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MAKAUT CET Sample Paper 2027
MAKAUT WB Common Entrance Test · UG group paper (BBA, BCA, B.Sc) · Practice
ADMISSION
Paper 1
Questions Marks Time Negative marking
50 MCQs 100 (2 each) 60 minutes None announced
Part Section Questions Q. No.
Section A General Knowledge 12 1 to 12
Section B Logical Reasoning 13 13 to 25
Section C English 12 26 to 37
Section D Numerical Ability 13 38 to 50
Instructions
1. This paper has 50 multiple-choice questions in four sections: General Knowledge, Logical Reasoning, English and
Numerical Ability. Each question has four options; choose the one correct answer.
2. Each question carries 2 marks (100 marks in all). MAKAUT's scheme of examination does not mention negative
marking, so attempt every question.
3. Time allowed is 60 minutes, as in the online computer-based test (CBT). Do rough work on paper; calculators are
not allowed.
4. MAKAUT does not announce how many questions come from each section. This paper uses 12 to 13 questions
per section.
5. The answer key and short solutions are at the end. Check them only after you finish.
This is an AglaSem practice paper written on the official MAKAUT CET scheme of examination for the UG group (50 MCQs, 2
marks each, 60 minutes; General Knowledge, Logical Reasoning, English, Numerical Ability). It is not an official MAKAUT, West
Bengal paper, and its questions are original. PG 1 candidates take Mathematics, Biology or Chemistry in place of Numerical
Ability.
Section A
General Knowledge
1. In which year did Rabindranath Tagore receive the Nobel Prize in Literature?
(A) 1921 (B) 1930
(C) 1913 (D) 1905
2. The Battle of Plassey (1757) was fought between the forces of the East India Company and:
(A) Mir Qasim (B) Tipu Sultan
(C) Shuja-ud-Daulah (D) Siraj-ud-Daulah
3. Which Article of the Constitution of India abolishes untouchability?
(A) Article 21 (B) Article 17
(C) Article 32 (D) Article 14
4. The Sundarbans National Park in West Bengal is best known for which animal?
(A) Snow leopard (B) Asiatic lion
(C) One-horned rhinoceros (D) Royal Bengal tiger
5. Who composed 'Vande Mataram', the National Song of India?
(A) Rabindranath Tagore (B) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(C) Kazi Nazrul Islam (D) Sarojini Naidu
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6. Which gas makes up the largest share of the Earth's atmosphere?
(A) Argon (B) Nitrogen
(C) Oxygen (D) Carbon dioxide
7. What is the SI unit of electric current?
(A) Ampere (B) Coulomb
(C) Volt (D) Ohm
8. The Tropic of Cancer passes through which of the following states?
(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Jharkhand
(C) Bihar (D) Odisha
9. Who was the first Governor-General of independent India?
(A) Lord Mountbatten (B) C. Rajagopalachari
(C) Lord Linlithgow (D) Lord Wavell
10. Where is the central office (headquarters) of the Reserve Bank of India?
(A) Kolkata (B) New Delhi
(C) Mumbai (D) Pune
11. The Hornbill Festival is celebrated every December in which state?
(A) Mizoram (B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Nagaland (D) Manipur
12. 'Wings of Fire' is the autobiography of:
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) Vikram Sarabhai
(C) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam (D) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
Section B
Logical Reasoning
13. Find the next number in the series: 3, 8, 15, 24, 35, ?
(A) 46 (B) 48
(C) 50 (D) 49
14. Find the next letter in the series: A, C, F, J, O, ?
(A) U (B) V
(C) S (D) T
15. If BOOK is written as CPPL in a certain code, how is PAGE written in that code?
(A) OZFD (B) QCHF
(C) QBGF (D) QBHF
16. In a certain code language PLANT is written as ANTPL. How will CHAIR be written in that code?
(A) IRCHA (B) AICHR
(C) AIRCH (D) ARICH
17. Find the odd one out: 27, 64, 125, 144
(A) 27 (B) 144
(C) 64 (D) 125
18. Book : Author :: Symphony : ?
(A) Audience (B) Orchestra
(C) Composer (D) Conductor
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19. Pointing to a boy, Neha said, "His mother is the only daughter of my mother." How is Neha related to
the boy?
