JELET 2023 Question Paper Pharmacy

Paper-II (For Pharmacy Candidates)

(Booklet Number)
Duration: 2 Hours No. of MCQ : 100 Full Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS
1. All questions are of objective type having four answer options for each.
2. Category-I MCQ : Carry 1 mark each and only one option is correct. In case of
incorrect answer or any combination of more than one answer, ¼ mark will be
deducted.
3. Questions must be answered on OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble
marked A, B, C, or D.
4. Use only Black/Blue ink ball point pen to mark the answer by complete filling up of
the respective bubbles.
5. Write question booklet number and your roll number carefully in the specified
locations of the OMR Sheet. Also fill appropriate bubbles.
6. Write your name (in block letter), name of the examination center and put your
signature (as appeared in Admit Card) in appropriate boxes in the OMR Sheet.
7. The OMR Sheet is liable to become invalid if there is any mistake in filling the
correct bubbles for question booklet number/roll number or if there is any discrepancy
in the name / signature of the candidate, name of the examination center. The OMR
Sheet may also become invalid due to folding or putting stray marks on it or any
damage to it. The consequence of such invalidation due to incorrect marking or
careless handling by the candidate will be sole responsibility of candidate.
8. Candidates are not allowed to carry any written or printed material, calculator, pen,
log-table, wristwatch, any communication device like mobile phones, bluetooth etc.
inside the examination hall. Any candidate found with such prohibited items will be
reported against and his/her candidature will be summarily cancelled.
9. Rough work must be done on the question booklet itself. Additional blank pages are
given in the question booklet for rough work.
10. Hand over the OMR Sheet to the invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall.
11. Candidates are allowed to take the Question Booklet after Examination is over.

Signature of the Candidate : ______________________________
(as in Admit Card)

Signature of the Invigilator : ______________________________

Pharma 

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Pharma 2 

Category-I (Q 1 to 100)
(Carry 1 mark each. Only one option is correct. Negative marks : – ¼)

1. The Cephalosporin having maximum nephrotoxicity is –
(A) Cephaloridine (B) Cefepime
(C) Cefalothin (D) All of the above

2. The action of Penicillin requires the presence of cell wall that contains –
(A) Pseudomureins (B) Peptidoglycans
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

3. The immunoglobulin present in breast milk is –
(A) IgM (B) IgE
(C) IgA (D) IgG

4. The drug of choice in case of ‘Cheese Reaction’ is –
(A) Tetracycline (B) Phentolamine
(C) Phenobarbitone (D) Gabapentin

5. Drug of choice for Epilepsy in pregnancy is –
(A) Carbamazepine (B) Lamotrigine
(C) Topiramate (D) Sodium valproate

6. Binding site of Tetracycline is –
(A) 30s ribosome
(B) Several sites of both 30 and 50s ribosomes
(C) 50s ribosome
(D) None of the above

7. Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of –
(A) Acetylcholine (B) Isoprenaline
(C) Noradrenaline (D) Atropine

8. Which one is used as an antidote in barbiturate poisoning ?
(A) Amiloride (B) Picrotoxin
(C) Aflatoxin (D) Ketamine

Pharma 3 

9. Most of the drug is absorbed through –
(A) Active transport (B) Facilitated diffusion
(C) Passive diffusion (D) Ion pair transport

10. Morphine affects the eyes by –
(A) Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve.
(B) Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system.
(C) Decreasing pupillary responses to light.
(D) Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris.

11. Atropine over-dosage may cause all of the following, except
(A) Miosis (B) Increased heart rate
(C) Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle (D) Mental aberration

12. Antidote of atropine is –
(A) Neostigmine (B) Pralidoxime
(C) Physostigmine (D) None of the above

13. Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is –
(A) Physostigmine (B) Pralidoxime
(C) Neostigmine (D) Tubocurarine

14. A reaction between an acid and an alcohol produces an ester and _______.
(A) Water (B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Ethanol (D) Oxygen

15. Major adverse effect of clonidine is –
(A) Bradycardia (B) Tachycardia
(C) Hypertension (D) Dry mouth

16. According to Drugs and Cosmetics Act, List of substances that should be sold by retailer
only on prescription of registered medical practitioner is given in which of the following
Schedule ?
(A) Schedule 'H' (B) Schedule 'V'
(C) Schedule 'X' (D) Schedule 'Q'

