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GATE 2021 Question Paper XH C5 Humanities and Social Sciences - Psychology

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GATE 2021 Question Paper XH C5 Humanities and Social Sciences - Psychology is available here for free download. Published by IIT for Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering, this question paper can be viewed online or downloaded as a PDF (37 pages). Candidates preparing for Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering can use GATE 2021 Question Paper XH C5 Humanities and Social Sciences - Psychology to understand the exam pattern, the type of questions asked, and the overall difficulty level.

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GATE 2021 Question Paper XH C5 Humanities and Social Sciences - Psychology – Text

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Page 1

General Aptitude (GA)

Q.1 – Q.5 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong
answer: – 1/3).

Q.1 Consider the following sentences:
(i) After his surgery, Raja hardly could walk.
(ii) After his surgery, Raja could barely walk.
(iii) After his surgery, Raja barely could walk.
(iv) After his surgery, Raja could hardly walk.
Which of the above sentences are grammatically CORRECT?

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (i) and (iii)

(C) (iii) and (iv)

(D) (ii) and (iv)

Q.2 Ms. X came out of a building through its front door to find her shadow due
to the morning sun falling to her right side with the building to her back.
From this, it can be inferred that building is facing _________

(A) North

(B) East

(C) West

(D) South

XH-C5 – Copyright © GATE 2021 Page 1 of 37

Page 2

Q.3 M

O N

In the above figure, O is the center of the circle and, M and N lie on the
circle.
The area of the right triangle MON is 50 cm2.
What is the area of the circle in cm2 ?

(A) 2π

(B) 50π

(C) 75π

(D) 100π

Q.4 "  " means" − ",
" " means" ",

If 
" " means" + ",
" " means" ",

then, the value of the expression  2  3  ( ( 4  2)  4) =

(A) -1

(B) -0.5

(C) 6

(D) 7

XH-C5 – Copyright © GATE 2021 Page 2 of 37

Page 3

Q.5 “The increased consumption of leafy vegetables in the recent months is a
clear indication that the people in the state have begun to lead a healthy
lifestyle”
Which of the following can be logically inferred from the information
presented in the above statement?

(A) The people in the state did not consume leafy vegetables earlier.

(B) Consumption of leafy vegetables may not be the only indicator of healthy
lifestyle.

(C) Leading a healthy lifestyle is related to a diet with leafy vegetables.

(D) The people in the state have increased awareness of health hazards causing by
consumption of junk foods.

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Page 4

Q. 6 – Q. 10 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO marks each (for each wrong
answer: – 2/3).

Q.6 Oxpeckers and rhinos manifest a symbiotic relationship in the wild. The
oxpeckers warn the rhinos about approaching poachers, thus possibly
saving the lives of the rhinos. Oxpeckers also feed on the parasitic ticks
found on rhinos.
In the symbiotic relationship described above, the primary benefits for
oxpeckers and rhinos respectively are,

(A) Oxpeckers get a food source, rhinos have no benefit.

(B) Oxpeckers save their habitat from poachers while the rhinos have no benefit.

(C) Oxpeckers get a food source, rhinos may be saved from the poachers.

(D) Oxpeckers save the lives of poachers, rhinos save their own lives.

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Page 5

Q.7

A jigsaw puzzle has 2 pieces. One of the pieces is shown above. Which one
of the given options for the missing piece when assembled will form a
rectangle? The piece can be moved, rotated or flipped to assemble with the
above piece.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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Page 6

Q.8 The number of hens, ducks and goats in farm P are 65, 91 and 169,
respectively. The total number of hens, ducks and goats in a nearby farm Q
is 416. The ratio of hens:ducks:goats in farm Q is 5:14:13. All the hens, ducks
and goats are sent from farm Q to farm P.
The new ratio of hens:ducks:goats in farm P is_____

(A) 5:7:13

(B) 5:14:13

(C) 10:21:26

(D) 21:10:26

Q.9

The distribution of employees at the rank of executives, across different
companies C1, C2, …, C6 is presented in the chart given above. The ratio of
executives with a management degree to those without a management degree
in each of these companies is provided in the table above. The total number
of executives across all companies is 10,000.
The total number of management degree holders among the executives in
companies C2 and C5 together is_____.