(A) Aunt (B) Sister
(C) Grandmother (D) Mother
20. Ravi walks 6 km towards the north, then turns right and walks 8 km. How far and in which direction is
he from his starting point?
(A) 10 km, North-East (B) 10 km, South-East
(C) 14 km, North-East (D) 2 km, North-West
21. In a row of 35 students, Mohan is 14th from the left end. What is his position from the right end?
(A) 20th (B) 23rd
(C) 22nd (D) 21st
Read the information below and answer the next three questions:
Five friends P, Q, R, S and T sit in a row, all facing north.
R sits exactly in the middle of the row. P sits at the extreme left end.
T sits immediately to the right of R. Q does not sit next to P.
22. Who sits at the extreme right end of the row?
(A) T (B) R
(C) Q (D) S
23. Who sits between P and R?
(A) S (B) Nobody
(C) Q (D) T
24. Who sits second to the right of S?
(A) R (B) T
(C) Q (D) P
25. Statements: All pens are books. Some books are bags.
Conclusions: I. Some pens are bags. II. Some bags are books.
Which conclusion(s) follow?
(A) Neither I nor II follows (B) Only II follows
(C) Only I follows (D) Both I and II follow
Section C
English
26. Which word comes first in the English dictionary?
(A) Parallel (B) Paradigm
(C) Paradise (D) Paramount
27. Choose the meaning of the idiom: to beat about the bush
(A) to search a place very carefully
(B) to work hard for little reward
(C) to defeat a rival with ease
(D) to avoid coming to the main point
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28. Choose the meaning of the idiom: a blessing in disguise
(A) a good thing that first seemed bad
(B) a reward that comes very late
(C) a secret wish that comes true
(D) a gift received from a stranger
29. Choose the word most similar in meaning to METICULOUS.
(A) Hasty (B) Careless
(C) Timid (D) Thorough
30. Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to SCARCE.
(A) Insufficient (B) Rare
(C) Scanty (D) Abundant
31. Find the part of the sentence that has an error: Each of the students / have submitted / the assignment
on time.
(A) Each of the students (B) have submitted
(C) the assignment on time (D) No error
32. Fill in the blank: She has been living in Kolkata ___ 2015.
(A) since (B) from
(C) by (D) for
33. Choose the one word for: a person who can speak two languages.
(A) Linguist (B) Polyglot
(C) Translator (D) Bilingual
34. Choose the correctly spelt word.
(A) Neccessary (B) Necessary
(C) Necesary (D) Neccesary
35. Rearrange the parts to make a meaningful sentence:
P: the station; Q: before the train; R: we reached; S: left
(A) PRQS (B) RQPS
(C) QSRP (D) RPQS
36. Choose the correct active voice of: The letter was written by Riya.
(A) Riya wrote the letter. (B) Riya was writing the letter.
(C) Riya has written the letter. (D) Riya had written the letter.
37. Fill in the blank: The manager was ___ by the sudden resignation, as he had no idea it was coming.
(A) taken over (B) taken in
(C) taken after (D) taken aback
Section D
Numerical Ability
38. What is 15% of 480 plus 20% of 360?
(A) 144 (B) 136
(C) 152 (D) 140
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39. An article bought for ₹800 is sold for ₹920. What is the profit per cent?
(A) 18% (B) 13%
(C) 12% (D) 15%
40. ₹2,400 is divided between two friends in the ratio 3 : 5. What is the larger share?
(A) ₹1,500 (B) ₹1,600
(C) ₹900 (D) ₹1,200
41. The average of five numbers is 18. If one number, 26, is removed, what is the average of the remaining
four?
(A) 16 (B) 15
(C) 18 (D) 17
42. What is the simple interest on ₹6,000 at 5% per annum for 4 years?
(A) ₹1,200 (B) ₹1,500
(C) ₹1,000 (D) ₹1,320
43. What is the compound interest on ₹5,000 at 10% per annum for 2 years, compounded annually?
(A) ₹1,025 (B) ₹1,050
(C) ₹1,100 (D) ₹1,000
44. A can finish a piece of work in 10 days and B in 15 days. Working together, in how many days will they
finish it?
