UPSC CMS 2017 Question Paper with Answers - Paper II

CMS Examination-2017
Paper-II

1. The external opening of branchial fistula is present in :
(a) Lower third of the neck
(b) Middle third of the neck
(c) Upper third of the neck
(d) Suprasternal notch

2. A eight year old male child complains of severe pain in right testes. The most
probable diagnosis is
(a) Torsion of right testis
(b) Strangulated Inguinal hernia
(c) Acute epididym‐orchitis
(d) Undescended testis

3. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct regarding Gastroschisis?
(a) It is a ruptured exomphalos
(b) Gut has herniated through a defect to right of umbilicus
(c) Normally limited to midgut
(d) There is no covering membrane

4. Heineke‐Mikulicz operation is done for:
(a) Ureteric stricture
(b) Urethral stricture
(c) Pyloric stenosis
(d) Stricture common bile duct

5. A 32 year old female underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy which was difficult.
On her second post operative day, she develops jaundice. Her LFT parameters show
serum bilirubin 6.8 mg/dL; direct bilirubin 5.6 and indirect bilirubin 1.2 mg/dL; and
serum alkaline phosphatase 1226 IU/L. She is most likely suffering from obstructive
jaundice due to:
(a) Bile duct injury
(b) Carcinoma gallbladder
(c) Hepatocellular carcinoma
(d) Carcinoma head of pancreas

6. A 60 year old man presents with painless progressive jaundice for two months. He
has a history of weight loss. On examination, his gallbladder is palpable which is
smooth, non‐tender and globular. His serum bilirubin is 18.2 mg/dL. He is most likely
suffering from:
(a) Carcinoma head of pancreas
(b) Carcinoma stomach
(c) Choledocholithiasis
(d) Klatskin tumour

1

7. A young 23 year old male riding his motorcycle meets with a road accident. He is
tachypnoeic with HR 110/m and BP 112/74 mmHg. On examination, he has
tenderness over left side of chest with decreased air entry. His trachea is pushed to
opposite side. Abdominal examination is unremarkable. Most probably he is suffering
from:
(a) Haemothorax
(b) Consolidation
(c) Subcutaneous emphysema
(d) Tracheal rupture

8. Mondor’s disease is
(a) Lymphangitis of mammary lymphatics
(b) Multiple breast cysts
(c) Eczema by nipple and areola
(d) Thrombophlebitis of superficial veins of breast

9. Which of the following is NOT true regarding ‘Renal Carbuncle’?
(a) It is an abscess in renal parenchyma
(b) It occurs in diabetic patient
(c) It is a type of renal tuberculosis
(d) It occurs in intravenous drug abusers

10. Anderson‐Hynes operation is performed for:
(a) Achalasia cardia
(b) Pyloric stenosis
(c) Pseudo‐pancreatic cyst
(d) Pelvi‐ureteric junction obstruction

11. Which of the following is NOT correct for ‘strawberry gall bladder’?
(a) It is a malignant condition of gall bladder
(b) It has sub mucous aggregation of cholesterol crystals
(c) It may be associated with cholesterol Stones
(d) Simple cholecystectomy is the treatment of choice

12. Treatment of choice for Recurrent Thyrotoxicosis after surgery is
(a) Further surgery
(b) Radio iodine followed by surgery
(c) Radio iodine
(d) Observe/follow –up

13. All the following are features of Polycystic disease of kidneys EXCEPT:
(a) Haematuria
(b) Hypertension
(c) Renal failure
(d) Erythrocytosis

2

14. Which one of the following is the most important selection criteria for obesity
surgery ?
(a) BMI > 40
(b) BMI 30
(c) BMI 30 with co‐morbid disease
(d) BMI 35 without any co‐morbid disease

15. A 45 year old underwent abdominal rectal prolapse surgery. At present, he
complains of sexual dysfunction which is probably due to the injury of:
(a) Pelvic autonomic nerves
(b) Inferior mesenteric artery
(c) Rectum
(d) Urinary bladder

16. In endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography endoscope used is:

(a) End viewing
(b) Side viewing
(c) Rigid
(d) Front viewing

17. Oliguria is defined as:
(a) Absence of urine production
(b) More than 900 ml of urine excreted in a day
(c) 600 ml to 700 ml of urine excreted in a day
(d) Less than 300 ml of urine excreted in a day

