers.

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7. SPECIAL INSTRUCTIONS:

Candidates are advised to read carefully “Special Instructions to the candidates for
Conventional Type Tests and Objective Type Tests” (Appendix III Part A and Part B).

Persons with Benchmark Disabilities in the Category of Blindness are advised not to
apply for this examination as no vacancies are earmarked/identified for them for the
Services/Posts included in the Engineering Services Examination, . 2027. However, Persons
with Benchmark Disabilities of Low Vision category are advised to apply only under those
posts/services for which they are eligible as per the Functional Classification and Physical
Requirements (FC & PR) as contained in Annexure -I of Appendix-III of the Rules of
Engineering Services Examination, 2027 notified by the Government (Department of
Telecommunications) in the Gazette of India (Extraordinary) dated 16th September, 2026.

8. ONLINE REPRESENTATION PORTAL FOR QUESTION PAPER &
PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEYS:

The Commission will be providing an opportunity to the appeared candidates to make
representations to the Commission on the questions asked in the Papers of the Examination
and on the Provisional Answer Keys of the Objective Type Question Paper(s) of the
Engineering Services Examination 2027 in a time frame of five (05) days i.e. from the 3rd day
of the Examination date to 06:00 P.M. of the 7th day. The appeared candidates may login to
the Commission’s website: https://upsconline.nic.in and submit their representation(s), if any,
under the header ‘Examinations > Representations on Question Paper & Provisional Answer
Keys’. No representation by eMail/post/hand or by any other mode shall be accepted and the
Commission shall not involve into any correspondence with the candidates in this regard. No
representation shall be accepted under any circumstances after this window of five (05) days
is over.

9. HELPDESK FOR CANDIDATES:

The Commission has established a dedicated helpline to assist the candidates
during the application process. Candidates seeking clarification, guidance or
assistance related to the application process or examination details can contact the
helpline no. 011-24041001/011-40303444 or eMail ID – [email protected]. The helpline
will be operational from 10:00 A.M. to 5:30 P.M. on all working days during the
application window i.e. from 16.09.2026 to 06.10.2026. Applicants may utilize this
service for any issues relating to the application process, including fee payment,
uploading of documents etc.

10. MOBILE PHONES/COMMUNICATION DEVICES BANNED:

(a) The use of any mobile phone (even in switched off mode), pager or any electronic
equipment or programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smart watches, AI
enabled glasses etc. or camera or Bluetooth devices or any other equipment or related
accessories either in working or switched off mode capable of being used as a communication
device during the examination is strictly prohibited. Any infringement of these instructions
shall entail disciplinary action including ban from future examinations.

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Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned items

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including bags, mobile phones/pagers or any valuable/costly items to the venue of the
examination, as no arrangement for safe-keeping will be made at the venue of the
examination. The Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this regard.

11. REPORTING AT EXAMINATION VENUE:

The entry of the candidates into the venue of the Examination shall be closed 30
minutes prior to the commencement of the Examination in each session. No
candidates shall be allowed entry into the examination venue after closure of entry
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under any circumstances.
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FACE AUTHENTICATION FOR CANDIDATES AT THE EXAMINATION
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VENUE:

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In order a all
to ensure a secure and smooth examination process,
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candidates be required to undergo face authentication at
examination venue mandatorily. Candidates are advised to enter the
the

examination venue well in time for face authentication/identity verification
and frisking.

CANDIDATES ARE REQUIRED TO APPLY ONLINE AT https://upsconline.nic.in
ONLY.
NO OTHER MODE IS ALLOWED FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION.
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GOVERNMENT STRIVES TO HAVE A WORKFORCE WHICH REFLECTS GENDER
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BALANCE AND WOMEN CANDIDATES ARE ENCOURAGED TO APPLY. .co
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No.F. - 02/02/2026-E.1B: Preliminary/Stage-I Examination of the Engineering Services
Examination, 2027 for recruitment to the Services/ Posts mentioned in ‘Para 2’ below will
be held by the Union Public Service Commission on 31st January, 2027 in accordance
with the Rules published by Department of Telecommunications, Ministry of Communications
in the Gazette of India (Extraordinary) dated 16th September, 2026.

2. Recruitment on the basis of the results of this examination will be made to the Services/
Posts under the following categories:-

Category - I: Civil Engineering

Category - II: Mechanical Engineering

Category - III: Electrical Engineering

Category - IV: Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering

The number of vacancies to be filled on the basis of the results of the Engineering
Services Examination, 2027 is expected to be approximately 480 including 19 vacancies
for the Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) (11 vacancies for Locomotor Disability
including Leprosy cured, Dwarfism, Acid Attack victims and Muscular Dystrophy and 06
vacancies for Hard of Hearing, 01 vacancy for Low Vision and 01 vacancy for SLD and MD).
The number of vacancies is liable to alteration.

Reservations will be made for candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled
Tribes, Other Backward Classes, Economically Weaker Section and Persons with
Benchmark Disability category in respect of vacancies as may be fixed by the Government
of India.

PARTICIPATING SERVICES

CATEGORY – I: CIVIL ENGINEERING
Group-A Services/Posts
i. Central Engineering Service
ii. Central Engineering Service (Roads), Group-A (Civil Engineering Posts)
iii. Survey of India Group ‘A’ Service
iv. *AEE (Civil) in Border Roads Engineering Service
v. AEE (QS&C) in MES Surveyor Cadre
vi. Central Water Engineering (Group ‘A’) Service
vii. Indian Skill Development Service
viii. Indian Railway Management Service (Civil)
ix. Indian Railway Management Service (Stores) – Civil Engg. Posts
x. Indian Defence Service of Engineers

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Group-A/B Services/Posts
i. AEE in GSI Engineering Service Gr ‘A’
ii. Indian Naval Material Management Service (Mechanical Engineering Posts)
iii. Defence Aeronautical Quality Assurance Service/SSO-II (Mechanical)
iv. *AEE (Electrical and Mechanical) in Border Roads Engineering Service (Mechanical

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Engineering Posts)

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Management Service (Mechanical)
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viii. Indiang
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ix. Indian Naval Armament Service (Mechanical Engineering Posts)
x. Central Water Engineering (Group ‘A’) Service
xi. Central Electrical and Mechanical Engineering Service (Mechanical Engg.)
xii. Central Power Engineering Service Gr ‘A’ (Mechanical Engineering Posts).

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CATEGORY-III: ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

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Group-A/B Services/Posts

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(i) Central Electrical & Mechanical Engineering Service (Electrical Engineering Posts)
(ii) a Service (Electrical Engineering Posts)
Indian Naval Material Management
(iii) Central Power Engineering Service Gr ‘A’ (Electrical Engineering Posts)
(iv) Defence Aeronautical Quality Assurance Service/SSO-II (Electrical).
(v) Indian Skill Development Service
(vi) Indian Railway Management Service (Electrical)
Indian Railway Management Service (Stores) – Electrical Engg. Posts.
(vii)
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(ix)
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Group-A/B Services/Posts
(i) Indian Radio Regulatory Service Gr ‘A’
(ii) Indian Telecommunications Service Gr ‘A’
(iii) Indian Naval Material Management Service (Electronics and Telecom Engineering
Posts)
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(iv) Indian Naval Armament Service (Electronics and Telecom Engineering Posts).
(v) Indian Skill Development Service
(vi) Junior Telecom Officer Gr ‘B’
(vii) Indian Railway Management Service (Signal & Telecommunication)
(viii) Indian Railway Management Service (Stores) – S & T Engg. Posts
(ix) Central Power Engineering Service Gr ‘A’ (Electronics & Telecommunication
Engineering Posts)
*The eligibility of transgender for AEE (Civil) and AEE {(Electrical and
Mechanical) (Mechanical Engg. Posts)} in Border Road Engineering Service shall
be as per the decision taken by the Government in due course.

NOTE: - Recruitment to the Services/Posts mentioned above will be made on the basis
of the Scheme(s) of examination prescribed in Appendix-I to the Notice.

N.B. (i) —Departmental candidates are the candidates admitted to the examination under
age relaxation vide rule 5(b). Such candidates may give their preferences for the
Services/Posts in other Ministries/Departments also.

N.B. (ii) — Candidates admitted to the examination under the proviso to para 3(III) will be
considered only for the posts mentioned in the said proviso and their preference for other
Services and Posts, if any, will be ignored.

N.B. (iii)—The candidates will be allotted to various Services/Posts strictly in accordance
with their merit position, preferences exercised by them and number of vacancies, subject
to their medical fitness.

2(A) A candidate may apply for admission to the examination in respect of any one of the
categories of the Services/Posts mentioned in para 2 above viz. Civil Engineering or
Mechanical Engineering or Electrical Engineering or Electronics & Telecommunication
Engineering.

2(B): CENTRES OF ENGINEERING SERVICES EXAMINATION:

(i) CENTRES OF ENGINEERING SERVICES (PRELIMINARY) EXAMINATION:

1. AGARTALA 18. HYDERABAD 35 PORT BLAIR
2. AHMEDABAD 19. IMPHAL 36. RAIPUR
3. AIZAWL 20. AGRA 37. RANCHI
4. ALIGARH 21. ITANAGAR 38. SAMBALPUR
5. PRAYAGRAJ (ALLAHABAD) 22. JAIPUR 39. SHILLONG
6. BANGALORE 23. JAMMU 40. GORAKHPUR
7. BAREILLY 24. JORHAT 41. SHIMLA
8. BHOPAL 25. KOCHI (COCHIN) 42. SRINAGAR
9. CHANDIGARH 26. KOHIMA 43. THIRUVANANTHAPURAM
10. GURUGRAM 27. KOLKATA 44. TIRUPATI
11. CHENNAI 28. LUCKNOW 45. UDAIPUR
12. CUTTACK 29. MADURAI 46. VISAKHAPATNAM
13. DEHRADUN 30. GAYA 47. GHAZIABAD
14. DELHI 31. MUMBAI 48. VARANASI
15. DHARWAD 32. NAGPUR
16. DISPUR 33. PANAJI (GOA)
(GUWAHATI)
17. GANGTOK 34. PATNA
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(ii) CENTRES FOR ENGINEERING SERVICES (MAIN) EXAMINATION:-
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1. AHMEDABAD 9. DEHRADUN 17. MUMBAI
2. AIZAWL 10. DELHI 18. PATNA
3. PRAYAGRAJ 11. DISPUR (GUWAHATI) 19. RAIPUR
(ALLAHABAD)
4. BANGALORE 12. HYDERABAD 20. RANCHI
5. BHOPAL 13. JAIPUR 21. SHILLONG
6. CHANDIGARH 14. JAMMU 22.S SHIMLA
7. CHENNAI 15. KOLKATA 23. THIRUVANANTHAPURAM
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8. CUTTACK 16. LUCKNOW 24. VISAKHAPATNAM

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THE CENTRES AND THE DATE OF HOLDING THE EXAMINATION AS
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MENTIONED ABOVE ARE LIABLE TO BE CHANGED AT THE DISCRETION OF THE
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COMMISSION.
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Applicants should note that there will be a ceiling on the number of candidates allotted
to each of the centres except Chennai, Dispur, Kolkata and Nagpur. Allotment of Centres will
be on the first-apply-first-allot basis and once the capacity of a particular centre is attained,
the same will be frozen. Applicants, who cannot get a centre of their choice due to ceiling, will
be required to choose a centre from the remaining ones. Applicants are, thus, advised that
they may apply early so that they could get a Centre of their choice. If any candidate appears
at a venue other than the one indicated by the Commission in his/her e-Admit Card, such
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candidate will not be allowed to take the examination.

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N.B.: Notwithstanding the aforesaid provision, the Commission reserves the right to change

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the Centres at their discretion if the situation so demands. Candidates admitted to the

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Examination will be informed of the time table and place or places of Examination. Candidates
should note that no request for change of centre will be granted. All the Examination Centres
for the Examination will cater to the examination for Persons with Benchmark Disabilities also.

Candidates admitted to the examination will be informed of the time table and place or
places of examination. The candidates should note that no request for change of Examination
centre will be entertained.

3. ELIGIBILITY CONDITIONS
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(I)
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A .candidate must be either:
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(c) a subject of Bhutan, or

(d) a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before the 1st January, 1962 with the intention of
permanently settling in India, or

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(e) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka or East
African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire
and Ethiopia or from Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India.

Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (b), (c), (d) and (e) above shall be a
person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India
and that a candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary, may be admitted to
the examination but the offer of appointment shall be given only after the necessary eligibility
certificate has been issued to him/her by the Government of India.

(II) Age Limits:

(a) A candidate for this examination must have attained the age of 21 years and must not
have attained the age of 30 years on the 1st January, 2027 i.e., he/she must have been born
not earlier than 2nd January, 1997 and not later than 1st January, 2006

(b) The upper age-limit of 30 years will be relaxable upto 35 years in the case of
Government servants of the following categories, if they are employed in a Department/ Office
under the control of any of the authorities mentioned in column 1 below and apply for
admission to the examination for all or any of the Service(s)/Post(s) mentioned in column 2,
for which they are otherwise eligible:-

(i) A candidate who holds substantively a permanent post in the particular
Department/Office concerned. This relaxation will not be admissible to a probationer
appointed against a permanent post in the Department/Office during the period of his
probation. However, this relaxation will be admissible to a probationer so appointed provided
he/she already retains a lien on a permanent post in a Department/Office under the control of
any of the authorities mentioned in column 1 below.
.
(ii) A candidate who has been continuously in a temporary service on a regular basis in
the particular Department/Office for at least 3 years on the 1st January, 2027.

