UGC NET 2021 Question Paper Forensic Science Shift 1

UGC NET 2021 Forensic Science
Topic:‐ GP_Set2_C

1) Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follow

India is one of the world’s largest repositories of music, dance, theatre, folk traditions, songs, performing arts, rites and
rituals, paintings and writings that are known, collectively as ‘‘Intangible Cultural Hertiage’’. India’s cultural heritage is a
source of inspiration to people everywhere. India’s century old cultural exchanges with South East Asia continue to inspire
people‐to‐people relationships. There is a visible impact of the Indian heritage on the scriptures and the way of life of the
people of the Mekong region. There is deep conviction about the Buddhist traits of humility, gentleness, justice and charity.
There are many similarities in languages of the region and Sanskrit. The Panchtantra and Jataka tales are narrated with
great enthusiasm and are part of folklore. The Ramayan culture is visible all across South East Asia.

The common culture binding India with South East Asian Countries apart from Buddhism is the great epic of Ramayana.
Angkor Wat has the great Ramayana Panel depicting the battle between Vanaras and the Asuras. SAARC remains an
important component of India’s cultural diplomacy representing multilateralism and people to people contacts. People to
people exchanges are being promoted amongst the BRICS countries with the BRICS Culture Ministers meetings laying down
the road map for collaboration. Cultural exchanges amongst the Member Nations of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation is
also being actively promoted in the fields of tourism, education, science, archeology, music, dance and yoga.

India’s soft power status varies with the regions. In South East Asia, Buddhism links India to the people of the region.

In the Indian Ocean countries, Project Mausam (the monsoon) linked the people to common traits. There are several new
links that have emerged – cricket ties with Australia and South Africa represented by Cricket connects exhibitions. The
theoretical framework for the formulation of India’s soft power status is best represented in the Government’s new ideas –
Digital India, Business Promtion, Yoga Diplomacy.

UNESCO has also focused on building Peace through Cultural Diplomacy. The influence of – Mahatma Gandhi. Nelson Mandela
and Martin Luther King Jr around the world, and the popularity of their ideas of harmonious co‐existence amongst various
layers of society is considerable.

India’s cultural diplomacy is centered around

(A) Ramayan

(B) Multilateral engagements

(C) Business Promotion

(D) People to people contacts

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) and (D) only (2) (A), (C) and (D) only

(3) (B), (C) and (D) only (4) (B) and (D) only

[Question ID = 3557][Question Description = Q46_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1

[Option ID = 13691]
2. 2

[Option ID = 13692]
3. 3

[Option ID = 13693]
4. 4

[Option ID = 13694]

2) Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follow

India is one of the world’s largest repositories of music, dance, theatre, folk traditions, songs, performing arts, rites and
rituals, paintings and writings that are known, collectively as ‘‘Intangible Cultural Hertiage’’. India’s cultural heritage is a
source of inspiration to people everywhere. India’s century old cultural exchanges with South East Asia continue to inspire
people‐to‐people relationships. There is a visible impact of the Indian heritage on the scriptures and the way of life of the

people of the Mekong region. There is deep conviction about the Buddhist traits of humility, gentleness, justice and charity.
There are many similarities in languages of the region and Sanskrit. The Panchtantra and Jataka tales are narrated with
great enthusiasm and are part of folklore. The Ramayan culture is visible all across South East Asia.

The common culture binding India with South East Asian Countries apart from Buddhism is the great epic of Ramayana.
Angkor Wat has the great Ramayana Panel depicting the battle between Vanaras and the Asuras. SAARC remains an
important component of India’s cultural diplomacy representing multilateralism and people to people contacts. People to
people exchanges are being promoted amongst the BRICS countries with the BRICS Culture Ministers meetings laying down
the road map for collaboration. Cultural exchanges amongst the Member Nations of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation is
also being actively promoted in the fields of tourism, education, science, archeology, music, dance and yoga.

India’s soft power status varies with the regions. In South East Asia, Buddhism links India to the people of the region.

In the Indian Ocean countries, Project Mausam (the monsoon) linkded the people to common traits. There are several new
links that have emerged – cricket ties with Australia and South Africa represented by Cricket connects exhibitions. The
theoretical framework for the formulation of India’s soft power status is best represented in the Government’s new ideas –
Digital India, Business Promtion, Yoga Diplomacy.

UNESCO has also focused on building Peace through Cultural Diplomacy. The influence of – Mahatma Gandhi. Nelson Mandela
and Martin Luther King Jr around the world, and the popularity of their ideas of harmonious co‐existence amongst various
layers of society is considerable.

The common thread binding India and South East Asian Countries is/are

(A) Buddist tenets

(B) Yoga

(C) Cricket

(D) Ramayan

(E) Sanskrit

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) only (2) (A), (B), (C) and (D) only

(3) (A) and (D) only (4) (A), (B), (D) and (E) only

[Question ID = 3558][Question Description = Q47_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13695]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13696]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13697]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13698]

3) Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follow

India is one of the world’s largest repositories of music, dance, theatre, folk traditions, songs, performing arts, rites and
rituals, paintings and writings that are known, collectively as ‘‘Intangible Cultural Hertiage’’. India’s cultural heritage is a
source of inspiration to people everywhere. India’s century old cultural exchanges with South East Asia continue to inspire
people‐to‐people relationships. There is a visible impact of the Indian heritage on the scriptures and the way of life of the
people of the Mekong region. There is deep conviction about the Buddhist traits of humility, gentleness, justice and charity.
There are many similarities in languages of the region and Sanskrit. The Panchtantra and Jataka tales are narrated with
great enthusiasm and are part of folklore. The Ramayan culture is visible all across South East Asia.

The common culture binding India with South East Asian Countries apart from Buddhism is the great epic of Ramayana.
Angkor Wat has the great Ramayana Panel depicting the battle between Vanaras and the Asuras. SAARC remains an
important component of India’s cultural diplomacy representing multilateralism and people to people contacts. People to
people exchanges are being promoted amongst the BRICS countries with the BRICS Culture Ministers meetings laying down
the road map for collaboration. Cultural exchanges amongst the Member Nations of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation is
also being actively promoted in the fields of tourism, education, science, archeology, music, dance and yoga.

India’s soft power status varies with the regions. In South East Asia, Buddhism links India to the people of the region.

In the Indian Ocean countries, Project Mausam (the monsoon) linkded the people to common traits. There are several new
links that have emerged – cricket ties with Australia and South Africa represented by Cricket connects exhibitions. The
theoretical framework for the formulation of India’s soft power status is best represented in the Government’s new ideas –
Digital India, Business Promtion, Yoga Diplomacy.

UNESCO has also focused on building Peace through Cultural Diplomacy. The influence of – Mahatma Gandhi. Nelson Mandela
and Martin Luther King Jr around the world, and the popularity of their ideas of harmonious co‐existence amongst various
layers of society is considerable.

Which of the following is not reflective of India’s soft power status?

(1) Digital India (2) Skill India

(3) Business Promotion (4) Yoga Diplomacy

[Question ID = 3559][Question Description = Q48_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13699]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13700]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13701]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13702]

4) Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follow

India is one of the world’s largest repositories of music, dance, theatre, folk traditions, songs, performing arts, rites and
rituals, paintings and writings that are known, collectively as ‘‘Intangible Cultural Hertiage’’. India’s cultural heritage is a
source of inspiration to people everywhere. India’s century old cultural exchanges with South East Asia continue to inspire
people‐to‐people relationships. There is a visible impact of the Indian heritage on the scriptures and the way of life of the
people of the Mekong region. There is deep conviction about the Buddhist traits of humility, gentleness, justice and charity.
There are many similarities in languages of the region and Sanskrit. The Panchtantra and Jataka tales are narrated with
great enthusiasm and are part of folklore. The Ramayan culture is visible all across South East Asia.

The common culture binding India with South East Asian Countries apart from Buddhism is the great epic of Ramayana.
Angkor Wat has the great Ramayana Panel depicting the battle between Vanaras and the Asuras. SAARC remains an
important component of India’s cultural diplomacy representing multilateralism and people to people contacts. People to
people exchanges are being promoted amongst the BRICS countries with the BRICS Culture Ministers meetings laying down
the road map for collaboration. Cultural exchanges amongst the Member Nations of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation is
also being actively promoted in the fields of tourism, education, science, archeology, music, dance and yoga.

India’s soft power status varies with the regions. In South East Asia, Buddhism links India to the people of the region.

In the Indian Ocean countries, Project Mausam (the monsoon) linkded the people to common traits. There are several new
links that have emerged – cricket ties with Australia and South Africa represented by Cricket connects exhibitions. The
theoretical framework for the formulation of India’s soft power status is best represented in the Government’s new ideas –
Digital India, Business Promtion, Yoga Diplomacy.

UNESCO has also focused on building Peace through Cultural Diplomacy. The influence of – Mahatma Gandhi. Nelson Mandela
and Martin Luther King Jr around the world, and the popularity of their ideas of harmonious co‐existence amongst various
layers of society is considerable.