18. A 40 year old man, with a history of a reducible left groin swelling of two years,
comes with severe pain over left groin. The swelling is now non‐reducible and is very
tender to touch. The most probable treatment plan for this patient would be:
(a) Continue conservative management
(b) Hot fomentation of groin area
(c) Oral antibiotics
(d) Prepare for emergency surgery

19. During laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair, in the ‘triangle of doom’, the following are
true EXCEPT:
(a) Vas deferens on medial side
(b) Cord structures on lateral side
(c) Base by iliac vessels
(d) Dangerous area for dissection

20. All are rare type of lateral Hernia of abdominal wall, EXCEPT:

(a) Spigelian
(b) Obturator
(c) Superior lumbar
(d) Inferior lumbar

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21. A 35 year old female had laparoscopic ventral hernia repair using polypropylene
mesh in January 2015. In June 2015, she is again admitted with features of subacute
intestinal obstruction and is managed conservatively. She continues to have
recurrent colicky pain after that. Most probably she is suffering from:
(a) Recurrence of hernia
(b) New hernia
(c) Acute appendicitis
(d) Bowel adhesion to mesh

22. Which of the following is NOT correct for breast abscess?
(a) Drainage of abscess by a radial incision
(b) Antibiotic is given if pus is already present
(c) A counter‐incision is made in the dependant part
(d) Dressings are changed frequently

23. Important landmark in submandibular gland dissection is:
(a) Posterior border of mylohyoid muscle
(b) Posterior belly of digastrics muscle
(c) Anterior belly of digastrics muscle
(d) Facial artery

24. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Systemic Inflammatory Response
Syndrome?
(a) Hyperthermia ( more than 380C)
(b) Hypothermia (less than 360C)
(c) Leucocytosis
(d) Bradycardia

25. A 35 year old man presents to Emergency with acute onset pain abdomen radiating
to whole abdomen and abdominal distension for one day. On examination, he has
tenderness and guarding all over abdomen with pulse rate of 100/m and BP 116/84
mmHg. Chest X‐ray erect position shows gas under bilateral domes of diaphragm.
Probably he is suffering from:
(a) Acute pancreatitis
(b) Ruptured liver abscess
(c) Appendicular perforation
(d) Colonic perforation

26. A 70 year old man comes to Emergency with pain lower abdomen and not passing
urine for eight hours. He has a past history of urgency, hesitancy and frequency of
urine. On examination, he has a lump up to the umbilicus which is slightly tender.
What is the next step of management?
(a) Get an urgent USG
(b) Per rectal examination
(c) Per urethral catheterise the patient
(d) Start antibiotics

4

27. ‘Swiss cheese defects’ of anterior abdominal wall after exploratory laparotomy is
best seen while doing:
(a) Open ventral hernia repair
(b) Open inguinal hernia repair
(c) Laparoscopic ventral hernia repair
(d) Laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair

28. A 35 year old male patient comes to casualty with acute pain abdomen; and on
examination found to have cold, clammy extremities, sunken eyes, dry tongue,
thready pulse, drawn and anxious face with abdominal guarding and rigidity. This
clinical picture indicates:
(a) Local peritonitis
(b) Diffuse early peritonitis
(c) Diffuse late peritonitis
(d) Acute cholecystitis

29. All of the following statements are true for keloids EXCEPT:
(a) It is rarely seen in white skinned persons and is more common over the
sternum
(b) True keloid continues to become worse even after one year
(c) True keloid does not spread into surrounding tissue
(d) The maturation and stabilization of the collagen fibrils is inhibited

30. Which of these is a palliative shunt procedure created between the left subclavian
artery and pulmonary artery to treat cyanotic congenital heart disease?
(a) Gott’s shunt
(b) Lieno renal shunt
(c) Blalock‐Taussig shunt
(d) Waterstons shunt

31. A young male is undergoing emergency surgery for a clinical diagnosis of acute
appendicitis. Intraoperatively minimal pus was found but the appendix was normal.
What is the next step of management?
(a) Appendectomy
(b) Right hemicolectomy
(c) Close the abdomen without doing anything
(d) Search for perforated Meckel’s diverticulum