Column 1 Column 2
Central Public Works C.E.S. Group ‘A’, CE&MES Gr ‘A’
Department
Ministry of Road Transport and Central Engineering Service (Roads) Gr. ‘A’
Highways
Ministry of Communications, Indian Radio Regulatory Service
Deptt. of Telecommunications Group ‘A’. Indian Telecommunications
Service Group ‘A’,
J.T.O. (G.C.S. Gr. ‘B’)
Ministry of Defence, Deptt. of Defence Aeronautical Quality Assurance
Defence Production, Directorate Service(DAQAS) Gr ‘A’
General of Aeronautical
Quality
Assurance
Ministry of Science and Survey of India Gr ‘A’ Service
Technology, Deptt. of
Science and Technology
Border Roads Organisation BRES Gr. ‘A’

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Indian Naval Armament Service, Indian Navalm
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Material Management

Military Engineer Services
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Indian Defence Service of Engineers (lDSE)
Group ‘A’ AEE(QS&C) in Military Engineer
Service (MES) Surveyor Cadre
Ministry of Jal Shakti, Central Water Engineering, Group-‘A’ Service.
Department of Water
Resources, River Development
& Ganga Rejuvenation, Central
Water Commission
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Central Electricity Authority CPES Gr ‘A’
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Ministry of Skill Development & Indian Skill Development Service
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Geological Survey of India Assistant Executive Engineer Gr ‘A’ a
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Ministry of Railways (Railway IRMS (Civil)
Board) IRMS (Mechanical)
IRMS (Electrical)
IRMS (Signal & Telecommunication)
IRMS(Stores)

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(c) The upper age-limit prescribed above will be further relaxable:

(i)
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Up to maximum of five years if a candidate belongs to Scheduled Caste or Scheduled
Tribe.
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(ii)
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Up to maximum of three years in the case of candidates belonging to Other Backward
Classes who are eligible to avail of reservation applicable to such candidates.

(iii) Up to maximum of three years, in the case of Defence Services personnel, disabled in
operations during hostilities with any foreign country or in a disturbed area, and released as a
consequence thereof.

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(iv) Up to maximum of five years in the case of Ex-servicemen including Commissioned

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Officers and Emergency Commissioned Officers (ECOs) / Short Service Commissioned
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Officers (SSCOs), who have rendered at least five years Military Service as on 1st January,
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2027 and have been released (i) on completion of assignment (including those whose
assignment is due) to be completed within one year from 1st January, 2027 otherwise than by
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way of dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency, or (ii) on account of

ag physical disability attributable to Military Service, or (iii) on invalidment.

(v) Up to maximum of five years in the case of ECOs/ SSCOs who have completed an initial
period of assignment of five years of Military Service as on 1st January, 2027and whose
assignment has been extended beyond five years and in whose case the Ministry of Defence
issues a certificate that they can apply for civil employment and they will be released on three
months’ notice on selection from the date of receipt of offer of appointment.

(vi) Up to a maximum of 10 years in the case of candidates belonging to Person with
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Benchmark Disability viz. Low vision, Deaf and Hard of Hearing, Locomotor Disability including
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Leprosy cured, Dwarfism, Acid Attack victims, Muscular Dystrophy, Specific Learning Disability
and Mental Illness.

NOTE - I : Candidates belonging to either the Scheduled Castes or the Scheduled Tribes, or
Other Backward Classes who are also covered under any other clauses of Para 3(II)(c) above,
viz. those coming under the category of Ex-servicemen or PwBD will be eligible for grant of
cumulative relaxation under both the categories.

NOTE - II : The term ex-servicemen will apply to the persons who are defined as Ex-
servicemen in the Ex-servicemen (Re-employment in Civil Services and Posts) Rules, 1979,
as amended from time to time.

NOTE III : The age concession under Para 3(II)(c) (iv) and (v) will be admissible to Ex-
Servicemen i.e. a person who has served in any rank whether as combatant or non-combatant
in the Regular Army, Navy and Air Force of the Indian Union and who either has been retired
or relieved or discharged from such service whether at his own request or being relieved by
the employer after earning his or her pension.

NOTE IV : The details of Functional Classification (FC) and Physical Requirements (PR) of
each service are indicated in Annexure-I of these Rules which are identified and prescribed by
the respective Cadre Controlling Authorities (CCAs) as per the provisions of Section 33 and 34
of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016. Only those category (ies) of disability (ies)
mentioned in Annexure-I shall apply for the examination under Persons with Benchmark
Disability (PwBD) Category. Therefore, the candidates belonging to the Persons with
Benchmark Disability categories are advised to read it carefully before applying for the
examination.

NOTE V : Notwithstanding the provision of age relaxation under Para 3(II)(c) (vi) above, a
candidate with Benchmark Disability will be considered to be eligible for appointment only if
he/she (after such physical examination as the Government or appointing authority, as the
case may be, may prescribe) is found to satisfy the requirements of physical and medical
standards for the concerned Service/ Posts to be allocated to the Persons with Benchmark
Disability candidate by the Government.

NOTE VI : A candidate will be eligible to get the benefit of community reservation only in
case the particular caste to which the candidates belong to is included in the list of reserved
communities issued by the Central Government. The candidates will be eligible to get the
benefit of the Economically Weaker Section (EWS) reservation only in case the candidate
meets the criteria issued by the Central Government and in possession of such eligibility
certification. If a candidate indicates in his/her application form for Engineering Services
Examination, 2027, that he/she belongs to General category but subsequently writes to the
Commission to change his/her category to a reserved one, such request shall not be
entertained by the Commission. Further, once a candidate has chosen a reserved category,
no request shall be entertained for change to other reserved category viz. SC to ST, ST to SC,
OBC to SC/ST or SC/ST to OBC, SC to EWS, EWS to SC, ST to EWS, EWS to ST, OBC to
EWS, EWS to OBC. No reserved category candidates other than those who qualified each
stage of the Examination on General standard, shall be allowed to change (on their
request or as decided by the Commission/Government based on the documents
submitted by them) their category from Reserved to Unreserved or claim the vacancies
(Services/Cadre) for UR category after the declaration of final result by UPSC. In cases
where such candidates do not qualify on General Standard, their candidature shall
be cancelled.

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m Further no Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) candidate c
. of any sub - category

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shall be allowed to change his/her sub-category of disability.

Candidates seeking reservation/relaxationa
g benefits available for
SC/ST/OBC/EWS/PwBD/Ex-Servicemen must ensure that they are entitled to such
reservation/relaxation as per eligibility prescribed in the Rules/Notice. They should be
in possession of all the requisite certificates in the prescribed format in support of their
claim as stipulated in the Rules/Notice for such benefits by the closing date of the
application. (Prescribed Format of Disability Certificate should be submitted by Persons
with Benchmark Disability candidates as per Form V to Form VII (as applicable) of

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Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment Notification dated 15 th June, 2017 as at

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Annexure-III).
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A candidate of .Engineering Services Examination, 2027 will be eligible to get theem
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benefit of the Economically
meets the criteria issued by the Central Government and is in possession of requisite ag
Weaker Section reservation only in case the candidate

a g Certificate based on the income for Financial Year (FY) 2025-2026 and
Income & Asset
issued on/after 0 1 . 0 4 . 2 0 2 6 (after the completion of FY 2025-26) but not later than the
closing date of the application for Engineering Services (Preliminary) Examination,
2027 i.e. 06.10.2026

The OBC candidates applying for Engineering Services Examination, 2027 must
produce OBC (Non-Creamy Layer) certificate based on the Income for the Financial Year
(FY) 2025-2026, 2024-2025 and 2023-2024 and issued on/after 0 1 . 0 4 . 2 0 2 6 (after the

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completion of FY 2025-26) but not later than the closing date of the application for

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Engineering Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2027 i.e. 06.10.2026.

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While the above principle will be followed in general, there may be a few cases where
there was a gap not more than 3 months between the issuance of a Government Notifications
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enlisting a particular community in the list of any of the reserved communities and the date of
submission of the application by the candidate. In such cases the request of change of
community from General to Reserved may be considered by the Commission on merit. In case
of a candidate unfortunately becoming Person with Benchmark Disability during the course of
examination, the candidate should produce valid documents showing him/her acquiring a
disability to the extent of 40% or more (only under Low vision, Deaf and Hard of Hearing
Locomotor Disability including Leprosy cured, Dwarfism, Acid Attack Victims, Muscular
Dystrophy, Specific Learning Disability and Mental Illness) as defined under the RPwD Act,
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2016 to enable him/her to get the benefits of reservation earmarked for PwBD provided he/she
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otherwise remains eligible for the Engineering Services Examination, 2027 as per Para 11 and
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facilitating the Commission to take a decision in the matter on merit.m
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emN.B.- The candidature of a person who is admitted to the examination
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ag application, he/she resigns from service or his/her services are terminated by his/her
concession mentioned in Para 3(II)(b) above shall be cancelled if, after submitting his/her

department/office either before or after taking the examination. He/she will, however, continue
to be eligible if he/she is retrenched from the service or post after submitting his/her application.
A candidate who after submitting his/her application to the department is transferred to other
department/office will be eligible to compete under departmental age concession.

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SAVE AS PROVIDED ABOVE THE AGE LIMITS PRESCRIBED CAN IN NO CASE BE
RELAXED.

The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation or
Secondary School Leaving Certificate or in a certificate recognised by an Indian University
as equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of matriculates maintained by a
University, and that extract must be certified by the proper authority of the University or in the
Higher Secondary or an equivalent examination certificate. These certificates are required to
be submitted along with the Common Application Form which will be required to be submitted
by the candidates who qualify on the basis of the result of the written part of the examination.
No other document relating to age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal
Corporation, service records and the like will be accepted. The expression
Matriculation/Secondary Examination Certificate in this part of the instruction includes the
alternative certificates mentioned above.

NOTE 1: Candidates should note that only the date of birth as recorded in the
Matriculation/Secondary Examination Certificate or an equivalent certificate on the date of
submission of application will be accepted by the Commission and no subsequent request for
its change will be considered or granted.

NOTE 2: Candidate should also note that once date of birth has been submitted by them
in the application form and entered in the records of the Commission for the purpose of
admission to an examination, no change will be allowed subsequently or at any other
examination of the Commission on any ground whatsoever.

NOTE 3:- Candidates should exercise due care while entering their date of birth in the
respective column of the application form. If on verification at any subsequent stage, any
variation is found in their date of birth from the one entered in their Matriculation or equivalent
Examination Certificate, disciplinary action will be taken against them by the Commission under
the rules.

All communication in this regard should contain the following particulars:-
1. Name and year of the examination
2. Universal Registration Number (URN)
3. Application Number
4. Roll Number (if received)
5. Name of Candidate (in full and in block letters)
6. Complete Postal Address as given in the application
7. Valid and active registered eMail ID/registered Mobile Number

NOTE 4:-The candidates should also note that no addition / deletion / changes are allowed in the
Online Application Form in the Engineering Services Examination, 2027 in any circumstances
once it is submitted. However, the Commission provides a one-time facility for candidates to
update or modify their Universal Registration Number (URN) Profile. Please note that any changes
made to the URN Profile will not be reflected in applications already submitted. The updated
information will apply only to applications submitted after the candidate has made the necessary
changes and successfully re-locked the URN Profile.

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. c (III) Minimum Educational Qualification:
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For admission to the examination, a candidate must have
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(a) obtained a degree in Engineering from a University incorporated by an Act of the
Central or State Legislature in India or other Educational Institutions established by an Act of
Parliament or declared to be deemed as Universities under Section 3 of the University Grants
Commission Act, 1956; or

(b) passed Sections A and B of the Institution Examinations of the Institution of Engineers
(India); or
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(c) obtained a
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degree/diploma in Engineering from such foreign
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University/College/Institution and under such conditions as may be recognised by the
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Government for the purpose from time to time, or

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(d) passed Graduate a and
Membership Examination of the Institution of Electronics
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Telecommunication (India); or

(e) passed Associate Membership Examination Parts II and III/Sections A and B of the
Aeronautical Society of India; or

(f) passed Graduate Membership Examination of the Institution of Electronics and Radio
Engineers, London held after November, 1959

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Provided that a candidate for the post of Indian Naval Armament Service

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(Electronics Engineering Posts) and Indian Radio Regulatory Service Group ‘A’ may possess

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any of the above qualifications or the qualification mentioned below namely:-

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a (Electronics Engg. Posts) – M.Sc. degree or
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For Indian Naval Armament Service
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its equivalent with Wireless Communication Electronics, Radio Physics or Radio Engineering
as a special subject.

For Indian Radio Regulatory Service Group ‘A’– M.Sc. degree or its equivalent
with Wireless Communication Electronics, Radio Physics or Radio Engineering as a subject
or Master’s Degree in Science with Physics and Radio Communication or Electronics or
Telecommunication as a special subject.

NOTE - 1: In light of the judgement of Hon’ble High Court of Delhi dated 13.01.2023
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in connection with the WP (C) 3239/2013 as communicated vide Ministry of Education’s
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letter No. 20-2/2019-TC (Part) dated 6th June, 2023, the degrees/certificates of the

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candidates obtained from the Institution of Electronics and Telecommunication
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s e Engineers (India) and the Aeronautical Society of India, by taking admission post
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g la 31.05.2013, will not be admissible for the Engineering Services Examination, 2027. a
a Further, the eligibility of the candidates who have obtained degree/certificate from the
Institution of Engineers (India), by taking admission post 31.05.2013, will be subject to
the decision of the Government in pursuance of the judgement of the Hon’ble High
Court of Delhi in the W.P. No. 3790/2013.

NOTE - 2 A candidate who has appeared at an examination the passing of which would
render him educationally qualified for this examination, but has not been informed of the
result, may apply for admission to the examination. A candidate who intends to appear, at
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such a qualifying examination may also apply. Such candidates will be admitted to the
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examination, if otherwise eligible, but their admission would be deemed to be provisional and
subject to cancellation. However, all such candidates, who are declared qualified by the
Commission for Personality Test/Interview, will be required to produce proof of passing of the
requisite qualifying examination within the time limit which is as under:-

The Commission shall provide a window of 10 days after the date of declaration of
result of Main/Stage-II part of Engineering Services Examination to the candidates qualified
for Personality Test/Interview and filled in their status of educational qualification. The
candidates, who do not have the prescribed Educational qualification at the time of the Online
Application, shall be required to update their details and to upload the proof of passing of the
requisite qualifying examination on the Common Application Form Module, failing which such
candidates will not be allowed to appear in the Personality Test/Interview and his/her
candidature will be liable to be cancelled.

