MAH MBA CET 2027 Sample Paper

ADMISSION
MAH MBA CET Sample Paper 2027
Maharashtra MBA/MMS Common Entrance Test · Practice Paper 1

Questions Marks Time Negative marking
200 MCQs 200 (1 each) 150 minutes None

Part Section Questions Q. No.
Part A: Reasoning (100 marks) Logical Reasoning 75 1 to 75
Part A: Reasoning (100 marks) Abstract Reasoning 25 76 to 100
Part B: Quantitative Aptitude (50 marks) Quantitative Aptitude 50 101 to 150
Part C: Verbal Ability and RC (50 marks) Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension 50 151 to 200

Instructions
1. This paper has 200 multiple-choice questions: Logical Reasoning (75), Abstract Reasoning (25), Quantitative
Aptitude (50) and Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension (50).
2. Each question carries 1 mark. There is no negative marking, so attempt every question.
3. Each question has five options (A to E), as in the real online exam. Choose the one correct answer.
4. You have 150 minutes for the whole paper and may attempt the sections in any order. Aim for about 45 seconds
per question.
5. The answer key and short solutions are at the end. Check them only after you finish.

This is an AglaSem practice paper with original questions written on the official MAH-MBA/MMS CET pattern and syllabus. It is
not an official State CET Cell, Maharashtra paper.

Part A: Reasoning (100 marks)

Logical Reasoning

Directions: Read the information below and answer the five questions that follow.
Eight people, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W, sit in a straight row, all facing north.
• R sits at one of the extreme ends of the row.
• P sits third to the right of R.
• Only two people sit between P and U.
• S sits immediately to the right of U.
• Q is an immediate neighbour of both W and U.
• V sits second to the left of W.

1. Who sits third to the left of Q?
(A) S (B) T
(C) W (D) V
(E) P

2. How many people sit between T and W?
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 0 (D) 2
(E) 1

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3. Which pair sits at the two extreme ends of the row?
(A) T and U (B) R and S
(C) R and U (D) V and S
(E) T and S

4. Four of the following five pairs are alike in a certain way based on their positions. Which pair does not
belong to that group?
(A) W – U (B) R – V
(C) V – W (D) P – U
(E) T – P

5. Who sits immediately to the left of U?
(A) W (B) S
(C) V (D) Q
(E) P

Directions: In each of the next six questions, some statements are followed by two conclusions.
Take the statements to be true even if they seem to differ from commonly known facts. Decide which of
the conclusions logically follow from the statements.

6. Statements: All managers are leaders. Some leaders are speakers. No speaker is shy.
Conclusions:
I. Some managers are speakers.
II. Some leaders are not shy.
(A) Only II follows (B) Both I and II follow
(C) Neither I nor II follows (D) Either I or II follows
(E) Only I follows

7. Statements: Some books are pens. All pens are rulers. No ruler is an eraser.
Conclusions:
I. Some books are rulers.
II. No pen is an eraser.
(A) Both I and II follow (B) Neither I nor II follows
(C) Only II follows (D) Only I follows
(E) Either I or II follows

8. Statements: All apples are fruits. No fruit is a vegetable. Some vegetables are roots.
Conclusions:
I. No apple is a vegetable.
II. All roots being fruits is a possibility.
(A) Only II follows (B) Neither I nor II follows
(C) Both I and II follow (D) Only I follows
(E) Either I or II follows

9. Statements: Some cars are buses. Some buses are trucks. All trucks are vans.
Conclusions:
I. Some cars are trucks.
II. Some buses are vans.
(A) Only II follows (B) Only I follows
(C) Either I or II follows (D) Neither I nor II follows
(E) Both I and II follow

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10. Statements: No doctor is a lawyer. All lawyers are teachers.
Conclusions:
I. Some teachers are not doctors.
II. No doctor is a teacher.
(A) Both I and II follow (B) Neither I nor II follows
(C) Either I or II follows (D) Only II follows
(E) Only I follows

11. Statements: All coins are metals. Some metals are gold.
Conclusions:
I. Some coins are gold.
II. No coin is gold.
(A) Either I or II follows (B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows (D) Neither I nor II follows
(E) Both I and II follow

Directions: Read the information below and answer the five questions that follow.
Eight friends, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, sit around a circular table, all facing the centre.
• A sits third to the right of E.
• F sits second to the left of A.
• Only one person sits between F and H.
• B sits exactly opposite F.
• G sits immediately to the left of A.
• C is not an immediate neighbour of A.

12. Who sits third to the left of C?
(A) B (B) D
(C) H (D) G
(E) A

13. Who sits exactly opposite G?
(A) C (B) D
(C) H (D) B
(E) E

14. What is the position of D with respect to H?
(A) Second to the left of H (B) Third to the left of H
(C) Fifth to the left of H (D) Immediately to the right of H
(E) Third to the right of H

15. Counting to the left of E, how many people sit between E and B?
(A) 5 (B) 4
(C) 2 (D) 1
(E) 3

16. Which of the following pairs sit next to each other?
(A) A and F (B) G and F
(C) B and H (D) C and E
(E) D and H

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Directions: In each of the next five questions, a relationship between some elements is followed by
two conclusions.
Assume the given relationship is true and decide which of the conclusions definitely follow.

17. Statement: P > Q ≥ R = S < T ≤ U
Conclusions:
I. P > S
II. U > R
(A) Both I and II follow (B) Only I follows
(C) Either I or II follows (D) Only II follows
(E) Neither I nor II follows

18. Statement: A ≥ B > C ≤ D < E = F
Conclusions:
I. A > D
II. F > C
(A) Neither I nor II follows (B) Both I and II follow
(C) Only II follows (D) Only I follows
(E) Either I or II follows

19. Statement: M < N ≤ O = P > Q ≥ R
Conclusions:
I. M < P
II. N > R
(A) Either I or II follows (B) Both I and II follow
(C) Only I follows (D) Neither I nor II follows
(E) Only II follows

20. Statement: W ≤ X < Y ≥ Z > V
Conclusions:
I. X > V
II. Z < W
(A) Either I or II follows (B) Only I follows
(C) Both I and II follow (D) Neither I nor II follows
(E) Only II follows

21. Statement: H = J ≥ K > L; J < M ≤ N
Conclusions:
I. N > K
II. L ≥ H
(A) Only II follows (B) Only I follows
(C) Neither I nor II follows (D) Both I and II follow
(E) Either I or II follows

22. In a certain code, PLANT is written as UOBMQ. How is GROWTH written in that code?
(A) IUXPSH (B) IUXQSH
(C) ITXPSH (D) HSPXUI
(E) IUXPHS

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23. If BAT is coded as 46, how is CUP coded in the same language?
(A) 78 (B) 80
(C) 84 (D) 40
(E) 82

24. In a certain code, GOLD is written as TLOW. How is SILVER written in that code?
(A) HROFVI (B) HROEVI
(C) HRPEVI (D) GROEVI
(E) HROEUI

Directions: Study the code language below and answer the three questions that follow.
In a certain code language:
'market growth is steady' is written as 'pa ri so ne'
'steady effort brings growth' is written as 'ne ka ri ju'
'effort is always rewarded' is written as 'ka so du ve'
'market brings new hope' is written as 'pa ju lo zi'

25. What is the code for 'brings'?
(A) pa (B) lo
(C) ju (D) ka
(E) ne

26. Which word is coded as 'so'?
(A) brings (B) effort
(C) steady (D) market
(E) is

27. The code 'ri' stands for:
(A) growth (B) steady
(C) market (D) effort
(E) Cannot be determined

28. Pointing to a man in a photograph, Kiran, a woman, said, "He is the son of the only son of my father's
father." How is the man related to Kiran?
(A) Nephew (B) Uncle
(C) Father (D) Cousin
(E) Brother

29. A is B's sister. C is B's mother. D is C's father. E is D's mother. How is A related to D?
(A) Granddaughter (B) Sister
(C) Great-granddaughter (D) Niece
(E) Daughter

30. Seema is the wife of the only brother of Ravi's mother. How is Seema related to Ravi?
(A) Cousin (uncle's daughter) (B) Sister-in-law (brother's wife)
(C) Aunt (mother's brother's wife) (D) Niece (sister's daughter)
(E) Grandmother (mother's mother)

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Directions: Use the code below to answer the two questions that follow.
P + Q means P is the father of Q.
P − Q means P is the wife of Q.
P × Q means P is the brother of Q.
P ÷ Q means P is the daughter of Q.

31. If A × B ÷ C − D, how is A related to D?
(A) Grandson (B) Son
(C) Father (D) Nephew
(E) Brother

32. If P − Q + R × S, how is P related to S?
(A) Mother (B) Sister
(C) Grandmother (D) Daughter
(E) Aunt

Directions: Read the information below and answer the five questions that follow.
Seven people, J, K, L, M, N, O and P, live on the seven floors of a building, one on each floor. The ground
floor is floor 1 and the top floor is floor 7. Each person is from a different city: Pune, Nagpur, Nashik,
Thane, Kolhapur, Satara and Solapur.
• The person from Nagpur lives on the top floor.
• K lives on an even-numbered floor, and J, who is from Kolhapur, lives immediately below K.
• Only two people live between K and the person from Pune.
• M, who is from Thane, lives immediately above the person from Pune. M lives below K.
• The person from Nashik lives immediately below O.
• L lives on an even-numbered floor, and N lives below L.
• The person from Satara lives below the person from Nashik.
• The person from Solapur lives above O. P is not from Solapur.