32. Which of the following is NOT considered as an indicator of adequate fluid
resuscitation?
(a) Urine output
(b) Respiratory rate
(c) Pulse
(d) Blood pressure

5

33. In a 65 year old, double contrast barium enema shows cancer of colon with an apple
core appearance. Colonoscopic biopsy shows adenocarcinoma. What will be the next
step of management?
(a) Surgery
(b) Chemotherapy
(c) CECT to stage disease
(d) Radiotherapy

34. A 35 year old woman presented with a lump in her upper abdomen for two months
which was slightly increasing. She also complained of early satiety. She gave a history
of acute severe pain in upper abdomen for which she was admitted in hospital for 10
days, about three months ago. On examination, the mass was firm, smooth surfaced
and not moving with respiration. She was most likely suffering from:
(a) Cancer stomach
(b) Cancer colon
(c) Pseudocyst pancreas
(d) Splenic cyst

35. While working in a primary health centre, an elderly patient presents with a history
of sudden loss of vision and curtain falling sensation in one eye. This symptom is
highly suggestive that the patient has the following condition:
(a) Retinal detachment
(b) Vitreous haemorrhage
(c) Acute onset ptosis
(d) Intracranial haemorrhage

36. Pringle’s manoeuvre is done to stop bleeding at:
(a) Left gastric artery
(b) Splenic artery
(c) Renal artery
(d) Hepatoduodenal ligament

37. What is the most common malignant tumour of eyelid?
(a) Neurofibroma
(b) Meibomian cancer
(c) Basal cell cancer
(d) Pseudotumour

38. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of atherosclerotic occlusive disease at the
bifurcation of aorta (Leriche syndrome)?
(a) Claudication of the buttock and thigh
(b) Claudication of the calf
(c) Sexual impotence
(d) Gangrene localised to the feet

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39. Which of the following factors is labelled as cytokine in the pathogenesis of Systemic
Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS)?
(a) Nitric oxide
(b) Complements
(c) Leukotrienes
(d) Tumor necrosis factor

40. Vocal cord palsy after thyroid surgery is due to injury to:
(a) Superficial laryngeal nerve
(b) Recurrent laryngeal nerve
(c) Ansa cervicalis
(d) Vagus nerve

41. A infertile woman presents with yellow or green vaginal discharge, bartholin cyst and
proctitis. What is the most probable diagnosis?
(a) Syphilis
(b) Trichomomiasis
(c) Gonorrhoea
(d) Candidiasis

42. Absolute contraindication to combined oral contraceptive is:
(a) History of GDM
(b) History of thrombo‐embolism
(c) History of previous two caesarean section
(d) History of gallbladder disease

43. A 28 year old P1L1 presents with severe pain in her abdomen and is taken for
laparotomy. On opening the abdomen pseudomyxoma of the peritoneum is present.
What should be the probable reason?
(a) Mucinous cystadenoma of ovary
(b) Serous cystadenoma of ovary
(c) Rupture of dermoid tumor
(d) Endometriosis

44. In a 40 year old woman, pap smear shows atypical glandular cells. The next step of
management should be:
(a) Repeat pap smear after three months
(b) Colposcopic directed cervical biopsy
(c) Colposcopy, cervical biopsy, endocervical curettage and endometrial biopsy
(d) Hysteroscopy and directed endometrial biopsy

45. A 50 year old P4L4 has a simple left ovarian cyst of 10cm. Ca 125 is 30u/ml. Treatment
of choice would be:
(a) TAH + BSO (Total abdominal hysterectomy + Bilateral salpingo‐oopherectomy)
(b) Laparoscopic cystectomy
(c) Laparoscopic oophorectomy
(d) Medical management with oral contraceptives

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46. A seven year old girl with precocious puberty is found to be having a 10 cm. ovarian
cyst on USG. The most likely etiology is
(a) Benign cystic teratoma
(b) Brenner tumour
(c) Choriocarcinoma
(d) Granulosa cell tumour

47. A 17 year old girl presents with an ovarian cyst of 5cm. The cyst is echo free,
unilocular and CA 125 of 8U/ml. What is most appropriate management?
(a) Laproscopy for cyst removal
(b) Laparotomy for cyst removal
(c) Conservative with follow up ultrasound
(d) Medical treatment