NOTE: In this period, all the candidates qualified for Personality Test/Interview shall also
be provided an option to update Correspondence/Post Address, Higher Qualification,
Achievement in different field, Employment Details/Service Experience, Service Allocation,
Service Preferences. The details updated in this window will be treated as final and no request
for any change in these fields received through any other mode will be entertained.
NOTE- 3 : In exceptional cases, the Commission may treat a candidate, who does not
have any of the qualifications prescribed in this rule, as educationally qualified provided that
he/she has passed examinations conducted by other institutions the standard of which in the
opinion of the Commission justifies his/her admission to the examination.

NOTE- 4 A candidate who is otherwise qualified but who has taken a degree from a foreign
University which is not recognised by Government, may also apply to the Commission and
may be admitted to the examination at the discretion of the Commission.

NOTE-5: Candidates who have uploaded the required documents/information earlier and
have no information to update/fill in, are also required to login and finally submit after verifying
the details so as to generate the e-Summon letter for the Personality Test/Interview.

NOTE-6: The candidates are advised to regularly visit the Commission’s website with regard
to further updates.

(IV) Medical Examination:

Candidates finally recommended by the Commission on the basis of Engineering
Services Examination, 2027 shall be required to undergo medical examination.

Every candidate, on being finally recommended by Commission will be required to
undergo medical examination as and when so decided by the Department of
Telecommunications, Ministry of Communications, and in such manner as they deem
appropriate irrespective of the fact that he/she has appeared for such medical examination
in the past and found fit/unfit on the basis of earlier examination. The findings of the Medical
Board will be taken as final and binding for all allotment purposes.

(V) Physical Standards

Candidates must be physically fit according to physical standards for admission to
Engineering Services Examination, 2027 as per guidelines given in Appendix-II of the
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m . c UPSC ESE 2027 Syllabus

c. o (Extraordinary) e
Rules for the Engineering Services Examination, 2027 published
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min the Gazette of India
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dated 16.09.2026

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4. FEE:

Candidates (except Female/SC/ST/PwBD who are exempted from payment of fee) are
required to pay fee of Rs. 200/- ( Rupees Two Hundred only) either by using net
banking facility of any bank or by using Visa/Master/RuPay Credit/Debit Card/UPI
Payment for appearing in the Engineering Services Examination, 2027.

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NOTE -1: Candidates should note that payment of examination fee can be made only through
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the modes prescribed above. Payment of fee through any other mode is neither valid nor
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acceptable. Applications submitted without the prescribed fee/mode (unless remission of
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fee is claimed) shall be summarily rejected.
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NOTE -2: Feelonce paid shall not be refunded under any circumstances nor can theafee be
ag for any other examination or selection.
held in reserve

All female candidates and candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes/Scheduled
Tribes/ PwBD categories are exempted from payment of fee. No fee exemption is, however,
available to OBC/EWS candidates and they are required to pay the prescribed fee in full.

Persons with Benchmark Disability(PwBD) are exempted from the payment of fee
provided they are otherwise eligible for appointment to the Services/Posts to be filled on the
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results of this examination on the basis of the standards of medical fitness for these
Services/Posts (including any concessions specifically extended to the PwBD). A PwBD

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candidate claiming age relaxation/fee concession will be required by the Commission to

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submit along with their Common Application Form, a certified copy of the certificate from a
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Government hospital/Medical Board in support of his/her claim for being PwBD.
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NOTE-I: Notwithstanding the aforesaid provision for age relaxation/fee exemption, a PwBD
candidate will be considered to be eligible for appointment only if he/she (after such physical
examination as the Government or the appointing authority, as the case may be, may
prescribe) is found to satisfy the requirements of physical and medical standards for the
concerned Services/Posts to be allocated to PwBD candidates by the Government.

NOTE-II: Applications without the prescribed fee (unless remission of fee is claimed) shall
be summarily rejected.
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5..HOW TO APPLY:
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s e g l a
g la https:Candidates a through
are required to apply Online by using the Comm ission ’s web site
a // upsconline.nic.in. Candidates are advised to go the General
instructions, Profile/Module-wise instructions and instructions for uploading of documents
before proceeding to fill up the form. These instructions are available on the menu bar of the
Home page
A candidate who is willing to apply for Engineering Services Examination shall be
required to apply online and submit the requisite information and supporting documents
towards various claims, such as date of birth, category [viz. SC/ST/OBC/ EWS/PwBD/Ex-
Servicemen], educational qualification etc. as may be sought by the Commission along with

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the Universal Registration Number (URN), Common Application Form (CAF) and the fourth
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module i.e. Examination Specific Module (including fees and centre etc). . The failure to
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provide the required information/documents alongwith the Common Application Form (CAF)
will entail cancellation of candidature for the examination.

NOTE-1: ONE-TIME EDIT FACILITY FOR URN PROFILE:

The Commission provides a one-time facility for candidates to update or modify their
Universal Registration Number (URN) profile. Please note that any changes made to the
URN Profile will not be reflected in applications already submitted. The updated information
will apply only to applications submitted after the candidate has made the necessary changes
and successfully re-locked the URN Profile.

NOTE-2: LIVE PHOTO CAPTURE FOR FILLING UP OF COMMON APPLICATION FORM
(CAF):

Applicants are required to upload their photograph and also capture their live
photograph while filling up the Common Application Form (CAF). Applicants must ensure that
the uploaded photograph and the live photograph captured are clear as per instructions given
on “Instructions and FAQs > Instruction for filling the form > Photos and Signature” available
on the Commission’s website https://upsconline.nic.in.

NOTE-3: UPLOADING OF SIGNATURE:

Applicants are required to sign three times (one below the other) on a plain white
paper using black ink and upload the same while filling up the Common Application Form
(CAF). The uploaded signatures should be clear and legible. The candidates are advised to
refer to the instruction for uploading the signature available under the header “Instructions
and FAQs” on the Commission’s website: https://upsconline.nic.in .

NOTE-4:- UPLOADING OF PHOTOGRAPH:

Please follow the Instruction in respect of uploading of Photograph as elaborated in
the Instructions to upload documents in the home page of the online application portal.

NOTE-5: WITHDRAWAL OF APPLICATION:

The candidates will not be allowed to withdraw their applications after the submission
of the same. Further, no correction /alteration/modification in any field(s) of the Application
Form is allowed after submission.

NOTE-6: No queries, representations etc. shall be entertained by the Commission in respect
of correcting details that are required to be filled up by the candidates by exercising due
diligence and caution as the timely completion of examination process is of paramount
importance.

NOTE-7 : Candidate should also have details of one Photo ID viz. Aadhaar Card/ Voter Card
(EPIC)/ PAN Card/ Passport/ Driving License/Any other Photo ID Card issued by the
State/Central Government. The details of this photo ID will have to be provided by the
candidate while filling up Universal Registration Number (URN) Profile. This Photo ID will be
used for all future references and the candidate is advised to carry this ID while appearing
for examination.

NOTE-8: All candidates, whether already in Government Service, or in Government owned
industrial undertakings or other similar organisations or in private employment, should apply
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m direct to the Commission. Persons, already in Governmentmservice c
. whether in a

c. oonline e than casual or daily
permanent or temporary capacity or as work-charged employeessother
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se rated employees or those serving under public enterprises are,lhowever, required to inform
their Head of Office/Department that they have applied foragthe Examination. Candidates
should note that in case communication is received from their employer by the Commission
withholding permission to the candidates applying for/appearing at the Examination, their
application will be liable to be rejected/ candidature will be liable to be cancelled.

NOTE 9: While filling in his/her Examination Specific Form, the candidate should
carefully decide about his/her choice for the Centre and Engineering Discipline for the
examination.
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If any candidate appears at a Centre/Engineering Discipline other than the
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one indicated by the Commission in his/her e- Admit Card, the papers of such candidate
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will not be valued and his/her candidature will be liable to cancellation.

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l andprovisions for information regarding use of scribes by thea low
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NOTE 10 : Suitable
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vision candidates candidate with locomotor disability where dominant (writing)
extremity is affected to the extent of slowing the performance of function (minimum of
40% impairment) have been made in the online application.

NOTE 11: Incomplete or defective applications shall be summarily rejected. No
representation or correspondence regarding such rejection shall be entertained under
any circumstances.

NOTE-12:
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Candidates are not required to submit hard copy/printout of their

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application to the Commission. The candidates applying for the Examination should
ensure that they fulfil all the eligibility conditions for admission to the Examination. Their
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admission at all the stages of examination for which they are admitted by the Commission

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viz. Written Examination and Personality Test/Interview will be purely provisional, subject to
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their satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. If on verification at any time before or after
the written examination or Personality Test/Interview, it is found that they do not fulfil any
of the eligibility conditions, their candidature of the Examination will be cancelled by the
Commission.

6. Candidates are requested to keep ready the scanned copies of the following
documents for submission to the Commission in Universal Registration Number (URN) and
Common Application Form (CAF):
(a) Certificate of Age.
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(b) Certificate of Educational Qualification.

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(c) Certificate in support of claim to belong to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Other
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Backward Classes, Economically Weaker Section(EWS) wherever applicable.

s (d) Certificate in support of claim for age/ fee concession, wherever applicable.
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(e) Certificate in support of being Persons with Benchmark Disability (wherever applicable)
a 7. Originals will have to be produced at the time of Personality Test/Interview. The
Personality Test/Interview letter to the candidates may also be issued electronically.

8. If any of their claims is found to be incorrect, they may render themselves liable to
disciplinary action by the Commission in terms of Rule 11 of the Rules for Engineering
Services Examination, 2027 notified in the Gazette of India (Extraordinary) dated 16th
September, 2026 and which is also reproduced below:

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(1) A Candidate who is or has been declared by the Commission to be guilty of:—

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(a) Obtaining support for candidature by the following means, namely:-
(i) offering illegal gratification to; or
(ii) applying pressure on; or
(iii) blackmailing, or threatening to blackmail any person connected with the
conduct of the examination; or
(b) impersonation; or
(c) procuring impersonation by any person; or
(d) submitting fabricated/incorrect documents or documents which have been
tampered with; or
(e) uploading irrelevant or incorrect photo/signature in the application form in place of
actual photo/signature; or
(f) making statements which are incorrect or false or suppressing material information;
or
(g) resorting to the following means in connection with the candidature for the
examination, namely :-
(i) obtaining copy of question paper through improper means; or
(ii) finding out the particulars of the persons connected with secret work relating
to the examination; or
(iii) influencing the examiners; or
(h) being in possession of or using unfair means during the examination; or
(i) writing obscene matter or drawing obscene sketches or irrelevant matter in the
scripts; or
(j) misbehaving in the examination hall including tearing of the scripts, provoking fellow
examinees to boycott examination, creating a disorderly scene and the like; or
(k) harassing, threatening or doing bodily harm to the staff employed by the
Commission for the conduct of the examination; or

(l) being in possession of or using any mobile phone (even in switched-off mode),
pager or any electronic equipment or programmable device or storage media like
pen drive, smart watches etc. or camera or Bluetooth devices or any other
equipment or related accessories (either in working or switched-off mode) capable
of being used as a communication device during the examination; or

(m)violating any of the instructions issued to candidates along with their e-Admit Card
permitting them to take the examination; or

(n) attempting to commit or, as the case may be, abetting the commission of all or any
of the acts specified in the foregoing clauses;

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. legal action as

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in addition to being liable to criminal prosecution / appropriate
m deemed fit under the Public Examinations (Prevention a ofsUnfair Means) Act, 2024
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as amended from time to time, the candidatea shall be disqualified by the
Commission from the Examination held under these Rules; and/or shall be liable to
be debarred either permanently or for a specified period :-
(i) by the Commission, from any examination or selection held by them;
(ii) by the Central Government from any employment under them;

m
and shall be liable to face disciplinary action under the appropriate rules if

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already in service under Government;
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Provided that no penalty under this rule shall be imposed except after:-
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s e the candidate an opportunity of making such representation in writing
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a
giving

g l the candidate may wish to make in that behalf; and a
a as
(iii) taking the representation, if any, submitted by the candidate within the period
allowed for this purpose, into consideration.

(2) Any person who is found by the Commission to be guilty of colluding with a
candidate(s) in committing or abetting the Commission of any of the misdeeds listed at the
clauses (a) to (m) above will be liable to action in terms of the clause (n) above.
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NOTE: If a candidate is found to be in possession of banned items or using unfair means,
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he/she may not be allowed to continue in the said exam as soon as the incident comes to
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notice of the Examination functionaries and the action against the candidate may be taken
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in consultation with the Commission. Further, the candidate may also not be allowed in any
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of the subsequent papers of the said examination.

9. LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATIONS:

The online Applications can be filled up to 06th October, 2026 till 06:00 P.M. after
which the link will be disabled. Detailed instructions regarding filling of online application is
available at Appendix-IIA.

m
10. CORRESPONDENCE WITH THE COMMISSION:

m The Commission will not enter into any correspondence with the m . c o
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. candidature except in the following cases: e
candidates about

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their
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as The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card g
l the preceding week of the date of examination before the a
(i) on the last working day
ag ofexamination. commencement of the
Further those candidates, who have opted for change of Scribe seven (07)
days prior to the date of the examination, shall be issued e-Admit Card three (03) days prior
to the date of examination. The e-Admit Card will be made available on the Commission’s
website [https://upsconline.nic.in] for downloading by the candidates. No Admit Card will be
sent by post.
(ii) If a candidate does not receive his/her e-Admit Card or any other communication
regarding his/her candidature for the examination one week before the commencement of
the examination, he/she should at once contact the Commission. Information in this regard
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can also be obtained from the Facilitation Counter located in the Commission’s Office either

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in person or over phone Nos. 011-24041001 / 011-40303444. In case no
communication is received in the Commission’s Office from the candidate
regarding non-receipt of his/her e-Admit Card at least one week before the
examination, he/she himself/herself will be solely responsible for non-receipt of
his/her e-Admit Card.

No candidate will ordinarily be allowed to take the examination unless he/she holds
e-Admit Card for the examination. On receipt of e-Admit Card, check it carefully and bring
discrepancies/error, if any, to the notice of the Commission immediately.

The candidates should note that their admission to the examination will be purely
provisional based on the information given by them in the Application Form. This will be
subject to verification of all the eligibility conditions by the Commission.