Cultural exchanges amongst the member nations of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation are in the following fields :

(A) Archeology

(B) Folklore

(C) Tourism

(D) Yoga

(E) Education

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A), (C), (D) and (E) only (2) (A), (B), (C) and (E) only

(3) (A), (B) and (E) only (4) (B), (C), (D) and (E) only

[Question ID = 3560][Question Description = Q49_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]

1. 1 [Option ID = 13703]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13704]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13705]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13706]

5) Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follow

India is one of the world’s largest repositories of music, dance, theatre, folk traditions, songs, performing arts, rites and
rituals, paintings and writings that are known, collectively as ‘‘Intangible Cultural Hertiage’’. India’s cultural heritage is a
source of inspiration to people everywhere. India’s century old cultural exchanges with South East Asia continue to inspire
people‐to‐people relationships. There is a visible impact of the Indian heritage on the scriptures and the way of life of the
people of the Mekong region. There is deep conviction about the Buddhist traits of humility, gentleness, justice and charity.
There are many similarities in languages of the region and Sanskrit. The Panchtantra and Jataka tales are narrated with
great enthusiasm and are part of folklore. The Ramayan culture is visible all across South East Asia.

The common culture binding India with South East Asian Countries apart from Buddhism is the great epic of Ramayana.
Angkor Wat has the great Ramayana Panel depicting the battle between Vanaras and the Asuras. SAARC remains an
important component of India’s cultural diplomacy representing multilateralism and people to people contacts. People to
people exchanges are being promoted amongst the BRICS countries with the BRICS Culture Ministers meetings laying down
the road map for collaboration. Cultural exchanges amongst the Member Nations of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation is
also being actively promoted in the fields of tourism, education, science, archeology, music, dance and yoga.

India’s soft power status varies with the regions. In South East Asia, Buddhism links India to the people of the region.

In the Indian Ocean countries, Project Mausam (the monsoon) linkded the people to common traits. There are several new
links that have emerged – cricket ties with Australia and South Africa represented by Cricket connects exhibitions. The
theoretical framework for the formulation of India’s soft power status is best represented in the Government’s new ideas –
Digital India, Business Promtion, Yoga Diplomacy.

UNESCO has also focused on building Peace through Cultural Diplomacy. The influence of – Mahatma Gandhi. Nelson Mandela
and Martin Luther King Jr around the world, and the popularity of their ideas of harmonious co‐existence amongst various
layers of society is considerable.

The passage highlights

(1) The emergence of India as a super power

(2) The role of culture for peace and harmonious relations with other countries

(3) India’s cultural hegemony

(4) India’s relations with BRICS countries

[Question ID = 3561][Question Description = Q50_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13707]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13708]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13709]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13710]

Topic:‐ GP_Set2_A

1)

What is the ratio of the number of PCs sold of Company DELL during July to those sold during December of the same
company?
(1) 119 : 145 (2) 116 : 135
(3) 119 : 135 (4) 119 : 130

[Question ID = 3562][Question Description = Q01_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13711]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13712]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13713]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13714]

2)

If 35% of the PCs sold by Company HP during November were sold at a discount, then how many PCs of Company HP during
that month were sold without a discount?
(1) 882 (2) 1635
(3) 1638 (4) 885

[Question ID = 3563][Question Description = Q02_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13715]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13716]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13717]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13718]

3)

If the dealer earned a profit of Rs. 433 on each PC sold of Company DELL during October, then what was his total profit
earned on the PCs of that company during the same month?
(1) 6,49,900 (2) 6,45,900
(3) 6,49,400 (4) 6,49,500

[Question ID = 3564][Question Description = Q03_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]

1. 1 [Option ID = 13719]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13720]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13721]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13722]

4)

The number of PCs sold of Company HP during July is approximately what percent (%) of the number of PCs sold of Company
HP during December?
(1) 110% (2) 140%
(3) 150% (4) 130%

[Question ID = 3565][Question Description = Q04_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13723]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13724]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13725]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13726]

5)

What is the total number of PCs sold by Company DELL during August and September together?
(1) 10000 (2) 15000
(3) 10500 (4) 9500

[Question ID = 3566][Question Description = Q05_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1

[Option ID = 13727]
2. 2

[Option ID = 13728]
3. 3

[Option ID = 13729]
4. 4

[Option ID = 13730]

Topic:‐ GP_Set2_B

1) In which level of teaching promotion of critical thinking is the hall mark?
(1) Memory level (2) Understanding level
(3) Reflective level (4) Autonomous development level

[Question ID = 3567][Question Description = Q06_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13731]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13732]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13733]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13734]

2) The key behaviour of an effective teacher is marked by which of the following features? (A) Structuring (B) Teacher
task orientation (C) Instructional Variety (D) Lesson clarity (E) Probing Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :

(1) (A), (B) and (C) only (2) (A), (C) and (D) only

(3) (B), (C) and (D) only (4) (C), (D) and (E) only

[Question ID = 3568][Question Description = Q07_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1

[Option ID = 13735]
2. 2

[Option ID = 13736]
3. 3

[Option ID = 13737]
4. 4

[Option ID = 13738]

3) Match List I with List II gives their characteristic features.
List I List II
(Modes of Evaluation) (Characteristic Features)
(A) Formative Evaluation (I) Compares one student with another student
(B) Summative Evaluation (II) Compares the progress of a student against prespecified standards
(C) Criterion‐referenced Evaluation (III) Used primarily for motivational and monitoring purposes of learning
(D) Norm‐referenced Evaluation (IV) Used primarily for gradation of progress made
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A)‐(IV), (B)‐(III), (C)‐(I), (D)‐(II) (2) (A)‐(III), (B)‐(IV), (C)‐(II), (D)‐(I)

(3) (A)‐(II), (B)‐(I), (C)‐(III), (D)‐(IV) (4) (A)‐(I), (B)‐(II), (C)‐(IV), (D)‐(III)

[Question ID = 3569][Question Description = Q08_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13739]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13740]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13741]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13742]

4) Given below are two statements :
Statement I : One of the basic principles of progressive view of teaching is that education should be life itself rather than a
preparation for living.
Statement II : According to reconstructionist view of education the new social order must be ‘genuinely democratic’.
In the light of the above statements, Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

[Question ID = 3570][Question Description = Q09_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13743]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13744]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13745]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13746]

5) Given below are two statements : One is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R.
Assertion (A) : ‘Teaching’ involves critical and creative interchanges between teacher and learner and hence it is different
from ‘instruction’ and ‘training’.

Reason (R) : Both ‘instruction’ and ‘training’ are directed at lower order cognitive interchanges.
In the light of the above statements, Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT
the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

[Question ID = 3571][Question Description = Q10_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13747]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13748]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13749]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13750]

6) In which of the following researches, attempts are made to establish context‐free generalizations?
(1) Phenomenology (2) Grounded theory
(3) Symbolic interactionism (4) Experimental Studies

[Question ID = 3572][Question Description = Q11_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13751]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13752]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13753]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13754]

7) Identify the main features of ‘qualitative research’ from the following :
(A) It is concerned with understanding the phenomena from the participant’s perspective
(B) It assumes that there are social facts with a single objective reality
(C) Researcher becomes immersed in the situation, present or past
(D) Researcher is detached from the study to avoid bias
(E) There is greater flexibility in both the methods and research process
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A), (C) and (E) only (2) (A), (B) and (C) only
(3) (B), (C) and (D) only (4) (C), (D) and (E) only

[Question ID = 3573][Question Description = Q12_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13755]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13756]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13757]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13758]

8) Match List I with List II :
List I List II
Methods of research Features emphasized
(A) Experimental (I) Primary and secondary sources tapped with emphasis on internal criticism
(B) ExPost Facto (II) Status of facts and conditions are ascertained
(C) Descriptive (III) A variable is manipulated to see its effect on other variable
(D) Historical (IV) The differences are noted and factors causal or otherwise are determined
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A)‐(I), (B)‐(II), (C)‐(III), (D)‐(IV) (2) (A)‐(II), (B)‐(I), (C)‐(IV), (D)‐(III)
(3) (A)‐(III), (B)‐(IV), (C)‐(II), (D)‐(I) (4) (A)‐(IV), (B)‐(III), (C)‐(I), (D)‐(II)

[Question ID = 3574][Question Description = Q13_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13759]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13760]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13761]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13762]

9) Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Data analysis in research being a technical job, ‘research ethics’ does not matter.
Statement II : ICT is helpful almost at all stages of research.
In the light of the above statements, Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

[Question ID = 3575][Question Description = Q14_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13763]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13764]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13765]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13766]

10) Given below are two statements : One is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R.
Assertion (A) : When Null Hypothesis (H0) is rejected, researcher’s hypothesis (H1) is accepted.
Reason (R) : Null Hypothesis (H0) is a chance hypothesis and as such (H1) being true, the researcher’s hypothesis lies in the
domain of acceptability.
In the light of the above statements, Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT
the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

[Question ID = 3576][Question Description = Q15_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13767]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13768]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13769]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13770]

11) Which of the following is an exclusive example of Non‐verbal cue that includes the pitch, rate, volume and use of
pauses?
(1) Linear Model of Communication (2) Interactional Model
(3) Non‐Verbal Cues (4) Para‐Language

[Question ID = 3577][Question Description = Q16_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13771]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13772]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13773]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13774]

12) Given below are two statements : One is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R.

Assertion (A) : In the context of communication, the perceptual process creates, semantic‐noise also called word‐noise.

Reason (R) : The various meanings either cannotative or denotative are sources of semantic noise.