(A) 225

(B) 600

(C) 1900

(D) 2500

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Page 7

Q. 10 Five persons P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a row not necessarily in the
same order. Q and R are separated by one person, and S should not be
seated adjacent to Q.
The number of distinct seating arrangements possible is:

(A) 4

(B) 8

(C) 10

(D) 16

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Page 8

Reasoning and Comprehension (XH-B1)
Q.1 – Q.5 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong
answer: – 1/3).

Q.1 According to a recent article in a medical journal, consuming curcumin
(from turmeric) significantly lowers the risk of COVID-19. The researchers
draw this conclusion from a study that found that people who consumed
one or more teaspoons of curcumin extract everyday were half as likely to
be diagnosed with the disease as people who did not consume curcumin.
Which of the following, if true, most weakens the argument in the article?

(A) In another study, people who were given a zinc supplement everyday were more
than four times less likely to be diagnosed with COVID-19 as those who did
not.

(B) All the participants in this study were from the same state where no other spices
or herbs are consumed.

(C) The participants who consumed curcumin were also more likely to exercise than
those who did not.

(D) In another study, COVID-19 patients who were given curcumin were no more
likely to recover than others.

Q.2 Froot Inc. carried out an internet advertisement campaign for its new
beverage CocoLoco. After the campaign, the director of the advertising
company conducted a survey and found that the CocoLoco sales were
higher than that of TenderJoos a competing product from Joos Inc. The
agency concluded that the internet advertising campaign is more effective
than advertising through other media.
Which of the following statements could strengthen the conclusion above
by the agency?

(A) A ₹2 discount was offered on CocoLoco during the campaign period.

(B) CocoLoco sales were higher than those of TenderJoos before the internet
campaign.

(C) A newspaper advertisement campaign the previous year did not increase
CocoLoco sales.

(D) During the campaign for CocoLoco, Joos Inc. did not advertise TenderJoos at
all.

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Page 9

Q.3 An e-commerce site offered a deal last month conditional on the customer
spending a minimum of ₹500. Any customer who buys 2 kg of fresh fruit
will receive a hand mixer and any customer who buys 2 kg of fresh
vegetables will receive a vegetable chopper.
Which of the following is NOT a possible outcome of the above?

(A) A customer purchased 3 kg of fresh fruit and did not receive a vegetable
chopper.

(B) A customer purchased items for ₹500 which included 1 kg of vegetables and
received a hand mixer.

(C) A customer purchased items for ₹500 which included 2 kg of vegetables and 1
kg of fruit and received a hand mixer.

(D) A customer purchased items for ₹300 which included 2 kg of fruit and received
neither a hand mixer nor a vegetable chopper.

Q.4 Writers of detective fiction often include an incompetent detective as a foil
for the brilliant investigator-protagonist as they follow different paths in
trying to solve the crime. In the individual accounts, the incompetent
detective is frequently distracted by the culprit’s careful plans, while the
competent investigator solves the case after a final confrontation. Analysts
of such fiction believe that the authors select this story-telling technique to
provide readers with more complexities in the form of misleading clues,
while figuring out the crime.
Which of the following statements most logically follows from the passage
above?

(A) A detective story is considered well-written if the brilliant investigator is
accompanied by an incompetent detective.

(B) Writers of detective fiction use the contrast of an incompetent detective to
mainly show how complex the investigation is.

(C) Writers of detective fiction never write stories where the incompetent detective
solves the case.

(D) Writers of detective fiction use two investigative accounts to make it difficult
for the reader to figure out the outcome.

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Page 10

Q.5 The first (P1) and the last (P6) parts of a single sentence are given to you.
The rest of the sentence is divided into four parts and labelled (L,M,N,O).
Reorder these parts so that the sentence can be read through correctly and
select one of the options given.
P1: Studies of several Sahitya Akademi award winners show that…
L: or encounter professional
M: and invariably develop a strained relationship with other literary figures
N: they often publish very little
O: after winning the prize
P6: …envy and rivalry.
The correct order is:

(A) NOLM

(B) MLON

(C) ONML

(D) MOLN

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Page 11

Q.6 – Q.10 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO mark each (for each wrong
answer: – 2/3).