Pharma 4 

17. pH of human tear is –
(A) 7.6 (B) 4.5
(C) 7.2 (D) 9

18. Rain drops are spherical in shape because of –
(A) Surface tension (B) Capillary
(C) Downward motion (D) Acceleration due to gravity

19. In the preparation of vanishing creams, which types of bases are used generally ?
(A) Absorption bases (B) Water removable bases
(C) Hydrocarbon bases (D) None of the above

20. Vaginal suppositories also called as –
(A) Pessaries (B) Simple suppositories
(C) Bougies (D) None of these

21. The first edition of IP was published in the year –
(A) 1965 (B) 1975
(C) 1955 (D) 1985

22. A genetically determined abnormal or unusual response to a drug is –
(A) Idiosyncrasy (B) Tolerance
(C) Genetic polymorphism (D) Salicylism

23. A Zwitter ion is a –
(A) Molecule containing negative ion
(B) Molecule containing positive ion
(C) Molecule containing positive and negative ionic group
(D) None of these

24. The Latin word Rx is abbreviation of –
(A) You take (B) To make
(C) To sold (D) To use

Pharma 5 

25. Posology is a branch of pharmacy which deals with –
(A) Study of dosage forms (B) Study of doses
(C) Study of drug interaction (D) All of the above

26. Doses of children are calculated by Young’s formula. Which one is correct ?
(A) [Age / (Age + 12)]  Adult Dose (mg/day)
(B) [Age / (Age + 24)]  Adult Dose (gm/day)
(C) [Age at next birthday (Years)/24]  Adult Dose (mg/day)
(D) [Wt in kg / (Age + 24)]  Adult Dose (mg/day)

27. Polyethylene glycol is also known as –
(A) Paraffin (B) Carbowaxes
(C) Anhydrous Lanolin (D) None of the above

28. ORS (WHO) contain NaCl in amount –
(A) 3.5 g (B) 1.3 g
(C) 2.5 g (D) 4.5 g

29. One teaspoonful is equal to –
(A) 4 ml (B) 8 ml
(C) 3 ml (D) 6 ml

30. Meaning of the Latin term ‘sumendus’ is –
(A) To be taken (B) You take
(C) To be used (D) To be applied

31. Which factor is required for the maturation of erythrocytes ?
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin B12
(C) Vitamin D (D) Vitamin C

32. Titanium dioxide is used in tablet coating as –
(A) Glidant (B) Lubricant
(C) Opacifier (D) Plasticizer

Pharma 6 

33. Acidic drugs mainly bind with plasma –
(A) Albumin (B) Lipoprotein
(C) Gamma globulin (D) None of these

34. Most common side effect of Chloramphenicol
(A) Gray baby syndrome (B) Gastric ulcer
(C) Liver toxicity (D) Nausea & vomiting

35. Probenecid is an –
(A) Analgesic agent (B) Uricosuric agent
(C) Antipyretic agent (D) Anticancer drug

36. Neural tube defect occurs due to deficiency of –
(A) Thiamine (B) Cyanocobalamine
(C) Folic acid (D) Riboflavin

37. The DOP test is used to check the efficacy of –
(A) HEPA filter (B) Membrane filter
(C) Centrifuge (D) Leaf filter

38. Neucleotides are building blocks of nucleic acids. Each neucleotide consists –
(A) Base-sugar (B) Base-phosphate
(C) Base-sugar-phosphate (D) Base-sugar-OH

39. Which one is an autoimmune disorder ?
(A) Glaucoma (B) Cataract
(C) Myasthenia gravis (D) Hypertension

40. Roto fill machines are used for –
(A) Removing loose caps and bodies of gelatin shell
(B) Encapsulate solids in soft gelatin capsule
(C) A capsule weighing machine
(D) Encapsulate pellets into hard gelatin capsule

Pharma 7 

41. Diuretic effect of spironolactone is antagonized if co-administered with –
(A) Amiloride (B) Ibuprofen
(C) Nifedipine (D) Aspirin

42. Vaccines are –
(A) Modified bacterial exotoxin
(B) Modified bacterial endotoxin
(C) Killed or attenuated suspension of micro-organisms
(D) Antibody containing preparation