In the light of the above statements, Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

[Question ID = 3578][Question Description = Q17_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1

[Option ID = 13775]
2. 2

[Option ID = 13776]
3. 3

[Option ID = 13777]
4. 4

[Option ID = 13778]

13) Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Appropriate word choice is an essential of effective oral communication.
Statement II : Facial expression and postures fall under visual communication.
In the light of the above statements, Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

[Question ID = 3579][Question Description = Q18_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13779]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13780]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13781]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13782]

14) Identify the barriers to communication from the list given below :
(A) Time and distance
(B) By‐passed instructions
(C) Encoding of thoughts and ideas
(D) Decoding of thoughts and ideas
(E) Logical sequence
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) and (B) only (2) (B) and (C) only
(3) (C) and (D) only (4) (D) and (E) only

[Question ID = 3580][Question Description = Q19_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1

[Option ID = 13783]
2. 2

[Option ID = 13784]
3. 3

[Option ID = 13785]
4. 4

[Option ID = 13786]

15) Match List I with List II :
List I List II
Types of Communication Main features
(A) Downward Communication (I) Grows primarily to meet organizational/member’s need for communication
(B) Upward Communication (II) It forms a useful link in decision making for task coordination
(C) Horizontal Communication (III) Provides management with feedback about current issues and problems
(D) Grapevine Communication (IV) It is the most common communication system in an organization
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A)‐(I), (B)‐(II), (C)‐(IV), (D)‐(III) (2) (A)‐(II), (B)‐(I), (C)‐(III), (D)‐(IV)
(3) (A)‐(III), (B)‐(IV), (C)‐(I), (D)‐(II) (4) (A)‐(IV), (B)‐(III), (C)‐(II), (D)‐(I)

[Question ID = 3581][Question Description = Q20_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13787]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13788]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13789]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13790]

16) If the cost price is 25% of selling price, then what is the profit percentage?
(1) 100 (2) 200
(3) 300 (4) 400

[Question ID = 3582][Question Description = Q21_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13791]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13792]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13793]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13794]

17) A seller mixes 26 kg rice of a price of Rs. 20/kg, with 30 kg of different variety rice of a price of Rs. 36/kg. He sells
both the mixed rices at Rs. 30/kg. What will be the profit in percentage?
(1) 5% (2) 10%
(3) 15% (4) 20%

[Question ID = 3583][Question Description = Q22_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13795]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13796]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13797]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13798]

18) A milk man purchases milk at Rs. X per litre and sells it at Rs. 2X per litre. Still he mixes 2 litres of water with every 6
litre of pure milk. What is his profit percentage?
(1) 33.33 (2) 66.66
(3) 133.33 (4) 166.66

[Question ID = 3584][Question Description = Q23_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13799]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13800]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13801]

4. 4 [Option ID = 13802]

19) The average monthly income of P and Q is Rs. 5,050/‐. The average montly income of Q and R is Rs. 6,250/‐ and that
of P and R is Rs. 5,200. What will be the monthly income of P?
(1) Rs. 3,000/‐ (2) Rs. 3,500/‐
(3) Rs. 4,000/‐ (4) Rs. 4,500/‐

[Question ID = 3585][Question Description = Q24_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13803]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13804]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13805]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13806]

20) The average of 4 terms is 20, and the first term is 1/3rd of sum of the remaining 3 terms. What will be the value of
first term?
(1) 15 (2) 20
(3) 25 (4) 30

[Question ID = 3586][Question Description = Q25_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13807]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13808]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13809]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13810]

21)

[Question ID = 3587][Question Description = Q26_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13811]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13812]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13813]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13814]

22)

[Question ID = 3588][Question Description = Q27_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13815]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13816]

3. 3 [Option ID = 13817]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13818]

23)

[Question ID = 3589][Question Description = Q28_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13819]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13820]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13821]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13822]

24) ‘‘All radically egalitarian societies are societies that do not preserve individual liberties’’.
Which of the following statements is true with reference to the above statement?
(1) ‘‘No radically egalitarian societies are societies that preserve individual liberties’’ is obverse of the given statement and
it is logically equivalent.
(2) ‘‘No radically egalitarian societies are societies that preserve individual liberties’’ is obverse of the given statement and
it is not logically equivalent.
(3) ‘‘Some radically egalitarian societies are societies that preserve individual liberties’’ is converse of the given statement
and it is logically equivalent.
(4) ‘‘Some radically egalitarian societies are not societies that preserve individual liberties’’ is converse of the given
statement and it is logically equivalent.

[Question ID = 3590][Question Description = Q29_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13823]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13824]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13825]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13826]

25) Two propositions are contradictories if :
(1) One is denial or negation of the other
(2) If they can both be true but cannot both be false
(3) If they have different subject and predicate term and differ from each other in both quality and quantity
(4) If they have the same subject and predicate terms but differ from each other only in quantity but not in quality

[Question ID = 3591][Question Description = Q30_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13827]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13828]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13829]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13830]

26) What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 67.625?

(1) 1000010.110 (2) 1000011.110

(3) 1000010.101 (4) 1000011.101

[Question ID = 3592][Question Description = Q31_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1

[Option ID = 13831]
2. 2

[Option ID = 13832]
3. 3

[Option ID = 13833]
4. 4

[Option ID = 13834]

27) Identify the correct order of the following different types of computer components ranked from fastest to slowest in
terms of access time.
(A) RAM
(B) Optical Drive
(C) CPU Cache
(D) SSD
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (B), (D), (A), (C) (2) (C), (D), (A), (B)
(3) (A), (B), (C), (D) (4) (C), (A), (D), (B)

[Question ID = 3593][Question Description = Q32_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13835]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13836]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13837]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13838]

28) Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The abbreviation ‘MOOC’ stands for ‘Massive Open Online Courses’.
Statement II : The abbreviation ‘SWAYAM’ stands for ‘Study Webs of Active‐Learning for Young Academic Minds’,
In the light of the above statements, Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

[Question ID = 3594][Question Description = Q33_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13839]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13840]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13841]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13842]

29) Which of the following statements are related to the role of ICT in citizen services?
(A) Access to public documents
(B) On‐line payments
(C) Better medical education across the country
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A), (B) and (C) (2) (A) and (C) only
(3) (B) and (C) only (4) (A) and (B) only

[Question ID = 3595][Question Description = Q34_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13843]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13844]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13845]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13846]

30) Match List I with List II :
List I List II
(Computer Terms) (Description)
(A) HTML (I) Semantic Web
(B) Web 2.0 (II) Use of Internet to make phone calls
(C) Web 3.0 (III) Language used to create web pages
(D) VOIP (IV) Collaborative web
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A)‐(III), (B)‐(IV), (C)‐(I), (D)‐(II) (2) (A)‐(III), (B)‐(I), (C)‐(IV), (D)‐(II)
(3) (A)‐(II), (B)‐(IV), (C)‐(I), (D)‐(III) (4) (A)‐(IV), (B)‐(III), (C)‐(I), (D)‐(II)

[Question ID = 3596][Question Description = Q35_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13847]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13848]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13849]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13850]

31) Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Noise Pollution has an adverse impact on hearing ability as well as psychological well being of a person.
Statement II : Human perception of noise levels is linear.
In the light of the above statements, Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

[Question ID = 3597][Question Description = Q36_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13851]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13852]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13853]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13854]

32) Which country is in the process of setting up the largest integrated solar‐wind energy park of 30 GW capacity?
(1) China (2) India
(3) Australia (4) Saudi Arabia

[Question ID = 3598][Question Description = Q37_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13855]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13856]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13857]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13858]

33) Given below are two statements : One is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R.
Assertion (A) : There has to be an integrated approach to achieve the targets of Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
Reason (R) : Many of the SDGs are interconnected.

In the light of the above statements, Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

[Question ID = 3599][Question Description = Q38_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1

[Option ID = 13859]
2. 2

[Option ID = 13860]
3. 3

[Option ID = 13861]
4. 4

[Option ID = 13862]

34) Given below are two statements : One is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R.
Assertion (A) : Mankind’s interaction with Earth has led to a highly complex and diverse ecosystem to an increasingly
degraded environment.
Reason (R) : Many of the changes taking place in Earth’s environment are irreversible.

In the light of the above statements, Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

[Question ID = 3600][Question Description = Q39_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1

[Option ID = 13863]
2. 2

[Option ID = 13864]
3. 3

[Option ID = 13865]
4. 4

[Option ID = 13866]

35) What percentage of India’s land is vulnerable to earthquakes?
(1) ~ 57% (2) ~ 42%
(3) ~ 37% (4) ~ 28%

[Question ID = 3601][Question Description = Q40_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13867]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13868]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13869]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13870]

36) Which of the following is most effectively promoted by Globalisation among the societies?
(1) Monocultural values (2) Multicultural values
(3) Regionalisation (4) Self centredness

[Question ID = 3602][Question Description = Q41_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13871]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13872]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13873]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13874]

37) CBCS stands for
(1) Choice Based Central Schemes (2) Choice Based Credit System
(3) Central Board of Credit Schemes (4) Credit Board of Central Sponsors

[Question ID = 3603][Question Description = Q42_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13875]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13876]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13877]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13878]

38) COVID‐19 acronym stands for

(1) Corona Virus Disease 2019

(2) Corona Virus Disease strain 19

(3) Corona Virus Disaster 2019

(4) Corona Virus Disease 2020

[Question ID = 3604][Question Description = Q43_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1

[Option ID = 13879]
2. 2

[Option ID = 13880]
3. 3

[Option ID = 13881]
4. 4

[Option ID = 13882]

39) NITI Aayog is
(1) National Institution for Transforming India (2) National Institute of Technology Integration
(3) National Institute of Technological Innovation (4) National Institute of Transformation and Innovation

[Question ID = 3605][Question Description = Q44_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13883]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13884]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13885]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13886]

40) Match List I with List II :
List I List II
(Days Celebrated) (When)
(A) Earth Day (I) 24 January
(B) UNO Day (II) 5th June
(C) Environment Day (III) 24th October
(D) International Day of Education (IV) 22nd April
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A)‐(I), (B)‐(III), (C)‐(II), (D)‐(IV) (2) (A)‐(IV), (B)‐(III), (C)‐(I), (D)‐(II)
(3) (A)‐(II), (B)‐(IV), (C)‐(I), (D)‐(III) (4) (A)‐(IV), (B)‐(III), (C)‐(II), (D)‐(I)