Q. 6 Gerrymandering refers to the targeted redrawing of election constituencies
so as to benefit a particular party. This is especially important where the
electoral system is “first past the post” in each constituency (i.e. one winner
is selected in each constituency based on a majority of votes won) and
where there is no other provision for proportional representation (as for
example in the German system). For a simple illustration of
gerrymandering, if a region consists of districts 1, 2, 3, …, 9 with districts
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 favouring party P and 7, 8, 9 favouring party Q, then
grouping of districts to constituencies as {1,2,3}, {4,5,6}, {7,8,9} will give
two seats to party P and one seat to party Q, whereas the grouping {1,2,7},
{3,4,8}, {5,6,9} will give all three seats to party P, as they will secure a
majority in each constituency.
Which of these statements can be deduced from the above?

(A) Gerrymandering implies that constituency boundaries can sometimes be drawn
to favour one party over the other.

(B) Gerrymandering implies that proportional representation is impossible when
districts are grouped to form constituencies.

(C) To counteract gerrymandering political parties should concentrate on districts
where they are favoured.

(D) The grouping of districts to constituencies has very little impact on proportional
representation.

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Page 12

Q. 7 X-ray examination of a recently discovered painting that some authorities
judge to be a self-portrait by Michelangelo revealed an under-image of a
woman’s face. Either Michelangelo or some other artist must have
repainted over the first painting that had now been seen on the canvas.
Because the woman’s face also appears on other paintings by Michelangelo,
this painting is determined to indeed be an authentic painting by
Michelangelo.
Which of the following assumptions must be made in reaching the
conclusion above?

(A) When an already painted canvas of an artist is used, the second artist using that
canvas for a new painting is usually influenced by the artistic style of the first.

(B) Several painted canvases that art historians attribute to Michelangelo contain
under-images that appear on at least one other of Michelangelo’s paintings.

(C) Subject or subjects that appear in authenticated paintings of Michelangelo are
rather unlikely to show up as under-images on painted canvases not attributed to
Michelangelo.

(D) No painted canvas can be attributed to a particular artist with certainty without
an X-ray analysis.

Q. 8 This season _______ tourists visited Ladakh than last season; however,
______ to be the biggest tourist destination in India. The tourism
department explains that the number of tourists to India has ______
relative to previous years, ________ have chosen to visit Ladakh.
Select the correct sequence of phrases to fill in the blanks to complete the
passage above.

(A) more / for the first time in many seasons it does not appear / increased / and it
seems that most

(B) fewer / as in the past, it appears / in fact decreased / but it seems that only a
small proportion

(C) fewer / for the first time in many seasons it appears / in fact decreased / but it
seems that most

(D) more / this season as well, it appears / in fact decreased / but it seems that a
large proportion

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Page 13

Q. 9 Reorder the sentences in (1) – (5) such that they form a coherent
paragraph.
(1) In fact, dozens of languages today have only one native speaker still
living, and that person's death will mean the extinction of the language: It
will no longer be spoken, or known, by anyone on earth.
(2) Many languages are falling out of use and are being replaced by others
that are more widely used in the region or nation, such as English in
Australia or Portuguese in Brazil.
(3) Many other languages are no longer being learned by new generations
of children or by new adult speakers.
(4) An endangered language is one that is likely to become extinct in the
near future.
(5) Unless the trends are reversed, these endangered languages will become
extinct by the end of the century.
(Adapted from What is an Endangered Language by A. Woodbury.)

(A) 2 3 1 4 5

(B) 2 3 5 4 1

(C) 4 1 5 2 3

(D) 4 2 3 1 5

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Page 14

Q. 10 The first (P1) and the last (P6) parts of a single sentence are given to you.
The rest of the sentence is divided into four parts and labelled L,M,N,O.
Reorder these parts so that the sentence can be read correctly and select
one of the sequences below.
P1: For a little while…
L: it was a common belief
M: right after the treaty of Versailles
N: that Germany had caused World War I not just by her actions
O: held by analysts and politicians alike
P6: … but by also encouraging Italy in her own aggressions.