43. Diagnostic test for typhoid is –
(A) Widal test (B) Dick test
(C) Kahn’s test (D) Mantoux test

44. Mechanism of sterilization by autoclave method is –
(A) Coagulation of bacterial proteins
(B) Oxidation of bacterial proteins
(C) Mutation in bacteria
(D) Alkylation of bacterial proteins

45. The reciprocal of viscosity is called –
(A) Surface tension (B) Frictional resistance
(C) Fluidity (D) None of these

46. Amino acid used for the biosynthesis of morphine –
(A) Alanine (B) Glycine
(C) Methionine (D) Tyrosine

47. Which dryer is used for drying of enzymes ?
(A) Drum dryer (B) Spray dryer
(C) Freeze dryer (D) Fluidized bed dryer

48. Which of the following is a set of bacterial disease ?
(A) Typhoid and measles (B) Influenza and tuberculosis
(C) Measles and mumps (D) Pertussis and syphilis

Pharma 8 

49. Prodrug of adrenaline is –
(A) Dipivefrine (B) Ibuterol
(C) Azathioprine (D) Albuterol

50. Which one of the following activity is not present in opioids ?
(A) Antitussive (B) Analgesic
(C) Anti-inflammatory (D) Anti-diarrhoeal

51. Which test is used to distinguish between monosaccharides and disaccharides ?
(A) Benedict’s test (B) Barfoed’s test
(C) Osazone test (D) Seliwanoff’s test

52. Bredt’s rule is applicable for –
(A) Aliphatic system (B) Heterocyclic system
(C) Bridgehead bicyclic system (D) Spirocyclic system

53. Which schedule is related to the standard for equipment and facilities used in pharmacy ?
(A) Schedule N (B) Schedule V
(C) Schedule K (D) Schedule S

54. Rocky mountain spotted fever is caused by –
(A) Streptococcus pneumoniae (B) Streptococcus faecalis
(C) Rickettsia rickettssii (D) Rickettsia typhus

55. Relaxin is secreted from –
(A) Cornea (B) Pancreas
(C) Ovary (D) Muscle

56. Ergot gives _________ with Van urk’s reagent.
(A) Red colour (B) Blue colour
(C) Violet colour (D) Crimson colour

57. HLB value for solubilizing agent ranges from –
(A) 1-3 (B) 16-18
(C) 3-8 (D) 7-9

Pharma 9 

58. A meso compound
(A) is an achiral molecule (B) contains plane of symmetry
(C) is optically inactive (D) is characterized by all of these

59. A reducing agent is a substance which can –
(A) Accept electrons (B) Donate electrons
(C) Accept protons (D) Donate protons

60. Which of the following represents soap ?
(A) C17H35COOK (B) C15H30COOH
(C) (C17H35COO)Ca (D) C11H22COOH

61. Keller-kiliani test is used for identification of –
(A) Senna (B) Aloe
(C) Atropine (D) Digitoxin

62. “Saffron” is obtained from which part of the plant ?
(A) Stigma (B) Stamen
(C) Anther (D) Pollen

63. Which of the given varieties of Senna has the richest source of anthraquinone glycoside ?
(A) Dog Senna (B) Palthe Senna
(C) Alexandrian Senna (D) Tinnevelly Senna

64. Total number of members of a State Pharmacy Council is –
(A) 15 (B) 7
(C) 21 (D) 20

65. Arjuna bark is mainly used as –
(A) Sialogogue (B) Purgative
(C) Stomachic (D) Cardiotonic

66. Which part of quinine plant is used to treat malaria ?
(A) Fruits (B) Stem bark
(C) Leaves (D) Root

Pharma 10 

67. Purine derivative are detected by –
(A) Baljet test (B) Molish test
(C) Murexide test (D) Legal test

68. Dipole moment of molecule is measured in ________ unit.
(A) Debye (B) Dyne/Cm
(C) Dyne (D) Poise

69. “Cheese reactions” are related to –
(A) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (B) ACE inhibitors
(C) MAO inhibitors (D) Antipsychotics

70. As per Indian pharmacopoeia sucrose concentration in syrup is –
(A) 64.74% w/w (B) 64.74% v/v
(C) 66.667% v/w (D) 66.667% w/w

71. Which of the following is a correct formula of Grignard reagent ?
(A) RMgX (B) RMg2X

(C) RMgX2 (D) All of these

72. Atropine is an antagonist of –
(A) NM receptors (B) α receptors

(C) β2 receptors (D) M receptors

73. Which of the following is not sterilized by dry heat method ?
(A) Paraffin (B) Talcum powder
(C) Linen (D) Steel wire