(iii) The mere fact that an e-Admit Card of the Examination has been issued to
a candidate will not imply that his/her candidature has been finally cleared by the
Commission, or that the entries made by the candidate in his/her Universal Registration
Number (URN), Common Application Form (CAF) and Exam Specific Module for the
Engineering Services Examination have been accepted by the Commission as true and
correct. Candidates may note that the Commission takes up the verification of eligibility
conditions of a candidate, with reference to original documents, only after the candidate has
qualified for Personality Test/Interview on the basis of the result of the written part of the
examination. Unless the candidature is formally confirmed by the Commission, it continues
to be provisional.

The decision of the Commission as to the acceptance of the application of a
candidate and his/her eligibility or otherwise for admission to the Examination shall be final.
Candidates should note that the name in the e-Admit Card, in some cases may be
abbreviated due to technical reasons.

(iv) If a candidate receives an e- Admit Card in respect of some other candidate on
account of processing error, the same should be brought to the notice of the Commission
immediately with a request to issue the correct e- Admit Card. Candidates may note that
they will not be allowed to take the examination on the strength of an e- Admit Card issued
in respect of another candidate.

(v) Candidates must ensure that their eMail IDs given in their applications are valid and
active.

IMPORTANT: ALL COMMUNICATIONS TO THE COMMISSION SHOULD INVARIABLY
CONTAIN THE FOLLOWING PARTICULARS:

1. Name and year of the examination
2. Universal Registration Number (URN)
3. Application Number
4. Roll Number (if received)
5. Name of Candidate (in full and in block letters)
6. Complete Postal Address as given in the application
7. Valid and active registered eMail ID/registered Mobile Number

N.B. (i) Communications not containing the above particulars may not be attended to.

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o m
. c
m If a letter/communication is received from a candidate after anmexamination

c. o N.B.(ii) e has been
s be ignored and no action
e m held l a
and it does not give his/her full name and roll number, it will
s will be taken thereon.
ag
11. Details of the categories/sub-categories of disabilities (Functional
Classification and Physical Requirements) identified for the various
Services/posts:-

“For being considered against the vacancies reserved for them, the PwBD persons
should have disability of forty per cent (40%) or more. The functional classification in their
case shall be consistent with the requirements of the concerned services/posts as detailed
m
.co
in Annexure-I. However, such candidates shall be required to meet the physical
m
requirements/abilities as detailed in Annexure-I and to submit Disability Certificate in the
.co
prescribed format as detailed in Annexure-III.
m s e m
s e SETU PORTAL (erstwhile PUBLIC DISCLOSURE SCHEME):- gl a
12.
a
PRATIBHA
g l a
a per the policy notified by the Government for increasing the access of
As
unemployed to job opportunities, the information of candidates who appeared in the final
stage of Examination (Personality Test/Interview) but not recommended, will be made
accessible to any registered Private Company, Public Sector Undertaking, Statutory and
Autonomous Organisations of Government of India on the dedicated Portal on the website of
the Commission to identify suitable candidates in line of their requirements for providing
employment. Short biodata of the candidates with their educational qualifications, contact
m
.co
numbers, details including their percentile (not absolute or percentage marks) etc. will also

m
be made accessible on this dedicated Portal. The data available on this Portal shall be

s e
restricted for the purpose of evaluation of suitability of the candidates for employment purpose

g la
only to these registered organisations. These lists will be made available after the Reserve
a
List is utilized/exhausted after declaration of final result. It may be noted that there is no option
for partial disclosure and choice once opted cannot be changed.

Candidates will be required to give their consent at the time of filling the Exam
Specific Module. A candidate may opt out of the scheme also and in that case his/her details
will not be published by the Commission.

Besides sharing of the information of the non-recommended willing candidates of
m
m
this examination, the Commission will not assume any responsibility or liability for the method
.co
.co e
and manner in which information related to such candidates is utilized by these registered
s
m
s em organizations.
g l a
g la 13. Rounding Off Marks and Tie Breaking Principles a
a
The provisions relating to the rounding off of marks, wherever applicable, and the
principles for resolving cases of tie in scores shall be as prescribed below:

(A) Rounding Off Marks :

Marks obtained by the candidates shall be rounded off up to two decimal digits, at all
m .
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stage(s) of the examination, by applying the standard rounding off principle, wherever

s e
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23
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applicable. Accordingly, while applying the Tie Breaking Principles, the rounded off marks up
to two decimal digits shall be considered for resolving all tie cases.

(B) Tie Breaking Principles :

(i) If the marks in aggregate (Final Marks) are equal, the candidate securing more marks
in the three papers in Engineering discipline (“Stage-I : Paper-II-Civil Engineering/Mechanical
Engineering/ Electrical Engineering/ Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering”) and
“Stage-II : Paper-I & II-Civil Engineering/ Mechanical Engineering/ Electrical Engineering/
Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering”) plus marks of Personality Test/Interview put
together will be ranked higher;

(ii) If the marks at (i) above are equal, the candidates securing more marks in the total of
three Papers in Engineering discipline (“Stage-I – Paper-II : Civil Engineering/ Mechanical
Engineering/ Electrical Engineering/ Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering”) and
“Stage-II – Paper-I & II : Civil Engineering/ Mechanical Engineering/ Electrical Engineering/
Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering” put together) will be ranked higher;

(iii) If the marks at (i) & (ii) above are also equal, the candidate senior in age will be ranked
higher; and

(iv) In cases where a tie persists even after applying the above tie breaking principles, it
will be resolved at the discretion of the Commission.

14. WITHDRAWAL OF APPLICATIONS:

The candidates will not be allowed to withdraw their application after submission of the
same.

(Jitendra Kumar Mandal)
Under Secretary (Exam)
Union Public Service Commission

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. c Annexure-I
e m
m as
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List of Services/Posts identified suitable for Persons with Benchmark Disability Category
along with the Physical Requirements and Functional Classifications*
ag
Sl. Name of Services Functional Physical
No. Classification Requirements
Category- I : Civil Engineering

1. Central Engineering Service OA or OL or Hard As per MOSJ & E
of Hearing instructions
2. Indian Defence Service of PD or OA B,S,ST,W,SE,H&RW
m
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Engineers (Civil Engg.)
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3.
.co
Central Water Engineering OA, OL, Leprosy S,ST,BN,W,SE,MF,C,R,W&
s e m
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Service Gr ‘A’
s
Cured, Acid Attack RW
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l a Victims, Dwarfism,
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HH, SLD,
OA&PD, OL&PD
4. Central Engineering Service OA or OL or B,S,ST,W,SE,H,RW,D,&W
PD/Hard of
(Roads) Gr. A Hearing
5. AEE (Civil) in Border Roads OA B,S,ST,W,SE,H&RW, C,
Organization KC
6. AEE (QS&C) in Military Engineer PD or OA B,S,ST,W,SE,H&RW
Service(MES) Surveyor Cadre
7. Survey of India Group ‘A’ Service PD
m
F,PP,L,KC,B,S,ST,W,SE &

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RW

e
8. Indian Skill Development Service (a) B, LV S, ST, W, BN, RW, SE, H,

las
(b) D, HH C, MF

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(c) OA, BA, OL,
BL,OAL, CP,
LC, Dw, AAV,
MDy
(d) MI
(e) MD involving
(a) to (d) above
9. IRMS (Civil) LD-OA/OL, S, ST, BN, W, SE, MF, C,
Leprosy Cured, RW, KC, CL, JU, H
Acid Attack victims
o m
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m .co Hard of Hearing S, ST, BN,
s
m
e CL, JU, H
W, SE, MF, C,

s e g l a
RW, KC,

la
(Acceptable with Hearing
g a
Aids)
a 10. IRMS (Stores) Civil Engg. LD – OA/OL, S, ST, BN, W, SE, MF, C,
Leprosy Cured, RW, H
Acid Attack
Victims.

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25
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Hard of Hearing S, ST, BN, W, SE, MF, C,
RW, KC, CL, JU, H
(Acceptable with Hearing
Aids)

Category – II : Mechanical Engineering

1. Central Water Engineering Service OA or OL, Leprosy S,ST,BN,W,SE,MF,C,R,W&
Gr ‘A’ Cured, Acid Attack RW
Victims, Dwarfism,
Hard of Hearing,
Specific Learning
Disability,
OA&PD,
OL&PD.
2. Central Power Engg. Service Gr. a) D, HH ST,S,SE,MF,BN,KC,
A (Mech. Engg. Posts) b) OA,OL, CP, H.C,W,L,RW
LC, Dw, AAV
c) SLD, MI
d) MD involving
(a) to (c) above.
3. Indian Naval Armament Service OL S,SE,H&RW
4. Indian Naval Material OL S,SE,H&RW
Management Service
5. AEE in GSI Engineering Service a) Deaf, Hard of S, ST, MF,SE, BN, KC,
Gr ‘A’ Hearing H,C

b)OA,OL,Dw,AAV,
SD/SI without
neurological / Limb
dysfunctions

c) SLD, MI

d) MD involving (b)
to (c) above

6. Indian Defence Service of PD or OA B,S,ST,B,W,SE,H&RW
Engineers (Mech. Engg.)
7. Assistant Executive Engineer OA B,S,ST,W,SE,H&RW, C,
Group ‘A’ (Electrical KC
&Mechanical) (Mechanical
Engineering Post) in Border Roads
Engineering Service Gr. ‘A’
8. Central Electrical & Mechanical OL or HH As per MOSJ&E
Engineering Service instructions
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o m
om 9. Indian Skill Development Service c
. W, BN, RW, SE, H,

. c B, LV m
eMF
S, ST,
s
(a)
m a
se OA, BA, OL,gl
(b) D, HH C,

a
(c)
BL,OAL, CP,
LC, Dw, AAV,
MDy
(d) MI
(e) MD involving
(a) to (d) above
10 IRMS (Mechanical) LD – OA/OL, S, ST, BN, W, SE, MF, C,
Leprosy Cured, RW, KC, CL, JU, H
m
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Acid Attack Victims
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11 IRMS (Stores) Mechanical Engg. LD – OA/OL, S, ST, BN, W, SE, MF, C,
s e m
s em Leprosy Cured, RW, H
g l a
l a Acid Attack Victims
a
ag Hard of Hearing S, ST, BN, W, SE, MF, C,
RW, KC, CL, JU, H
(Acceptable with Hearing
Aids)
Category - III : Electrical Engineering

1. Central Elect. & Mech. Engg. OL or Hard of As per MOSJ&E
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Service (Elect. Engg.) Hearing instructions
Central Power Engg. a) D, HH S,ST,BN,SE,W,MF,PP,L,KC, C,
2. Service Gr. A (Elect. Engg.
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b) OL, CP, Dw, RW
Posts)
las AAV

ag c) ASD(M), SLD,
MI
d) MD involving
(a) to (c) above.
3. Indian Defence Service of PD or OA B,S,ST,W,SE,H&RW
Engineers (Elect. Engg.)
4. Indian Naval Material Management OL S,SE,H&RW
Service
5. Indian Naval Armament Service OL S,SE,H&RW
6. Indian Skill Development Service (a) B, LV S, ST, W, BN, RW, SE, H,
m
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.co
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a
BL,OAL, CP,
s e LC, Dw, AAV,
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a (d) MI
(e) MD involving
(a) to (d) above
7. IRMS (Electrical) LD - OA /OL, S, ST, BN, W, SE, MF, C,
Leprosy Cured, RW, KC, CL, JU, H
Acid Attack
Victims.

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.co s e m
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27
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Hard of Hearing S, ST, BN, W, SE, MF, C,
RW, KC, CL, JU, H
(Acceptable with Hearing
Aids)

8. IRMS (Stores) Electrical Engg. LD – OA/OL, S, ST, BN, W, SE, MF, C,
Leprosy Cured, RW, H
Acid Attack
Victims.

Hard of Hearing S, ST, BN, W, SE, MF, C,
RW, KC, CL, JU, H
(Acceptable with Hearing
Aids)

Category-IV: Electronics &Telecommunication Engineering
1. Indian Naval Armament Service OL S,SE,H&RW
2. Indian Naval Material OL S,SE,H&RW
Management Service
3. Indian Telecom Service, Group A LV, OL or OA or F,S,ST,W,SE,H&RW
MW
4. Junior Telecom Officer Group B in LV,OL or OA or S,ST,W,SE,H&RW,
ITS MW BN,L,PP,C,MF, OA,
OL,OAL
5. Central Power Engineering a) D, HH S,ST,BN,SE,W,MF,PP,L,KC,
Service Gr. A (Elec. & b) OL, CP,LC, C&RW
Telecom) Dw, AAV
c) ASD(M), SLD,
MI
d) MD involving
(a) to (c) above.
6. Indian Skill Development Service (a) B, LV S, ST, W, BN, RW, SE, H,
(b) D, HH C, MF
(c) OA, BA, OL,
BL,OAL, CP,
LC, Dw, AAV,
MDy
(d) MI
(e) MD involving
(a) to (d) above
7. Indian Radio Regulatory Service OA or OL S,H&RW/Speaking
Gr ‘A’
8. IRMS (Signal & LD – OA/OL, S, ST, BN, W, SE, MF, C,
Telecommunication) Leprosy Cured, RW, KC, CL, JU, H
Acid Attack
Victims.

9. IRMS (Stores) Signal & LD-OA/OL,Leprosy S, ST, BN, W, SE, MF, C, ,
Telecommunication Engg. Cured, Acid Attack RW, H
Victims

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o m
om c
.BN, W, SE, MF, C,

. c Hard of Hearing m
e KC, CL, JU, H
S, ST,
m a s
se l (Acceptable with Hearing
RW,
g
a Aids)

*The list is subject to revision.

