PU CET PG 2025 Sample Paper

SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Sample Questions for LL.M.
Part – I: Constitutional Law and Current Affairs
1. The doctrine of “Basic Structure of the 5. Ordinance can be promulgated by the
Constitution” was propounded by the president of India if,
Supreme Court of India in A) Both the Houses of Parliament are
A) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India, in session
AIR 1951 SC 458 B) Both the Houses of Parliament are
B) Golaknath v. State of Punjab, AIR not in session
1967 SC 1643 C) Either of theHouses is not in
C) Kesavananda v. State of Kerala, AIR session.
1973 SC 1461 D) None of the above.
D) Minerva Mills v. Union of India, AIR
1980 SC 1789 6. How many amendments have been
2. The President of India may make a carried out in constitution of India?
proclamation under Article 356 as to the A) 109
breakdown of constitutional machinery in B) 106
a State. C) 99
A) When he is personally satisfied as to D) 94
rd
them circumstances. 7. Constitution 103 Amendment has
B) When he is advised by the Prime amended which articles of the
Minister to do so. Constitution?
C) When he is advised by the Union A) 14 & 15 B) 15 & 16
Council of Ministers. C) 14 & 16 D) 14, 15 & 16
D) When he receives a report from the 8. The attempt to suicide is no more
Chief Election Commission. punishable. Which section of the IPC was
3. The President of India, in the matters of declared unconstitutional and hence void
appointment of Judges of a High Court : by the Supreme Court in April, 1994?
A) Is not obliged to consult any Judge A) 302
of Supreme Court or High Court. B) 303
B) Is bound by the advice of the C) 304
Governor of a State D) 309
C) Must give primacy to the opinion of 9. The newly elected President of USA
the Chief Justice of India. Barack Obama belongs to which political
D) Is not bound to consult the Chief party.
Justice of India. A) Republican
4. Right to education has been included in B) Democratic.
the constitution by C) Communist
th
A) 86 Amendment D) None of the above
th
B) 100 Amendment 10. Since August 1994, the rupee has been
th
C) 87 Amendment made fully convertible in :
th
D) 94 Amendment A) The capital account
B) The capital and saving account
C) The saving account
D) The current account

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Part– II: Substantive Law

Commercial Law (Law of Contract and Company Law)
1. A contract entered into without ‘Free 4. A company is a Government Company
Consent’ is : only if :
A) Void A) All the shares of the company are
B) Voidable held by Central or State
C) Valid Government;
D) Illegal B) At least 25% of Shares are held by
2. Property insurance is a contract of : Central or State Government;
A) Indemnity C) Majority of Shares are held by
B) Contingent contract Central or State Government or
C) Wagering agreement both;
D) Guarantee D) Majority of Directors are appointed
by the Central or State Government
3. Creditor, on default by the principal debtor, 5. Annual general meeting of a company is
can file suit against: to be held with a gap between two
A) Secured property consecutive meetings of successive
B) Principal debtor alone Years;
C) Surety and principal debtor; A) Of not more than twelve month;
D) All the above jointly. B) Of not more than twenty four
months;
C) Of not more than fifteen months;
D) Any time but less than twenty four
months
Family Law
1. Which of the following is valid marriage 3. Which of the following is Hindu under the
under the Hindu Marriage Act. 1955? Hindu Law?
A) H, a male Hindu aged 35 marries A) A is born of Hindu father and
W who is a deserted wife of B, Christian mother and brought up as
who had filed a suit for divorce a Christian
and suit is still pending B) A is born of Hindu father and
B) H, a male Hindu aged 36 marries Buddhist mother
a second wife with the consent of C) A is born of Muslim father and Parsi
his first wife who has not been mother’
able to have a child for the last 10 D) A is born of Christian father and
Years Muslim mother
C) H, a Brahmin Male aged 30, 4. Which of the following relatives will
marries a Buddhist girl aged 18 succeed to the Property of H, a Hindu
D) H, an idiot male Hindu aged 27 male under the Hindu Succession Act
marries W, a Hindu female 1956 after his death?
Lunatic A) Daughter B) Father
2. Which of the following is valid adoption C) Brother D) Sister
under the Hindu Adoption & Maintenance 5. Which of the following is SAHI NIKAH
Act, 1956? (valid marriage) under the Mohammedan
A) H, a male Hindu aged 26 adopts Law?
a daughter aged 6 A) M, a Mohammedan male aged 30
B) H, a male Hindu and his wife married W, a Muslim woman under-
adopt a son aged 16 going Iddat
C) H, a male Hindu aged 40 adopted B) M, a Mohammedan male aged 27,
a son aged 5, after his natural married W, a Muslim woman in a
born son migrated to the U.S.A. desert, without any witness
D) H, a Hindu bachelor aged 25 C) M, a Mohammedan male aged 35,
adopts a son aged 3 married his wife’s sister
D) M, a Mohammedan male aged 41,
married W, a Muslim female aged
21 as second wife without the
consent and against the wishes of
his first wife