33. Who lives on the floor immediately above J?
(A) K (B) N
(C) M (D) O
(E) P

34. Which city is N from?
(A) Solapur (B) Nashik
(C) Thane (D) Pune
(E) Satara

35. How many people live between L and the person from Solapur?
(A) 5 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 2
(E) 1

36. Who lives on the top floor, and which city is that person from?
(A) O – Nagpur (B) P – Nagpur
(C) K – Nagpur (D) K – Solapur
(E) P – Solapur

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37. Which of the following is true?
(A) M lives on the fifth floor
(B) N lives on the floor immediately above L
(C) The person from Kolhapur lives immediately below M
(D) O is from Pune and lives on the third floor
(E) L is from Satara

38. Amit walks 12 km north, turns right and walks 2 km, turns right again and walks 4 km, and then turns
left and walks 4 km. How far is he from his starting point, and in which direction?
(A) 8 km, north (B) 10 km, north-east
(C) 10 km, north-west (D) 14 km, north-east
(E) 6 km, east

39. Sunita is facing south. She turns 90° clockwise and then 135° anticlockwise. Which direction is she
facing now?
(A) South-east (B) South-west
(C) East (D) North-east
(E) North-west

40. Soon after sunrise, Rahul and Priya stand facing each other. Rahul's shadow falls exactly to his right.
Which direction is Priya facing?
(A) East (B) North
(C) South (D) West
(E) North-west

41. In a row of 40 students, Neha is 14th from the left and Kunal is 18th from the right. How many students
sit between them?
(A) 10 (B) 8
(C) 9 (D) 7
(E) 6

42. Ajay ranks 9th from the top and 32nd from the bottom in his class. How many students are in the class?
(A) 42 (B) 39
(C) 38 (D) 41
(E) 40

43. P is heavier than Q but lighter than R. S is heavier than R, and T is lighter than Q. Who is the second
heaviest?
(A) R (B) Q
(C) T (D) S
(E) P

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Directions: Each of the next five questions is followed by two statements, I and II.
Decide whether the data in the statements is sufficient to answer the question. Choose: I alone is
sufficient; II alone is sufficient; either alone is sufficient; both together are needed; or both together are not
sufficient.

44. What is Ravi's present age?
I. Ravi is 4 years older than Sunil.
II. The sum of the present ages of Ravi and Sunil is 40 years.
(A) I and II together are sufficient, but neither alone is
(B) II alone is sufficient, but I alone is not
(C) I alone is sufficient, but II alone is not
(D) Either I alone or II alone is sufficient
(E) I and II together are not sufficient

45. x is an integer. Is x even?
I. 3x is an even number.
II. x + 5 is an odd number.
(A) I alone is sufficient, but II alone is not
(B) Either I alone or II alone is sufficient
(C) I and II together are not sufficient
(D) II alone is sufficient, but I alone is not
(E) I and II together are sufficient, but neither alone is

46. Does Q earn more than R?
I. P earns more than Q.
II. P earns more than R.
(A) Either I alone or II alone is sufficient
(B) I and II together are not sufficient
(C) I and II together are sufficient, but neither alone is
(D) II alone is sufficient, but I alone is not
(E) I alone is sufficient, but II alone is not

47. What is the two-digit number?
I. The sum of its digits is 9 and its tens digit is twice its units digit.
II. The number is 27 more than the number formed by reversing its digits.
(A) I and II together are not sufficient
(B) Either I alone or II alone is sufficient
(C) II alone is sufficient, but I alone is not
(D) I alone is sufficient, but II alone is not
(E) I and II together are sufficient, but neither alone is

48. Among A, B, C, D and E, who is the tallest?
I. A is taller than B and C but shorter than D.
II. Only E is taller than D.
(A) I and II together are not sufficient
(B) Either I alone or II alone is sufficient
(C) I alone is sufficient, but II alone is not
(D) I and II together are sufficient, but neither alone is
(E) II alone is sufficient, but I alone is not

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Directions: Read the information below and answer the five questions that follow.
Six professors, Kulkarni, Deshmukh, Joshi, Pawar, Shinde and Gokhale, each give one lecture on a
different day from Monday to Saturday of the same week. Each lecture is on a different subject: Finance,
Marketing, HR, Operations, Economics and Statistics.
• Joshi teaches Economics, and the Finance lecture is on the day immediately after Joshi's lecture.
• Only two lectures are held between the lectures of Pawar and Shinde, and Pawar lectures before Shinde.
• Gokhale lectures on the day immediately before Kulkarni, who teaches Statistics.
• Deshmukh lectures on a day after Shinde.
• The Operations lecture is held on Saturday.
• The Marketing lecture is held on a day after the HR lecture.
• Pawar does not teach HR.

49. Which subject does Gokhale teach?
(A) Economics (B) Statistics
(C) HR (D) Marketing
(E) Finance

50. On which day is the Marketing lecture held?
(A) Thursday (B) Saturday
(C) Friday (D) Wednesday
(E) Monday

51. How many lectures are held between Joshi's lecture and Kulkarni's lecture?
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 1 (D) 0
(E) 3

52. Who teaches Finance?
(A) Gokhale (B) Joshi
(C) Shinde (D) Deshmukh
(E) Pawar

53. Which of the following combinations is correct?
(A) Deshmukh – Saturday – Operations
(B) Shinde – Thursday – Marketing
(C) Pawar – Tuesday – HR
(D) Joshi – Monday – Finance
(E) Kulkarni – Wednesday – Statistics

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Directions: Study the input-output example below and answer the five questions that follow.
A word and number arrangement machine rearranges an input line step by step. An example:
Input: dream 34 bold 71 sky 18 peace 56 apple 93
Step 1: apple dream 34 bold 71 sky peace 56 93 18
Step 2: bold apple dream 71 sky peace 56 93 18 34
Step 3: dream bold apple 71 sky peace 93 18 34 56
Step 4: peace dream bold apple sky 93 18 34 56 71
Step 5: sky peace dream bold apple 18 34 56 71 93
Step 5 is the last step for this input. Using the same rule, answer the questions for this input:
Input: grow 27 earn 84 vast 45 mint 12 lake 69 coin 51

54. How many steps are needed to complete the arrangement of the given input?
(A) 5 (B) 8
(C) 4 (D) 6
(E) 7

55. In Step 3, which element is fourth from the right end?
(A) 69 (B) 51
(C) 27 (D) 45
(E) 12

56. Which of the following is Step 4?
(A) lake grow earn coin 84 mint vast 69 12 27 45 51
(B) lake grow earn coin 84 vast mint 69 12 27 45 51
(C) lake grow earn coin 84 vast mint 12 27 45 51 69
(D) grow earn coin lake 84 vast mint 69 12 27 45 51
(E) lake grow earn coin vast 84 mint 69 12 27 45 51

57. In Step 5, how many elements are there between 'earn' and '12'?
(A) 5 (B) 1
(C) 4 (D) 3
(E) 2

58. In Step 2, which element is third to the right of 'grow'?
(A) 45 (B) lake
(C) 84 (D) vast
(E) mint

Directions: In each of the next three questions, a statement is followed by two assumptions.
An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. Decide which of the assumptions are implicit
in the statement.

59. Statement: "The company has announced a 20% discount on all its laptops for the festive week to clear
old stock."
Assumptions:
I. The discount will help increase sales of the laptops.
II. The company will stop making laptops after the festive week.
(A) Only I is implicit (B) Neither I nor II is implicit
(C) Both I and II are implicit (D) Only II is implicit
(E) Either I or II is implicit

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60. Statement: "Passengers are advised to reach the airport at least three hours before an international
departure."
Assumptions:
I. Check-in and security for international flights can take a long time.
II. Most passengers will follow the advice.
(A) Neither I nor II is implicit (B) Only I is implicit
(C) Only II is implicit (D) Either I or II is implicit
(E) Both I and II are implicit

61. Statement: An advertisement by a power company says, "Use our new app to pay your electricity bill in
under a minute."
Assumptions:
I. Many customers have smartphones and internet access.
II. All customers currently pay their bills late.
(A) Either I or II is implicit (B) Neither I nor II is implicit
(C) Only II is implicit (D) Only I is implicit
(E) Both I and II are implicit

Directions: In each of the next five questions, a statement is followed by two conclusions or two
courses of action.
Take the statement as true. Decide which conclusions logically follow, or which courses of action are
practical and should be taken.