The abbreviations used (indicated as below) are as per the specification in Ministry of
Social Justice and Empowerment’s Notification No. 16-15/2010-DDIII dated 29.07.2013
OA=One Arm affected, OL=One Leg affected, HI=Hearing Impaired, PD=Partially Deaf,
m
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MW=Muscular Weakness S=Sitting, BN=Bending, SE=Seeing, RW=Reading & Writing,

.co m
C=Communication, F/MF =Manipulation by Fingers, PP=Pulling & Pushing, L=Lifting,
s e
em
KC=Kneeling & Crouching, ST=Standing, W=Walking, H=Hearing, JU=Jumping,

s
H(Acceptable with Hearing Aids=Should be able to hear upto 25 decibel, OH=Orthopaedically
g l a
l a
Handicapped, LD=Locomotor Disability, CP=Cerebral Palsy, SLD=Specific Learning
a
ag
Disability, MI=Mental Illness, OAL=One Arm One Leg, CL=Climbing, SD=Spinal Deformity,
SI=Spinal Injury, LV=Low Vision, MD=Multiple Disability

NOTE (i): To avoid inconvenience later PwBD candidates should ensure that their sub-
category of disabilities is identified for providing reservation.

NOTE (ii): Also please note that Temporary Certificate of Disability does not confer upon the
candidates, the benefit of being considered against the vacancies reserved under PwBD
quota.
o m
c
. of Disability in the prescribed format as
e m
NOTE (iii): Please ensure submission of Certificate
detailed at Annexure-III.
las
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s e g l a
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29
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Annexure-II
Other additional instructions to the candidates for medical examination are as under:-

(i) Medical Examination Schedules/Venue and the final medical status (Fit/Unfit/partially
Unfit/Temporarily Unfit) will be uploaded on the official website of the Ministry of
Communications, Department of Telecommunications. No separate written communication
will be sent to the candidates regarding these uploads.

(ii) The candidates will have to carry three sets of Form for Medical Board Report- 2027
to be downloaded from the Ministry of Communications, Department of Telecommunications’
official website.

(iii) The candidates should carry Government issued Photo ID card and three passport
size photographs with them. Candidates recommended against Persons with Benchmark
Disabilities (PwBD) vacancies should carry their Certificate of Disability in original as per the
format prescribed along with additional photocopy of the same.

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. c Annexure-III
e m
m as
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Form-V

a
Certificate of Disability
g
(In cases of amputation or complete permanent paralysis of limbs or dwarfism and in case
of blindness)
[See rule 18(1)]
(Name and Address of the Medical Authority issuing the Certificate)

Recent passport
size attested
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photograph
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(Showing face
e m
s
only) of the

s em person
l
with
g a
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ag
disability.

Certificate No. Date:
This is to certify that I have carefully examined Shri/Smt./Kum.
____________________________son/wife/daughter of Shri __________________ Date of
Birth (DD/MM/YY) ____________ Age ______ years, male/female __________________
registration No. ______________permanent resident of House No. ___________
Ward/Village/Street __________________ Post Office _______________ District
m
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__________ State ________________, whose photograph is affixed above, and am satisfied
that:
e m
(A) he/she is a case of:
 locomotor disability
las
 dwarfism ag
 blindness
(Please tick as applicable)

(B) the diagnosis in his/her case is __________________

(A) he/she has ________ % (in figure) __________________ percent (in words)
permanent locomotor disability/dwarfism/blindness in relation to his/her ______ (part of body)
m
c o m
as per guidelines ( ……………number and date of issue of the guidelines to be specified).
m .co
. s e
s em Nature of Document Date of Issue
2. The applicant has submitted the following document as proof
g l a authority issuing
of residence:-

la Details
a of

ag certificate

Signature/thumb (Signature and Seal of Authorised Signatory of
impression of the notified Medical Authority)
person in whose
favour certificate of
disability is issued
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31
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Form - VI
Certificate of Disability
(In cases of multiple disabilities)
[See rule 18(1)]
(Name and Address of the Medical Authority issuing the Certificate)

Recent passport
size attested
photograph
(Showing face
only) of the
person with
benchmark
disability.

Certificate No. Date:
This is to certify that we have carefully examined Shri/Smt./Kum.
_____________________________________son/wife/daughter of Shri
_____________________________________Date of Birth (DD/MM/YY) ____________ Age
_____ years, male/female ______________.
Registration No. _______________ permanent resident of House No. ____________
Ward/Village/Street ____________ Post Office ____________ District ____________ State
____________, whose photograph is affixed above, and am satisfied that:
(A) he/she is a case of Multiple Disability. His/her extent of permanent physical
impairment/disability has been evaluated as per guidelines (……………number and date of
issue of the guidelines to be specified) for the disabilities ticked below, and is shown against
the relevant disability in the table below:
S. No Disability Affected part of Diagnosis Permanent
body physical
impairment/mental
disability (in %)
1. Locomotor Disability @
2. Muscular Dystrophy
3. Leprosy Cured
4. Dwarfism
5. Cerebral Palsy
6. Acid attack Victim
7. Low Vision #
8. Blindness #
9. Deaf £
10. Hard of Hearing £
11. Speech and
Language Disability
12. Intellectual Disability
13. Specific Learning
Disability
14. Autism Spectrum
Disorder
15. Mental Illness

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. c 16. Chronic Neurological
e m
m as
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Conditions
17. Multiple Sclerosis
18. Parkinson’s Disease ag
19. Haemophilia
20. Thalassemia
21. Sickle Cell Disease

(B) In the light of the above, his/her over all permanent physical impairment as per guidelines
(……….number and date of issue of the guidelines to be specified), is as follows: -
In figures: - ------------------ percent
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In words: - --------------------------------------------------------------------------- percent
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2. This condition is progressive/non-progressive/likely to improve/not likely to improve.
s e m
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3. Reassessment of disability is :
g l a
l a
(i) not necessary, a
ag
or
(ii) is recommended/after ............... years ................ months, and therefore this
certificate shall be valid till ----- ----- ------
(DD) (MM) (YY)
@ e.g. Left/right/both arms/legs
# e.g. Single eye
£ e.g. Left/Right/both ears

m
4. The applicant has submitted the following document as proof of residence:-

m .co
s e
la
Nature of document Date of issue Details of authority issuing

ag certificate

5. Signature and seal of the Medical Authority.

Name and Seal of Member Name and Seal of Member Name and Seal of the
Chairperson

Signature/thumb

m
impression of the

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person in whose
m
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favour certificate of

m
disability is issued.
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33
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Form – VII
Certificate of Disability
(In cases other than those mentioned in Forms V and VI)
(Name and Address of the Medical Authority issuing the Certificate)
(See rule 18(1))
Recent passport size
attested photograph
(Showing face only) of the
person with disability
Certificate No. Date:
This is to certify that I have carefully examined
Shri/Smt/Kum__________________________________________ son/wife/daughter of
Shri __________________________________________ Date of Birth
(DD/MM/YY)_____ _____ ____ Age _______ years, male/female _________ Registration
No. __________________ Permanent resident of House No. ___________
Ward/Village/Street _____________________ Post Office _________________ District
________________ State ____________________, whose photograph is affixed above,
and am satisfied that he/she is a case of ______________________________ disability.
His/her extent of percentage physical impairment/disability has been evaluated as per
guidelines (……..number and date of issue of the guidelines to be specified) and is shown
against the relevant disability in the table below:-
S. No Disability Affected Diagnosis Permanent physical
part of body impairment/mental
disability (in %)
1. Locomotor Disability @
2. Muscular Dystrophy
3. Leprosy Cured
4. Cerebral Palsy
5. Acid attack Victim
6. Low Vision #
7. Deaf €
8. Hard of Hearing €
9. Speech and
Language Disability
10. Intellectual Disability
11. Specific Learning
Disability
12. Autism Spectrum
Disorder
13. Mental Illness
14. Chronic Neurological
Conditions
15. Multiple Sclerosis
16. Parkinson’s Disease
17. Haemophilia
18. Thalassemia
19. Sickle Cell Disease

(Please strike out the disabilities which are not applicable)
2. The above condition is progressive/non-progressive/likely to improve/not likely to improve.
3. Reassessment of disability is:
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. c (ii) is recommended/after _______ years ______________ months,
(i) not necessary, or
e m
e m l as and therefore this
s certificate shall be valid till (DD/MM/YY) ____ ____ ____
ag
@ - e.g. Left/Right/both arms/legs
# - e.g. Single eye/both eyes
€ - e.g. Left/Right/both ears

4. The applicant has submitted the following document as proof of residence:-
Nature of document Date of issue Details of authority issuing
m
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certificate
m
.co s e m
s em l a
(Authorised Signatory of notified Medical Authority)
g
l a (Name anda Seal)
ag Countersigned
Signature/thumb
impression of the person in {Countersignature and seal of the
whose favour certificate of
Chief Medical Officer/Medical Superintendent/
disability is issued
Head of Government Hospital, in case the
Certificate is issued by a medical authority who is
not a Government servant (with seal)}

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g a a medical authority who is not a Government
lby
NOTE.- In case this certificate is issued
a by the Chief Medical Officer of the District
servant, it shall be valid only if countersigned

NOTE: The principal rules were published in the Gazette of India vide notification number
S.O. 908(E), dated 31st December, 1996.

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APPENDIX I
Section-I
Plan of Examination
1. The examination shall be conducted according to the following plan:—
(i) Stage-I: Engineering Services (Preliminary) Examination (Objective Type Papers) for
the selection of candidates for the Stage-II: Engineering Services (Main) Examination;

(ii) Stage-II: Engineering Services (Main) Examination (Conventional Type Papers); and

(iii) Stage-III: Personality Test/Interview

2. The Engineering Services (Preliminary/Stage-I) Examination will consist of two
objective type (multiple choices) questions papers carrying a maximum of 500 marks (Paper
1 – 200 Marks & Paper II – 300 Marks). Only those candidates who are declared by the
Commission to have qualified in the Preliminary/Stage-I Examination will be eligible for
admission to the Main/Stage-II Examination provided they are otherwise eligible for admission
to the Main/Stage-II Examination. The Marks obtained in Preliminary/Stage-I Examination by
the candidates who are declared qualified for admission to the Main/Stage-II Examination will
be counted for determining their final order of merit. The number of candidates to be admitted
to the Main/Stage-II Examination will be about six to seven time the total approximate number
of vacancies to be filled in the year through this examination.

NOTE I : The Commission will draw a list of candidates to be qualified for Engineering
Services (Main/Stage-II) Examination based on the criterion of minimum qualifying marks in
General Studies and Engineering Aptitude Paper (Paper-I) and Engineering Discipline
specific paper (Paper-II) of Preliminary/Stage-I Examination.

NOTE II: There will be penalty (Negative Marking) for wrong answers marked by a candidate
in the objective type question papers.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answers to every question. For each question for
which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (1/3rd) of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if
one of the given answers happen to be correct and there will be same penalty as above for
that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty
for that question.

3. Candidates should note that if any irrelevant matter/signage/marks etc. are found
written in the answer script(s), which would not be related to any question/answer and/or
would be having the potential to disclose the candidate’s identity, the Commission will impose
a penalty of deduction of marks from the total marks otherwise accruing to the candidate or
will not evaluate the said script(s) on this account.

4.1 The Engineering Services (Main/stage-II) Examination will consist of two conventional
type papers in Engineering Discipline specific with duration of three (03) hours and maximum
marks of 600 (300 Marks in each paper).

4.2 The Stage-III will consist of Personality Test/Interview carrying 200 Marks.

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Candidates who obtain such minimum qualifying marks in the Stage-I: Engineering

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Services (Preliminary) and Stage-II: Engineering Services (Main) Examination as may be
fixed by the Commission as per its discretion, shall be summoned for Stage-III (Personality
Test/Interview). The number of candidates to be summoned for Personality Test/Interview
will be about twice the number of vacancies to be filled. The Personality Test/Interview will
carry 200 marks (with no minimum qualifying marks).

5.2 Marks obtained by the candidates in Stage-I: (Preliminary) Examination, Stage-II :(
Main) Examination and Stage-III (Personality Test/Interview) would determine their final
ranking. Candidates will be allotted to the various services keeping in view their ranks in the
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examination and the preference expressed by them for the various services/posts.
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6.
conventional type etests and objective type tests given in Appendix-III (Part A and Part l
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including the procedure regarding filing in the Answer Sheet of objective type tests in the
Examinationa Notice uploaded on the Commission’s website (https://upsc.gov.in) on 16.09.2026
7. In the Personality Test/Interview, special attention will be paid to assess the candidate’s
capacity for leadership, initiative and intellectual curiosity, tact and other social qualities, mental
and physical energy, powers of practical application and integrity of character.
8. Conventional papers must be answered in English. Question paper will be set in English
only.

9.
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Details of the Syllabi for Stage-I: (Preliminary) and Stage-II :( Main) are at Section III.

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Section-II
A. Stage-I (Preliminary) Examination :-

The Examination shall comprise of two papers:-

Subject Duration Maximum Marks

Category-I : Civil Engineering
Paper-I (General Studies and Engineering 2 hrs. 200
Aptitude)
Paper-II (Civil Engineering) 3 hrs. 300

Total 500

Subject Duration Maximum Marks

Category-II : Mechanical Engineering
Paper-I (General Studies and Engineering 2 hrs. 200
Aptitude)
Paper-II (Mechanical Engineering) 3 hrs. 300

Total 500

Subject Duration Maximum Marks

Category-III : Electrical Engineering
Paper-I (General Studies and Engineering 2 hrs. 200
Aptitude)
Paper-II (Electrical Engineering) 3 hrs. 300

Total 500

Subject Duration Maximum Marks

Category-IV : Electronics & Telecommunication
Engineering
Paper-I (General Studies and Engineering 2 hrs. 200
Aptitude)
Paper-II ( Electronics & Telecommunication
3 hrs. 300
Engineering )

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B. Stage-II (Main) Examination:-

The Examination shall comprise of two papers:-

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Subject Duration Maximum Marks

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Category-I : Civil Engineering
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Paper-I (Civil Engineering) 3 hrs. 300
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Paper-II (Civil Engineering)
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Subject Duration Maximum Marks

Category-II : Mechanical Engineering

Paper-I (Mechanical Engineering)
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Paper-II (Mechanical Engineering)
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Total
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Subject Duration Maximum Marks

Category-III : Electrical Engineering

Paper-I ( Electrical Engineering) 3 hrs. 300

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Category-IV : Electronics and Telecommunication
Engineering
Paper-I ( Electronics and Telecommunication 3 hrs. 300
Engineering `)

Paper-II (Electronics and Telecommunication 3 hrs. 300
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Engineering)
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Total 600

(C) Stage-III (Personality Test/Interview) - 200 Marks.