[Question ID = 3606][Question Description = Q45_GP_20NOV_S2_SHAAN_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 13887]
2. 2 [Option ID = 13888]
3. 3 [Option ID = 13889]
4. 4 [Option ID = 13890]

Topic:‐ 82FORSCI_A

1) O‐demethylation of codeine gives
(1) Morphine (2) Acetylcodine
(3) Methylcodine (4) Heroin

[Question ID = 5276][Question Description = Q01_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20552]

2. 2 [Option ID = 20553]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20554]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20555]

2) A voice recording which was orginally recorded in the phone memory, copied in a memory card. The admissibility of this
memory card as an evidence is under
(1) Section 65 of IT Act (2) Section 65 B of Indian Evidence Act
(3) Section 65 of Indian Evidence Act (4) Section 65 of Indian Penal code

[Question ID = 5277][Question Description = Q02_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20556]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20557]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20558]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20559]

3) In British India where was the first chair of professor of medical jurisprudence established
(1) Calcutta Medical College, Calcutta (Kolkata) (2) Madras Medical College, Madras (Chennai)
(3) Punjab Medical College, Lahore (Now Pakistan) (4) Lucknow Medical College, Lucknow

[Question ID = 5278][Question Description = Q03_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20560]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20561]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20562]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20563]

4) Which section under Cr.P.C. 1973 allows Magistrate's inquest
(1) Section 174 Cr.P.C. 1973 (2) Section 176 Cr.P.C. 1973
(3) Section 162 Cr.P.C. 1973 (4) Section 260 Cr.P.C. 1973

[Question ID = 5279][Question Description = Q04_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20564]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20565]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20566]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20567]

5) Which Article of constitution of India declares that the law declared by the supreme court shall be binding on all courts
within the territory of India
(1) Article 141 (2) Article 140
(3) Article 139 (4) Article 138

[Question ID = 5280][Question Description = Q05_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20568]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20569]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20570]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20571]

6) Which section of Indian evidence Act 1872 defines evidence as that which a court of Justice is permitted by law to take
into consideration for making clear or ascertaining the truth of the fact or point in issue
(1) Section 2 IEA 1872 (2) Section 45 IEA 1872
(3) Section 6 IEA 1872 (4) Section 3 IEA 1872

[Question ID = 5281][Question Description = Q06_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20572]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20573]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20574]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20575]

7) The correct explanation for SWGDRUG is
(1) Rapid drug testing kit (2) An International committee that set standards for the analysis of drugs
(3) The united Nation organization with the responsibility for arresting drug traffickers (4) European agency for early
warning for new drugs

[Question ID = 5282][Question Description = Q07_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20576]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20577]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20578]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20579]

8) Which of the following options explains the process of sputtering that occur in Hallow Cathode Lamp (HCL) in Atomic
absorption spectrometry
(1) Positive ions collide with cathode surface and metal atoms from cathode are ejected (2) Negative ions collide with
cathode surface and metal atoms from anode are ejected
(3) Positive ions collide with negative ions and metal atoms from anode are ejected (4) Positive ions collide with negative
ions and photons are ejected

[Question ID = 5283][Question Description = Q08_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20580]

2. 2 [Option ID = 20581]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20582]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20583]

9) For a particular vibrational mode to appear in Raman spectrum, which of the following must change
(1) Frequency of radiation (2) Intensity of radiation
(3) Molecule's shape (4) Molecule's polarizability

[Question ID = 5284][Question Description = Q09_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20584]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20585]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20586]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20587]

10) Which of the following is the most common instrument for photographic recording of X‐ray diffraction patterns?
(1) Debye‐scherrer powder camera (2) Gamma camera
(3) Geiger tube (4) Scintillation counter

[Question ID = 5285][Question Description = Q10_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20588]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20589]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20590]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20591]

11) A substance that responds in the same manner to the light polarized in any direction is
(1) Isotropic (2) An isotope
(3) An‐isotropic (4) Divergent

[Question ID = 5286][Question Description = Q11_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20592]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20593]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20594]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20595]

12) Moving belt interface is used as an interface for which of the undermentioned technique
(1) HPTLC‐MS (2) CE‐MS
(3) GC‐MS (4) HPLC‐MS

[Question ID = 5287][Question Description = Q12_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20596]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20597]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20598]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20599]

13) The technique used in identification of saliva are based on the detection of specific types of mRNA expressed

exclusively in certain cells in oral cavity using which one of these
(1) PCR (2) RT‐PCR
(3) Sequencer (4) Gel‐documentation

[Question ID = 5288][Question Description = Q13_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20600]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20601]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20602]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20603]

14) The —————— controls the movement of the chromosome during cell division
(1) Centromere (2) Telomere
(3) Chromatin (4) Allele

[Question ID = 5289][Question Description = Q14_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20604]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20605]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20606]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20607]

15) The law of —————— states that different segregating gene pairs behave independently due to recombination where
genetic material is shuffled between generations
(1) Probability (2) Mendelian inheritance
(3) Independent assortment (4) Segregation

[Question ID = 5290][Question Description = Q15_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20608]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20609]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20610]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20611]

16) An oxidation ‐reduction reaction involves a change in the —————— state of a molecule
(1) Chemical (2) Physical
(3) Oxidation (4) Precipitation

[Question ID = 5291][Question Description = Q16_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20612]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20613]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20614]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20615]

17) Poaching of Tigers is done for their
(1) Teeth and Hair (2) Skin and bones
(3) Bone and hair (4) Skin and hair

[Question ID = 5292][Question Description = Q17_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20616]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20617]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20618]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20619]

18) The detection of blood can be established by which one of these
(1) 3‐Methyluracil (2) Fast Blue‐B salt test
(3) 3‐Aminophenol (4) 3‐Aminophthalhydrazide

[Question ID = 5293][Question Description = Q18_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20620]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20621]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20622]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20623]

19) Which one of the following correctly depicts 0.01 ppm?
(1) 0.1 ng / ml (2) 0.1 mg / 1000 ml
(3) 0.01 mg / 10 ml (4) 1 mg / 10 ml

[Question ID = 5294][Question Description = Q19_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20624]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20625]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20626]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20627]

20) Which of the following colour/spot test is used for detecting Abrus precatories
(1) Agglutination Test (2) Palet's Reaction Test
(3) Duquenois‐Levine Test (4) Antimony Pentachloride Test

[Question ID = 5295][Question Description = Q20_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20628]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20629]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20630]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20631]

21) The metabolite 4‐Phenyl‐4 piperidino‐cyclohexanol is associated with which of the following
(1) L S D (2) P C P
(3) Methaqualone (4) Flunitrazepam

[Question ID = 5296][Question Description = Q21_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20632]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20633]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20634]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20635]

22) ‘‘Cold Turkey’’ is a term associated with
(1) Street drug (2) Heroin available through dark net
(3) Rehabilitation programme for opiate abusers (4) Operation against drug dealers supplying drugs to Europe from Asia
through Turkey

[Question ID = 5297][Question Description = Q22_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20636]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20637]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20638]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20639]

23) The common street name for MDPV (3,4‐Methylenedioxypyrovalerone) is
(1) Bath salts (2) Ice
(3) Speed (4) Ecstasy

[Question ID = 5298][Question Description = Q23_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20640]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20641]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20642]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20643]

24) The side‐way shift of the projectile from the plane of departure is known as
(1) Drift (2) Yaw
(3) Obturation (4) Ricochet

[Question ID = 5299][Question Description = Q24_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20644]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20645]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20646]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20647]

25) Most common bullets for revolver are
(1) Lead alloy bullets (2) Dum‐dum bullets
(3) Stream lined bullets (4) Boat‐Tailed bullets

[Question ID = 5300][Question Description = Q25_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20648]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20649]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20650]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20651]

26) Which of the following is composition of triple base smokeless powder?
(1) Nitro cotton, nitroglycerine and nitroguanidine (2) Nitro cellulose, nitroglycerine and sallistite
(3) Nitro cellulose, nitroglycerine and dinitrotoluene (4) Nitro cellulose, nitroglycerine and dibutylpht+halate

[Question ID = 5301][Question Description = Q26_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20652]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20653]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20654]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20655]

27) Which of the following explosive is a composition of PETN?
(1) C‐4 (2) SEMTEX
(3) Cyclotol (4) Composition B

[Question ID = 5302][Question Description = Q27_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20656]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20657]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20658]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20659]

28) The drawback of using carbon Disulfide as elution solvent for analysis of fire debris is
(1) It is having high exposure limit (2) It is carcinogenic
(3) It is having high autoignition temperature (4) It is having high flash point

[Question ID = 5303][Question Description = Q28_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20660]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20661]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20662]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20663]

29) The most common detector used to analyze ignitable liquid using GC is
(1) Flame Ionization detector (2) Electron capture detector
(3) Flame photometric detector (4) Flame thermionic detector

[Question ID = 5304][Question Description = Q29_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20664]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20665]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20666]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20667]

30) As per ASTM E 1618‐11 guidelines number of classes of ignitable liquids identified by GC‐ms is
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 8

[Question ID = 5305][Question Description = Q30_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20668]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20669]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20670]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20671]

31) Any disintegrated material, natural and /or artificial that lies on or near the earth's surface is better known as
(1) Mineral (2) Rock
(3) Soil (4) Lava