48. The contraceptive choice for a 38 year old P1L1 woman having chronic hypertension,
dysmenorrhoea and menorrhagia is:
(a) Copper intrauterine device
(b) Sterilization
(c) Levenorgestrel intrauterine device
(d) Combined oral contraceptive pills

49. Most probable cause of heavy bleeding in a P2L2 during tenth day post partum is:
(a) Retained bits of cotyledons and membranes
(b) Subinvolution of placental site
(c) Resumption of menstruation
(d) Infected episiotomy wound

50. A woman with which of the following health problems should avoid centchromen?
(a) Polycystic ovarian syndrome
(b) Woman with dysfunctional uterine bleeding
(c) Endometrial hyperplasia
(d) Endometriosis

51. Combined contraceptive pills give protection from the following EXCEPT:
(a) Cancer of ovary
(b) Cancer of endometrium
(c) Cancer of cervix
(d) Ectopic pregnancy

52. A woman presents with heavy foul smelling discharge with sharply demarcated ulcers
without induration on the perineum and the labia majora. Inguinal lymphadenopathy
is also present. What is the most probable diagnosis?
(a) Gonorrhoea
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Chancroid
(d) Trichomoniasis

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53. A 28 year old woman develops amenorrhoea after having dilatation and curettage.
The most likely diagnosis is :
(a) Kallman syndrome
(b) Asherman syndrome
(c) Anorexia nervosa
(d) Turner syndrome

54. Which of the following tests is NOT used for diagnosing syphilis?
(a) Frie’s test
(b) Direct fluorescent antibody test
(c) FTA – ABS test
(d) TPHA

55. Fitz‐Hugh‐Curtis syndrome involving perihepatitis is present in the following:
(a) Moniliasis
(b) Syphilis
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Gonorrhoea

56. Which of the following cause/causes bacterial vaginosis?
1. Gardnerella
2. Mycoplasma
3. Ureaplasma urealyticum
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

57. Where are antisperm antibodies usually present?
(a) Uterus
(b) Vagina
(c) Fallopian tube
(d) Cervix

58. Modified Bishop’s score includes all EXCEPT:
(a) Cervical length and dilatation
(b) Consistency of cervix
(c) Position of os
(d) Position of occiput

59. The engaging diameter of brow presentation is:
(a) Mento‐vertical
(b) Submento‐vertical
(c) Suboccipito‐bregmatic
(d) Submento‐bregmatic

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60. Intramuscular injection of iron dextran is given by ‘Z’ technique to:
(a) Alleviate the pain
(b) Decrease the incidence of infection
(c) Reduce the staining
(d) Increase the iron absorption

61. Which of the following is/are the risk factors for acute pelvic inflammatory disease in
women?
1. Intercourse during menstruation
2. Multiple sex partners
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

62. The umbilical cord normally contains:
(a) Two arteries and two veins
(b) One artery and one vein
(c) Two arteries and one vein
(d) One artery and two veins

63. Painless genital ulcer is found in which one of the following genital infections?
(a) Grannloma inguinale
(b) Chancroid
(c) Lymphogranuloma venerum
(d) Herpes simplex

64. Medical management of tubular ectopic pregnancy can be done in the following
EXCEPT:
(a) Period of gestation 5 weeks
(b) β HCG level more than 10,000 IU
(c) Absent foetal cardiac activity
(d) Gestational sac diameter 3 cm.

65. Cholestasis may lead to the following complications EXCEPT:
(a) Intrauterine foetal death
(b) Meconium stained liquor
(c) Preterm labour
(d) Neonatal jaundice

66. Which of the following genital infections is associated with preterm labour?
(a) Human Papilloma Virus
(b) Trichomonas vaginalis
(c) Monilial vaginitis
(d) Bacterial vaginosis

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67. Multiple pregnancy is associated with an increased incidence of the following
EXCEPT:
(a) Hyperemesis gravidarum
(b) Congenital malformations
(c) Pregnancy induced hypertension
(d) Post date pregnancy