NOTE 1: Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances will
they be allowed the help of a scribe to write the answers for them. The Persons with
Benchmark Disabilities in the categories of Low Vision will be provided the facility of scribe, if
desired by the person. In case of other category of Persons with Benchmark Disabilities as
defined under Section 2(r) of RPwD Act, 2016, the facility of scribe will be allowed to such
candidates on production of a certificate to the effect that the person concerned has physical
limitation to write, and scribe is essential to write examination on his/her behalf, from the Chief
Medical Officer, Civil Surgeon/Medical Superintendent of a Government Healthcare institution
as per proforma at Appendix-IV.

Further, for persons with specified disabilities covered under the definition of
Section 2(s) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the
said Act, i.e. persons having less than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing will be
provided the facility of scribe subject to production of a certificate to the effect that person
concerned has limitation to write and that scribe is essential to write examination on his/her
behalf from the competent medical authority of a Government Healthcare Institution as per
proforma at Appendix-VI.

NOTE 2: Candidates with Disabilities which are Progressive, Non-Progressive or Not likely
to improve, as defined under RPwD act, 2016 would be considered equivalent to “Permanent
Disability” for the purpose of disability certification in terms of RPwD Amendment Rules, 2024
and would be considered for the benefit of reservation under Section 34 of the RPwD Act,
2016. However, the certificates having the condition prescribed as “likely to improve” to be
issued temporary disability certificate and would not be considered eligible for reservation.

NOTE 3: The candidate has discretion of opting for his/her own scribe or request the
Commission for the same. The details of scribe i.e. whether own or the Commission’s and
the details of scribe in case candidate is bringing his/her own scribe, will be sought at the time
of filling up the application form online as per proforma at Appendix-V.

NOTE 4: The qualification of the Commission’s scribe as well as own scribe shall not be
more than the minimum qualification criteria of the examination. However, the qualification
of the scribe should always be matriculate or above.

NOTE 5: The Persons with Benchmark Disabilities in the category of Low Vision will be
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o m
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. In case of other

c. o allowed m
e provided on production
categories of Persons with Benchmark Disabilities, the facility willsbe
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se of a certificate to the effect that the person concerned hasaphysical
g l limitation to write, from
the Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Medical Superintendent of a Government Healthcare
institution as per proforma at Appendix- IV.
Further, for persons with specified disabilities covered under the definition of
Section 2(s) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the
said Act, i.e. persons having less than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing will be
provided compensatory time subject to production of a certificate to the effect that person
concerned has limitation to write from the competent medical authority of a Government
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Healthcare institution as per proforma at Appendix-VI.
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NOTE 6:
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The eligibility conditions of a scribe, his/her conduct inside the examination hall
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and the manner in which and extent to which he/she can help the Persons with Benchmark
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Disabilities(PwBD) candidates in writing the Engineering Services Examination, 2027 shall be
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governed by the instructions issued by the Commission in this regard. Violation of all or any
of the said instructions shall entail the cancellation of the candidature of the PwBD candidate
in addition to any other action that the Commission may take against the scribe.
2. The Commission has discretion to fix minimum qualifying marks in any or all the papers
of the examination.

3. Marks will not be allotted for mere superficial knowledge.
4. Deduction upto five per cent of the maximum marks for the written papers will be made
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for illegible handwriting.
Credit will be given for orderly, effective .and exact expression combined with due
economy of words in the conventional paperseofmthe examination.
5.

l as SI units will be used.
agstandard tables/charts in SI units in the Examination
6. In the question papers, wherever required,
NOTE: Candidates will be supplied with
Hall for reference purpose, wherever considered necessary.

7. Candidates are permitted to bring and use battery operated pocket calculators for
conventional (essay) type papers only. Loaning or inter-changing of calculators in the
Examination Hall is not permitted.
It is also important to note that candidates are not permitted to use calculators for
answering objective type papers. They should not therefore, bring the same inside the
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Examination Hall.
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Section-III
Standard and Syllabi
The standard of paper in General Studies and Engineering Aptitude (Preliminary Stage-
I Examination) will be such as may be expected of an Engineering/Science Graduate. The
standard of papers in other subjects will approximately be that of an Engineering Degree
Examination of an Indian University. There will be no practical examination in any of the
subjects.

General Studies and Engineering Aptitude (Preliminary Examination/Stage-I, Paper I,
Objective type, Common to all Candidates)

1. Current issues of national and international importance relating to social, economic
and industrial development, 2. Engineering Aptitude covering Logical reasoning and
Analytical ability, 3. Engineering Mathematics and Numerical Analysis, 4. General Principles
of Design, Drawing, Importance of Safety, 5. Standards and Quality practices in production,
construction, maintenance and services, 6. Basics of Energy and Environment: Conservation,
environmental pollution and degradation, Climate Change, Environmental impact
assessment, 7. Basics of Project Management, 8. Basics of Material Science and
Engineering, 9. Information and Communication Technologies (ICT) based tools and their
applications in Engineering such as networking, e-governance and technology based
education, 10. Ethics and values in engineering profession.

NOTE: The paper in General Studies and Engineering Aptitude will include Knowledge
of relevant topics as may be expected from an Engineering Graduate, without special
study. Questions from all the 10 topics mentioned above shall be set. Marks for each
Topic may range from 5% to 15% of the total marks in the paper.

Civil Engineering

Contents for syllabi of both the Papers together for Preliminary
Examination/Stage-I (objective type Paper–II) and separately for Main/Stage-II
Examination (Conventional type Paper-I and Paper – II):-

PAPER – I
1. Building Materials:
Stone, Lime, Glass, Plastics, Steel, FRP, Ceramics, Aluminium, Fly Ash, Basic
Admixtures, Timber, Bricks and Aggregates: Classification, properties and selection
criteria;
Cement: Types, Composition, Properties, Uses, Specifications and various Tests; Lime &
Cement Mortars and Concrete: Properties and various Tests; Design of Concrete Mixes:
Proportioning of aggregates and methods of mix design.

2. Solid Mechanics:
Elastic constants, Stress, plane stress, Strains, plane strain, Mohr’s circle of stress and
strain, Elastic theories of failure, Principal Stresses, Bending, Shear and Torsion.

3. Structural Analysis:
Basics of strength of materials, Types of stresses and strains, Bending moments and shear
force, concept of bending and shear stresses; Analysis of determinate and indeterminate
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c. o structures; m
eand multi degree freedom
Trusses, beams, plane frames; Rolling loads, Influence
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Lines, Unit load method
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& other methods; Free and Forced vibrations of single degree
system; Suspended Cables; Concepts and use of Computer
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4. Design of Steel Structures:
Principles of Working Stress methods, Design of tension and compression members,
Design of beams and beam column connections, built-up sections, Girders, Industrial
roofs, Principles of Ultimate load design.

5. Design of Concrete and Masonry structures:
Limit state design for bending, shear, axial compression and combined forces; Design of
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beams, Slabs, Lintels, Foundations, Retaining walls, Tanks, Staircases; Principles of pre-
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structures; Design of Masonry Structure.
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6. Construction e
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Practice, Planning and Management:

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Construction a Types
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Estimation with latest project management tools and network analysis for different
of works; Analysis of Rates of various types of works; Tendering Process and Contract
Management, Quality Control, Productivity, Operation Cost; Land acquisition; Labour
safety and welfare.

PAPER – II

1. Flow of Fluids, Hydraulic Machines and Hydro Power:

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(a) Fluid Mechanics, Open Channel Flow, Pipe Flow:
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Fluid properties; Dimensional Analysis and Modeling; Fluid dynamics including flow
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kinematics and measurements; Flow net; Viscosity, Boundary layer and control, Drag, Lift,
Principles in open channel flow, Flow controls. Hydraulic jump; Surges; Pipe networks.
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(b) Hydraulic Machines and Hydro a
power -
Various pumps, Air vessels, Hydraulic turbines – types, classifications & performance
parameters; Power house – classification and layout, storage, pondage, control of supply.

2. Hydrology and Water Resources Engineering:
Hydrological cycle, Ground water hydrology, Well hydrology and related data analysis;
Streams and their gauging; River morphology; Flood, drought and their management;
Capacity of Reservoirs.
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Water Resources Engineering : Multipurpose uses of Water, River basins and their
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potential; Irrigation systems, water demand assessment; Resources - storages and their
yields; Water logging, canal and drainage design, Gravity dams, falls, weirs, Energy
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l as
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3. Environmental Engineering:

(a) Water Supply Engineering:
Sources, Estimation, quality standards and testing of water and their treatment; Rural,
Institutional and industrial water supply; Physical, chemical
and biological characteristics and sources of water, Pollutants in water and its
effects, Estimation of water demand; Drinking water Standards, Water Treatment
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Plants, Water distribution networks.
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(b) Waste Water Engineering:
Planning & design of domestic waste water, sewage collection and disposal; Plumbing
Systems. Components and layout of sewerage system; Planning & design of Domestic
Waste-water disposal system; Sludge management including treatment, disposal and
re-use of treated effluents; Industrial waste waters and Effluent Treatment Plants
including institutional and industrial sewage management.

(c) Solid Waste Management:
Sources & classification of solid wastes along with planning & design of its management
system; Disposal system, Beneficial aspects of wastes and Utilization by Civil
Engineers.

(d) Air, Noise pollution and Ecology:
Concepts & general methodology.

4. Geo-technical Engineering and Foundation Engineering :

(a)Geo-technical Engineering: Soil exploration - planning & methods, Properties of soil,
classification, various tests and inter-relationships; Permeability & Seepage,
Compressibility, consolidation and Shearing resistance, Earth pressure theories and
stress distribution in soil; Properties and uses of geo-synthetics.

(b) Foundation Engineering: Types of foundations & selection criteria, bearing capacity,
settlement analysis, design and testing of shallow & deep foundations; Slope stability
analysis, Earthen embankments, Dams and Earth retaining structures: types, analysis and
design, Principles of ground modifications.

5. Surveying and Geology:
(a) Surveying: Classification of surveys, various methodologies, instruments & analysis
of measurement of distances, elevation and directions; Field astronomy, Global
Positioning System; Map preparation; Photogrammetry; Remote sensing concepts;
Survey Layout for culverts, canals, bridges, road/railway alignment and buildings,
Setting out of Curves.
(b) Geology: Basic knowledge of Engineering geology & its application in projects.

6. Transportation Engineering:
Highways - Planning & construction methodology, Alignment and geometric design;
Traffic Surveys and Controls; Principles of Flexible and Rigid pavements design.
Tunneling - Alignment, methods of construction, disposal of muck, drainage, lighting and
ventilation.
Railways Systems – Terminology, Planning, designs and maintenance practices; track
modernization.
Harbours – Terminology, layouts and planning.
Airports – Layout, planning & design.

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m . c s em
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Mechanical Engineering

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Contents for syllabi of both the Papers together for Preliminary
(objective type Paper–II) and separately for Main/ Stage-II Examination (Conventional
type Paper-I and Paper – II):-
PAPER – I

1. Fluid Mechanics:
Basic Concepts and Properties of Fluids, Manometry, Fluid Statics, Buoyancy, Equations of
Motion, Bernoulli’s equation and applications, Viscous flow of incompressible fluids, Laminar
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and Turbulent flows, Flow through pipes and head losses in pipes.
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2. Thermodynamics and Heat transfer:
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Thermodynamic systems and processes; properties of pure substance; Zeroth, First and

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Second Laws of Thermodynamics; Entropy, Irreversibility and availability; analysis of
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thermodynamic cycles related to energy conversion: Rankine, Otto, Diesel and Dual Cycles;
ideal and real gases; compressibility factor; Gas mixtures.
Modes of heat transfer, Steady and unsteady heat conduction, Thermal resistance, Fins, Free
and forced convection, Correlations for convective heat transfer, Radiative heat transfer –
Radiation heat transfer co-efficient; boiling and condensation, Heat exchanger performance
analysis.

3. IC Engines, Refrigeration and Air conditioning:
SI and CI Engines, Engine Systems and Components, Performance characteristics and
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testing of IC Engines; Fuels; Emissions and Emission Control. Vapour compression
refrigeration, Refrigerants and Working cycles, Compressors, Condensers, Evaporators and
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Expansion devices, Other types of refrigeration systems like Vapour Absorption, Vapour jet,

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thermo electric and Vortex tube refrigeration. Psychrometric properties and processes,
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Comfort chart, Comfort and industrial air conditioning, Load calculations and Heat pumps.
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4. Turbo Machinery:
Reciprocating and Rotary pumps, Pelton wheel, Kaplan and Francis Turbines, velocity
diagrams, Impulse and Reaction principles, Steam and Gas Turbines, Theory of Jet
Propulsion – Pulse jet and Ram Jet Engines, Reciprocating and Rotary Compressors –
Theory and Applications

5. Power Plant Engineering:
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Rankine and Brayton cycles with regeneration and reheat, Fuels and their properties, Flue
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gas analysis, Boilers, steam turbines and other power plant components like condensers, air
ejectors, electrostatic precipitators and cooling towers – their theory and design, types and
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materials and performance. Solar Thermal Energy Storage, Applications – heating, cooling
and Power Generation; Solar Photovoltaic Conversion; Harnessing of Wind Energy, Bio-mass
and Tidal Energy – Methods and Applications, Working principles of Fuel Cells.

PAPER – II

1. Engineering Mechanics:
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Analysis of System of Forces, Friction, Centroid and Centre of Gravity, Dynamics; Stresses
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and Strains-Compound Stresses and Strains, Bending Moment and Shear Force Diagrams,
Theory of Bending Stresses- Slope and deflection-Torsion, Thin and thick Cylinders, Spheres.