Law of Torts
1. The defense of Volenti non fit injuria is 4. Malice/evil motive is relevant in :
available in : A) Negligence
A) Rescue cases B) Defamation
B) Help cases C) Vicarious Liability
C) Negligence cases D) Nuisance
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D) Unlawful acts 5. Tort is :
2. The test of reasonable foreseeability was A) A wrong against the Society
laid down in : B) Statutorily defined in the Limitation
A) Re Polemis case Act
B) Donoghue v. Stevenson C) A codified branch of law
C) Rylands v. Fletcher D) A civil wrong based on the agreed
D) Ashby v. White obligations
3. There is physical harm to the plaintiff in :
A) Assault B) Defamation
C) Nervous shock D) None of
these

Legal Theory
1. Who observed that International Law is the 4. According to Hohfield, the jural opposite
vanishing point of jurisprudence? of ‘Power’ in the context of his analysis of
A) Austin B) Salmond legal right in the wider sense is :
C) Starke D) Holland A) Liability
2. Identify the Jurist who defined Law as “the B) Disability
form of the guarantee of the conditions of C) Duty
life of society, assured by the states’ D) Immunity
power of constraint”:
A) Roscoe Pound B) 5. Possession is said to be ownership on
Holmes the defensive by :
C) Ihering D) Salmond A) Savingny
3. Realist theory of law emphasizes on: B) Salmond
A) Social function of law C) Ihering
B) Human factors in law D) Gray
C) Social criterion of validity of law
D) Essentiality of law for social life

Public International Law
1. ‘International Law may be defined in broad 4. “The rebus sic stantibus doctrine is one of
terms as the body of general principals the enigmas of International Law” who
and specific rules which are binding upon said
the members of the international A) Starke
community in their mutual relations’ B) Edward Collin
A) Oppenheim B) Lawrence C) Oppenheim
C) Brierly D) Fenwick D) Anzilotti.
2. ‘The duties and rights of the States are
only the duties and rights of men who 5. ‘From the theoretical point of view, the
compose them’ : provision for applying ‘the General
A) Kelsen B) Westlake Principles of Law’ has been regarded as
C) Hall D) Starke sounding the death-knell of positivism’:
3. ‘A State is, and becomes an international
person, through recognition only and A) Lauterpacht
exclusively’: B) C.C.Hyde
A) Oppenheim C) Starke
B) Anzilotti D) Triepel
C) Holland
D) Pitt Corbett

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Indian Penal Code
1. P, a Pakistani, fires at A, an Indian, A) P is liable for murder
standing on the no-man’s land. A runs and B) P is liable for culpable homicide
dies on the Indian territory: C) P is liable for grievous hurt
A) P has committed no offence D) P is liable for simple hurt
B) P is liable for murder 4. P, a stoutly built man comes with a lathi
C) P is liable for attempt to culpable in his hand. P picks up the bag of A who
homicide being weak person does not resist :
D) P is liable for attempt to grievous hurt. A) P is liable for theft
2. With an intention to kill B administers B) P is liable for robbery
sugar mistaking it for arsenic : C) P is liable for extortion
A) P has committed no offence D) None of the above
B) P is liable for attempt to murder 5. P threatens A with a pistol and puts his
C) P is liable for culpable homicide hand in A’s pocket which is empty :
D) P is liable for grievous hurt. A) P has committed no offence
3. P intentionally gives a sword cut to A. A B) P is liable for attempt to theft
subsequently dies of septic meningitis C) P is liable for attempt to robbery
which developed on account of use of D) P is liable for attempt to extortion
wrong remedies and neglect of treatment:

Transfer of Property Act
1. Which of the following is a non- 3. Where a mortgagor personally binds
transferable property under the T.P.Act: himself to repay; the mortgage money
A) Actionable claim by a certain date and possession of the
B) Mortgagor’s right to redeem property is delivered to the Mortgagee,
C) Lessee’s right under the lease the mortgage shall be recognized as :
D) Right of an occupancy tenant A) Simple mortgage
B) English mortgage
2. The Supreme Court has held, that the rule C) Usufructuary mortgage
of lis pendens equally applies to D) Anomalous mortgage
involuntary transfers, in the case of 4. The Transfer of Property Act applies to
A) Kedar Nath Vs. Sheo Narain AIR 1970 transfers :
S.C. 1717 A) By operation of Law
B) Narayana Rao Vs. Basavarajappa AIR B) By act of parties
1956 S.C.727 C) By the Government
C) Vidhyadhar Krishnarao Mungi Vs. D) By parties who are Muslims
Usman Gani Saheb AIR 1974 S.C.685 5. The rule that every transaction involving
D) Beepathuma Vs. Velasari Shankra- transfer of property is to be treated as
Narayana Kadambolithaya AIR 1965 single unit is the basis of
S.C.241 A) The rule of apportionment
B) The rule of lis pendens
C) The rule of election
D) The rule of contribution

Industrial Disputes Act
1. The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 aims at : 3. The power of the Appropriate
A) Providing social security benefits to the Government under Section 10 to refer
workmen industrial disputes for adjudication is :
B) Regulating conditions of work in A) An administrative power
industries B) Legislative power
C) Investigation and settlement of C) Judicial power
industrial disputes D) Quasi-judicial power
D) Regulating the employment of women 4. Lockout is :
during certain periods A) For trade reasons
2. Retrenchment means : B) An act on the part of employer taken
A) Refusal by an employer to continue to to coerce or pressurize the labour
employ a workman C) Not an intentional act
B) Termination by the employer of the D) Not concerned with industrial dispute
service of a workman for any reason 5. Strike means :
whatsoever A) Mere cessation of work
C) Inability on the part of employer to B) Cessation of work under common
provide employment to the workman understanding
D) Voluntary retirement of a workman C) Cessation of work coupled with
gherao of management
D) Slowing down production

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Sample Questions for Master of Computer Applications (MCA)

1. Which of the following is NOT a language 6. Two persons Ram and Shyam sort the
processor? letters at constant rate. Ram sorts L
A) Compiler letters in 60 minutes while Shyam takes
B) Loader 30 minutes to sort L letters. The total
C) Interpreter time taken by both of them in sorting L
D) Assembler letters working together but
independently is
2. Which of the following is NOT an Internet A) 10 min
protocol? B) 20 min
A) LTP C) 15 min
B) SMTP D) 45 min
C) HTTP
D) ATM 7. The remainder obtained on dividing
1680
3. The sequence that is in ascending order 2 by 1763 is
in size is A) 1
A) bit, word, byte, nibble B) 3
B) nibble, byte, bit, word C) 13
C) nibble, bit, word, byte D) 31
D) bit, nibble, byte, word 8. The area bounded by the curve , y=
2
(x+1) ,its tangent at (1, 4) and the x –
4. Total number of ways in which four boys axis is
and three girls can sit in a row so that A) 1/3
boys and girls have alternate seats is B) 2/3
A) 72 C) 1
B) 144 D) 4/3
C) 288 9. The median of 25,13,4,6,3,11,15,10 is
D) 720 A) 4.5
5. If the word MANMOHANWASHERE B) 6.0
corresponds to ZOAABVNBJOFVRFR, C) 10.5
then the word that corresponds to LRF is D) 5.0
A) HEY
B) MAN
C) GOT
D) YES

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Sample Questions for M.A. Journalism and Mass Communication

1. Write about 150 words each on any two of the following: (16 Marks)
a) American Presidential elections
b) Budget 2008-09
c) Patriotism in Indian Cinema
d) Beijing Olympics 2008

2. Write about 150 words each on any two of the below listed personalities: (16 Marks)
A) Dr. Manmohan Singh
B) Young Turks in Indian Politics
C) Your role model
D) Sachin Tendulkar

3. Exhibit your analytic capabilities by arguing both for and against any one of the below listed motions in 100 words
each:- (13 Marks)
a. Covid 19: How India fared in fighting corona virus compared to developed countries.
b. Online education, work from home: Have we arrived in virtual world.