(A) LMNO

(B) MLON

(C) LNMO

(D) MOLN

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Page 15

Q.11 – Q.15 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).

Q. 11 After Florentino Ariza saw her for the first time, his mother knew before
he told her because he lost his voice and his appetite and spent the entire
night tossing and turning in his bed. But when he began to wait for the
answer to his first letter, his anguish was complicated by diaorrhea and
green vomit, he became disoriented and suffered from sudden fainting
spells, and his mother was terrified because his condition did not resemble
the turmoil of love so much as the devastation of cholera. Florentino
Ariza’s godfather, an old homeopathic practitioner who had been Tránsito
Ariza’s confidant ever since her days as a secret mistress, was also alarmed
at first by the patient’s condition, because he had the weak pulse, the
hoarse breathing, and the pale perspiration of a dying man. But his
examination revealed that he had no fever, no pain anywhere, and that his
only concrete feeling was an urgent desire to die. All that was needed was
shrewd questioning, first of the patient and then of his mother, to conclude
once again that the symptoms of love were the same as those of cholera. He
prescribed infusions of linden blossoms to calm the nerves and suggested a
change of air so he could find consolation in distance, but Florentino Ariza
longed for just the opposite: to enjoy his martyrdom.
(Adapted from Love in a Time of Cholera by Gabriel García Márquez.)
The author of the passage is implying that:

(A) Homeopathy cures love.

(B) The doctor could not distinguish between love and cholera.

(C) The doctor could distinguish between love and cholera.

(D) The symptoms of love and cholera are similar.

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Page 16

Q. 12 Now, it is clear that the decline of a language must ultimately have political
and economic causes: it is not due simply to the bad influence of this or that
individual writer. But an effect can become a cause, reinforcing the original
cause and producing the same effect in an intensified form, and so on
indefinitely. A man may take to drink because he feels himself to be a
failure, and then fail all the more completely because he drinks. It is rather
the same thing that is happening to the English language. It becomes ugly
and inaccurate because our thoughts are foolish, but the slovenliness of our
language makes it easier for us to have foolish thoughts.
(Adapted from Politics and the English Language by George Orwell.)
The illustration of the man who takes to drink is used to underscore which
of the following ideas in the passage above?

(A)
Political and economic causes control deterioration of language.

(B) Foolish thoughts are enabled by inaccurate language.

(C) Effect of an action becomes the cause in a cyclic pattern.

(D) Drinking enables people to have foolish thoughts and slovenly language.

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Page 17

Q. 13 It is a pity that Caste even today has its defenders. The defences are many.
It is defended on the grounds that the Caste System is but another name
for division of labour, and if division of labour is a necessary feature of
every civilised society, then it is argued that there is nothing wrong in the
Caste System. Now the first thing to be urged against this view is that Caste
System is not merely division of labour. It is also a division of labourers.
Civilised society undoubtedly needs division of labour but nowhere is
division of labour accompanied by this unnatural division of labourers into
watertight compartments, grading them one above the other. This division
of labour is not spontaneous or based on natural aptitudes. Social and
individual efficiency requires us to develop the individual capacity and
competency to choose and to make his own career. This principle is
violated in so far as it involves an attempt to appoint tasks to individuals in
advance, not on the basis of trained original capacities, but on that of birth.
Industry undergoes rapid and abrupt changes and an individual must be
free to change his occupation and adjust himself to changing
circumstances, to gain his livelihood. (Adapted from Annihilation of Caste
by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.)
Which of the following observations substantiate the arguments found in
the passage above?

(A) Newer generations are unable to change and move away from low-paying
family professions, even with changed economic circumstances.

(B) Sedentary desk jobs are considered to have more value and are in greater
demand than those involving manual labour.

(C) The government’s jobs guarantee programme makes low-level management
jobs available across all industries to all graduates in the nation.

(D) A bus driver becomes an app creator and, in the course of one month, reaches
one million downloads on Playstore with a four-star rating.