2. Engineering Materials:
Basic Crystallography, Alloys and Phase diagrams, Heat Treatment, Ferrous and Non
Ferrous Metals, Non metallic materials, Basics of Nano-materials, Mechanical Properties and
Testing, Corrosion prevention and control

3. Mechanisms and Machines:
Types of Kinematics Pair, Mobility, Inversions, Kinematic Analysis, Velocity and Acceleration
Analysis of Planar Mechanisms, CAMs with uniform acceleration and retardation, cycloidal
motion, oscillating followers; Vibrations –Free and forced vibration of undamped and damped
SDOF systems, Transmissibility Ratio, Vibration Isolation, Critical Speed of Shafts. Gears –
Geometry of tooth profiles, Law of gearing, Involute profile, Interference, Helical, Spiral and
Worm Gears, Gear Trains- Simple, compound and Epicyclic; Dynamic Analysis – Slider –
crank mechanisms, turning moment computations, balancing of Revolving & Reciprocating
masses, Gyroscopes –Effect of Gyroscopic couple on automobiles, ships and aircrafts,
Governors.

4. Design of Machine Elements:
Design for static and dynamic loading; failure theories; fatigue strength and the S-N diagram;
principles of the design of machine elements such as riveted, welded and bolted joints. Shafts,
Spur gears, rolling and sliding contact bearings, Brakes and clutches, flywheels.

5. Manufacturing ,Industrial and Maintenance Engineering:
Metal casting-Metal forming, Metal Joining, Machining and machine tool operations, Limits,
fits and tolerances, Metrology and inspection, computer Integrated manufacturing, FMS,
Production planning and Control, Inventory control and operations research - CPM-PERT.
Failure concepts and characteristics-Reliability, Failure analysis, Machine Vibration, Data
acquisition, Fault Detection, Vibration Monitoring, Field Balancing of Rotors, Noise
Monitoring, Wear and Debris Analysis, Signature Analysis, NDT Techniques in Condition
Monitoring.

6. Mechatronics and Robotics:
Microprocessors and Microcontrollers: Architecture, programming, I/O, Computer interfacing,
Programmable logic controller. Sensors and actuators, Piezoelectric accelerometer, Hall
effect sensor, Optical Encoder, Resolver, Inductosyn, Pneumatic and Hydraulic actuators,
stepper motor, Control Systems- Mathematical modeling of Physical systems, control signals,
controllability and observability. Robotics, Robot Classification, Robot Specification, notation;
Direct and Inverse Kinematics; Homogeneous Coordinates and Arm Equation of four Axis
SCARA Robot.

Electrical Engineering

Contents for syllabi of both the Papers together for Preliminary/Stage-I Examination
(objective type Paper–II) and separately for Main/Stage-II Examination (Conventional
type Paper-I and Paper – II):-
PAPER – I

1. Engineering Mathematics
Matrix theory, Eigen values & Eigen vectors, system of linear equations, Numerical
methods for solution of non-linear algebraic equations and differential equations, integral
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c. o calculus, partial derivatives, maxima and minima, Line, Surfacemand Volume Integrals.
s e initial and boundary
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Fourier series, linear, non-linear and partial differential equations,
value problems, complex variables, Taylor’s and Laurent’s
g l series, residue theorem,
probability and statistics fundamentals, Sampling theorem,a random variables, Normal and
Poisson distributions, correlation and regression analysis.

2. Electrical Materials
Electrical Engineering Materials, crystal structures and defects, ceramic materials,
insulating materials, magnetic materials – basics, properties and applications; ferrites,
ferro-magnetic materials and components; basics of solid state physics, conductors;
Photo-conductivity; Basics of Nano materials and Superconductors.
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3. Electric Circuits and Fields
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Circuit elements, network graph, KCL, KVL, Node and Mesh analysis, ideal current and
voltage sources, Thevenin’s, Norton’s, Superposition and Maximum Power Transfer
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theorems, transient response of DC and AC networks, Sinusoidal steady state analysis,
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basic filter concepts, two-port networks, three phase circuits, Magnetically coupled circuits,
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Gauss Theorem, electric field and potential due to point, line, plane and spherical charge
distributions, Ampere’s and Biot-Savart’s laws; inductance, dielectrics, capacitance;
Maxwell’s equations.

4. Electrical and Electronic Measurements:
Principles of measurement, accuracy, precision and standards; Bridges and
potentiometers; moving coil, moving iron, dynamometer and induction type instruments,
measurement of voltage, current, power, energy and power factor, instrument
transformers, digital voltmeters and multi-meters, phase, time and frequency
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measurement, Q-meters, oscilloscopes, potentiometric recorders, error analysis, Basics
of sensors, Transducers, basics of data acquisition systems
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5. Computer Fundamentals:
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Number systems, Boolean algebra, arithmetic functions, Basic Architecture, Central
Processing Unit, I/O and Memory Organisation; peripheral devices, data representation
and programming, basics of Operating system and networking, virtual memory, file
systems; Elements of programming languages, typical examples.

6. Basic Electronics Engineering:
Basics of Semiconductor diodes and transistors and characteristics, Junction and field
effect transistors (BJT, FET and MOSFETS), different types of transistor amplifiers,
equivalent circuits and frequency response; oscillators and other circuits, feedback
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amplifiers.
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s e m
s em1. Operational
Analog and Digital Electronics:
g l a and sequential
g la amplifiers – characteristics and applications,
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combinational
a logic circuits, multiplexers, multi-vibrators, sample and hold circuits, A/D and D/A
converters, basics of filter circuits and applications, simple active filters; Microprocessor
basics- interfaces and applications, basics of linear integrated circuits; Analog
communication basics, Modulation and de-modulation, noise and bandwidth, transmitters
and receivers, signal to noise ratio, digital communication basics, sampling, quantizing,
coding, frequency and time domain multiplexing, power line carrier communication
systems.

2. Systems and Signal Processing :
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Representation of continuous and discrete-time signals, shifting and scaling operations,
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linear, time-invariant and causal systems, Fourier series representation of continuous
periodic signals, sampling theorem, Fourier and Laplace transforms, Z transforms,
Discrete Fourier transform, FFT, linear convolution, discrete cosine transform, FIR filter,
IIR filter, bilinear transformation.

3. Control Systems:
Principles of feedback, transfer function, block diagrams and signal flow graphs, steady-
state errors, transforms and their applications; Routh-hurwitz criterion, Nyquist techniques,
Bode plots, root loci, lag, lead and lead-lag compensation, stability analysis, transient and
frequency response analysis, state space model, state transition matrix, controllability and
observability, linear state variable feedback, PID and industrial controllers.

4. Electrical Machines :
Single phase transformers, three phase transformers - connections, parallel operation,
auto-transformer, energy conversion principles, DC machines - types, windings, generator
characteristics, armature reaction and commutation, starting and speed control of motors,
Induction motors - principles, types, performance characteristics, starting and speed
control, Synchronous machines - performance, regulation, parallel operation of
generators, motor starting, characteristics and applications, servo and stepper motors.

5. Power Systems :
Basic power generation concepts, steam, gas and water turbines, transmission line
models and performance, cable performance, insulation, corona and radio interference,
power factor correction, symmetrical components, fault analysis, principles of protection
systems, basics of solid state relays and digital protection; Circuit breakers, Radial and
ring-main distribution systems, Matrix representation of power systems, load flow analysis,
voltage control and economic operation, System stability concepts, Swing curves and
equal area criterion. HVDC transmission and FACTS concepts, Concepts of power system
dynamics, distributed generation, solar and wind power, smart grid concepts,
environmental implications, fundamentals of power economics.

6. Power Electronics and Drives :
Semiconductor power diodes, transistors, thyristors, triacs, GTOs, MOSFETs and IGBTs
- static characteristics and principles of operation, triggering circuits, phase control
rectifiers, bridge converters - fully controlled and half controlled, principles of choppers and
inverters, basis concepts of adjustable speed DC and AC drives, DC-DC switched mode
converters, DC-AC switched mode converters, resonant converters, high frequency
inductors and transformers, power supplies.

Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering

Contents for syllabi of both the Papers together for Preliminary/Stage-I Examination
(objective type Paper–II) and separately for Main/Stage-II Examination (Conventional
type Paper-I and Paper – II):-

PAPER – I
1. Basic Electronics Engineering:
Basics of semiconductors; Diode/Transistor basics and characteristics; Diodes for
different uses; Junction & Field Effect Transistors (BJTs, JFETs, MOSFETs); Transistor
amplifiers of different types, oscillators and other circuits; Basics of Integrated Circuits
(ICs); Bipolar, MOS and CMOS ICs; Basics of linear ICs, operational amplifiers and their
applications-linear/non-linear; Optical sources/detectors; Basics of Opto electronics and
its applications.
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m . c 2. Basic Electrical Engineering: s em
se g la circuit theorems; Electro-
DC circuits-Ohm’s & Kirchhoff’s laws, mesh and nodal analysis,
magnetism, Faraday’s & Lenz’s laws, induced EMFaand its uses; Single-phase AC
circuits; Transformers, efficiency; Basics-DC machines, induction machines, and
synchronous machines; Electrical power sources- basics: hydroelectric, thermal, nuclear,
wind, solar; Basics of batteries and their uses.

3. Materials Science:
Electrical Engineering materials; Crystal structure & defects; Ceramic materials-
structures, composites, processing and uses; Insulating laminates for electronics,
structures, properties and uses; Magnetic materials, basics, classification, ferrites,
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ferro/para-magnetic materials and components; Nano materials-basics, preparation,
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purification, sintering, nano particles and uses; Nano-optical/magnetic/electronic
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materials and uses; Superconductivity, uses.
s g l a
4. Electronic a
g lof measurement, accuracy, precision and standards; Analog and aDigital
Measurements and Instrumentation:
a for measurement, measuring instruments for different applications;
Principles
systems
Static/dynamic characteristics of measurement systems, errors, statistical analysis and
curve fitting; Measurement systems for non-electrical quantities; Basics of telemetry;
Different types of transducers and displays; Data acquisition system basics.

5. Network Theory:
Network graphs & matrices; Wye-Delta transformation; Linear constant coefficient
differential equations- time domain analysis of RLC circuits;
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Solution of network equations using Laplace transforms- frequency domain analysis of
RLC circuits; 2-port network parameters-driving point & transfer functions; State
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equations for networks; Steady state sinusoidal analysis.
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Small signal equivalent circuits ofa diodes, BJTS and FETs; Diode circuits for different
6. Analog and Digital Circuits:

uses; Biasing & stability of BJT & JFET amplifier circuits; Analysis/design of amplifier-
single/multi-stage; Feedback& uses; Active filters, timers, multipliers, wave shaping, A/D-
D/A converters; Boolean Algebra& uses; Logic gates, Digital IC families,
Combinatorial/sequential circuits; Basics of multiplexers, counters/registers/ memories
/microprocessors, design& applications.

PAPER – II
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1. Analog and Digital Communication Systems:
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Random signals, noise, probability theory, information theory; Analog versus digital

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communication & applications: Systems- AM, FM, transmitters/receivers, theory/practice/
s e
s e standards, SNR comparison; Digital communication basics: Sampling, quantizing, coding,
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g la PCM, DPCM, multiplexing-audio/video; Digital modulation: ASK, FSK, PSK; Multiple
a
a access: TDMA, FDMA, CDMA; Optical communication: fibre optics, theory,
practice/standards.

2. Control Systems:
Classification of signals and systems; Application of signal and system theory; System
realization; Transforms& their applications; Signal flow graphs, Routh-Hurwitz criteria, root
loci, Nyquist/Bode plots; Feedback systems-open &close loop types, stability analysis,
steady state, transient and frequency response analysis; Design of control systems,
compensators, elements of lead/lag compensation, PID and industrial controllers.
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3. Computer Organization and Architecture:
Basic architecture, CPU, I/O organisation, memory organisation, peripheral devices,
trends; Hardware /software issues; Data representation& Programming; Operating
systems-basics, processes, characteristics, applications; Memory management, virtual
memory, file systems, protection & security; Data bases, different types, characteristics
and design; Transactions and concurrency control; Elements of programming languages,
typical examples.

4. Electro Magnetics:
Elements of vector calculus, Maxwell’s equations-basic concepts; Gauss’, Stokes’
theorems; Wave propagation through different media; Transmission Lines-different types,
basics, Smith’s chart, impedance matching/transformation, S-parameters, pulse
excitation, uses; Waveguides-basics, rectangular types, modes, cut-off frequency,
dispersion, dielectric types; Antennas-radiation pattern, monopoles/dipoles, gain, arrays-
active/passive, theory, uses.

5. Advanced Electronics Topics:
VLSI technology: Processing, lithography, interconnects, packaging, testing; VLSI design:
Principles, MUX/ROM/PLA-based design, Moore & Mealy circuit design; Pipeline concepts
& functions; Design for testability, examples; DSP: Discrete time signals/systems, uses;
Digital filters: FIR/IIR types, design, speech/audio/radar signal processing uses;
Microprocessors & microcontrollers, basics, interrupts, DMA, instruction sets, interfacing;
Controllers & uses; Embedded systems.

6. Advanced Communication Topics:
Communication networks: Principles /practices /technologies /uses /OSI model/security;
Basic packet multiplexed streams/scheduling; Cellular networks, types, analysis, protocols
(TCP/TCPIP); Microwave & satellite communication: Terrestrial/space type LOS systems,
block schematics link calculations, system design; Communication satellites, orbits,
characteristics, systems, uses; Fibre-optic communication systems, block schematics, link
calculations, system design.

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. c e m
m as
se Appendix-IIA
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INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES FOR FILLING ONLINE APPLICATIONS

Candidates are required to apply online by using the website
https://upsconline.nic.in.

Salient features of the system to online Applications Form are given hereunder:

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1. Detailed instructions for filling up Online Applications are available on the above
mentioned website.
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c
Candidates will .be required to complete the Creation of Account, generate Universalse
2.
m
e fill up of Common Application Form and Exam Specific Form containing l a
s g
a Part-II, Part-III and Part-IV as per the instructions available in theaabove
Registration Number,
four stages viz.lPart-I,
mentioned a g
website through drop down menu.

3. The candidates are required to pay a fee of Rs. 200/- ( Rupees Two Hundred only)
either by using net banking facility of any bank or by using V isa/Master/RuPay
Credit/Debit Card/UPI Payment for appearing in the Engineering Services Examination, 2027.