68. Which of the following conditions of the endometrium is associated with a
significantly increased risk of development of cancer?
(a) Simple hyperplasia
(b) Complex hyperplasia with atypia
(c) Simple atypical hyperplasia
(d) Complex hyperplasia

69. Surgical staging is done for all the genital malignancies EXCEPT:
(a) Ovarian malignancy
(b) Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia
(c) Endometrial carcinoma
(d) Fallopian tube malignancy

70. B‐Lynch suture for atonic postpartum haemorrhage
(a) compresses the uterus
(b) ligates the uterine arteries
(c) ligates the utero‐ovarian anastomosis
(d) ligates the ovarian vessels

71. Regarding ‘Delancy’s levels of vaginal support’, consider the following pairs:
1. Level I .......... Supports distal urethra perineal body
2. Level II .......... Supports mid‐vagina
3. Level III .......... Supports apical defect
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

72. Regarding “conjoined twins”, which of the following statements is/are true?
1. These are always monozygotic
2. These result when division occurs before the embryonic disc is formed
3. Most common variety is thoracopagus
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

11

73. The appropriate treatment for the baby of a woman who is HBsAg positive but
HBeAg negative is
(a) Both active and passive immunisation soon after birth
(b) Passive immunisation soon after birth but active immunisation after one
year of age
(c) Only active immunisation soon after birth
(d) Only passive immunisation soon after birth

74. Consider the following pairs regarding foetal heart during labour:
Term .... Description
1. Early decelerations .... Most common during labour and are due to
cord compression
2. Late decelerations .... Result due to any process leading to maternal
hypotension, placental insufficiency or
excessive uterine activity
3. Variable decelerations .... Are due to head compression leading to vagal
stimulation
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 only

75. A 26 year old woman P1L1 reports with High Grade Squamous Intraepithelial Lesion
(HGSIL) on Pap smear (Papanicolaou smear). Further management for her is:
(a) VIA, VILI
(b) Colposcopy and directed biopsy
(c) LEEP
(d) Conisation

76. With reference to the displacement of uterus, the treatment of choice for genuine
stress urinary incontinence is:
(a) Kegel’s perineal exercises
(b) Kelly’s placation
(c) TVT‐O mid urethral tape
(d) Periurethral injection of bulking agents

77. Regarding placental separation in III stage of labour, consider the following
statements:
1. Separation of placenta occurs at deciduas spongiosa
2. In Shultz method, separation of placenta starts at centre
3. In Mathew Duncan’s method, separation begins at margin
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

12

78. A 16 year old girl presents with primary amenorrhea with absent vagina, cervix and
uterus in the presence of normal secondary sexual characteristics. Ovaries are
present on USG. The most probable diagnosis is:
(a) Kleinfelter’s syndrome
(b) Androgen Insensitivity syndrome
(c) Mayer Rockitansky Kuster Hauser syndrome
(d) Prader Willi syndrome

79. A 32 year old woman is noted to have 1200 cc of blood loss following a spontaneous
vaginal delivery and delivery of placenta. The uterine fundus is palpated and noted to
be firm. Which of the following is the most likely treatment for this patient?
(a) B’ lynch suture
(b) Surgical repair of cervical tear
(c) Intramuscular prostaglandin
(d) Replacement of inverted uterus

80. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding physiology of
menstruation?
1. LH surge precedes ovulation
2. There are two peaks in serum estradiol levels, first in follicular and second in
luteal phase
3. Serum progesterone has only one peak i.e., in luteal phase
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

81. Which of the following is/are the measure(s) of dispersion ?
1. Mode
2. Median
3. Standard Deviation
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

82. Which among the following is/are the examples of primordial prevention ?
1. Adopting healthy lifestyles from childhood
2. Immunization of infants
3. Screening of cervical cancer
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

13

83. The appropriate statistical test to find out obesity as a significant risk factor for breast
cancer is:
(a) Student’s paired ‘t’ test
(b) Student’s unpaired ‘t’ test
(c) Chi‐square test
(d) Wilcoxon’s signed rank test

84. In a case control study, confounding factors can be minimized by the following EXCEPT:
(a) Matching of variables such as age and sex
(b) Randomization during selection
(c) Stratification during analysis
(d) Increasing sample size for cases and controls