62. Statement: Of the 120 students from College X who took an entrance test this year, 108 passed. Last
year, 70 of its 100 candidates passed.
Conclusions:
I. College X's pass percentage in the test is higher this year.
II. The test was easier this year.
(A) Both I and II follow (B) Neither I nor II follows
(C) Only I follows (D) Only II follows
(E) Either I or II follows

63. Statement: Only graduates with at least 60% marks in graduation can apply for the programme. Sameer
applied, and his application was accepted.
Conclusions:
I. Sameer scored at least 60% in graduation.
II. Sameer is a graduate.
(A) Both I and II follow (B) Only I follows
(C) Either I or II follows (D) Only II follows
(E) Neither I nor II follows

64. Statement: In a survey of 2,000 shoppers, 62% said they compare prices online before buying
electronics in a store.
Conclusions:
I. All shoppers buy electronics online.
II. Physical stores do not sell electronics.
(A) Either I or II follows (B) Only II follows
(C) Only I follows (D) Neither I nor II follows
(E) Both I and II follow

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65. Statement: Many patients at a district hospital complain that they wait more than four hours to see a
doctor.
Courses of action:
I. The hospital should study the causes of delay and add doctors or counters where needed.
II. The hospital should stop treating patients from other districts.
(A) Only II follows (B) Neither I nor II follows
(C) Either I or II follows (D) Only I follows
(E) Both I and II follow

66. Statement: A large number of fish have been found dead in a lake next to an industrial area.
Courses of action:
I. Authorities should test the lake water and check what nearby factories discharge.
II. Fishing in the lake should be stopped until the cause is known.
(A) Neither I nor II follows (B) Both I and II follow
(C) Either I or II follows (D) Only II follows
(E) Only I follows

67. The city's traffic police claim that installing speed cameras on the highway cut accidents on it by 30%
in one year. Which of the following, if true, most weakens this claim?
(A) In the same year, the highway was widened and lit along its full length
(B) Accidents rose during the same year in nearby cities that have no speed cameras
(C) A survey found that most drivers on the highway support the speed cameras
(D) Fines collected from speeding drivers were spent on new police vehicles
(E) Speed cameras on the highway cost more to install and maintain than planned

68. Argument: "Our company should move to a four-day work week because it will raise productivity."
Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument?
(A) In a trial at two of its offices, output per employee rose 12% on a four-day week with no fall in quality
(B) Most of the company's competitors still follow a five-day week and report steady growth in revenue
(C) Employees in an internal survey said they would enjoy longer weekends and more time with family
(D) The company's electricity and maintenance bills would fall slightly if offices closed one extra day
(E) Several employees already work from home one day a week and say they prefer it to the office

Directions: In each of the next two questions, a question is followed by two arguments.
A strong argument is both important and directly related to the question. Decide which of the arguments
are strong.

69. Should mobile phones be banned in school classrooms?
I. Yes. They distract students and reduce attention during lessons.
II. No. Every student must be free to do whatever they want.
(A) Only argument I is strong (B) Either I or II is strong
(C) Neither I nor II is strong (D) Both I and II are strong
(E) Only argument II is strong

70. Should all private cars be banned from the city centre?
I. Yes. All cars are harmful.
II. No. Without good alternatives, it would cause hardship to people with disabilities and to those who
must carry goods.
(A) Both I and II are strong (B) Only argument II is strong
(C) Neither I nor II is strong (D) Either I or II is strong
(E) Only argument I is strong

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71. I. The central bank raised its key interest rate by 0.5 percentage point.
II. Several banks increased the interest rates on their home loans.
Which of the following best describes the relation between these statements?
(A) Both are effects of independent causes
(B) II is the cause and I is its effect
(C) Both are independent causes
(D) I is the cause and II is its effect
(E) Both are effects of some common cause

72. If the English alphabet is written in reverse order (Z to A), which letter will be 7th to the right of the 11th
letter from the left?
(A) H (B) R
(C) I (D) E
(E) J

73. How many pairs of letters in the word QUESTION have as many letters between them in the word as in
the English alphabet (counting forwards or backwards)?
(A) 5 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 2
(E) 1

74. 15 August 2026 is a Saturday. On which day of the week will 15 August 2027 fall?
(A) Friday (B) Tuesday
(C) Saturday (D) Monday
(E) Sunday

75. What is the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock at 4:20?
(A) 20° (B) 5°
(C) 15° (D) 10°
(E) 30°

Abstract Reasoning

76. Find the next number in the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
(A) 40 (B) 48
(C) 42 (D) 36
(E) 44

77. Find the next number in the series: 5, 11, 23, 47, 95, ?
(A) 191 (B) 187
(C) 190 (D) 189
(E) 193

78. Find the next number in the series: 3, 4, 8, 17, 33, ?
(A) 65 (B) 50
(C) 49 (D) 58
(E) 56

79. Find the wrong number in the series: 1, 8, 27, 64, 124, 216
(A) 124 (B) 27
(C) 216 (D) 8
(E) 64

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80. Find the next term: AZ, CX, EV, GT, ?
(A) IS (B) KR
(C) HR (D) JR
(E) IR

81. Find the next letter: B, E, J, Q, ?
(A) Y (B) W
(C) X (D) Z
(E) V

82. Find the next term: A1, C3, F6, J10, ?
(A) N14 (B) P15
(C) O15 (D) N15
(E) O14

83. In a figure series, a square contains an arrow and some dots. In Figure 1 the arrow points north and
there is 1 dot. In each next figure the arrow turns 45° clockwise and one more dot is added. What will
Figure 5 show?
(A) Arrow pointing south, five dots
(B) Arrow pointing west, five dots
(C) Arrow pointing south-east, five dots
(D) Arrow pointing south, four dots
(E) Arrow pointing north, five dots

84. A symbol series runs: ▲ ● ● ▲ ● ● ● ▲ ● ● ● ● ▲ ..., with one more circle after each triangle than after
the one before. How many triangles are there among the first 30 symbols?
(A) 4 (B) 7
(C) 5 (D) 6
(E) 8

85. In a 3 × 3 grid the rows read: 3, 4, 11 / 5, 2, 9 / 6, 3, ?. Find the missing number.
(A) 16 (B) 18
(C) 17 (D) 19
(E) 15

86. In a figure series, Figure 1 is a triangle with 1 dot, Figure 2 a square with 4 dots and Figure 3 a pentagon
with 9 dots. What is Figure 4?
(A) A hexagon with 20 dots (B) A pentagon with 16 dots
(C) A hexagon with 16 dots (D) A heptagon with 16 dots
(E) A hexagon with 12 dots

87. A small circle inside a large square : A small square inside a large circle :: A small triangle inside a large
circle : ?
(A) A small square inside a large triangle
(B) A small triangle inside a large square
(C) A small circle inside a large triangle
(D) A small circle inside a large circle
(E) A large triangle inside a small circle

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88. ACE : BDF :: PRT : ?
(A) QSV (B) OQS
(C) QSU (D) QRS
(E) RTV

89. 7 : 56 :: 9 : ?
(A) 90 (B) 100
(C) 72 (D) 99
(E) 81

90. An arrow pointing north : An arrow pointing east :: An arrow pointing west : ?
(A) An arrow pointing north-east (B) An arrow pointing south
(C) An arrow pointing west (D) An arrow pointing east
(E) An arrow pointing north

91. Find the odd one out: 121, 144, 169, 196, 210
(A) 169 (B) 144
(C) 210 (D) 196
(E) 121

92. Find the odd one out: BDF, HJL, MOQ, PRT, RTW
(A) BDF (B) HJL
(C) MOQ (D) RTW
(E) PRT

93. Find the odd figure: a square with 4 dots, a triangle with 3 dots, a pentagon with 5 dots, a hexagon with
5 dots, a heptagon with 7 dots.
(A) A square with 4 dots (B) A triangle with 3 dots
(C) A pentagon with 5 dots (D) A heptagon with 7 dots
(E) A hexagon with 5 dots

94. Find the odd one out: 17, 29, 41, 51, 59
(A) 59 (B) 29
(C) 17 (D) 41
(E) 51

95. A wall clock shows 3:40. What time will its image in a plane mirror show?
(A) 7:20 (B) 9:20
(C) 8:20 (D) 4:20
(E) 8:40

96. Which of the following words looks exactly the same in a vertical (left–right) mirror?
(A) TOOT (B) BOOK
(C) NOON (D) MOON
(E) DEED

97. Two views of the same die show the faces 1, 2, 3 and 1, 4, 5 meeting at a corner. Which number is
opposite 1?
(A) 2 (B) 5
(C) 3 (D) 4
(E) 6

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98. A cube painted on all faces is cut into 64 equal smaller cubes. How many small cubes have exactly two
faces painted?
(A) 16 (B) 8
(C) 12 (D) 32
(E) 24

99. A square sheet of paper is folded once along its vertical middle line and then once along its horizontal
middle line. One hole is punched through all layers away from the folds. How many holes will the sheet
have when unfolded?
(A) 1 (B) 4
(C) 2 (D) 8
(E) 6

100. How many triangles are formed in a square when both its diagonals are drawn?
(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 10 (D) 12
(E) 6

Part B: Quantitative Aptitude (50 marks)

Quantitative Aptitude

Directions: Study the table and answer the five questions that follow.
Number of applications received by five B-schools (in hundreds):
Institute 2022 2023 2024 2025
P 120 135 150 180
Q 90 99 110 121
R 150 140 168 175
S 80 100 96 120
T 110 121 132 143

101. By what percentage did the applications to institute P rise from 2022 to 2025?
(A) 50% (B) 60%
(C) 40% (D) 45%
(E) 33.33%

102. What was the total number of applications received by all five institutes in 2024?
(A) 65,600 (B) 64,600
(C) 65,500 (D) 65,060
(E) 66,500