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Page 18

Q. 14 Imagine that you’re in a game show and your host shows you three doors.
Behind one of them is a shiny car and behind the others are goats. You pick
one of the doors and get what lies within. After making your choice, your
host chooses to open one of the other two doors, which inevitably reveals a
goat. He then asks you if you want to stick with your original pick, or
switch to the other remaining door. What do you do? Most people think
that it doesn’t make a difference and they tend to stick with their first pick.
With two doors left, you should have a 50% chance of selecting the one
with the car. If you agree, then you have just fallen afoul of one of the most
infamous mathematical problems – the Monty Hall Problem. In reality,
you should switch every time which doubles your odds of getting the car.
Over the years, the problem has ensnared countless people, but not, it
seems, pigeons. The humble pigeon can learn with practice the best tactic
for the Monty Hall Problem, switching from their initial choice almost
every time. Amazingly, humans do not!
(Adapted from an article by Ed Yong in Discover Magazine.)
Which of the following conclusions follow from the passage above?

(A) Humans calculate the probability of independent, random events such as the
opening of a door by dividing the specific outcomes by the total number of
possible outcomes.

(B) Humans find it very difficult to learn to account for the host’s hand in making
the event non-random and, thereby, changing the outcome of the event.

(C) Calculating probabilities is difficult for humans but easy for pigeons; which is
why the pigeons succeed where the humans fail.

(D) Humans are governed by reason, but pigeons are irrational and only interested
in the outcome and will do whatever it takes to get food.

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Page 19

Q. 15 The truth is that, despite the recent success of car-makers P and Q, India’s
automobile industry is in a state not that different from the bad old days of
the license-permit quota raj when two carmakers dominated a captive
domestic market with substandard vehicles and with very little, if any,
research and development, and low to negligible productivity growth. High
tariff barriers have certainly induced foreign automobile makers to enter
the Indian market by setting up local operations, but this so-called “tariff
jumping” foreign investment has produced an industry that is inefficient,
operating generally at a low scale, and whose products are not globally
competitive either in terms of cost or of innovation. It is noteworthy that
the automobile parts industry, which has faced low tariffs (as low as
12.5%) and has been largely deregulated, has been characterised by higher
productivity and much better export performance than the completely-
built units’ sector in the years since liberalisation.
(Adapted from an Op-Ed in The Mint.)
Which of the following statements can be inferred from the above?

(A) Low tariff barriers increase productivity.

(B) Tariff jumping leads to increases in productivity.

(C) Deregulation has worked for the automotive parts industry and therefore should
be applied to completely-built units.

(D) P and Q do not invest enough in research and development.

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Page 20

Q.1 – Q.19 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong
answer: – 1/3).

Q.1 According to the Path-Goal theory of leadership, a style of leadership in
which the leader consults with subordinates, involving them in the decision
making process is _______________.

(A) participative

(B) directive

(C) supportive

(D) achievement oriented

Q.2 A process to test reliability that involves creating a large ‘bank’ of items
and then dividing it into different versions or creating two tests with items
of similar difficulty is called ____________________________.

(A) alternate and parallel form reliability

(B) measure of test homogeneity

(C) test-retest

(D) inter-rater reliability

Q.3 Delusion of ‘reference’ is a symptom of schizophrenia in which people
______________________________________.

(A) believe that random events or comments are directed at them

(B) believe that their thoughts are being broadcasted

(C) believe they have special powers

(D) have sensory experiences in the absence of stimulus

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Page 21

Q.4 A student who has prepared inadequately for an exam attributes his failing
grade to an unfair test, cheating by other students or a professor who
taught badly, is expressing _______________.

(A) projection

(B) reaction formation

(C) repression

(D) rationalization

Q.5 Which of the following theories of emotion best fits with the statement that
perception of an environmental situation results in emotions and both, felt
emotion and bodily reactions in emotions are independent of each other,
but triggered simultaneously?

(A) Cannon-Bard Theory

(B) Lazarus’s Cognitive Appraisal Theory

(C) Schachter-Singer Theory

(D) James-Lange Theory

Q.6 The perceived fairness of the distribution of resources and rewards is
described as _______________________.