(A) 8 days (B) 5 days
(C) 12.5 days (D) 6 days
45. A train 300 m long runs at 54 km/h. How long will it take to cross a pole?
(A) 18 seconds (B) 20 seconds
(C) 15 seconds (D) 25 seconds
46. The sum of the ages of a mother and her daughter is 50 years. After 5 years, the mother will be three
times as old as the daughter. What are their present ages?
(A) 40 and 10 years (B) 42 and 8 years
(C) 38 and 12 years (D) 35 and 15 years
47. What is the LCM of 12, 18 and 30?
(A) 60 (B) 90
(C) 180 (D) 360
48. What is the square root of 1764?
(A) 38 (B) 44
(C) 42 (D) 48
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Study the table and answer the next two questions:
Units sold by an electronics store
Year Laptops Tablets
2022 120 80
2023 150 90
2024 180 120
2025 200 150
49. By what percentage did laptop sales increase from 2022 to 2023?
(A) 15% (B) 25%
(C) 20% (D) 30%
50. In which year was the ratio of tablets sold to laptops sold the highest?
(A) 2022 (B) 2024
(C) 2025 (D) 2023
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Answer Key
1 C 2 D 3 B 4 D 5 B 6 B 7 A 8 B 9 A 10 C
11 C 12 C 13 B 14 A 15 D 16 C 17 B 18 C 19 D 20 A
21 C 22 C 23 A 24 B 25 B 26 B 27 D 28 A 29 D 30 D
31 B 32 A 33 D 34 B 35 D 36 A 37 D 38 A 39 D 40 A
41 A 42 A 43 B 44 D 45 B 46 A 47 C 48 C 49 B 50 C
Solutions
General Knowledge
1. (C) Tagore won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1913, mainly for Gitanjali. He was the first Asian Nobel laureate.
2. (D) At Plassey in 1757, Robert Clive defeated Siraj-ud-Daulah, the Nawab of Bengal. Mir Qasim and Shuja-ud-
Daulah fought at Buxar in 1764.
3. (B) Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form. Article 14 is equality before law, 21 is life
and personal liberty, 32 is the right to constitutional remedies.
4. (D) The Sundarbans mangrove forest is a tiger reserve famous for the Royal Bengal tiger. The one-horned rhino is
linked with Kaziranga and the Asiatic lion with Gir.
5. (B) Vande Mataram is from Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay's novel Anandamath. Tagore wrote Jana Gana Mana,
the National Anthem.
6. (B) Dry air is about 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen and nearly 1% argon; carbon dioxide is a very small fraction.
7. (A) Electric current is measured in amperes. The volt is the unit of potential difference, the ohm of resistance and the
coulomb of charge.
8. (B) The Tropic of Cancer crosses Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal,
Tripura and Mizoram. It does not pass through Odisha, Bihar or Uttar Pradesh.
9. (A) Lord Mountbatten continued as Governor-General from 15 August 1947 to June 1948. C. Rajagopalachari
succeeded him as the first (and only) Indian Governor-General.
10. (C) The RBI was set up in Kolkata in 1935, but its central office moved permanently to Mumbai in 1937.
11. (C) The Hornbill Festival is held in Nagaland (at Kisama, near Kohima) in the first week of December to showcase
Naga culture.
12. (C) Wings of Fire (1999), written with Arun Tiwari, is the autobiography of Dr A. P. J. Abdul Kalam.
Logical Reasoning
13. (B) The terms are n² − 1 for n = 2, 3, 4, 5, 6: 4−1, 9−1, 16−1, 25−1, 36−1. Next is 49 − 1 = 48. (The gaps 5, 7, 9, 11,
13 also give 35 + 13 = 48.)
14. (A) The gaps are +2, +3, +4, +5, so the next gap is +6: O (15) + 6 = 21 = U.
15. (D) Each letter moves one place forward: P→Q, A→B, G→H, E→F, so PAGE becomes QBHF.