4. Before start filling up Online Application, a candidate must have his/her photograph
and signature duly scanned in the .jpg format in such a manner that each file should not
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exceed 300 KB each and must not be less than 20 KB in size for the photograph and
signature.
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5.
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A candidate must have his/her Matriculation Certificate ready prior to filling up his/her

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application form. The details viz. Candidate’s Name, Father’s Name, Mother’s Name & Date
of Birth to be filled in Common Application Form of the candidate should match exactly with
particulars mentioned in the Matriculation Certificate.

6. In addition to this, candidate should also have details of one Photo ID Card viz.
Aadhaar Card/Voter Card/PAN Card/Passport/Driving Licence/Any other Photo ID Card
issued by the State/Central Government. The details of this Photo ID Card will have to be
provided by the candidate while filling up the Universal Registration Number (URN) profile.
This Photo ID will be used for all future referencing and the candidate is advised to carry this
Photo ID Card while appearing for Examination / Personality Test/Interview.
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7. co The Online Application Form can be filled from 16th September,
c
. 2026 to 06th
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October, 2026 till 06:00 P.M.
l as
as
l providing their valid and active eMail IDs as the Commission may ag
ag 8. The applicants must ensure that while filling their Application Form, they are
use electronic mode of
communication while contacting them at difference stages of examination process.

9. The applicants are advised to check their eMails at regular intervals and ensure that
the eMail address ending with @nic.in are directed to their inbox folder and not to the SPAM
folder or any other folder.

10. Candidates are strongly advised to apply Online well in time without waiting for
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the last date for submission of online application.
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Appendix-IIB

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO WITHDRAW APPLICATION
The candidates will not be allowed to withdraw their application after submission of
the same.
Appendix-III
(Part – A)

SPECIAL INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES FOR CONVENTIONAL TYPE PAPERS

1. Articles permitted inside Examination Hall:

Battery-operated pocket calculators of "non-programmable" type only,
mathematical/engineering/ drawing instruments, including a flat rule divided on the
edges into inches and tens of an inch and into centimetres and millimetres, a slide
rule, set squares, a protractor and a pair of compasses, pencils, coloured pencils,
mapping pens, eraser, T-square and drawing board for use wherever necessary.
Candidates are not allowed to bring with them any "Tables or Charts" for use in the
Examination Hall.

2. Tables to be supplied by UPSC :

If it is considered necessary for answering the questions set in any
paper, the Commission may supply any of the following for reference purpose
only:
(i) Mathematical/Physical/Chemical and Engineering Tables (including
Logarithmic Tables);
(ii) Steam Table (including Mollier Diagrams for Temperature up to 800°C and Pressure
up to 500 Kgf/Cm);
(iii) National Building Code of India 1970 or 1983 Group 2 Part VI;
(iv) Any other special articles as may be necessary for the candidates to answer the
questions set in the question paper. After conclusion of the examination, return the
above items to the Invigilator.

3. Answers to be written in own hand:

Write the answers in your own hand in ink. Pencil may be used for maps,
mathematical drawings or rough work.

4. Check Answer Book.

The candidate must write his roll number (and not his name) only in the
space provided for the purpose on every answer book used by him. Before writing in the
answer book, please see that it is complete. In case there are any missing pages, it should
be got replaced. Do not tear out any pages from the Answer Book. If you use more than
one Answer Book, indicate on the cover of first Answer Book the total number of
Answer Books used. Do not leave any blank, unused spaces between answers. If
such spaces are left, score them out.

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m . c 5. s em
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Answers in excess of prescribed number will be ignored
.
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The candidate must attempt questions strictlyain accordance with the directions
given on each question paper. If questions are attempted in excess of the prescribed
number, only the questions attempted first up to the prescribed number shall be valued
and the remaining answers will be ignored.

6. Questions relating to graph/precis should be attempted only on graph/precis
sheets to be supplied on demand by the Invigilators.

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All loose sheets such as precis sheet, drawing papers, graph sheets etc.
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whether used or not, should be placed inside the answer books and fastened along
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with the additional answer book(s), if any. Candidates who fail to observe this
s e m
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instruction will be penalized. Do not write your roll number on these sheets.

as g l
l a
agDo not copy from the papers of any other candidate nor allow your papers to
7. Unfair means strictly prohibited:

be copied nor give nor attempt to give nor obtain nor attempt to obtain irregular assistance
of any description. It will be the responsibility of every candidate to ensure that his/her
answers are not copied by another candidate. Failure to do so will invite penalty, as may
be awarded by the Commission for adoption of unfair means.

8. Conduct in Examination Hall:
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Do not misbehave in any manner or create disorderly scene in the examination

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hall or harass or bodily harm the staff deployed for the conduct of examination. You will

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be severely penalized if you attempt to do so.
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Please read carefully and by the instructions printed on the Question
Paper and on the Answer Book supplied in the Examination Hall.

10. The candidates are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the expiry
of prescribed time period of the examination.

(Part – B)

SPECIAL INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES FOR OBJECTIVE TYPE TESTS
m
1. m
c. o Articles permitted inside Examination Hall: m .co
s e
s empen for marking
Clip board or hard board (on which nothing is written), aagood quality black ball
g l work will be supplied
a
l by the invigilator. a
responses on the Answer Sheet and sheet for rough
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2. Articles not permitted inside Examination Hall:

Do not bring inside the Examination Hall any article other than those
specified above e.g. valuable/costly items, mobile phones, Smart/Digital watches, other
IT gadgets, books, bags, notes, loose sheets, electronic or any other type of calculators,
mathematical and drawing instruments, Log Tables, stencils of maps, slide rules, Test
Booklets, rough sheets pertaining to earlier session(s) etc.
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Possession (even in switched off mode)/use of Mobile phones, Bluetooth, pager or any
other communication devices or any other incriminating material (notes on e-Admit Card,
papers, eraser etc.) are not allowed inside the premises where the examination is being
conducted. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail disciplinary action including
ban from future examinations.

Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned items
including mobile phones/Bluetooth/pagers to the venue of the examination, as no
arrangements for safekeeping will be made at the venue of the examination. Candidates are
advised not to bring any valuable/costly items to the Examination Halls, as no arrangement
for safe keeping of the same will be made at the venue of the examination. Commission will
not be responsible for any loss in this regard.

3. Penalty for wrong Answers (in Objective Type Papers):

THERE WILL BE PENALTY (NEGATIVE MARKING) FOR WRONG ANSWERS
MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for
which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one third (0.33) of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even
if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above
for that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be
no penalty for that question.

4. Unfair means strictly prohibited:

No candidates shall copy from the papers of any other candidate nor permit his/her
papers to be copied nor give nor attempt to give nor obtain nor attempt to obtain irregular
assistance of any description.

5. Conduct in Examination Hall:

No candidates should misbehave in any manner or create disorderly scene in the
Examination Hall or harass the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct of the
examination. Any such misconduct will be severely penalised.

6. Answer Sheet Particulars:

(i) Write in black ball pen your Centre and subject followed by Test Booklet series (in
bracket), subject code and roll number at the appropriate space provided on the Answer
Sheet at the top. Also encode your booklet series (A, B, C or D as the case may be),
subject code and roll number with black ball pen in the circles provided for the purpose
in the Answer Sheet. The guidelines for writing the above particulars and encoding the
above particulars are given in Annexure. In case the booklet series is not printed on the
Test Booklet or Answer Sheet is unnumbered, please report immediately to the invigilator
and get the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet replaced.

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m Candidates should note that any omission/mistake/discrepancy c
. in encoding/filling

c. o (ii) s
m
eto Roll Number and
m a
se l for rejection.
of details in the OMR answer sheet, especially with regard
g
Test Booklet Series Code, will render the answer sheet liable
a
(iii) Immediately after commencement of the examination please check that the
Test Booklet supplied to you does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or
items etc. If so, get it replaced by a complete Test Booklet of the same series and
subject.

7. Do not write your name or anything other than the specific items of information
asked for, on the Answer Sheet/Test Booklet/sheet for rough work.
m
8.
m
Do not fold or mutilate or damage or put any extraneous marking in the Answer Sheet.
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Do not write anything on the reverse of the Answer Sheet.
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Since the s e Sheets will be evaluated on computerised machines, candidates g l a
a
9. Answer
due care in handling and filling up the Answer Sheets. They shoulda use
black ball agl only
should exercise
pen to darken the circles. For writing in boxes, they should use black
ball pen. Since the entries made by the candidates by darkening the circles will be
taken into account while evaluating the Answer Sheet on computerised machines,
they should make these entries very carefully and accurately. The candidate must
mark responses in the Answer Sheet with good quality black ball pen.

10. Method of marking answers:

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In the "Objective Type" of examination, you do not write the answers. For each

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question (hereinafter referred to as "Item") several suggested answers (hereinafter
referred to as "Responses") are given. You have to choose one response to each item.
s e
The question paper will be in the Form of TEST BOOKLET. The booklet will contain

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item bearing numbers 1, 2, 3 etc. Under each item, Responses marked (a), (b), (c), (d)
a
will be given. Your task will be to choose the correct response. If you think there is
more than one correct response, then choose what you consider the best response.
In any case, for each item you are to select only one response. If you select more
than one response, your response will be considered wrong. In the Answer Sheet,
Serial Nos. from 1 to 160 are printed. Against each numbers, there are circles marked
(a), (b), (c) and (d). After you have read each item in the Test Booklet and decided
which one of the given responses is correct or the best, you have to mark your
response by completely blackening to indicate your response. Ink pen or pencil
should not be used for blackening the circle o n the Answer Sheet.
o m
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m example, if the correct answer to item 1 is (b), then the circle containing
. the letter
c For
. is to be completely blackened with black ball pen as shown belows:-e m
m
(b)

s e Example : (a) (b) (c) (d) g l a
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a 11. Entries in Scannable Attendance List:

Candidates are required to fill in the relevant particulars with black ball pen only
against their columns in the Scannable Attendance L ist , as given below: -

i) Blacken the circle (P) under the column (Present/Absent)
ii) Blacken the relevant circle for Test Booklet Series
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iii) Write Test Booklet Serial No.

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iv) Write the Answer Sheet Serial No. and also blacken the corresponding circles below
v) Append signature in the relevant column

12. Please read and abide by the instructions on the cover of Test Booklet. If any
candidate indulges in disorderly or improper conduct, he/she will render himself/herself
liable for disciplinary action and/or imposition of a penalty as the Commission may deem
fit.

13. The candidates are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the expiry of
prescribed time period of the examination.

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m . c s em
se g l a ANNEXURE

EXAMINATION HALL
a
HOW TO FILL IN THE ANSWER SHEET OF OBJECTIVE TYPE TESTS IN THE

Please follow these instructions very carefully. You may note that since the Answer
Sheets are to be evaluated on machine, any violation of these instructions may result in
reduction of your score for which you would yourself be responsible.
Before you mark your responses on the Answer Sheet, you will have to fill in various
particulars in it.

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As soon as the candidate receives the Answer Sheet, he/she should check that it is
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numbered at the bottom. If it is found unnumbered, he/she should at once get it replaced by
a numbered one.।
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s e from the Answer Sheet that you will have to fill in the top line,
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reads thus: la a
You will see

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कें ्ቖ विषय विषय कोड अनु्ቅम क
ां
Centre Subject Subject Code Roll Number

If you are, say, appearing for the examination in Delhi Centre for the Mathematics and your Roll
No. is 081276 and your Test Booklet series is ‘A’, you should fill in thus, using ball pen.

m
* This is just illustrative and may not be relevant to the Examination concerned.

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s e
कें ्ቖ विषय
l
विषय
g a कोड अनु्ቅम क
ां
Centre Subject aSubject Code Roll Number
Delhi Mathematics 0 1 0 8 1 2 7 6

You should write with black ball pen the name of the centre and subject in English or in
Hindi. The test Booklet Series is indicated by Alphabets A, B, C or D at the top right hand corner
of the Booklet.

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Write your Roll Numbers exactly as it is in your e-Admit Card in the boxes provided for
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this purpose. Do not omit Black pen. The name of the Centre need not be encoded. Do not omit
any zero(s) which may be there.
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emthe TestTheBooklet s
a Time Table. Now encode
next step is to find out the appropriate subject code fromlthe
l as a g
ag purpose.
Series, Subject Code and the Roll Number in the circles provided for this
Encoding of Test Booklet Series is to be done after receiving the Test Booklet and
confirming the Booklet Series from the same.

For Mathematics subject paper of ‘A’ Test Booklet Series you have to encode the subject
code, which is 01. Do it thus.

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विषय

पुवतिक ्ቅम (अ) Subject

Booklet Series (A) 0 1

A 0
1
B 2 2
3 3
C 4 4
5 5
D 6 6
7 7
8 8
9 9

अनु्ቅम क
ां
Number

All that is required is to blacken
completely the circle marked ‘A’ below the 0 8 1 2 7 6
Booklet Series and below the subject code 0 0 0 0 0
blacken completely the Circles for “0” (in
the first vertical column) and “1” (in the 1 1 1 1 1
second vertical column). You should then 2 2 2 2 2
encode the Roll No.081276. Do it thus
similarly: 3 3 3 3 3 3
Important: Please ensure that you have carefully
4 4 4 4 4 4
encoded your Subject, Test Booklet Series and Roll 5 5 5 5 5 5
Number
6 6 6 6 6
* This is just illustrative and may not be relevant
7 7 7 7 7
to your Examination. 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9

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m . c Appendix-IV
s em
se g laexaminee to write.
Certificate regarding physical limitation in an

This is to certify that, I
a examined Mr./Ms./Mrs.
have
…………………………………….(name of the candidate with benchmark disability), a person
with ……………………………………(nature and percentage of disability as mentioned in the
certificate of disability), S/o/D/o ……………………………, a resident of
…………………….(Village/District/State) and to state that he/she has physical limitation
which hampers his/her writing capabilities owing to his/her disability.

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Signature

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c. Medical Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/ m
m Government Healthcare Institutionse
s e Superintendent of a
g l a
g la should be given by a specialist of the relevant stream/disability (e.g.aVisual
NOTE: Certificate
ImpairmentaOphthalmologist, Locomotor disability-Orthopaedic specialist/PMR).

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g la
a

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m .co s e m
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a

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