85. Which one of the following is FALSE regarding confounding factor in epidemiological
studies ?
(a) Associated both with exposure and disease
(b) Distributed equally between study and control groups
(c) Independent risk factor for disease in question
(d) Source of bias is interpretation

86. Denominator in calculation of case fatality rate is:
(a) Total number of deaths due to all causes
(b) Total number of hospital admissions
(c) Total number of cases due to the disease concerned
(d) Total number of deaths due to the disease concerned

87. A well of contaminated water resulting in an epidemic of acute watery diarrhoea is a
typical example for
(a) Common source, single exposure epidemic
(b) Common source, continuous exposure epidemic
(c) Slow epidemic
(d) Propagated epidemic

88. An important measure of communicability of a disease is
(a) Incidence rate
(b) Case fatality rate
(c) Prevalence rate
(d) Secondary attack rate

89. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding case fatality rate?
(a) Very useful indicator for both acute and chronic diseases
(b) One of the measures related to virulence
(c) It is the ratio of deaths to cases expressed as percentage
(d) Variation can occur for the same disease because of changes in the agent
factors

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90. Farmer’s lung is caused by the inhalation of:
(a) Grain dust with actinomycetes
(b) Sugarcane dust
(c) Silica dust
(d) Cotton fibre dust

91. Suraksha Clinics are conducted under the aegis of which National Health Programme?
(a) Revised National Tuberculosis Control programme
(b) Iodine Deficiency Disorders Programme
(c) National AIDS Control Programme
(d) Reproductive and Child Health Programme

92. Mean + 2 S.D. contains
(a) 68.3 % values
(b) 91.2 % values
(c) 95.4 % values
(d) 99.7 % values

93. Infant Mortality Rate is expressed per:
(a) 1000 pregnancies
(b) 1000 live births
(c) 1000 under five children
(d) 100,000 live births

94. Which of the following tests is NOT used for checking quality of pasteurisation of milk?
(a) Phosphatase test
(b) Standard Plate count
(c) Coliform count
(d) Orthotoludine test

95. Which of the following are components of epidemiological triad?
(a) Sensitivity, specificity and predictive value
(b) Time, place and person distribution
(c) Agent, host and environmental factors
(d) Prevalence, incidence and attack rate

96. By applying the principles of ergonomics which of the following can be improved?
1. Designing of equipment and tools
2. Human efficiency
3. Layout of place of work
4. Reduction in industrial accidents
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

15

97. The risk of disease is measured by
(a) Prevalence Rate
(b) Incidence Rate
(c) Attrition Rate
(d) Fatality Rate

98. Tetanus spores can only be killed by
(a) Large doses of penicillin
(b) Anti tetanus Serum
(c) Tetanus toxoid
(d) Gamma irradiation

99. Which is/are the correct statements regarding the cut off points for the diagnosis of
anaemia?
1. Haemoglobin for adult males is 13 g/dl
2. Haemoglobin for adult non‐pregnant female is 12 g/dl
3. Haemoglobin for adult pregnant female is 11 g/dl
4. Haemoglobin for children six months to six years of age is 11 g/dl
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
100. Health functionary at PHC level is:
(a) ASHA
(b) Anganwadi Worker
(c) Health Assistant (Female)
(d) Health Worker (Female)

101. Due to a measles outbreak in a community, a medical officer decided to immunize a
child aged seven months with measles vaccine. When should the next measles vaccine be
administered?
(a) Not required
(b) After four weeks
(c) When the child completes nine months of age
(d) When the child completes fifteen months of age

102. Which of the following is/are the methods of assessment of nutritional status?
1. Clinical examination
2. Anthropometry
3. Biochemical evaluation
4. Orthotolidine test
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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103. Retrospective cohort studies have the following features EXCEPT:
(a) Outcomes have occurred before the start of the study
(b) Generally more expensive than prospective studies
(c) Results are obtained more quickly
(d) Investigator goes back in time to select study groups

104. What is the correct sequence of the following levels of prevention?
1. Specific protection
2. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment
3. Disability limitation and rehabilitation
4. Health promotion
Select the correct sequence from the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 4, 1, 2, 3
(c) 2, 3, 4, 1
(d) 3, 4, 1, 2