103. What was the average number of applications per institute in 2023?
(A) 12,100 (B) 11,900
(C) 11,600 (D) 11,750
(E) 11,950

104. Which institute had the highest percentage growth in applications from 2024 to 2025?
(A) Q (B) S
(C) T (D) R
(E) P

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105. What is the ratio of applications to S in 2023 to applications to R in 2024?
(A) 5 : 8 (B) 25 : 44
(C) 21 : 40 (D) 21 : 25
(E) 25 : 42

106. A number is increased by 25% and the result is then decreased by 20%. What is the net change?
(A) 2% decrease (B) 5% decrease
(C) No change (D) 5% increase
(E) 1% decrease

107. A's salary is 25% more than B's. By what percentage is B's salary less than A's?
(A) 25% (B) 18%
(C) 22.5% (D) 15%
(E) 20%

108. In an election between two candidates, the winner got 58% of the valid votes and won by 4,800 votes.
How many valid votes were cast?
(A) 36,000 (B) 24,000
(C) 28,000 (D) 32,000
(E) 30,000

109. A shopkeeper marks an article 25% above its cost price and gives a 12% discount. What is his profit
percentage?
(A) 11% (B) 10%
(C) 12% (D) 13%
(E) 8%

110. Two articles are sold for ₹1,200 each, one at a 20% profit and the other at a 20% loss. What is the
overall result?
(A) 4% profit (B) No profit, no loss
(C) 2% loss (D) 4% loss
(E) 2% profit

111. By selling an article for ₹840, a trader loses 16%. At what price should he sell it to gain 10%?
(A) ₹1,050 (B) ₹1,000
(C) ₹1,100 (D) ₹1,140
(E) ₹1,124

112. What is the simple interest on ₹8,000 at 7.5% per annum for 3 years?
(A) ₹1,600 (B) ₹2,000
(C) ₹1,750 (D) ₹1,800
(E) ₹1,900

113. What is the compound interest on ₹10,000 at 10% per annum for 2 years, compounded annually?
(A) ₹2,120 (B) ₹2,200
(C) ₹2,010 (D) ₹2,100
(E) ₹2,000

114. What is the difference between compound interest and simple interest on ₹15,000 at 8% per annum for
2 years?
(A) ₹72 (B) ₹120
(C) ₹108 (D) ₹96
(E) ₹48

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115. If A : B = 3 : 4 and B : C = 6 : 7, what is A : B : C?
(A) 18 : 24 : 21 (B) 6 : 8 : 7
(C) 9 : 12 : 14 (D) 3 : 4 : 7
(E) 9 : 12 : 7

116. ₹7,800 is divided among X, Y and Z in the ratio 1/2 : 1/3 : 1/4. How much does Y get?
(A) ₹2,400 (B) ₹1,800
(C) ₹2,000 (D) ₹2,600
(E) ₹3,600

117. The average of 10 numbers is 24. If one number, 42, is replaced by 12, what is the new average?
(A) 19 (B) 21
(C) 23 (D) 22
(E) 20

118. The average age of 30 students is 15 years. When the teacher's age is included, the average rises to 16
years. What is the teacher's age?
(A) 47 years (B) 31 years
(C) 46 years (D) 44 years
(E) 45 years

119. A can finish a job in 12 days and B in 18 days. In how many days can they finish it working together?
(A) 8 days (B) 15 days
(C) 7.2 days (D) 7.5 days
(E) 6 days

120. A and B together finish a job in 10 days. A alone can finish it in 15 days. How long will B alone take?
(A) 5 days (B) 30 days
(C) 35 days (D) 25 days
(E) 20 days

121. Pipe A fills a tank in 6 hours and pipe B empties it in 9 hours. If both are opened together on an empty
tank, how long will it take to fill?
(A) 3.6 hours (B) 12 hours
(C) 9 hours (D) 15 hours
(E) 18 hours

122. A 240 m long train passes a pole in 12 seconds. What is its speed?
(A) 20 km/h (B) 72 km/h
(C) 64.8 km/h (D) 80 km/h
(E) 60 km/h

123. A car travels from A to B at 60 km/h and returns at 40 km/h. What is its average speed for the whole
journey?
(A) 52 km/h (B) 46 km/h
(C) 45 km/h (D) 50 km/h
(E) 48 km/h

124. A boat goes downstream at 18 km/h and upstream at 12 km/h. What is the speed of the stream?
(A) 15 km/h (B) 3 km/h
(C) 6 km/h (D) 4 km/h
(E) 2 km/h

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125. A 40-litre mixture has milk and water in the ratio 3 : 1. How much water must be added to make the
ratio 3 : 2?
(A) 15 litres (B) 20 litres
(C) 5 litres (D) 8 litres
(E) 10 litres

126. In what ratio must rice at ₹40 per kg be mixed with rice at ₹55 per kg to get a mixture worth ₹45 per kg?
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 3 : 2
(C) 2 : 1 (D) 1 : 1
(E) 1 : 2

Directions: Study the data and answer the five questions that follow.
A family's monthly income of ₹60,000 is fully used under six heads, as shown below.
Head Rent Food Education Transport Savings Others
Share of income 25% 20% 15% 10% 18% 12%
All amounts are monthly.

127. How much does the family spend on food and education together?
(A) ₹24,000 (B) ₹22,000
(C) ₹20,000 (D) ₹18,000
(E) ₹21,000

128. By how much does the rent exceed the transport spending?
(A) ₹9,000 (B) ₹6,000
(C) ₹10,500 (D) ₹7,500
(E) ₹15,000

129. If the rent goes up by 20% and every other amount stays the same, what will the family's total monthly
outgo (spending plus savings) be?
(A) ₹60,000 (B) ₹62,000
(C) ₹63,000 (D) ₹72,000
(E) ₹65,000

130. If the data is drawn as a pie chart, what is the central angle of the Savings sector?
(A) 54° (B) 60.8°
(C) 72° (D) 64.8°
(E) 65.4°

131. What is the ratio of the family's spending on food to its savings?
(A) 8 : 9 (B) 9 : 10
(C) 10 : 9 (D) 5 : 4
(E) 4 : 3

132. The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 12 and 360. If one number is 72, what is the other?
(A) 30 (B) 90
(C) 48 (D) 120
(E) 60

133. What is the remainder when 2³¹ is divided by 5?
(A) 2 (B) 1
(C) 4 (D) 0
(E) 3

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134. What is the smallest number greater than 100 that leaves a remainder of 3 when divided by 6, 8 and 12?
(A) 127 (B) 99
(C) 147 (D) 111
(E) 123

135. How many positive factors does 360 have?
(A) 20 (B) 18
(C) 24 (D) 16
(E) 36

136. If 3x − 7 = 2x + 5, what is x?
(A) 2 (B) −2
(C) −12 (D) 8
(E) 12

137. If α and β are the roots of x² − 7x + 12 = 0, what is α² + β²?
(A) 25 (B) 37
(C) 24 (D) 13
(E) 49

138. What is the sum of the first 20 terms of the arithmetic progression 5, 9, 13, ...?
(A) 840 (B) 820
(C) 900 (D) 860
(E) 880

139. What is the 8th term of the geometric progression 3, 6, 12, ...?
(A) 381 (B) 384
(C) 768 (D) 256
(E) 192

140. How many integers x satisfy both 2x − 5 < 11 and x > 3?
(A) 6 (B) 3
(C) 7 (D) 4
(E) 5

141. If x + 1/x = 5, what is x² + 1/x²?
(A) 19 (B) 27
(C) 21 (D) 25
(E) 23

142. What is the area of a triangle with sides 13 cm, 14 cm and 15 cm?
(A) 78 cm² (B) 84 cm²
(C) 96 cm² (D) 91 cm²
(E) 88 cm²

143. The circumference of a circle is 44 cm. What is its area? (Take π = 22/7)
(A) 308 cm² (B) 77 cm²
(C) 144 cm² (D) 616 cm²
(E) 154 cm²

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144. What is each interior angle of a regular hexagon?
(A) 150° (B) 135°
(C) 108° (D) 120°
(E) 144°

145. What is the volume of a cylinder of radius 7 cm and height 10 cm? (Take π = 22/7)
(A) 1,450 cm³ (B) 440 cm³
(C) 3,080 cm³ (D) 1,540 cm³
(E) 1,640 cm³

146. The length of a rectangle is increased by 20% and its breadth decreased by 10%. What is the change in
its area?
(A) 8% decrease (B) 12% increase
(C) 10% increase (D) 8% increase
(E) 2% decrease

147. In how many different ways can the letters of the word MANAGE be arranged?
(A) 720 (B) 120
(C) 360 (D) 240
(E) 180

148. A committee of 3 is to be chosen from 5 men and 4 women. In how many ways can it be formed with
exactly 2 women?
(A) 30 (B) 40
(C) 60 (D) 84
(E) 45

149. Two fair dice are thrown together. What is the probability that the sum of the numbers is 8?
(A) 7/36 (B) 1/9
(C) 1/12 (D) 5/36
(E) 1/6

150. A bag has 5 red and 3 blue balls. Two balls are drawn at random without replacement. What is the
probability that both are red?
(A) 15/28 (B) 25/64
(C) 5/8 (D) 3/14
(E) 5/14

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Part C: Verbal Ability and RC (50 marks)

Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension

Directions: Read the passage and answer the six questions that follow.
For decades, economists assumed that people make choices by carefully weighing costs and benefits.
Behavioural economics challenged this picture. It showed that small features of how a choice is
presented, such as which option is pre-selected or how a form is worded, can change what people do far
more than a modest change in prices. Governments soon took notice. When pension enrolment was
made automatic, so that workers had to opt out rather than opt in, participation rose sharply, even though
nobody's options had changed. Similar 'nudges' have been used to raise organ-donor registration, to cut
energy use by showing households how their bills compare with their neighbours', and to improve tax
compliance through politely worded reminder letters.
Supporters argue that nudges are cheap, respect freedom of choice and work with human nature instead
of against it. A tax or a ban forces behaviour; a nudge merely steers it, and anyone who disagrees can still
choose otherwise. Critics are less comfortable. They point out that the same techniques that help people
save can also be used by firms to sell them things they do not need, such as subscriptions that renew
silently. They also worry that nudges treat citizens as objects to be managed rather than as adults to be
persuaded, and that the effects of many interventions fade once the novelty wears off.
The evidence suggests that both sides have a point. Large reviews of published trials find that nudges do
work on average, but their effects are usually smaller than early studies claimed, partly because
successful experiments were more likely to be published. The most durable gains come from changing
defaults, while reminders and messages tend to have short-lived effects. A sensible policy, then, would
treat nudges as one tool among many: useful for small, low-cost improvements, but no substitute for well-
designed laws, fair prices and clear information.

151. Which of the following best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) Behavioural economics has proved that people never weigh the costs and benefits of choices
(B) Nudges have now replaced taxes, bans and subsidies as the main tool of modern governments
(C) Firms have learned to use nudges far more effectively than governments and regulators
(D) Nudges work cheaply, but their effects are modest and they cannot replace other policy tools
(E) Nudges should be banned because they treat citizens as objects to be managed by the state

152. According to the passage, why did participation in the pension scheme rise?
(A) Pension contributions were made compulsory by a new law
(B) Workers were offered higher returns on their pension savings
(C) Employers were fined when enrolment among their staff was low
(D) Workers were enrolled automatically unless they opted out
(E) The government ran advertisements explaining pension benefits

153. Which of the following is NOT given in the passage as an example of a nudge?
(A) Comparing a household's energy bill with its neighbours'
(B) Sending politely worded tax reminder letters
(C) Encouraging organ-donor registration
(D) Making pension enrolment automatic
(E) Raising the price of cigarettes to cut smoking

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154. Why, according to the passage, did early studies overstate the effect of nudges?
(A) Successful experiments were more likely to be published
(B) The early studies used very small samples
(C) People changed their behaviour only while being watched
(D) Most of the trials were run by firms rather than by governments
(E) Governments paid for studies that showed good results

155. Which concern of the critics is mentioned in the passage?
(A) Firms can use the same methods to sell unneeded things
(B) Nudges cost governments much more than taxes and bans do
(C) Nudges completely remove people's freedom of choice
(D) Nudges are too complicated for most officials to design
(E) Nudges work only in rich countries with good data

156. The word 'durable', as used in the last paragraph, is closest in meaning to:
(A) rapid (B) visible
(C) expensive (D) fragile
(E) lasting

Directions: Read the passage and answer the six questions that follow.
India is among the world's largest producers of fruit and vegetables, yet a substantial share of what its
farmers grow never reaches a consumer in good condition. Estimates differ, but studies have put post-
harvest losses of perishable produce at roughly 5 to 15 per cent, depending on the crop. The main reason
is not a lack of demand but a weak cold chain: the network of pre-cooling units, refrigerated warehouses
and temperature-controlled trucks that keeps produce fresh between the farm and the market.
The gaps are uneven. Large cold stores exist, but many are concentrated in a few states and are used
mainly for potatoes. What is often missing is the first link of the chain, a pack-house near the farm where
freshly picked produce can be cleaned, graded and cooled within hours. Without it, a tomato that is
perfectly good at harvest may spend a day on an open truck in the summer heat and arrive soft and
bruised. The farmer, who cannot wait for a better price, sells at whatever the trader offers.
Building more cold storage is not, by itself, the answer. Refrigerated facilities are costly to run, and many
depend on unreliable grid power. Several new ventures are therefore experimenting with small solar-
powered cold rooms that a village cooperative can share, charging members by the crate per day. Such
models change the farmer's position at the market: produce that can be stored for a week need not be
sold on the day it is picked. Their success, however, depends on something less visible than machinery,
namely farmers' trust that the cooperative will be run fairly and that stored produce will be returned to
them in good condition.

157. According to the passage, what is the main reason why perishable produce is lost?
(A) Too few farmers choosing to grow fruit and vegetables
(B) A weak cold chain between the farm and the market
(C) High taxes on moving produce from one state to another
(D) A lack of demand for fruit and vegetables from consumers
(E) Poor seeds that give fruit a very short shelf life

158. What does the passage call 'the first link of the chain'?
(A) A solar-powered cold room shared by a village cooperative
(B) A wholesale market where traders bid for fresh produce
(C) A large cold store in a big city close to consumers
(D) A pack-house near the farm for cleaning, grading and cooling
(E) A refrigerated truck that carries freshly picked produce to the market

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159. Why does the farmer in the passage sell 'at whatever the trader offers'?
(A) Traders refuse to buy any produce that has been cooled first
(B) The government fixes the price of tomatoes in every market
(C) He cannot store the produce, so he must sell before it spoils
(D) He has signed a contract with the trader well in advance
(E) He prefers selling to one trader he has known for many years

160. Which of the following can be inferred about the shared solar-powered cold rooms?
(A) They need no maintenance once they have been installed
(B) They let farmers delay sales and wait for better prices
(C) They are owned and run by large traders in the nearby towns
(D) They have ended post-harvest losses of fruit in India
(E) They are cheaper to run than every large cold store in India

161. According to the passage, the success of the shared cold rooms depends on:
(A) The price at which traders agree to buy stored produce
(B) Farmers' trust that the cooperative will be run fairly
(C) A steady supply of electricity from the state power grid
(D) The number of potatoes grown in and around the village
(E) Government subsidies paid for every crate that is stored

162. Which of the following is the most suitable title for the passage?
(A) Keeping Produce Fresh: Gaps in India's Cold Chain
(B) The End of Food Waste in India: How Cold Stores Won
(C) Farm Prices and the Rise of Large Trading Companies
(D) Solar Power and the Future of Indian Cities and Villages
(E) Why Indian Farmers Grow Too Many Potatoes for Cold Stores

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Directions: Read the passage and answer the five questions that follow.
When offices emptied during the pandemic, many managers were surprised to find that routine work
carried on largely undisturbed. Reports were filed, code was shipped and customer calls were answered
from kitchen tables. This experience persuaded a number of firms that the office was an expensive habit
rather than a necessity. Yet a quieter cost has begun to show up in research on how ideas spread inside
organisations.
Studies of large companies that moved fully remote found that employees' networks became more static.
People communicated more with the colleagues they already knew and less with those in other teams.
Since new ideas often arise when knowledge from one group meets a problem in another, these weaker
cross-team links matter. Young employees appear to lose the most: they receive less informal feedback
when they cannot overhear how experienced colleagues handle a difficult client or a broken process.
None of this means that firms should simply order everyone back to their desks five days a week.
Commuting has real costs, and flexible arrangements help companies hire and keep talented people who
live far away or care for family members. The more useful question is what the office is for. If it is mainly a
place for heads-down individual work, much of it can be done at home. If it is a place for mentoring,
chance encounters and collaboration across teams, then the days people spend together should be
planned around those activities, not around attendance targets.

163. What is the primary purpose of the passage?
(A) To argue that every employee should return to the office five days a week
(B) To show that remote work has no hidden costs at all for companies or their staff
(C) To describe how routine work was carried out from home during the pandemic
(D) To explain why commuting costs make office work too expensive for most firms
(E) To argue that office days should be planned around mentoring and collaboration

164. According to the passage, how did fully remote work affect employees' networks?
(A) They became wider, with more links across teams
(B) They did not change in any measurable way at all
(C) They became more static, with fewer links across teams
(D) They shifted mostly towards customers and suppliers
(E) They grew larger as people met many new colleagues online

165. Why do young employees appear to lose the most from fully remote work?
(A) They are given more routine work than senior employees
(B) They get less informal feedback from experienced colleagues
(C) They lack the equipment and space needed to work from home
(D) They find it harder to switch off at the end of the day
(E) They are paid less than their older colleagues when working from home

166. What is the author's attitude to ordering everyone back to the office five days a week?
(A) Enthusiastic (B) Hostile
(C) Nostalgic (D) Indifferent
(E) Sceptical

167. In the passage, 'heads-down individual work' means:
(A) Work done under close supervision
(B) Work that cannot be done at home
(C) Work that needs constant meetings
(D) Physical labour
(E) Focused work done alone

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Directions: In each of the next five questions, a sentence is divided into four parts separated by '|'.
One part contains a grammatical error. Choose that part.