(A) distributive justice

(B) procedural justice

(C) interactional justice

(D) informational justice

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Page 22

Q.7 According to Bandura’s theory of personality, which one of the following is
the most important person variables in determining personality?

(A) Self-efficacy

(B) Self-concept

(C) Self-esteem

(D) Self-determination

Q.8 Match the events in the first column with the different categories of stress
in the second column.

Events Stress

P A young child who loses his (i) Traumatic event
water bottle on the school bus

Q A person who escaped from the (ii) Chronic stressor
Taj hotel on 26th November,
2008 around midnight and has
nightmares about the same
incident

R Someone fearing the loss of (iii) Major life event
one’s job

S A woman who has her first (iv) Daily Hassle
baby

(A) P-(iv), Q-(i), R-(ii), S-(iii)

(B) P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(ii)

(C) P-(ii), Q-(i), R-(iii), S-(iv)

(D) P-(i), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(iii)

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Page 23

Q.9 Which of the following types of colour blindness denotes blue-yellow colour
deficiency?

(A) Tritanopia

(B) Protanopia

(C) Dueteranopia

(D) Ritalin

Q.10 Which of the following properties of sound is similar to the hue of light?

(A) Pitch

(B) Timbre

(C) Loudness

(D) Purity

Q.11 _____________________ is a reinforcement schedule, where a person or
animal receives the reinforcement based on varying amount of time.

(A) Variable-interval

(B) Fixed-ratio

(C) Fixed-interval

(D) Variable-ratio

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Page 24

Q.12 _____________________ is a loss of memory of events that occurred prior
to the trauma.

(A) Retrograde amnesia

(B) Anterograde amnesia

(C) Infantile amnesia

(D) Posthypnotic amnesia

Q.13 Phobias and Obsessive Compulsive Disorder fall in the category of
______________________.

(A) anxiety disorders

(B) mood disorders

(C) somatoform disorders

(D) psychotic disorders

Q.14 The smallest unit of speech perception that has meaning is
_______________.

(A) morpheme

(B) syntax

(C) semantics

(D) phoneme

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Page 25

Q.15 In adolescence, with the development of the stage of ‘formal operations’, we
are likely to see the development of ___________________________.

(A) post-conventional morality

(B) pre-conventional morality

(C) bodily-kinesthetic intelligence

(D) transference

Q.16 Which technique allows researchers to conduct an integrative statistical
analysis of multiple independent studies addressing the same question?

(A) Meta-analysis

(B) Correlational analysis

(C) Regression analysis

(D) Bootstrapping

Q.17 The role of culture and ‘scaffolding’ are emphasized in
___________________.

(A) Vygotsky’s theory of cognitive development

(B) Piaget’s theory of cognitive development

(C) Atkinson-Shiffrin’s information-processing model

(D) Kamiloff-Smith’s theory of cognitive development

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Page 26

Q.18 Most people tend NOT to consider situational factors while judging others’
behaviour because ___________________________________________.

(A) people are inclined to commit the fundamental attribution error

(B) of the frustration-aggression relationship

(C) people are influenced by the laws of reinforcement

(D) of the overjustification effect

Q.19 Using archival analysis, scientists describe a culture by
______________________________________________________.

(A) examining documents like magazines, diaries and newspapers

(B) surveying a representative sample of members of the society

(C) observing the behaviour of members of the society

(D) comparing the direct observations of behaviour from different cultures

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Q.20 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry ONE mark each (no negative marks).

Q.20 Which is/are the component(s) of Gardner’s theory of multiple
intelligences?

(A) Logical-Mathematical intelligence

(B) Linguistic intelligence

(C) Spatial intelligence

(D) Insight

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Q.21 – Q.23 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO mark each (for each wrong
answer: – 2/3).

Q.21 Match the neurotransmitter in the first column with its effect in the second
column.

Neurotransmitter Effect

P Acetylcholine (i) Primarily involved in control or
alertness and wakefulness.

Q Norepinephrine (ii) Plays a role in the regulation of mood,
eating, sleeping and arousal.