105. Which of the following items are among the uses of epidemiology?
(a) To study historically the rise and fall of the diseases
(b) To arrive at community diagnosis
(c) To identify syndromes
(d) All of these

106. Consider the following statements regarding folic acid:
1. It is needed for normal development of blood cells in the marrow
2. It has a role in synthesis of nucleic acids
3. It is resistant to boiling
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

107. The maternal and child health care indicator that gives a good indicator of the extent
of pregnancy wastage as well as the quantity and quality of health care available to
the mother and new born is:
(a) Maternal Mortality Rate
(b) Still Birth Rate
(c) Infant Mortality Rate
(d) Perinatal Mortality Rate

108. To control Mansonoides mosquitoes, the most effective method is:
(a) Oiling of water
(b) Larvicidal insecticides
(c) Avoidance of water collections
(d) Removal of water plants

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109. What is the fertility indicator that gives the approximate magnitude of completed
family size?
(a) General Fertility Rate
(b) Age Specific Fertility Rate
(c) Total Fertility Rate
(d) Gross Reproduction Rate

110. For a child aged four years, an Anganwadi Worker detects that the weight is lower than
expected. What should the Anganwadi Worker do first regarding the malnutrition
detected in the child?
(a) Refer the child to the nearby Health Centre
(b) Refer the child a nearby nutritional rehabilitation centre
(c) Give nutritional counselling to the mother
(d) Start fortnightly deworming

111. Which of the following anthropometrical measurements is/are carried out to assess
the growth of children under five years of age?
1. Weight measurement
2. Height measurement
3. Mid upper arm circumference
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

112. Which of the following is included in detecting a child with severe acute malnutrition?
1. Weight for age Z‐score less than minus three SD
2. Bilateral pitting oedema
3. Weight for height Z‐score less than minus three SD
4. Mid upper arm circumference of less than 12 cm.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

113. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Essential Obstetric Care
under the Reproductive, Maternal, Newborn and Child Health care Programme?
1. Early registration of pregnancy
2. Provision of first referral units
3. Provision of safe delivery practices
4. Provision of at least four postnatal checkups
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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114. A pregnant woman visits a medical officer for an antenatal check up. The woman
mentions that she had received two doses of Tetanus Toxoid vaccine four years ago.
Which of the following steps should the medical officer take with regard to
administration of Tetanus Toxoid vaccine as per the Government of India
recommended schedule?
(a) Tetanus Immunoglobulin should be administered in the third trimester of
pregnancy
(b) Two doses of Tetanus Toxoid vaccine should be administered with an interval
of four weeks between the two doses
(c) Only one dose of Tetanus Toxoid vaccine is required
(d) No Tetanus Toxoid vaccine is required

115. With reference to quarantine measures to prevent the spread of a disease, which of
the following statements is/are correct?
1. In addition to human beings, quarantine measures are at times also
applied to an aircraft or a train or a container etc.
2. The duration of the quarantine period is equivalent to the minimum
incubation period for the disease
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

116. Which is the first step in carrying out an Adverse Event Following Immunization (AEFI)?
(a) Formulate a working hypothesis
(b) Observe the immunization service in action
(c) Confirm information in report
(d) Collect data about the suspected vaccine

117. At the end of an immunization session, you found that a reconstituted BCG vaccine vial
has around two doses left in it. What should be done in such a situation?
(a) Can reuse the remaining two doses during the next immunization session
(b) Discard the vial in a black coloured bin
(c) Discard the vial in a red coloured bin
(d) Take decision depending upon the Vaccine Vial Monitor(VVM) status

118. With reference to Vaccine Vial Monitors(VVM) being used on vaccine vials, which of
the following statements is/are correct?
1. It gives information about heat exposure over a period of time
2. It directly indicates vaccine potency
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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119. Why is matching done in a case‐control study?
1. To remove the effect of known confounders
2. To remove the effect of unknown confounders
3. To eliminate selection bias
4. To eliminate interviewer’s bias
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 4 only

120. Which of the following vaccines has NOT been introduced in the Universal
Immunization Programme in India?
(a) Pentavalent vaccine
(b) MMR vaccine
(c) Injectable polio vaccine
(d) Cervical cancer vaccine

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