168. Each of the students | have submitted | their project reports | before the deadline.
(A) have submitted (B) their project reports
(C) before the deadline (D) Each of the students
(E) No error

169. Neither the manager | nor his assistants | was present | at the meeting.
(A) nor his assistants (B) Neither the manager
(C) at the meeting (D) was present
(E) No error

170. He is senior than me | in the company | by five years, | but we joined the same team.
(A) in the company (B) by five years,
(C) He is senior than me (D) but we joined the same team.
(E) No error

171. Hardly had the meeting begun | than the fire alarm | started ringing | in the building.
(A) than the fire alarm (B) in the building.
(C) Hardly had the meeting begun (D) started ringing
(E) No error

172. The number of applicants | have increased | sharply | this year.
(A) sharply (B) The number of applicants
(C) have increased (D) this year.
(E) No error

173. Choose the grammatically correct sentence.
(A) She is working here since 2019.
(B) She works here since 2019.
(C) She was working here since 2019.
(D) She has been working here from since 2019.
(E) She has been working here since 2019.

174. Choose the correct replacement for the part in capitals: 'The board DISCUSSED ABOUT THE MERGER
for two hours.'
(A) discussed regarding about the merger
(B) No improvement
(C) discussed over the merger
(D) discussed the merger
(E) discussed on the merger

175. Choose the grammatically correct sentence.
(A) Had I knew about the delay, I would have taken the train.
(B) If I knew about the delay, I would have took the train.
(C) If I would have known about the delay, I would take the train.
(D) If I had knew about the delay, I would have taken the train.
(E) Had I known about the delay, I would have taken the train.

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176. Choose the grammatically correct sentence.
(A) The manager along with his team, are attending the conference.
(B) The manager, along with his team, is attending the conference.
(C) The manager, along with his team, were attending the conference.
(D) The manager, along with his team, have been attending the conference.
(E) The manager, along with his team, are attending the conference.

Directions: In each of the next six questions, choose the option that best fills the blank or blanks.

177. The new policy is designed to ______ small businesses from sudden rises in input costs.
(A) expose (B) accuse
(C) deprive (D) shield
(E) abandon

178. Despite repeated warnings, the company ______ to upgrade its software, and a data breach followed.
(A) proceeded (B) neglected
(C) managed (D) hastened
(E) agreed

179. Her argument was so ______ that even her critics admitted she had a point.
(A) verbose (B) cogent
(C) trivial (D) feeble
(E) obscure

180. The success of the project depends ______ timely funding.
(A) for (B) with
(C) in (D) on
(E) at

181. The CEO's speech was deliberately ______, leaving analysts unsure whether the firm would expand or
cut costs.
(A) decisive (B) candid
(C) ambiguous (D) transparent
(E) explicit

182. The report was ______ by the board, which ______ several changes before it could be published.
(A) withdrawn ... celebrated (B) reviewed ... recommended
(C) praised ... forgot (D) printed ... avoided
(E) shredded ... approved

183. Choose the word closest in meaning to PRUDENT.
(A) Generous (B) Hasty
(C) Sensible (D) Reckless
(E) Careless

184. Choose the word closest in meaning to ALLEVIATE.
(A) Ignore (B) Hide
(C) Ease (D) Worsen
(E) Measure

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185. Choose the word closest in meaning to METICULOUS.
(A) Hurried (B) Generous
(C) Lazy (D) Careless
(E) Thorough

186. Choose the word opposite in meaning to AUGMENT.
(A) Increase (B) Enhance
(C) Expand (D) Reduce
(E) Support

187. Choose the word opposite in meaning to OPAQUE.
(A) Transparent (B) Impenetrable
(C) Dull (D) Cloudy
(E) Solid

188. Choose the word opposite in meaning to FRUGAL.
(A) Extravagant (B) Poor
(C) Thrifty (D) Parsimonious
(E) Careful

Directions: In each of the next four questions, arrange the sentences P, Q, R and S to form a
coherent paragraph.
P. As a result, many of them now track their spending on mobile apps.
Q. Young professionals in Indian cities earn more than earlier generations did at the same age.
R. But higher incomes have also brought higher costs, from rent to food delivery.
S. Many find that their savings at the end of the month are lower than they expected.

189. Choose the correct order of the sentences P, Q, R and S.
(A) QRSP (B) QSRP
(C) RQSP (D) QRPS
(E) SQRP

Arrange the sentences to form a coherent paragraph:
P. The machine then sorts the parcels by pin code.
Q. First, each parcel's barcode is scanned at the entry gate.
R. Finally, the sorted parcels are loaded onto trucks bound for different cities.
S. The scan sends the parcel's destination details to the sorting machine.

190. Choose the correct order of the sentences P, Q, R and S.
(A) QSPR (B) QSRP
(C) SQPR (D) PQSR
(E) QPSR

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Arrange the sentences to form a coherent paragraph:
P. Within a decade, the company had become the country's largest seller of two-wheelers.
Q. In 1985, it started with a small workshop and twelve employees.
R. Its early scooters were cheap but often broke down.
S. Learning from customer complaints, it redesigned its engines and offered free servicing.

191. Choose the correct order of the sentences P, Q, R and S.
(A) QSRP (B) QRPS
(C) RSQP (D) QRSP
(E) RQSP

Arrange the sentences to form a coherent paragraph:
P. This is why many economists favour a carbon tax.
Q. Pollution imposes costs on people who play no part in causing it.
R. Such a tax makes polluters pay these costs, giving them a reason to cut emissions.
S. Since these costs do not show up in the polluter's accounts, firms have little reason to reduce them.

192. Choose the correct order of the sentences P, Q, R and S.
(A) SPQR (B) QSRP
(C) SQPR (D) QPSR
(E) QSPR

193. Choose the correct meaning of the idiom 'to burn the midnight oil'.
(A) To start a fire by accident
(B) To lose one's temper suddenly
(C) To work or study late into the night
(D) To waste money on small things
(E) To finish a task at the very last moment

194. Choose the correct meaning of the idiom 'a blessing in disguise'.
(A) A person who hides their talents
(B) Something good that at first seemed bad
(C) A setback that turns into a lasting problem for everyone
(D) A promise that is never kept
(E) A gift given in secret

195. Choose the correct meaning of the idiom 'to bite the bullet'.
(A) To avoid a responsibility
(B) To make a quick profit
(C) To face a difficult situation with courage
(D) To speak angrily
(E) To make a promise one does not intend to keep

196. Choose the one word for: a person who is unable to pay his or her debts.
(A) Imprudent (B) Intestate
(C) Insolvent (D) Indolent
(E) Insolent

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197. Choose the one word for: government by a small group of powerful people.
(A) Democracy (B) Anarchy
(C) Oligarchy (D) Theocracy
(E) Monarchy

198. Choose the one word for: a remedy for all problems or diseases.
(A) Pathogen (B) Antidote
(C) Pandemic (D) Panacea
(E) Placebo

199. Choose the correctly spelt word.
(A) Entrepeneur (B) Enterpreneur
(C) Entrepreneur (D) Entreprenour
(E) Entreprenuer

200. Choose the correctly spelt word.
(A) Acommodation (B) Accommadation
(C) Accommodation (D) Accommodaton
(E) Accomodation

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Answer Key

1 D 2 D 3 B 4 D 5 D 6 A 7 A 8 D 9 A 10 E
11 A 12 E 13 A 14 B 15 C 16 B 17 A 18 C 19 C 20 D
21 B 22 A 23 B 24 B 25 C 26 E 27 E 28 E 29 A 30 C
31 B 32 A 33 A 34 E 35 B 36 B 37 D 38 B 39 A 40 B
41 B 42 E 43 A 44 A 45 B 46 B 47 D 48 E 49 C 50 C
51 A 52 E 53 A 54 D 55 B 56 B 57 D 58 A 59 A 60 E
61 D 62 C 63 A 64 D 65 D 66 B 67 A 68 A 69 A 70 B
71 D 72 C 73 B 74 E 75 D 76 C 77 A 78 D 79 A 80 E
81 D 82 C 83 A 84 D 85 C 86 C 87 C 88 C 89 A 90 E
91 C 92 D 93 E 94 E 95 C 96 A 97 E 98 E 99 B 100 B
101 A 102 A 103 B 104 B 105 E 106 C 107 E 108 E 109 B 110 D
111 C 112 D 113 D 114 D 115 C 116 A 117 B 118 C 119 C 120 B
121 E 122 B 123 E 124 B 125 E 126 C 127 E 128 A 129 C 130 D
131 C 132 E 133 E 134 E 135 C 136 E 137 A 138 D 139 B 140 D
141 E 142 B 143 E 144 D 145 D 146 D 147 C 148 A 149 D 150 E
151 D 152 D 153 E 154 A 155 A 156 E 157 B 158 D 159 C 160 B
161 B 162 A 163 E 164 C 165 B 166 E 167 E 168 A 169 D 170 C
171 A 172 C 173 E 174 D 175 E 176 B 177 D 178 B 179 B 180 D
181 C 182 B 183 C 184 C 185 E 186 D 187 A 188 A 189 A 190 A
191 D 192 E 193 C 194 B 195 C 196 C 197 C 198 D 199 C 200 C

Solutions

Logical Reasoning
1. (D) Order from left: R, T, V, P, W, Q, U, S. Q is 6th, so third to its left is the 3rd seat, V.
2. (D) T is 2nd and W is 5th, so V and P sit between them.
3. (B) R is at the left end and S at the right end.
4. (D) In R–V, T–P, V–W and W–U the second person sits second to the right of the first; U is third to the right of P.
5. (D) U is 7th from the left, so the 6th seat, Q, is immediately to its left.
6. (A) The leaders who are speakers cannot be shy, so II follows; managers need not overlap with speakers, so I does
not.
7. (A) The books that are pens are rulers (I). Pens lie inside rulers, which do not meet erasers (II).
8. (D) Apples lie inside fruits, so no apple is a vegetable. Some roots are vegetables and cannot be fruits, so II is
impossible.
9. (A) Buses that are trucks are also vans, so II follows. Cars and trucks are linked only through 'some', so I is not
certain.
10. (E) The teachers who are lawyers cannot be doctors, so I follows. Doctors may still be teachers, so II does not.
11. (A) Neither is certain alone, but they form a complementary pair: exactly one must be true.
12. (E) Clockwise order: A, G, F, E, H, C, B, D. Facing the centre, left is clockwise: from C, the third person is A.
13. (A) With eight seats, the person four places from G is C.
14. (B) Going clockwise (left) from H: C, B, then D, so D is third to the left of H.