R Serotonin (iii) Major inhibitory neurotransmitter in
the brain.

S Gamma- (iv) Involved in muscle action, learning
aminobutyric acid and memory.
(GABA)

(v) Involved in Parkinson’s disease.

(A) P-(iv), Q-(i), R-(ii), S-(iii)

(B) P-(iii), Q-(i), R-(ii), S-(v)

(C) P-(i), Q-(ii), R-(iv), S-(iii)

(D) P-(iv), Q-(i), R-(v), S-(iii)

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Q.22 Match the depth cues in the first column with their description in the second
column.

Cues Description

P Aerial perspective (i) The inward turning of the eyes that
occurs when you look at an object that
is closer to you.

Q Motion Parallax (ii) The distant mountain appears fuzzy.

R Convergence (iii) Parallel lines appear to converge at
the horizon.

S Linear perspective (iv) When we travel in a vehicle, objects
that are close appear to move in the
opposite direction.

(A) P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(iii)

(B) P-(ii), Q-(iii), R-(iv), S-(i)

(C) P-(iv), Q-(i), R-(ii), S-(iii)

(D) P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii)

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Q.23 Match the concepts in the first column with the description in the second
column.

Concept Description

P Transience (i) Source of memory is confused

(ii) Inability to forget undesirable
Q Misattribution
memories

(iii) Accessibility of memory decreases
R Absentmindedness
over time

(iv) Forgetting caused by lapses in
S Persistence
attention

(A) P-(iii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(ii)

(B) P-(i), Q-(ii), R-(iii), S-(iv)

(C) P-(ii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(iii)

(D) P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii)

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Q.24 – Q.40 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).

Q.24 Which of the following will hold true for a learning acquisition curve drawn
for a classical conditioning experiment on eye blinking as conditioned
response that plots the learning over a number of trials?

(A) The rate of learning on earlier trials is more than that on later trials.

(B) The learning curve is negatively accelerated.

(C) The rate of learning in later trials will be more than that on earlier trials.

(D) The rate of learning is proportionally increasing with increasing number of trials.

Q.25 In the situation where ‘A teenager who hates studying science but is also not
able to tell his parents fearing their reaction’, what is the conflict he is facing
and which of these may be his way of dealing with this situation?

(A) Avoidance-Avoidance conflict, he will keep vacillating between telling his
parents and continuing to study science.

(B) Avoidance-Avoidance conflict, he may contemplate running away from his
home.

(C) Approach-Avoidance conflict, he will experience some emotional turmoil.

(D) Multiple Approach-Avoidance conflict, he will be guided by internal values.

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Q.26 Which of these is true about individuals high on n-achievement motivation?

(A) High n-achievement individuals like to work on situations where they have
control and can get feedback.

(B) High n-achievement individuals persistently work on tasks they perceive as,
either reflecting their personal characteristics like intelligence or are career-
related.

(C) High n-achievement individuals prefer working on extremely challenging tasks
for bigger gains.

(D) High n-achievement individuals avoid changing their aspiration levels.

Q.27 Which of the following is/are Allport’s basic assumption(s) concerning
human nature?

(A) Human growth as an active process of “becoming”.

(B) Personality cannot be fully understood by examining each trait separately, though
some system of conceptual schemata are essential for personality study and a trait
must be related to the total pattern of personality.

(C) Personality is organized in a topographical model.

(D) All human events are determined by powerful instinctual forces.

Q.28 Which of the following aspects are characteristics of the group structure in
an organizational context?

(A) Task-oriented role (the activities of an individual that involve helping the group
reach the goal).

(B) Socio-emotional role (the activities of an individual that involve being supportive
and nurturing of other group members).

(C) Prescriptive norms (expectations within groups regarding what has to be done).

(D) Monitoring (observing work performance).

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Q.29 Which of the following needs/motives are proposed by Abraham Maslow?

(A) Deficit needs.

(B) Metaneeds.

(C) Self-actualization needs.

(D) Need-achievement.

Q.30 A researcher is conducting a study involving two independent variables.
Which of the following Analysis of Variance (ANOVA) is/are available to
him/her?

(A) 2 × 2 ANOVA.