4. CURRENT AFFAIRS: (10 Marks)
Choose one option to answer the questions:
1. Who among the following was chosen by the TIME magazine as the ‘Person of the Year 2019’?
A) Greta Thumberg B) Rahul Gandhi
C) Narendra Modi D) Donald Trump
2. Which among the following countries has introduced VISA exemption for foreigners seeking medical
treatment?
A) Pakistan B) UK
C) India D) China
3. The Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir has constituted an administrative council to fulfill all the
government functions. Who will Chair the Council?
A) GC Murmu B) R K Mathur
C) Amit Shah D) Rajnath Singh

4. Google has launched a new cloud-based game streaming service. What is the name of the game service?
A) Google Arcadia B) Google Stadia
C) Google Playmates D) Google Nixplay

5. Which Bangladeshi cricketer has been banned from the sport for five years?
A) Soumya Sarkar B) Mushfiqur Rahim
C) Shahadat Hossain D) Liton Das

6. Who announced that the NRC process will be carried out across India and over all citizens?
A) P M Narendra Modi B) Defence Minister Rajnath Singh
C) President Ram Nath Kovind D) Home Minister Amit Shah

7. Germany will achieve its climate goals by which year, as per the recently passed Climate Protection Act?
A) 2025 B) 2030
B) 2035 D) 2040

8. What was India’s rank in the recently concluded World Para Athletics Championship?
A) 9th B) 13th
B) 24th D) 36th

9. What is the percentage of growth in road accidents mentioned in ‘Road Accidents in India-
A) 0.46 percent B) 0.50 percent
B) 0.64 percent D) 2.50 percent

10. President’ Colour was recently awarded to which institution on November 20?
A) Indian Naval Academy B) Indian Air Force
C) Indian Army D) All of the above

5. GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (10 marks)
Choose one option per question to answer the following Multiple Choice Question:

1. Which was Rishi Kapoor’s first film as a lead actor?
A) Mera Naam Joker.
B) Bobby
C) Karz
D) Amar, Akbar Anthony
2. The Ashes is associated with the game of
A) Football B) Volley Ball
C) Cricket D) Hockey

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3. Headquarters of United Nations are situated at
A) New York B) Geneva
C) Vienna D) Paris

4. Who has never been the President of India?
A) Zakir Hussain B) Pratibha Patil
C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel D) V. V. Giri
5. Former PM Manmohan Singh has an academic background in
A) History B) Political Science
C) Geography D) Economics
6. Who was the first Indian to walk on the moon?
A) Kalpana Chawla B) Ravish Malhotra
B) Raja Chair D) Rakesh Sharma
7. World Environment Day is celebrated annually on which date?
A) May 01 B) June 05
C) August 14 D) January 01

8. The Ukrainian President, Volodymyr Zelenskyy’s former career was in which field?
A) Medicine
B) Acting
C) Engineering
D) Defence

9. Terms such as ‘Hydra’, Alphabay’, RAMP, pertain to which of the following?
A) Dark Web B) Navy
C) Astronomy D) Economics

10. World Press Freedom Day is celebrated on which date every year?
A) April 30 B) May 3
C) April 19 D) June 15

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SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR MASTER OF PUBLIC HEALTH

Q1) Which is the source of Q 6) Acquired immunity is found in
Chlorofluorocarbons? A. Invertebrates
A. Thermal Power Plants B. Vertebrates
B. Automobiles C. Some Invertebrates
C. Refrigeration and Air – conditioning D. Both vertebrates and
D. Fertilizers invertebrates

Q2) Among cereals and millets richest Q 7) The incubation period of rabies ranges
source of calcium is: from –
A. Rice A. 1 to 2 days
B. Bajra B. 3 to 4 days
C. Maize C. 5 to 6 days
D. Ragi D. 10 days to 1 Year

Q3) Bissinosis is common in: Q 8) At birth immunization required is
A. Farmers A. BCG and OPV-O
B. Textile Industry B. DPT-1
C. Gold mine C. DPT-1 and OPV-1
D. Cement factory D. Measles

Q4) The most populous state in India is: Q9) Anthracosis is caused due to
A. Uttar Pradesh A. Coal Dust
B. Bihar B. Silica
C. Madhya Pradesh C. Fe
D. Kerala D. Tobacco

Q5) A doctor suggested to a couple not to
have more than one child because of Q 10) Gini Index is associated with
A. Rh+ male Rh- female A. Distribution of diseases
B. Rh- male Rh+ female B. Distribution of Income
C. Rh+ male Rh+ female C. Distribution of deaths
D. Rh- male Rh- female D. Distribution of pollutants

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SAMPLE QUEST`IONS FOR M.A. (English)

I. Write an essay within 400 words, taking a position ‘For’ or ‘ Against’ on the topic given below:

The study of humanities is essential today.