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15. (C) Going left (clockwise) from E: H and C, then B.
16. (B) G and F are adjacent; the other pairs have at least one person between them.
17. (A) P > Q ≥ R = S gives P > S. U ≥ T > S = R gives U > R.
18. (C) F = E > D ≥ C gives F > C. A and D are linked through C in opposite directions, so I is not certain.
19. (C) M < N ≤ O = P gives M < P. N and R are on opposite sides of O = P, so II is not certain.
20. (D) X and V, and Z and W, are linked only through Y in opposite directions, so neither relation is certain.
21. (B) N ≥ M > J ≥ K gives N > K. L < K ≤ J = H gives L < H, so II is false.
22. (A) The word is reversed and each letter is moved one place forward: GROWTH → HTWORG → IUXPSH.
23. (B) BAT: (2 + 1 + 20) × 2 = 46. CUP: (3 + 21 + 16) × 2 = 80.
24. (B) Each letter is replaced by its opposite letter (A↔Z, B↔Y, ...): S→H, I→R, L→O, V→E, E→V, R→I.
25. (C) 'brings' is common to sentences 2 and 4, whose only common code is 'ju'.
26. (E) 'is' appears in sentences 1 and 3, whose only common code is 'so'.
27. (E) 'growth' and 'steady' both appear in sentences 1 and 2, coded 'ri' and 'ne', so 'ri' could be either.
28. (E) The only son of Kiran's paternal grandfather is her father; his son is her brother.
29. (A) A is C's daughter and C is D's daughter, so A is D's granddaughter.
30. (C) Ravi's mother's only brother is his maternal uncle; the uncle's wife is his aunt.
31. (B) A is B's brother, B is C's daughter and C is D's wife. So A is the son of C and D.
32. (A) P is Q's wife and Q is the father of R, who is S's brother. So P is S's mother.
33. (A) Floors 1 to 7: N, L, O, M, J, K, P. J is on floor 5 and K on floor 6.
34. (E) N, on floor 1, is the only one below the person from Nashik (floor 2), so N is from Satara.
35. (B) L is on floor 2 and K, from Solapur, on floor 6; O, M and J live between them.
36. (B) P lives on floor 7 and the person on the top floor is from Nagpur.
37. (D) O is on floor 3 and is from Pune; L is from Nashik, M is on floor 4 and J (Kolhapur) lives above M.
38. (B) He ends 6 km east and 8 km north of the start: √(6² + 8²) = 10 km, towards the north-east.
39. (A) South → 90° clockwise → west → 135° anticlockwise → past south by 45° → south-east.
40. (B) Morning shadows fall to the west, so Rahul's right is west and he faces south. Priya, facing him, faces north.
41. (B) Kunal is 40 − 18 + 1 = 23rd from the left; between 14th and 23rd there are 23 − 14 − 1 = 8 students.
42. (E) Total = 9 + 32 − 1 = 40.
43. (A) Order: S > R > P > Q > T, so R is second heaviest.
44. (A) Neither statement alone fixes the age. Together, R − S = 4 and R + S = 40 give R = 22.
45. (B) I: 3x is even only if x is even. II: x + 5 is odd only if x is even. Each alone answers the question.
46. (B) Both statements compare Q and R only with P, so even together they cannot rank Q and R.
47. (D) I gives a + b = 9 and a = 2b, so the number is 63. II only gives a − b = 3 (41, 52, 63, ...).
48. (E) II alone shows E is taller than D and no one else is, so E is tallest. I says nothing about E.
49. (C) Final schedule: Mon Joshi (Economics), Tue Pawar (Finance), Wed Gokhale (HR), Thu Kulkarni (Statistics), Fri
Shinde (Marketing), Sat Deshmukh (Operations).
50. (C) Marketing must come after HR (Wednesday) and is not on Saturday or Thursday (Statistics), so it is on Friday.
51. (A) Joshi lectures on Monday and Kulkarni on Thursday; Tuesday and Wednesday lie between.
52. (E) Finance is on the day after Joshi's Monday lecture, i.e. Tuesday, which is Pawar's day.
53. (A) Deshmukh lectures last, on Saturday, and Operations is the Saturday lecture.
54. (D) There are six words and six numbers; one of each is placed per step, so the last step is Step 6.
55. (B) Step 3: grow earn coin 84 vast mint lake 69 51 12 27 45. From the right: 45, 27, 12, 51.
56. (B) In Step 4, 'lake' moves to the extreme left and 51 to the extreme right; the rest keep their order.
57. (D) Step 5: mint lake grow earn coin 84 vast 12 27 45 51 69. Between 'earn' and '12': coin, 84, vast.

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58. (A) Step 2: earn coin grow 84 vast 45 mint lake 69 51 12 27. To the right of 'grow': 84, vast, 45.
59. (A) A discount to clear stock assumes it will lift sales. Nothing suggests the company will stop making laptops.
60. (E) The advice is given because the procedures take time (I), and it is given expecting people to act on it (II).
61. (D) Promoting an app assumes customers can use one. Nothing implies that everyone pays late.
62. (C) The pass rate rose from 70% to 90%, so I follows. The reason may be better preparation, not an easier test.
63. (A) An accepted application means he met the condition: he is a graduate with at least 60%, so both follow.
64. (D) The survey is about comparing prices online before buying in a store; it supports neither claim.
65. (D) I tackles the problem directly. II is extreme and denies care, so it does not follow.
66. (B) I finds the cause and II protects people in the meantime; both are practical steps.
67. (A) If other safety changes were made in the same year, the fall in accidents may not be due to the cameras.
68. (A) Direct evidence from the company's own trial that output rose supports the productivity claim.
69. (A) I gives a relevant reason. II is an extreme, unrealistic claim, so it is weak.
70. (B) I is a sweeping generalisation. II points to a real, relevant cost.
71. (D) When the central bank's rate rises, banks' cost of funds rises and they raise lending rates.
72. (C) In reverse order the 11th letter is P; 7th to its right is the 18th letter, which is I.
73. (B) The pairs are U-S, S-T and O-N.
74. (E) The period includes February 2027, which has 28 days, so it is 365 days long: one odd day, Saturday + 1 =
Sunday.
75. (D) Angle = |30 × 4 − 5.5 × 20| = |120 − 110| = 10°.

Abstract Reasoning
76. (C) The terms are 1×2, 2×3, 3×4, 4×5, 5×6, so next is 6×7 = 42.
77. (A) Each term is double the previous plus 1: 95 × 2 + 1 = 191.
78. (D) The differences are 1, 4, 9, 16 (squares), so the next difference is 25: 33 + 25 = 58.
79. (A) The series is the cubes 1³ to 6³; 124 should be 5³ = 125.
80. (E) The first letter moves 2 forward (A, C, E, G, I) and the second 2 back (Z, X, V, T, R).
81. (D) The letter positions are 2, 5, 10, 17, i.e. n² + 1; next is 26 = Z.
82. (C) The positions 1, 3, 6, 10 grow by 2, 3, 4; next grows by 5 to 15, which is O.
83. (A) From Figure 1 to 5 the arrow turns 4 × 45° = 180° (north to south), and the dots go from 1 to 5.
84. (D) Triangles fall at positions 1, 4, 8, 13, 19 and 26; the next is at 34.
85. (C) In each row, third number = first × second − 1: 6 × 3 − 1 = 17.
86. (C) Each figure adds one side, and the dots are the square of the figure number: 4² = 16.
87. (C) The inner and outer shapes swap places and keep their sizes.
88. (C) Each letter moves one place forward: P→Q, R→S, T→U.
89. (A) 7 × 8 = 56, so 9 × 10 = 90.
90. (E) The arrow turns 90° clockwise; west turned 90° clockwise points north.
91. (C) 121, 144, 169 and 196 are perfect squares (11² to 14²); 210 is not.
92. (D) The others have letters two apart; in RTW the gaps are 2 and 3.
93. (E) In the other figures the number of dots equals the number of sides.
94. (E) All others are prime; 51 = 3 × 17.
95. (C) Mirror time = 11:60 − 3:40 = 8:20.
96. (A) T and O are left–right symmetric and TOOT reads the same both ways; B, K, N, D and E are not symmetric.
97. (E) 1 is adjacent to 2, 3, 4 and 5, so the face opposite 1 is 6.
98. (E) For n = 4, cubes with two painted faces lie on the edges: 12 × (n − 2) = 24.