[Question ID = 5306][Question Description = Q31_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20672]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20673]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20674]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20675]

32) ‘‘GRIM’’ is an instrument, that measures which of the following property of glass?
(1) Density (2) Elemental composition
(3) Refractive index (4) Birefringence

[Question ID = 5307][Question Description = Q32_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20676]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20677]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20678]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20679]

33) The larger valve of frustule in diatom is better known as
(1) Hypotheca (2) Cingulum
(3) Epitheca (4) Gridle band

[Question ID = 5308][Question Description = Q33_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20680]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20681]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20682]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20683]

34) Which of the following viruses evade detection by using a sophisticated form of encryption?
(1) Stealth virus (2) Multipartite virus
(3) Companion virus (4) Polymorphic virus

[Question ID = 5309][Question Description = Q34_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]

1. 1 [Option ID = 20684]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20685]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20686]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20687]

35) Which of the following is an example of behavioural biometric
(1) Thermogram (2) Skin reflectance
(3) Retina (4) Lip motion

[Question ID = 5310][Question Description = Q35_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20688]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20689]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20690]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20691]

36) Antiresonance is a characteristics of
(1) Oral stops (2) Plosives
(3) Africatives (4) Nasal stops

[Question ID = 5311][Question Description = Q36_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20692]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20693]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20694]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20695]

37) Which of the following finger print identification method utilizes grid of LMM intervals?
(1) Osborn grid method (2) Pincushion method
(3) Microscopic Triangulation method (4) Osterourg Grid method

[Question ID = 5312][Question Description = Q37_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20696]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20697]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20698]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20699]

38) ‘‘SICAR’’ is a system/software used for identification of
(1) Bullet (2) Tire impression
(3) Shoe impression (4) Cartridge case

[Question ID = 5313][Question Description = Q38_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20700]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20701]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20702]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20703]

39) Which of the following instrumental methods used for ink analysis are termed as ‘destrutive’ with reference to
document examination?

(1) ATR‐FTIR (2) GC‐MS
(3) VSC (4) Raman micro spectrometry

[Question ID = 5314][Question Description = Q39_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20704]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20705]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20706]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20707]

40) The design of letters which are fundamental to a writing system
(1) Copy book form (2) Exemplar
(3) Cursive writing (4) Majuscule

[Question ID = 5315][Question Description = Q40_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20708]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20709]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20710]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20711]

41) A stroke that rises above the height of the body of the letter formation is known as
(1) Apex (2) Arcade
(3) Ascender (4) Bowl

[Question ID = 5316][Question Description = Q41_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20712]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20713]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20714]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20715]

42) Inconsistency in letter form, change in slope, tremors, use of alternate letter form normally not used by the writer are
the characteristics commonly associated with which of the following
(1) Spurious signatures (2) Simulated forgery
(3) Guided signatures (4) Disguise

[Question ID = 5317][Question Description = Q42_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20716]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20717]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20718]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20719]

43) A device manually or electrically powered or computer generated, designed to ink, emboss, print, perforate a
monetary value along with other peripheral information onto a document
(1) Photocopier (2) Check writer
(3) Facsimile (4) Dandy roll

[Question ID = 5318][Question Description = Q43_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20720]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20721]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20722]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20723]

44) Grievous hurt fall under section –––––––––––– IPC
(1) 458 (2) 301
(3) 302 (4) 320

[Question ID = 5319][Question Description = Q44_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20724]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20725]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20726]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20727]

45) —————— death is that state of the body where there is complete cessation of the vital parts of body responsible to
maintain life and health
(1) Molecular (2) Asphyxia
(3) Somatic (4) Syncope

[Question ID = 5320][Question Description = Q45_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20728]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20729]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20730]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20731]

46) Comparison of teeth between missing person and dead body is done by gross examination and
(1) Superimposition (2) Radiography
(3) Anthropometry (4) Spectrophotometry

[Question ID = 5321][Question Description = Q46_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20732]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20733]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20734]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20735]

47) Which one of these is not helpful in individualization?
(1) Bite Mark (2) Tear Stain
(3) Sweat Stain (4) Amniotic fluid

[Question ID = 5322][Question Description = Q47_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20736]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20737]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20738]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20739]

48) Which of the following city in India have both state and Central forensic science laboratory?
(A) Chandigarh
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Bhopal
(D) Pune
(E) Kolkata
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (C) and (D) only (2) (A) and (B) only
(3) (C) and (E) only (4) (B) and (E) only

[Question ID = 5323][Question Description = Q48_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20740]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20741]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20742]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20743]

49) ‘‘SWGSTAIN’’ defines
(A) Angles of impact
(B) Area of origin
(C) Angle of flow
(D) Area of convergence
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (B) and (C) only (2) (A) and (B) only
(3) (A) and (C) only (4) (A) and (D) only

[Question ID = 5324][Question Description = Q49_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20744]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20745]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20746]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20747]

50) The common brand names or street names for synthetic marijuana are
(A) Spice
(B) Bath salts
(C) Speed
(D) K2
(E) Special K
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A), (B) and (E) only (2) (A) and (E) only (3) (B), (D) and (E) only (4) (A), and (D) only

[Question ID = 5325][Question Description = Q50_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20748]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20749]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20750]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20751]

51) Which of the following is performed for field sobriety testing
(A) Horizontal gaze nystagmus
(B) Walk and turn
(C) Running 100 m in 120 sec
(D) Stand on one foot
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) (A) and (C) only (2) (B) and (D) only (3) (B), (C) and (D) only (4) (A),(B) and (D) only

[Question ID = 5326][Question Description = Q51_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20752]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20753]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20754]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20755]

52) Lead is considered as most suitable material for the construction of projectiles because
(A) It has high specific gravity
(B) Low‐melting point
(C) Cannot be moulded in different shapes
(D) It is non‐toxic
(E) Economical
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A), (B), (C) only (2) (B), (C), (D) only
(3) (A), (C), (D) only (4) (A), (B), (E) only

[Question ID = 5327][Question Description = Q52_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20756]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20757]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20758]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20759]

53) Type of firearm can be ascertained from fired bullet by studying
(A) Width of lands and grooves
(B) Angle of twist of rifling
(C) Caliber of the bullet
(D) Weight of the bullet
(E) Colour of the bullet
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (D), (E), (A) (2) (C), (B), (D)
(3) (B), (A), (E) (4) (A), (B), (C)

[Question ID = 5328][Question Description = Q53_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20760]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20761]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20762]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20763]

54) The factors affecting the recoil are
(A) The backward motion of the ejecta
(B) The forward motion of the ejecta
(C) The motion of the out‐rushing gases
(D) The muzzle blast
Choose the most appropriate from the options given below :
(1) (A), (B), (C) only (2) (B), (C), (D) only
(3) (D), (A), (B) only (4) (A), (C), (D) only

[Question ID = 5329][Question Description = Q54_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20764]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20765]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20766]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20767]

55) Which of the following preparations are mostly used in FSLs for restoration of numbers from aluminium surfaces?
(A) Glycerin : Hydrofluoric acid : Nitric acid (3:2:1)

(B) Copper chloride : Hydrochloric acid : Water (200 : 5: 1000)
(C) Chromium chloride : Hydrochloric acid : water (9:12:10)
(D) Nitric acid : Hydrochloric acid: water (1:5:6)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) and (D) only (2) (B) and (C) only
(3) (A) and (B) only (4) (C) and (D) only

[Question ID = 5330][Question Description = Q55_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20768]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20769]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20770]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20771]

56) As per ASTM guidelines, identification of gasoline is confirmed by the presence of
(A) C3‐alkylbenzenes
(B) M‐P‐ and O ethyl toluene
(C) 1, 2, 4 trimethyl benzene
(D) C7‐ cycloparaffzin
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) (A), (B) and (C) only (2) (B), (C) and (D) only
(3) (A), (C) and (D) only (4) (A), (B) and (D) only

[Question ID = 5331][Question Description = Q56_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20772]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20773]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20774]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20775]

57) Which of the following are termed as ‘‘chemical reaction bomb’’?
(A) Hydrochloric acid and aluminium
(B) Sodium hydroxide and aluminium
(C) Calcium sulphate and aluminium
(D) Calcium carbonate and aluminium
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) and (B) only (2) (B) and (C) only
(3) (C) and (D) only (4) (A) and (D) only

[Question ID = 5332][Question Description = Q57_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20776]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20777]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20778]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20779]

58) Which of the following are methods of initiating an improvised explosive device?
(A) Time delay
(B) Energy delay
(C) Booby trap
(D) Bomber controlled
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) (A), (B) and (C) only ((2) (A), (B) and (D) only
(3) (A), (C) and (D) only ((4) (B), (C) and (D) only

[Question ID = 5333][Question Description = Q58_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]

1. 1 [Option ID = 20780]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20781]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20782]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20783]

59) Which of the following are the formats of output images when created using FTK imager?
(A) dd
(B) EXIF
(C) SMART
(D) AFF
Choose the most approprite answer from the options given below :
(1) (A), (B) and (C) only (2) (A), (B) and (D) only
(3) (A), (C) and (D) only (4) (B), (C) and (D) only

[Question ID = 5334][Question Description = Q59_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20784]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20785]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20786]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20787]

60) Visualization of latent print by silver physical developers best suit for
(A) Porous surface
(B) Non‐porous surface
(C) Semi‐porous surface
(D) Polymer surface
Choose the most approprite answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) and (B) only (2) (A) and (C) only
(3) (B) and (D) only (4) (B) and (C) only

[Question ID = 5335][Question Description = Q60_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20788]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20789]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20790]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20791]