OR
India has a bright future. (25 marks)

II. Read the poem below and answer the questions that follow:

My Heart Leaps Up

My heart leaps up when I behold
A rainbow in the sky;
So was it when my life began;
So is it now I am a man;
So be it when I shall grow old,
Or let me die!
The Child is father of the Man;
And I could wish my days to be
Bound each to each by natural piety.

A. The poet could have used some other word instead of ‘behold’. Why is this word used?
B. Point out any literary device (s) from the poem.
C. Explain the meaning of line number seven in your own words.
D. Suggest a title of the poem, and give its justification (20 marks)

III. Write a précis of the passage given below, reducing it to one-third of its length. Give a suitable title.
Make sure you write one word in each box in the answer sheet:

In response to the food crisis of the mid-1960s, the government changed its agricultural
strategy. Rather than holding out for the reform of agrarian institutions, it began to guarantee
higher crop prices to farmers and utilize subsidies to promote use of modern inputs such as
chemical fertilizers and high-yielding varieties of grain developed in other parts of the world.
The resulting surge of production – the so-called “green revolution “of the late 1960s – made
the country self-sufficient in food grains. The strategy was controversial because it increased
economic disparities aont the farmers, for the greatest chance of success, the government had
to focus its strategy on the irrigated sections – the very parts of the country that were already
doing relatively well. The uptake of subsidized inputs was also the highest among large
landowners, owing to their greater education, credit worthiness, and the ability to bear the risk
posed by adopting new methods. The strategy did not do much to alleviate the economic
condition of the agrarian poor, other than providing the indirect benefit of living in a country with
better overall food security that has not since experienced famine. Micronutrient deficiencies
(not caloric) such as anemia are today a bigger problem among the poor, and the country’s
health indicators lag behind those of other countries with comparable levels of income.

The strategy toward industry, however, turned more interventionist after 1965. Elaboration of all
the reasons for this need not detain us here; there is a strong case that the interventionist turn
was a cynical ploy by new Prime Minister Indira Gandhi for consolidating her power in
response to certain political developments. The new policy stance displayed a suspicion of
large firms and a preference for the small. The licensing system imposed additional restrictions
on the activities of large firms, curtailing their growth. Under a policy that was one of a kind,
consumer goods such as apparel, footwear, furniture, sporting goods, office supplies, leather
goods, and kitchen appliances were reserved by law for production by small firms. Foreign
firms were asked to dilute their ownership stake in their Indian subsidiaries and in response,
multinationals such as IBM and Coca-Cola closed their operations and left the country.

To the extent that the success of the large firms was due to their superior technical or
organizational capacity, the curtailment of their growth meant that such capacity remained
underutilized. Delays and arbitrariness in the issuing of industrial licenses resulted in supply
bottlenecks and shortages of many consumer goods. For example, in the 1970s, there was an
eight-year waiting list for people wanting to buy a scooter, the preferred vehicle for middle-class
Indians.

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The reservation of consumer goods for small enterprises meant that the benefits of economies
of scale were forgone, resulting in the production of poor-quality and high priced goods that
foreigners shunned and domestic consumers had no choice but to accept. Meanwhile,
countries such as South Korea and Taiwan were growing rich by exporting this very category of
goods. It was during this time that Indians developed a craze for foreign products, the imports
of which were restricted, and the term imported” became synonymous with “high-quality.”The
result of such policies was economic stagnation. The country’s per capita income grew by an
average of less than 1 per cent a year between 1966 and 1980, a rate that was too low to
make a dent in the country’s massive poverty. Thirty-five years after independence, India’s
leadership had yet to achieve, to any significant degree, its pledge of lifting living standards.