Pharma 11 

74. Which stain paper is used in limit test of arsenic ?
(A) pH paper (B) Cobalt chloride paper
(C) Mercuric chloride paper (D) None of above

75. Histamine is involved in which type of allergic reaction ?
(A) Type 1 (B) Type 2
(C) Type 3 (D) Type 4

76. Carminatives are drugs that act by –
(A) Evacuation of bowel from gastrointestinal tract
(B) Decrease gastrointestinal motility
(C) Precipitating the protein of epithelium
(D) Evacuation of gases from gastrointestinal tract

77. Schizolysigenous oil glands are found in –
(A) Datura (B) Nux vomica
(C) Caryophyllum (D) Neem

78. At isoelectric pH, a mixture of amino acids in solution would be predominantly –
(A) Zwitter ions (B) Non-polar molecules
(C) Hydrophilic (D) Positive and monovalent

79. Tourniquet test is performed to detect –
(A) Leprosy (B) Dengue
(C) Multiple myeloma (D) Tuberculosis

80. Site of T cell maturation is –
(A) Thymus gland (B) Bone marrow
(C) Spleen (D) Appendix

Pharma 12 

81. Cholagogue means

(A) Promotes milk secretion (B) Promotes bile secretion

(C) Increase sweat secretion (D) Increase gastric secretion

82. Holy Basil – is the synonym for the plant

(A) Alpinia officinarum (B) Allium sativum

(C) Nardostachys jatamansi (D) Ocium sanctum

83. The general formula of monosaccharides

(A) CnH2nOn (B) C2nH2On

(C) CnH2O2n (D) CnH2nO2n

84. One nanometer (nm) is equal to

(A) 10–2 cm (B) 10–4 cm

(C) 10–7 cm (D) 10–8 cm

85. Which one is a gram positive bacteria ?

(A) Salmonella typhi (B) Vibrio cholerae

(C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa (D) Staphylococcus aureus

86. At normal pressure, freezing point of blood plasma is

(A) –0.41 °C (B) –0.52 °C

(C) –0.05 °C (D) 0.5 °C

Pharma 13 

87. Jentaculum means
(A) Dinner (B) Breakfast
(C) Lunch (D) Supper

88. The following organism is notorious for developing antimicrobial resistance rapidly
(A) Steptococcus pyogenes (B) Meningococcus
(C) Treponema pallidum (D) Escherichia coli

89. The penicillin G preparation with the longest duration of action is
(A) Benzathine penicillin (B) Sodium penicillin
(C) Potassium penicillin (D) Procaine penicillin

90. In skin, which of the macrophage cell is present ?
(A) Kupffer cell (B) Osteoclast
(C) Osteocyte (D) Dendritic cell

91. Rochelle salt is
(A) Potassium sodium tartarate (B) Antimony potassium tartarate
(C) Antimony sodium tartarate (D) Potassium permanganate

92. Amber coloured ampoules are used for
(A) Hygroscopic substances (B) Light sensitive substances
(C) Oxygen sensitive substances (D) All of the above

93. Which antiviral drug is used in the treatment of Parkinsonism ?
(A) Acyclovir (B) Amantadine
(C) Zidovudine (D) Azadirachtin

Pharma 14 

94. Dysphagia means
(A) Difficulty in urination (B) Difficulty in defecation
(C) Difficulty in breathing (D) Difficulty in swallowing

95. The volume of injection should not exceed 10 ml in case of
(A) Intravenous (B) Intramuscular
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Intradermal

96. Liquid oral preparation containing concentrated aqueous solution of sucrose is called
(A) Lotion (B) Emulsion
(C) Syrup (D) Tincture

97. Which organ has both exocrine and endocrine activities ?
(A) Liver (B) Spleen
(C) Kidney (D) Pancreas

98. Antibody is a
(A) Carbohydrate (B) Protein
(C) Glycoprotein (D) Lipoprotein

99. Selenium sulfide is
(A) Antimicrobial (B) Antiprotozoal
(C) Antidandruff (D) Anthelmintic

100. The family of Glycyrrhiza is
(A) Solanaceae (B) Apocynaceae
(C) Leguminosae (D) Leguminoceae

_____________

Pharma 15 

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Pharma 16 