61) Which of the following informations can be derived from tire impression?
(A) Wheel base
(B) Stance
(C) Tread impression
(D) Speed of the vehicle
Choose the most approprite answer from the options given below :
(1) (A), (B) and (D) only (2) (A), (B) and (C) only
(3) (B), (C) and (D) only (4) (A), (C) and (D) only

[Question ID = 5336][Question Description = Q61_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20792]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20793]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20794]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20795]

62) The phonetic sound [S] [S] and [P] are having the following characteristics
(A) These are voiced sounds
(B) These are voiceless sounds
(C) There will be a total absence of harmonics in their respective spectrograms
(D) These will produce periodic energy is their respective spectrograms
Choose the most approprite answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) and (D) only (2) (A) and (C) only
(3) (B) and (C) only (4) (B) and (D) only

[Question ID = 5337][Question Description = Q62_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20796]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20797]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20798]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20799]

63) Watermarks can be examined for the following
(A) Origin of the paper
(B) Sequence of strokes
(C) Secret writings
(D) Dating of the document
Choose the most approprite answer from the options given below :
(1) (A), (B) only (2) (B), (C) only
(3) (A), (C) only (4) (A), (D) only

[Question ID = 5338][Question Description = Q63_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20800]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20801]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20802]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20803]

64) Following statements fulfil the criteria for giving opinion that the signatures are traced forgeries
(A) It is an attempt to reproduce the form, size, proportions, exact relations of all parts of original signature
(B) Signature having good line quality, however, guide lines are present along with written strokes
(C) Imitation of the general feature of genuine writing but cannot be an exact duplicate in in size and proportion
(D) Presence of two or more identical signatures
Choose the most approprite answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) , (B) only (2) (B) , (C) only
(3) (C) , (D) only (4) (D) , (A) only

[Question ID = 5339][Question Description = Q64_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20804]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20805]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20806]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20807]

65) Lithography printing has following characteristics
(A) The printing plane is engraved to various depths, resulting in a raised image on the document
(B) The ink is offset from the printing plate to a rubber blanket and finally to the substrate
(C) The printed and non‐printed areas of the plate resides with the same plane
(D) It relies on the principle that oil and water do not mix
(E) The printing process utilize raised type resulted in a slight embossing of printed images
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A), (B), (C) only (2) (B), (C), (D) only
(3) (C), (D), (E) only (4) (E), (A), (B) only

[Question ID = 5340][Question Description = Q65_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20808]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20809]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20810]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20811]

66) Match list I with List II

List I List II

(A) Quinine (I) Photodiode array detector

(B) Heroine (II) Electrochemical detector

(C) Aniline (III) Refractive index detector

(D) Fructose (IV) Fluorescence detector

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)‐(I), (B)‐(II), (C)‐(III), (D)‐(IV)

(2) (A)‐(IV), (B)‐(I), (C)‐(III), (D)‐(II)

(3) (A)‐(II), (B)‐(I), (C)‐(III), (D)‐(IV)

(4) (A)‐(IV), (B)‐(I), (C)‐(II), (D)‐(III)

[Question ID = 5341][Question Description = Q66_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1

[Option ID = 20812]
2. 2

[Option ID = 20813]
3. 3

[Option ID = 20814]
4. 4

[Option ID = 20815]

67) Match list I with List II

List I List II

(A) Capillary electrophoresis (I) Antigen antibody reaction

(B) Low voltage electrophoresis (II) Electro osmotic flow

(III) Separation of neutral or
(C) Immuno electrophoresis Micellar
uncharged analyte in a single run
electro kinetic
electrophoresis

(IV) Paper used as phoretic electro
(D) Capillary chromatography
phonetic bed

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)‐(II), (B)‐(IV), (C)‐(I), (D)‐(III)

(2) (A)‐(III), (B)‐(IV), (C)‐(I), (D)‐(II)

(3) (A)‐(II), (B)‐(IV), (C)‐(III), (D)‐(I)

(4) (A)‐(III), (B)‐(I), (C)‐(II), (D)‐(IV)

[Question ID = 5342][Question Description = Q67_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1

[Option ID = 20816]
2. 2

[Option ID = 20817]
3. 3

[Option ID = 20818]
4. 4

[Option ID = 20819]

68) Match list I with List II

List I List II

(A) Semen (I) Starch Iodine Assay

(B) Saliva (II) Lugel's iodine staining

(C) Menstrual blood (III) Calorimetric Assay

(D) Vaginal stain (IV) D‐dimer Assay

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)‐(III), (B)‐(I), (C)‐(IV), (D)‐(II)

(2) (A)‐(III), (B)‐(II), (C)‐(I), (D)‐(IV)

(3) (A)‐(II), (B)‐(III), (C)‐(IV), (D)‐(I)

(4) (A)‐(III), (B)‐(I), (C)‐(II), (D)‐(IV)

[Question ID = 5343][Question Description = Q68_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1

[Option ID = 20820]
2. 2

[Option ID = 20821]
3. 3

[Option ID = 20822]
4. 4

[Option ID = 20823]

69) Match list I with List II

List I List II

(A) Beer (I) Grapes

(B) Wine (II) Barley malt

(C) Brandy (III) Molasses

(D) Rum (IV) Sugar containing fruit

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)‐(III), (B)‐(IV), (C)‐(I), (D)‐(II)

(2) (A)‐(II), (B)‐(I), (C)‐(IV), (D)‐(III)

(3) (A)‐(I), (B)‐(II), (C)‐(III), (D)‐(IV)

(4) (A)‐(I), (B)‐(II), (C)‐(IV), (D)‐(III)

[Question ID = 5344][Question Description = Q69_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1

[Option ID = 20824]
2. 2

[Option ID = 20825]
3. 3

[Option ID = 20826]
4. 4

[Option ID = 20827]

70) Match list I with List II

List I List II

(A) GHB (I) Bath salt

(B) MDMA (II) Boomers

(C) LSD (III) X

(D) MDPV (IV) G

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)‐(I), (B)‐(II), (C)‐(III), (D)‐(IV)

(2) (A)‐(IV), (B)‐(II), (C)‐(III), (D)‐(I )

(3) (A)‐(I), (B)‐(II), (C)‐(III), (D)‐(IV)

(4) (A)‐(IV), (B)‐(III), (C)‐(II), (D)‐(I)

[Question ID = 5345][Question Description = Q70_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1

[Option ID = 20828]
2. 2

[Option ID = 20829]
3. 3

[Option ID = 20830]
4. 4

[Option ID = 20831]

71) Match list I with List II

List I List II

(A) The location, size and the shape
(I) On the weight and velocity of
of the temporary cavity in a body
the bullet
depends

(II) On the amount of KE possessed
angle of yaw; cauber, construction and
(B) Kinetic energy possessed by the
configuration of bullet; and the
bullet depends
density, strength and elasticity of the
tissue

(III) On the amount of KE lost by the
(C) The tendency of a full metal bullet in its Path through tissue, how
jacketed bullet to break‐up in the rapidly the energy is lost and the
body depends elasticity and cohesiveness of the
tissue

(D) The amount of KE lost by a (IV) On the velocity of the bullet and
bullet depends its tendency to yaw radically

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)‐(IV), (B)‐(II), (C)‐(III), (D)‐(I)

(2) (A)‐(III), (B)‐(I), (C)‐(IV), (D)‐(II)

(3) (A)‐(II), (B)‐(IV), (C)‐(I), (D)‐(III)

(4) (A)‐(I), (B)‐(III), (C)‐(II), (D)‐(IV)

[Question ID = 5346][Question Description = Q71_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1

[Option ID = 20832]
2. 2

[Option ID = 20833]
3. 3

[Option ID = 20834]
4. 4

[Option ID = 20835]

72) Match list I with List II

List I List II

(A) Class–1 (I) Kerosene

(B) Class–2 (II) Light petroleum distillates

(C) Class–3 (III) Medium petroleum distillates

(D) Class–4 (IV) Gasoline

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)‐(I), (B)‐(II), (C)‐(III), (D)‐(IV)

(2) (A)‐(I), (B)‐(IV), (C)‐(II), (D)‐(III)

(3) (A)‐(II), (B)‐(I), (C)‐(III), (D)‐(IV)

(4) (A)‐(II), (B)‐(IV), (C)‐(III), (D)‐(I)

[Question ID = 5347][Question Description = Q72_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1

[Option ID = 20836]
2. 2

[Option ID = 20837]
3. 3

[Option ID = 20838]
4. 4

[Option ID = 20839]

73) Match list I with List II

List I List II

(A) PbO (I) Borosilicate glass

(B) B2O 3 (II) Flat glass

(C) CaO (III) Crystal glass

(D) Na2O (IV) Glass fibre

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)‐(I), (B)‐(II), (C)‐(III), (D)‐(IV)

(2) (A)‐(I), (B)‐(IV), (C)‐(II), (D)‐(III)

(3) (A)‐(III), (B)‐(I), (C)‐(IV), (D)‐(II)

(4) (A)‐(IV), (B)‐(I), (C)‐(III), (D)‐(II)

[Question ID = 5348][Question Description = Q73_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1

[Option ID = 20840]
2. 2

[Option ID = 20841]
3. 3

[Option ID = 20842]
4. 4

[Option ID = 20843]

74) Match list I with List II

List I List II

(A) First official use of finger print (I) Edward Henry

(B) Use of printer’s ink for known
(II) Francis Galton
fingerprint recording

(C) Devised ridge characteristics (III) William Herschel

(D) fingerprint classification (IV) Henry Faulds

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)‐(I), (B)‐(II), (C)‐(III), (D)‐(IV)