16. (C) The first two letters are moved to the end: PL-ANT → ANT-PL. So CH-AIR → AIR-CH = AIRCH.
17. (B) 27, 64 and 125 are perfect cubes (3³, 4³, 5³). 144 is 12², a perfect square but not a cube.
18. (C) An author creates a book; a composer creates a symphony. The conductor and orchestra only perform it.
19. (D) The only daughter of Neha's mother is Neha herself. So the boy's mother is Neha.
20. (A) After turning right from north he walks east. Distance = √(6² + 8²) = √100 = 10 km, towards the north-east.
21. (C) Position from right = total − position from left + 1 = 35 − 14 + 1 = 22.
22. (C) P is in place 1, R in place 3 and T in place 4. Q cannot be in place 2 (next to P), so Q is in place 5 and S in
place 2. Order: P S R T Q, so Q is at the right end.
23. (A) The order from left is P S R T Q, so S sits between P and R.
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24. (B) S is in place 2; second to its right is place 4, which is T.
25. (B) 'Some books are bags' converts to 'some bags are books', so II follows. The books that are bags need not be
pens, so I does not follow.
English
26. (B) All begin with PARA. The fifth letters are D, D, L, M, so Paradigm and Paradise come before the others; at the
seventh letter G comes before S, so Paradigm is first.
27. (D) To beat about the bush is to talk around a subject without saying what you really mean.
28. (A) A blessing in disguise is something that seems unfortunate at first but turns out to be good.
29. (D) Meticulous means showing great attention to detail, that is, very careful or thorough.
30. (D) Scarce means in short supply; its opposite is abundant. Rare, scanty and insufficient are close in meaning to
scarce.
31. (B) 'Each' is singular, so the verb must be singular: 'Each of the students has submitted the assignment on time.'
32. (A) 'Since' is used with a point of time (2015) in the perfect continuous tense; 'for' is used with a period of time.
33. (D) Bilingual means able to speak two languages. A polyglot knows many languages; a linguist studies languages.
34. (B) The correct spelling is necessary: one C and double S.
35. (D) R P Q S reads: 'We reached the station before the train left.'
36. (A) 'Was written' is simple past passive, so the active form is in the simple past: 'Riya wrote the letter.'
37. (D) To be taken aback is to be shocked or surprised. 'Taken in' means deceived, 'taken over' means controlled,
and 'take after' means to resemble.
Numerical Ability
38. (A) 15% of 480 = 72 and 20% of 360 = 72, so the total is 144.
39. (D) Profit = 920 − 800 = 120. Profit % = 120/800 × 100 = 15%.
40. (A) Total parts = 8; one part = 2400/8 = 300. The larger share = 5 × 300 = ₹1,500.
41. (A) Sum of five numbers = 5 × 18 = 90. Remaining sum = 90 − 26 = 64; average = 64/4 = 16.
42. (A) SI = P × R × T/100 = 6000 × 5 × 4/100 = ₹1,200.
43. (B) Amount = 5000 × 1.1 × 1.1 = 6050, so CI = 6050 − 5000 = ₹1,050.
44. (D) Work per day = 1/10 + 1/15 = 3/30 + 2/30 = 5/30 = 1/6, so together they take 6 days.
45. (B) 54 km/h = 54 × 5/18 = 15 m/s. Time = 300/15 = 20 seconds.
46. (A) Let the daughter be D; mother = 50 − D. Then 55 − D = 3(D + 5), so 4D = 40 and D = 10, mother = 40. Check: in
5 years, 45 = 3 × 15.
47. (C) 12 = 2²·3, 18 = 2·3², 30 = 2·3·5. LCM = 2²·3²·5 = 180.
48. (C) 42 × 42 = 1764 (40² = 1600 and 2 × 40 × 2 + 4 = 164).
49. (B) Increase = 150 − 120 = 30. Percentage = 30/120 × 100 = 25%.
50. (C) Ratios: 2022 = 80/120 ≈ 0.67, 2023 = 90/150 = 0.60, 2024 = 120/180 ≈ 0.67, 2025 = 150/200 = 0.75. The
highest is in 2025.
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