(15 marks)

IV. Write short notes on any three (in not more than 150 words each):
1. Define allegory and give examples of modern allegories
2. Gothic novel
3. Steam-of-consciousness ad Technique in modern fiction
4. Pre-Raphaelite poetry
5. Literary sublime. (15 marks)

SAMPLE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS FOR M.A. (GEOGRAPHY)

1. The temperature of Thiruvananthapuram is
lower than that of Mumbai in May and higher 6. Which of the following is an antecedent river?
than that of Mumbai in January because: A) Beas
A) Thiruvananthapuram has a cold current B) Satluj
and Mumbai a warm current C) Ravi
B) Thiruvananthapuram has higher rainfall in D) Jhelum
summer and it is closer to the equator.
C) Thiruvananthapuram is on the windward 7. Representative Fraction is a method used for
side and Mumbai is on the leeward side. showing
D) Thiruvananthapuram is thickly vegetated A) Scale on the map
while Mumbai is not B) Direction on the map
2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of C) Contours on the map
a barkhan? D) Distance on the map
A) Its horns point in a down wind direction.
B) It has a crescent shape 8. Which of the following is not a method used for
C) Its windward slope is concave finding north
D) It moves in the direction of the wind. A) Pole Star method
3. If the number of a Survey of India B) Similar Triangles method
topographical sheet is 53 E/1, it’s scale is: C) Watch method
A) 1:25 000 D) Rod method
B) 1:50 000
C) 1:250 000 9. Following is an example of cold desert
D) 1:5000 A) Sahara
4. Coral reefs are to be found in: B) Kalahari
A) Polar latitudes C) Gobi
B) Tropical latitudes D) Mojave
C) Temperate latitudes
D) All of the above 10. Mercator’s Projection was used primarily for
5. The age and sex composition of the population drawing
is best represented by A) Distribution Maps
A) Choropleth B) Political Maps
B) Isopleth C) Navigational Maps
C) Pie Diagram D) Cadastral Maps
D) Pyramid Diagram

SAMPLE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS FOR MASTERS IN DISASTER MANAGEMENT

1. Spread of epidemics is associated with 2. The switching over from the use of diesel to
A) Floods CNG is important because:
B) Landslides A) CNG is cheaper than diesel
C) Earthquake B) Diesel is polluting fuel and CNG in non-
D) Volcanic Eruption polluting fuel
C) CNG is easily available

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D) CNG is a non renewable resource
3. Which of the following is caused due to water 7. Approximately 71% surface of earth is covered
contamination? with water bodies, ice caps and glaciers that is
A) Oral Cancer why earth is also known as:-
B) Hypertension A) Blue Planet
C) Gastroenteritis B) Green Planet
D) Tuberculosis C) White Planet
D) Yellow Planet
4. Which of the following is a conventional source 8. Which of the following is eco-friendly way of
of energy? managing kitchen waste?
A) Solar Energy A) Open dumping
B) Thermal Energy B) Land filling
C) Tidal Energy C) Burning
D) Wind Energy D) Vermi Composting
9. Indian Cheetah and Dodo bird are:
5. Which of the following is a primary activity? A) Vulnerable species
A) Teaching B) Extinct species
B) Retail trade C) Threatened species
C) Mining D) Rare species
D) Tailoring
10. Harike wetland is located on confluence of
6. RIO-10 (The World Summit for Sustainable which two rivers?
Development) in 2002 was held at A) Ganga-Yamuna
A) Keo Karo (India) B) Chandra-Bhaga
B) Johannesburg (South Africa) C) Ganga-Brahmaputra
C) New York (USA) D) Beas-Satluj
D) Melbourne (Australia)

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SAMPLE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS FOR MASTERS IN GEOINFORMATICS

1. Consider the following statements: A) Cylindrical Equal Area
A The representative fraction of a map = B) Bonne’s Projection
distance on the ground C) Gnomonic Projection
distance on the map D) Sinusoidal Projection
B the denominator of the representative
fraction is always once
8. The point vertically below the camera lens in a
A) A only photograph is called:
B) B only A) Ground point
C) Both A and B B) Principal point
D) Neither A or B C) Isocenter
D) Ground nadir point
2. Map showing the depths of oceans and seas
is termed as: 9. Which one of the following is the smallest
A) Ethnographic map scale of map?
B) Orographic map A) 1: 10 000
C) Bathymetric map B) 1:50 000
D) Geological map C) 1: 100 000
D) 1: 1000 000
3. Which one of the following is the largest scale
of map? 10. Output Device of a computer is:
A) 1 : 10 000 A) Keyboard
B) 1 : 50 000 B) Printer
C) 1: 100 000 C) Monitor
D) 1 : 1000 000 D) Speaker

4. Kaziranga is famous for: 11. Pixel refers to
A) Great Indian Bustard A) Picture element
B) One horned rhino B) Picture effect
C) Cheetah C) Perfect element
D) Ostrich D) Primary element

5. In the topographical sheet settlements are
represented by
A) Green Color
B) White Color 12. The term GPS refers to:
C) Red Color A) Global Prevention System
D) Black Color B) Global Protection System
C) Global Positioning System
6. Silent Valley is located in D) None of the above.
A) Kashmir
B) Kerala 13. The term GIS refers to:
C) Uttaranchal A) Geographical Informative System
D) Tamil Nadu B) Global Information System
C) Geological Information System
7. Which of the following is a perspective D) Geographical Information System
projection?