(2) (A)‐(II), (B)‐(I), (C)‐(III), (D)‐(IV)

(3) (A)‐(I), (B)‐(III), (C)‐(II), (D)‐(IV)

(4) (A)‐(III), (B)‐(IV), (C)‐(II), (D)‐(I)

[Question ID = 5349][Question Description = Q74_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1

[Option ID = 20844]
2. 2

[Option ID = 20845]
3. 3

[Option ID = 20846]
4. 4

[Option ID = 20847]

75) Match list I with List II

List I List II

Mode of death Cause

(I) Anaemia due to the sudden and
(A) Coma excessive haemorrhage from wounds
of large blood vessels

(II) Mechanical obstruction of the air
(B) Syncope
passage

(III) Compression of the brain or its
(C) Asphyxia
membrane

(IV) Disease of blood vessels
(D) Sudden death
especially occlusion of lumen

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)‐(I), (B)‐(II), (C)‐(III), (D)‐(IV)

(2) (A)‐(III), (B)‐(I), (C)‐(II), (D)‐(IV)

(3) (A)‐(IV), (B)‐(III), (C)‐(II), (D)‐(I)

(4) (A)‐(II), (B)‐(IV), (C)‐(I), (D)‐(III)

[Question ID = 5350][Question Description = Q75_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1

[Option ID = 20848]
2. 2

[Option ID = 20849]
3. 3

[Option ID = 20850]
4. 4

[Option ID = 20851]

76) Match list I with List II

List I List II

Injuries Causes

(I) Fatal wounds on chest,
(A) Injuries Suicidal abdomen, head and would not include
non‐fatal defense wound

(II) Received by victim mostly on
(B) Homicidal
hands

(C) Defense (III) Hesitation cut

(D) Self inflected (IV) Caused by self

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)‐(I), (B)‐(II), (C)‐(IV), (D)‐(III)

(2) (A)‐(III), (B)‐(I), (C)‐(II), (D)‐(IV)

(3) (A)‐(II), (B)‐(III), (C)‐(I), (D)‐(IV)

(4) (A)‐(IV), (B)‐(II), (C)‐(I), (D)‐(III)

[Question ID = 5351][Question Description = Q76_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1

[Option ID = 20852]
2. 2

[Option ID = 20853]
3. 3

[Option ID = 20854]
4. 4

[Option ID = 20855]

77) Match list I with List II Life cycle of Musca domestica (house fly)

List I List II

Developmental stage Summer season

(A) Flies lay eggs (I) 5 day

(B) 1st instar hatches from eggs (II) 1 day

(C) 1st instar to 2n d in star (III) 8 hour

(D) Pupa to adult (IV) within min

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)‐(I), (B)‐(II), (C)‐(III), (D)‐(IV)

(2) (A)‐(IV), (B)‐(I), (C)‐(II), (D)‐(III)

(3) (A)‐(III), (B)‐(I), (C)‐(II), (D)‐(IV)

(4) (A)‐(IV), (B)‐(III), (C)‐(II), (D)‐(I)

[Question ID = 5352][Question Description = Q77_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1

[Option ID = 20856]
2. 2

[Option ID = 20857]
3. 3

[Option ID = 20858]
4. 4

[Option ID = 20859]

78) Match list I with List II

List I List II

Fusion of some of epiphysis Age (~) in males)

(A) Distal end of Radius (I) 20

(B) Ischial tuberosity (II) 19–20

(C) Head of femur (III) 18

(D) Crust of Ilium (IV) 16‐17

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)‐(II), (B)‐(I), (C)‐(III), (D)‐(IV)

(2) (A)‐(IV), (B)‐(III), (C)‐(II), (D)‐(I)

(3) (A)‐(I), (B)‐(II), (C)‐(IV), (D)‐(III)

(4) (A)‐(III), (B)‐(I), (C)‐(IV), (D)‐(II)

[Question ID = 5353][Question Description = Q78_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1

[Option ID = 20860]
2. 2

[Option ID = 20861]
3. 3

[Option ID = 20862]
4. 4

[Option ID = 20863]

79) The correct sequence to be followed at a crime scene is
(A) Documentation
(B) Preservation
(C) Systematic search
(D) Preliminary scene examination
(E) Evidence collection
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (D), (C), (B), (A), (E) (2) (D), (C), (A), (E), (B)
(3) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) (4) (C), (D), (A), (E), (B)

[Question ID = 5354][Question Description = Q79_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20864]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20865]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20866]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20867]

80) Arrange the GC detectors according to their increasing sensitivity
(A) Electron Capture Detector
(B) Flame Ionisation Detector
(C) Nitrogen‐Phosphorus detector
(D) Thermal conductivity detector
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A) < (b)="">< (c)="">< (d) (2)="" (d)="">< (b)="">< (a)=""><>
(3) (D) < (b)="">< (c)="">< (a) (4)="" (b)="">< (d)="">< (a)=""><>

[Question ID = 5355][Question Description = Q80_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20868]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20869]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20870]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20871]

81) Arrange the HPLC detectors according to their increasing sensitivity
(A) U.V Detector
(B) P.D.A. Detector
(C) Electrochemical (EC) Detector
(D) R.I. Detector
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A) < (b)="">< (c)="">< (d) (2)="" (d)="">< (b)="">< (a)=""><>
(3) (D) < (b)="">< (c)="">< (a) (4)="" (b)="">< (d)="">< (a)=""><>

[Question ID = 5356][Question Description = Q81_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20872]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20873]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20874]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20875]

82) The correct sequence for restoration of engine number of cars using etching method is
(A) Cleaning of surface where numbers have to be stored
(B) Application of Fry's reagent
(C) Application of 15% nitric acid
(D) Visualization and photography of number
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A), (B), (C), (D) (2) (A), (C), (B), (D)
(3) (D), (C), (B), (A) (4) (C), (A), (B), (D)

[Question ID = 5357][Question Description = Q82_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20876]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20877]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20878]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20879]

83) The correct sequence of explosives with respect to its density is
(A) LMX
(B) PETN
(C) RDX

(D) TNT
(E) Torpex
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A) > (B) > (C) > (D) > (E) (2) (A) > (E) > (B) > (C) > (D)
(3) (A) > (C) > (B) > (D) > (E) (4) (A) > (B) > (C) > (E) > (D)

[Question ID = 5358][Question Description = Q83_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20880]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20881]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20882]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20883]

84) In a finger print biometric system, the correct sequence of processes for matching of two finger prints is
(A) Alignment
(B) Pairing
(C) Score Generation
(D) Fingerprint matching
(E) Performance evaluation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) (2) (A), (C), (B), (D), (E)
(3) (B), (A), (C), (D), (E) (4) (B), (C), (A), (D), (E)

[Question ID = 5359][Question Description = Q84_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20884]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20885]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20886]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20887]

85) The correct sequence of processes in enrollment phase of iris biometric recognition is
(A) Iris image acquisition
(B) Image enhancement
(C) Localization and normalization
(D) Feature extraction
(E) Enrollment in database
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) (2) (A), (E), (B), (C), (D)
(3) (E), (A), (B), (C), (D) (4) (A), (C), (B), (D), (E)

[Question ID = 5360][Question Description = Q85_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20888]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20889]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20890]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20891]

86) Given below are two statements:
Statement (I) : In a monochromator two type of dispersing elements are found namely reflection grating and prism
Statement (II) : For dispersing by prism, refractions at two faces results in angular dispersion
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct (2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect
(3) Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect (4) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct

[Question ID = 5361][Question Description = Q86_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20892]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20893]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20894]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20895]

87) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion (A) : The head of spermatozoa contain a nucleus with densely packed chromosomes and at the tip of the head is
the acrasomal cap, a membranous compartment
Reasons (R) : Acrasomal cap contain enzymes essential for fertilization
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (4) (A) is false but (R) is true

[Question ID = 5362][Question Description = Q87_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20896]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20897]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20898]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20899]

88) Given below are two statements:
Statement (I) : A history of chronic heavy drinking is associated with the damage of most of the body's organ
Statement (II) : The two most prominent organ which gets damaged are kidney and stomach
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true (2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are false
(3) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false (4) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true

[Question ID = 5363][Question Description = Q88_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20900]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20901]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20902]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20903]

89) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion (A) : The rate of loss of velocities , that is, retardation is fairly high in case of shotgun projectiles
Reasons (R) : The loss is due to the air resistance, poor form‐factor and size of a pellet
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (4) (A) is false but (R) is true

[Question ID = 5364][Question Description = Q89_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20904]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20905]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20906]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20907]

90) Given below are two statements:
Statement (I) : In the writing of a single signature , one writer may actually make fifty distinct movement impulses, while
another writer in producing the same letters with same number of pen‐lifts may make only twenty five distinct motions.
Statement (II) : This difference marks a distinction in two writings more fundamental than many divergencies in form.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the optons given below :
(1) Both Statement (I) and Statement II are true (2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are false
(3) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false (4) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true

[Question ID = 5365][Question Description = Q90_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20908]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20909]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20910]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20911]

Topic:‐ 82FORSCI_B

1) Read the given passage carefuly and answer the question that follow :

In an early morning of one fine day, two vehicles collided on an intersection of two roads. The incident caused death of a
person sitting on the back seat of vehicle, Say vehicle ‐ I. The driver of the another vehicle, say vehicle ‐ II, ran away from
the scene and the incident was reported to police by the driver of vehicle – I. On investigation. vehicle ‐ II was recovered
by the police. For further investigation, a forensic expert was called. On examination of the scene, a skid mark of length 2
L metre was found by vehicle ‐ II. However, vehicle ‐ I has left a curved scuff mark of radius 60 metres. Paint samples,
which was mutually transferred to the vehicles were also collected. On examination of vehicle ‐ I, few hair sample and
blood spot was also found. Blood spot was circular in shape with diameter 15 mm. Microscopic examination of hair revealed
diameter of medulla and hair shaft as 2μm and 6μm respectively.