(B) 4 × 3 ANOVA.

(C) 3 × 2 × 2 ANOVA.

(D) One-way ANOVA.

Q.31 Which of the following statements is true about personal space?

(A) It is silent and invisible.

(B) It is a geographic component of interpersonal relations.

(C) Invasions of personal space are a matter of degree.

(D) There are no across culture variations.

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Q.32 If a person got a score of 75 on a test, which of the following distributions
allow(s) for the most favourable interpretation of that score? (assuming
higher values are more favourable)

(A) Mean = 55, Standard Deviation = 4

(B) Mean = 60, Standard Deviation = 3

(C) Mean = 65, Standard Deviation = 5

(D) Mean = 50, Standard Deviation = 10

Q.33 A man’s wife is dying. She is in dire need of a drug. The only place to get the
drug is at the store of a pharmacist who is known to overcharge people for
drugs. The man can only pay ₹20000 but the pharmacist wants ₹50000, and
refuses to sell it to him for less, or to let him pay later. What will the man do
if he is at the conventional stage of morality as per Kohlberg’s theory of
moral reasoning?

(A) He would not steal the drug, as everyone will see him as a thief, and his wife
would not approve of his stealing or accept the stolen drug.

(B) No matter what, he would obey the law because stealing is a crime.

(C) The man would not steal the drug, as he may get caught and go to jail.

(D) The man would steal the drug to cure his wife and then tell the authorities what
he has done. He may have to pay a penalty, but at least he would have saved a
human life.

Q.34 According to Erik Erikson, identity versus role confusion is the fifth stage of
life span development. Which of the following outcomes may emerge as a
result of identity crisis?

(A) Identity diffusion

(B) Identity moratorium

(C) Identity foreclosure

(D) Identity perception

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Q.35 Life span experts argue that biological aging begins at birth. Which of the
following is/are explanation/s of aging?

(A) Cells can divide to a maximum of about 75 to 80 times and that as people age,
cells become less capable of dividing.

(B) People age because when cells metabolize energy, the by-products include
unstable oxygen molecules known as free radicals.

(C) Aging is due to the decay of mitochondria.

(D) Cell division increases as people age.

Q.36 Which of the following are involved in sympathetic nervous system
activation?

(A) Inhibited salivation

(B) Increased heart rate

(C) Inhibited digestion

(D) Constricted pupils

Q.37 How is/are genetic theories of psychopathology tested?

(A) Using twin studies

(B) Using family history studies

(C) Using adoption studies

(D) Using psychodynamic studies

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Q.38 An investigator approached college students who initially believed that
water should be purified and asked them to compose and recite a videotaped
speech against the use of water purifiers. To do this, some were offered large
incentives and others were offered small incentives. Later their attitudes
towards water purifiers were tested. Which of the following will be the
expected finding(s)?

(A) The smaller the incentive, the greater will be the attitude change.

(B) All the students will change their attitudes towards water purifiers.

(C) All the students will continue to feel favourably about water purifiers.

(D) The larger the incentive, the greater will be the attitude change.

Q.39 In which attachment style(s), do children tend to show clingy behaviour but
then reject the attachment figure’s attempt to interact with them?

(A) Resistant attachment

(B) Avoidant attachment

(C) Secure attachment

(D) Disorganized attachment

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Q.40 A study is conducted to see the effectiveness of volume levels of commercials.
In the graph given below, values of mean effectiveness (dependent variable)
are presented on the Y axis, and three levels of volume, namely, soft, medium
and loud are presented on the X axis. The graph shows the relationship
between volume and mean effectiveness for males in the continuous line and
for females in the dashed line. Which of the following interpretation(s) is/are
correct from the graph?

(A) A linear relationship exists for males and a nonlinear relationship for females.

(B) The effect of increasing volume on effectiveness depends on whether the
participant is a male or a female.

(C) No interaction effect is seen.

(D) A linear relationship exists for both males and females.

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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Document Details

Board / OrgIIT
ExamGraduate Aptitude Test in Engineering
TypeQuestion Paper
Pages37
Languageenglish
Updated30 Apr 2026