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99. (B) Two folds make four layers, so one punch makes four holes.
100. (B) There are 4 small triangles around the centre and 4 larger ones, each made of two small ones.

Quantitative Aptitude
101. (A) (180 − 120) ÷ 120 × 100 = 50%.
102. (A) 150 + 110 + 168 + 96 + 132 = 656 hundred = 65,600.
103. (B) (135 + 99 + 140 + 100 + 121) ÷ 5 = 595 ÷ 5 = 119 hundred.
104. (B) Growth: P 20%, Q 10%, R 4.2%, S 25%, T 8.3%. S is highest.
105. (E) 100 : 168 = 25 : 42.
106. (C) 1.25 × 0.80 = 1.00, so the number is unchanged.
107. (E) If B = 100, A = 125; B is 25 ÷ 125 = 20% less than A.
108. (E) The margin is 58% − 42% = 16% of the votes = 4,800, so total = 30,000.
109. (B) SP = 1.25 × 0.88 = 1.10 times the cost price, a 10% profit.
110. (D) Cost prices: 1,200 ÷ 1.2 = 1,000 and 1,200 ÷ 0.8 = 1,500. CP 2,500, SP 2,400: loss of 100 = 4%.
111. (C) CP = 840 ÷ 0.84 = ₹1,000; for a 10% gain, SP = ₹1,100.
112. (D) SI = 8,000 × 7.5 × 3 ÷ 100 = ₹1,800.
113. (D) Amount = 10,000 × 1.1² = 12,100, so CI = ₹2,100.
114. (D) For 2 years, CI − SI = P(r/100)² = 15,000 × 0.0064 = ₹96.
115. (C) Make B equal: A : B = 9 : 12 and B : C = 12 : 14.
116. (A) The ratio is 6 : 4 : 3 (13 parts); Y gets 4/13 × 7,800 = ₹2,400.
117. (B) The new total is 240 − 30 = 210, so the average is 21.
118. (C) Teacher = 31 × 16 − 30 × 15 = 496 − 450 = 46.
119. (C) Together they do 1/12 + 1/18 = 5/36 of the job a day, so they need 36/5 = 7.2 days.
120. (B) B's daily rate = 1/10 − 1/15 = 1/30.
121. (E) Net rate = 1/6 − 1/9 = 1/18 of the tank per hour.
122. (B) Speed = 240 ÷ 12 = 20 m/s = 20 × 18/5 = 72 km/h.
123. (E) For equal distances, average speed = 2 × 60 × 40 ÷ (60 + 40) = 48 km/h.
124. (B) Stream speed = (18 − 12) ÷ 2 = 3 km/h.
125. (E) Milk 30 L, water 10 L. For 3 : 2 the water must be 20 L, so add 10 L.
126. (C) By alligation: (55 − 45) : (45 − 40) = 10 : 5 = 2 : 1.
127. (E) Food + education = 35% of ₹60,000 = ₹21,000.
128. (A) Rent − transport = 15% of ₹60,000 = ₹9,000.
129. (C) Rent rises from ₹15,000 to ₹18,000, adding ₹3,000 to ₹60,000.
130. (D) 18% of 360° = 64.8°.
131. (C) 20% : 18% = 10 : 9.
132. (E) Product of the numbers = HCF × LCM, so the other is 12 × 360 ÷ 72 = 60.
133. (E) Powers of 2 leave remainders 2, 4, 3, 1 in a cycle of 4; 31 = 4 × 7 + 3, so the remainder is 3.
134. (E) LCM of 6, 8 and 12 is 24; numbers of the form 24k + 3 above 100 start at 123.
135. (C) 360 = 2³ × 3² × 5, so it has (3 + 1)(2 + 1)(1 + 1) = 24 factors.
136. (E) Subtract 2x from both sides and add 7: x = 12.
137. (A) α + β = 7 and αβ = 12, so α² + β² = 49 − 24 = 25.
138. (D) S = 20/2 × [2 × 5 + 19 × 4] = 10 × 86 = 860.
139. (B) The 8th term is 3 × 2⁷ = 384.
140. (D) 2x − 5 < 11 gives x < 8, so x = 4, 5, 6 or 7.

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141. (E) (x + 1/x)² = x² + 1/x² + 2, so x² + 1/x² = 25 − 2 = 23.
142. (B) s = 21; area = √(21 × 8 × 7 × 6) = √7056 = 84 cm².
143. (E) 2πr = 44 gives r = 7, so the area is 22/7 × 49 = 154 cm².
144. (D) Interior angle = (6 − 2) × 180° ÷ 6 = 120°.
145. (D) V = πr²h = 22/7 × 49 × 10 = 1,540 cm³.
146. (D) New area = 1.2 × 0.9 = 1.08 times, an increase of 8%.
147. (C) Six letters with A repeated twice: 6! ÷ 2! = 360.
148. (A) C(4, 2) × C(5, 1) = 6 × 5 = 30.
149. (D) The pairs (2,6), (3,5), (4,4), (5,3), (6,2) give 5 of the 36 outcomes.
150. (E) C(5, 2) ÷ C(8, 2) = 10 ÷ 28 = 5/14.

Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension
151. (D) The passage presents both the promise and the limits of nudges and ends by calling them one tool among
many.
152. (D) The passage says participation rose when enrolment was made automatic, though nobody's options changed.
153. (E) A price rise is not a nudge and is not mentioned; the other three are listed as examples.
154. (A) The passage says effects were smaller than claimed partly because successful experiments were more likely
to be published.
155. (A) The critics note that firms use the same techniques, for example for subscriptions that renew silently.
156. (E) 'The most durable gains' are the ones that last, as opposed to effects that are 'short-lived'.
157. (B) The passage says the main reason is not a lack of demand but a weak cold chain.
158. (D) The passage describes the missing first link as a pack-house near the farm for cleaning, grading and cooling.
159. (C) Without cooling, produce spoils quickly, so the farmer cannot wait for a better price.
160. (B) Produce that can be stored for a week need not be sold on the day it is picked, which strengthens the
farmer's position.
161. (B) The last sentence says success depends on farmers' trust in fair running and the safe return of their produce.
162. (A) The passage is about losses caused by gaps in the cold chain and new ways to fill them.
163. (E) The author weighs remote work's hidden costs against its benefits and recommends planning office days
around their purpose.
164. (C) Studies found people talked more with colleagues they already knew and less with other teams.
165. (B) The passage says they cannot overhear how experienced colleagues handle difficult situations.
166. (E) The author says 'None of this means' firms should order a full return and lists the costs of commuting.
167. (E) It is contrasted with mentoring and collaboration, so it means concentrated solo work.
168. (A) 'Each' takes a singular verb: 'Each of the students has submitted'.
169. (D) With 'neither ... nor', the verb agrees with the nearer subject, 'assistants': 'were present'.
170. (C) 'Senior' takes 'to', not 'than': 'He is senior to me'.
171. (A) 'Hardly' is followed by 'when', not 'than'.
172. (C) 'The number of' is singular: 'has increased'.
173. (E) An action that began in the past and continues takes the present perfect continuous with 'since'.
174. (D) 'Discuss' is a transitive verb and takes a direct object without a preposition.
175. (E) A past unreal condition uses 'had + past participle' with 'would have + past participle'.
176. (B) A phrase with 'along with' does not change the subject, so the verb stays singular.
177. (D) To 'shield' someone from something is to protect them, which fits the purpose of the policy.
178. (B) 'Despite repeated warnings' and the breach that followed show that the company failed to act.
179. (B) Only a convincing ('cogent') argument would win over critics.

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180. (D) The verb 'depend' takes the preposition 'on'.
181. (C) Leaving analysts unsure points to a speech that could be read two ways.
182. (B) A board reviews a report and recommends changes before it is published.
183. (C) Prudent means acting with care and good judgement.
184. (C) To alleviate is to make a pain or problem less severe.
185. (E) Meticulous means paying great attention to detail.
186. (D) Augment means to increase, so its opposite is reduce.
187. (A) Opaque means not letting light through; transparent is the opposite.
188. (A) Frugal means economical with money; extravagant means spending too much.
189. (A) Q introduces the topic, R adds the contrast, S states the result and P gives the response ('As a result').
190. (A) The process runs: scan (Q), data sent to the machine (S), sorting (P), loading (R).
191. (D) Start (Q), early problem (R), the fix (S), and the result a decade later (P).
192. (E) Q states the problem, S explains it, P names the solution and R ('Such a tax') explains how it works.
193. (C) The idiom means staying up late to work or study.
194. (B) It refers to an apparent misfortune that turns out to be helpful.
195. (C) To bite the bullet is to accept something unpleasant and deal with it.
196. (C) Insolvent means unable to pay debts; insolent means rude.
197. (C) An oligarchy is rule by a few.
198. (D) A panacea is a cure-all; an antidote counters a particular poison.
199. (C) The correct spelling is e-n-t-r-e-p-r-e-n-e-u-r.
200. (C) Accommodation has a double 'c' and a double 'm'.

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