The estimated speed of vehicle ‐ I is (coefficient of friction = 0.8) :

(1) 98 km/h (2) 78 km/h

(3) 62 km/h (4) 52 km/h

[Question ID = 5366][Question Description = Q91_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20912]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20913]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20914]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20915]

2) Read the given passage carefuly and answer the question that follow :

In an early morning of one fine day, two vehicles collided on an intersection of two roads. The incident caused death of a
person sitting on the back seat of vehicle, Say vehicle ‐ I. The driver of the another vehicle, say vehicle ‐ II, ran away from
the scene and the incident was reported to police by the driver of vehicle – I. On investigation. vehicle ‐ II was recovered
by the police. For further investigation, a forensic expert was called. On examination of the scene, a skid mark of length 2
L metre was found by vehicle ‐ II. However, vehicle ‐ I has left a curved scuff mark of radius 60 metres. Paint samples,
which was mutually transferred to the vehicles were also collected. On examination of vehicle ‐ I, few hair sample and
blood spot was also found. Blood spot was circular in shape with diameter 15 mm. Microscopic examination of hair revealed
diameter of medulla and hair shaft as 2μm and 6μm respectively.

The estimated speed of vehicle ‐ II is (coefficient of friction = 0.9)

(1) 40 km/h (2) 69 km/h

(3) 75 km/h (4) 95 km/h

[Question ID = 5367][Question Description = Q92_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20916]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20917]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20918]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20919]

3) Read the given passage carefuly and answer the question that follow :

In an early morning of one fine day, two vehicles collided on an intersection of two roads. The incident caused death of a
person sitting on the back seat of vehicle, Say vehicle ‐ I. The driver of the another vehicle, say vehicle ‐ II, ran away from
the scene and the incident was reported to police by the driver of vehicle – I. On investigation. vehicle ‐ II was recovered
by the police. For further investigation, a forensic expert was called. On examination of the scene, a skid mark of length 2
L metre was found by vehicle ‐ II. However, vehicle ‐ I has left a curved scuff mark of radius 60 metres. Paint samples,
which was mutually transferred to the vehicles were also collected. On examination of vehicle ‐ I, few hair sample and
blood spot was also found. Blood spot was circular in shape with diameter 15 mm. Microscopic examination of hair revealed
diameter of medulla and hair shaft as 2μm and 6μm respectively.

Angle of impact of blood spot recovered from vehicle ‐ I is

(1) 60° (2) 75°

(3) 90° (4) 120°

[Question ID = 5368][Question Description = Q93_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20920]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20921]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20922]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20923]

4) Read the given passage carefuly and answer the question that follow :

In an early morning of one fine day, two vehicles collided on an intersection of two roads. The incident caused death of a
person sitting on the back seat of vehicle, Say vehicle ‐ I. The driver of the another vehicle, say vehicle ‐ II, ran away from
the scene and the incident was reported to police by the driver of vehicle – I. On investigation. vehicle ‐ II was recovered
by the police. For further investigation, a forensic expert was called. On examination of the scene, a skid mark of length 2
L metre was found by vehicle ‐ II. However, vehicle ‐ I has left a curved scuff mark of radius 60 metres. Paint samples,
which was mutually transferred to the vehicles were also collected. On examination of vehicle ‐ I, few hair sample and
blood spot was also found. Blood spot was circular in shape with diameter 15 mm. Microscopic examination of hair revealed
diameter of medulla and hair shaft as 2μm and 6μm respectively.

Medullary index of hair sample collected from vehicle ‐ I is

(1) 0.66 (2) 0.44

(3) 0.33 (4) 0.22

[Question ID = 5369][Question Description = Q94_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20924]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20925]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20926]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20927]

5) Read the given passage carefuly and answer the question that follow :

In an early morning of one fine day, two vehicles collided on an intersection of two roads. The incident caused death of a
person sitting on the back seat of vehicle, Say vehicle ‐ I. The driver of the another vehicle, say vehicle ‐ II, ran away from
the scene and the incident was reported to police by the driver of vehicle – I. On investigation. vehicle ‐ II was recovered
by the police. For further investigation, a forensic expert was called. On examination of the scene, a skid mark of length 2
L metre was found by vehicle ‐ II. However, vehicle ‐ I has left a curved scuff mark of radius 60 metres. Paint samples,
which was mutually transferred to the vehicles were also collected. On examination of vehicle ‐ I, few hair sample and
blood spot was also found. Blood spot was circular in shape with diameter 15 mm. Microscopic examination of hair revealed
diameter of medulla and hair shaft as 2μm and 6μm respectively.

The raisins used in the paints of Vehicle ‐ I and Vehicle ‐ II can be better analyzed using which of the following techniques?

(1) FTIR (2) AAS

(3) ICP‐AES (4) NAA

[Question ID = 5370][Question Description = Q95_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20928]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20929]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20930]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20931]

Topic:‐ 82FORSCI_C

1) Read the given passage carefully and answer the question that follow:
A female who was provided security by the government felt hereself safe from those who wanted to kill her. One fine day,
when she was getting ready to leave for her office in the official vehicle, she was shot by her two security personals on
duty that day, just close to the vehicle.
It took some time for others present there to realize this incident. This female was rushed to the hosptial by others present
there. She was bleeding profusely. She was immediately taken to OT and forensic medicine expert was also called in. As the
doctors started treating upon her, she breathed last.
What would be the role of forensic medicine expert in such situation to opine about?
(A) Cause of death
(B) Line of treatment
(C) Entry and exit wound
(D) Time since death
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) (A),(B) and (C) only (2) (B),(C) and (D) only
(3) (A),(C) and (D) only (4) (A),(B) and (D) only

[Question ID = 5371][Question Description = Q96_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20932]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20933]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20934]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20935]

2) Read the given passage carefully and answer the question that follow:
A female who was provided security by the government felt hereself safe from those who wanted to kill her. One fine day,
when she was getting ready to leave for her office in the official vehicle, she was shot by her two security personals on
duty that day, just close to the vehicle.
It took some time for others present there to realize this incident. This female was rushed to the hosptial by others present
there. She was bleeding profusely. She was immediately taken to OT and forensic medicine expert was also called in. As the
doctors started treating upon her, she breathed last.
Under which section of IPC will these two security guards on duty at the time of incident be punished
(1) 302 (2) 498
(3) 375 (4) 304

[Question ID = 5372][Question Description = Q97_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20936]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20937]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20938]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20939]

3) Read the given passage carefully and answer the question that follow:
A female who was provided security by the government felt hereself safe from those who wanted to kill her. One fine day,
when she was getting ready to leave for her office in the official vehicle, she was shot by her two security personals on
duty that day, just close to the vehicle.
It took some time for others present there to realize this incident. This female was rushed to the hosptial by others present
there. She was bleeding profusely. She was immediately taken to OT and forensic medicine expert was also called in. As the
doctors started treating upon her, she breathed last.
Which instrument/technique will confirm the use of firearm which were in the custody of these Two security guards at the
time of incident
(1) TLC (2) Comparison microscope
(3) Visual spectrophotometer (4) HPLC

[Question ID = 5373][Question Description = Q98_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20940]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20941]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20942]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20943]

4) Read the given passage carefully and answer the question that follow:
A female who was provided security by the government felt hereself safe from those who wanted to kill her. One fine day,
when she was getting ready to leave for her office in the official vehicle, she was shot by her two security personals on
duty that day, just close to the vehicle.
It took some time for others present there to realize this incident. This female was rushed to the hosptial by others present
there. She was bleeding profusely. She was immediately taken to OT and forensic medicine expert was also called in. As the
doctors started treating upon her, she breathed last.
Medico‐legal examination of entry and exit wounds in this case shall help to determine
(A) Post‐Mortem injury
(B) Ante‐Mortem injury
(C) Range of fire
(D) Time since fire
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) (A), (B) and (D) only (2) (A), (B) and (C) only
(3) (B), (C) and (D) only (4) (A), (C) and (D) only

[Question ID = 5374][Question Description = Q99_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20944]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20945]
3. 3 [Option ID = 20946]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20947]

5) Read the given passage carefully and answer the question that follow:
A female who was provided security by the government felt hereself safe from those who wanted to kill her. One fine day,
when she was getting ready to leave for her office in the official vehicle, she was shot by her two security personals on
duty that day, just close to the vehicle.
It took some time for others present there to realize this incident. This female was rushed to the hosptial by others present
there. She was bleeding profusely. She was immediately taken to OT and forensic medicine expert was also called in. As the
doctors started treating upon her, she breathed last.
Which of the following evidence shall be of immense forensic importance?
(A) Fiream recovered
(B) Fired bullet
(C) Catridge cases
(D) Visitors register
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) (A), (B) and (D) only (2) (A), (B) and (C) only
(3) (B), (C) and (D) only (4) (A), (C) and (D) only

[Question ID = 5375][Question Description = Q100_FS_SHAAN_20NOV_S1_Shift2]
1. 1 [Option ID = 20948]
2. 2 [Option ID = 20949]

3. 3 [Option ID = 20950]
4. 4 [Option ID = 20951]