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Sample question paper Master of History

Note : 1. Question No. 1 under Unit-I is compulsory. Attempt any 05 Questions in 80-100 words each.
Each question carries 05 marks. (5 x 5 = 25 marks).
2. Attempt any one Question from Unit –II in about 1000 words. Each Question carries 25 marks.
3. Attempt any One Question from Unit-III in about 1000 words. Each Question carries 25 marks.

UNIT-I

Q-I
i. What is meant by Mahajanpada ?
ii. Explain Dhamma.
iii. Explain Mansabdari System.
iv. What was meant by Sangat ?
v. Who were the Sufis ?
vi. What is meant by commercialisation of agriculture ?
vii. Explain Doctrine of Lapse.
viii. Discuss the demand of Punjabi Suba ?

UNIT-II

Q-II Write a note on the agriculture conditions in Ancient India.

Q-III Comment on the impact on Mohhanmad-Bin-Tuglaq’s administrative experiments.

Q-IV Assess the contribution of the masses in the struggle for Independence.

Q-V How did Maharaja Ranjit Singh establish the kingdom of Lahore ?

UNIT-III
Q-VI What should be the role of the opposition parties in the Parliament ?

Q-VII Comment on the status of Women in Post Independent India.

82

Sample Question Paper for Entrance Test for Admission to M.A. Economics

1. Which of the following does not represent
elasticity of substitution? 9. Chelliah Committee was appointed for
A) Proportionate Change in capital intensity due to A) Fiscal reforms
proportionate change in MRTSLK B) Monetary reforms
B) Proportionate change in capital intensity due to C) Agricultural reforms
proportionate change in relative factor prices? D) Industrial reforms
C) Proportionate change in capital intensity due to
proportionate change in relative Marginal
productivity of factor. 10. Adolph Wagner gave a model of
D) Proportionate change in capital labour ratio due A) Industrial Location
to Proportionate change in inputs. B) Agricultural Transformation
C) Public Expenditure
2. The Haavelmo Theorem is popularly known as: D) Correlation
A) Income Multiplier
B) Employment Multiplier
C) Foreign Trade Multiplier
D) Balanced Budget Multiplier

3. On which of the following argument Keynes
agree with classical?
A) Labour Supply Function
B) Labour Demand Function
C) Wage Price Flexibility
D) Interest rate as real phenomenon.

4. The F-statistics in OLS estimation is the test of
A) Significance of individual regression coefficients
B) Goodness of fit in the model
C) Significance of variance of the dependent
variable
D) Significance of the variance of independent
variable.

5. Which one of the following is not a formula of
measuring correlation coefficient?
A) byx×bxy
σx
B) rxy = b
σ y yx
σ xy
C) rxy =
σ x ×σ y

σ xy
D) rxy =
σ x2 × σ x2
6. Look at this series: 53, 53, 40, 40, 27, 27,... What
number should come next?
A) 12
B) 14
C) 27
D) 53

7. Look at this series: 15,__,27,27,39,39,... What
number should fill the blank?
A) 51
B) 39
C) 23
D) 15

8. NITI Aayog has replaced
A) Finance Commission of India
B) Planning Commission of India
C) Reserve Bank of India
D) Ministry of Finance

83

Sample Question Paper for Entrance Test for Admission to Masters of Social Work

1. Which of the following are features of reference group behaviour
a) Comparison
b) Appraisal
c) Emulation
d) Rejection

2. When a person believes that his culture is superior to other cultures, it is called
a) Ethnicity
b) Ethnocentrism
c) Cultural snobbery
d) Cultural relativism

3. Role learning is the part of
a) Learning
b) Rebuke condition
c) Socialisation
d) Reduction change

4. Which changes are considered due to Socialisation?
a) Maturational changes
b) Attitudinal Changes
c) Physical Changes
d) Common Changes

5. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution is enacted to protect Tribal interests?
a) 5th & 6th
b) Only 5th
c) Only 6th
d) None of these

6. PESA enacted in 1996 empowers
a) Gram Sabha
b) Gram Panchayat
c) Block Officers
d) None of these

7. Poverty has
a) Economic dimensions
b) Social dimensions
c) Both A and B
d) None of these

8. _____________ was reoriented as WTO in 1995
(a) IBRD
(b) UNCTAD
(c) GATT
(d) None of these
(e)
9. The National Policy for Women was adopted in the year
(a) 1999
(b) 2000
(c) 2001
(d) 2002
10. The unemployment rate, according to Ministry of Labour in 2011 was?
(a) 3.2%
(b) 3.4%
(c) 3.6%
(d) 3.8%

84

M.Com (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business) (MEFB)
Part A: Verbal ability/Reasoning Part B: General Knowledge
1. Disease: Health:: Freedom : ? 1. In which organ of the human body
A) Slavery would you find a cluster of cells which
B) Pleasure produce insulin?
C) Plight A) Bile
D) Beauty B) Liver
2. If you are going to west in the afternoon, C) Pancreas
the sun will be visible at your left. D) Brain
A) Never 2. Which area in India is the only
B) Always breeding ground of the flamingo?
C) Sometimes A) Rann of Kutch
D) Often B) North East
3. Fill in the blank with the most suitable C) Himalayas
alternative. He shouted …………. at the D) Bay of Bengal
subordinate. 3. Which was the first Capital of
A) Loud Pakistan?
B) Loudly A) Karachi
C) Loudely B) Lahore
D) Loudingly C) Islamabad
D) Peshawar
4. Which Olympic did Milkha Singh break
the world record in the 400 metres
event.
A) Rome
B) Athens
C) Beijing
D) None of the above
5. Kuchipudi is a dance form of
A) Tamil Nadu
B) Orissa
C) Kerala
D) None of the above

Part C: Data Interpretation
According to the survey of 2000 educated unemployed persons in which 1200 were men and 800 were women,
the following data were collected.
Qualification Unemployed Men Unemployed Women
Doctors 12.5% 15%
Engineers 20.0% 7.5%
Trained Teachers 15.0% 22.5%
Post-Graduates 22.5% 25.0%
Graduates 30.0% 30.0%
1. On the basis of above Table, what is the 2. The value of the variable which occurs
difference between the number of most frequently in a distribution is called
unemployed men and women doctors? A) Mode
A) 20 B) Mean
B) 30 C) Median
C) 40 D) All of these
D) None of the above 3. The arithmetic mean of a series is the
figure obtained by dividing the sum of
2. What is the total number of unemployed values all items by
Graduates? A) 2 B) 3
A) 425 C) 5 D) Their Number
B) 475 4. Which of the following is Business
C) 550 Averages?
D) 600 A) Moving average
Part D: Commerce/ Economics B) Progressive average
1. The sale of goods Act came into force C) Composite Average
from – D) All of these
A) July 1, 1932
B) July 1, 1930
C) July 1, 1935
D) July 1, 1940

85

Sample Questions for M.Com. (Honours)
1. Which of the following presents key aspects 12. When an oligopolist individually chooses
of the process of accounting in the correct its level of production to maximize its
chronological order? profits, it charges a price that is
A) more than the price charges by either
A) Communicating, recording and monopoly or a competitive market
identifying B) less than the price charges by either
B) Recording, identifying and monopoly or a competitive market
communicating C) more than the price charges by a
C) Recording, totaling and identifying monopoly and less than the price
D) Identifying, recording and charges by a competitive market
communicating D) less than the price charges by a
Which of the following is not a function of monopoly and more than the price
2. controller?
charges by a competitive market
A) Financial reporting 13. Suppose that the government increases
B) Managerial reporting its spending by 10 per cent and also
C) Money management increases taxes by 10 per cent. We would
D) Cost management expect this policy to
Ending finished goods inventory is: A) Essentially have no effect on the
3. level of national income
A) Beginning finished goods inventory + B) Have a contractionary effect on
cost of goods completed – cost of national income
goods sold C) Decrease the marginal propensity to
B) Cost of goods completed – cost of save out of each extra pound of
goods sold income
C) Beginning finished goods inventory + D) Have an expansionary effect on
cost of goods completed national income.
D) Beginning finished goods inventory -
cost of goods completed + cost of 14. The Government of India has decided to
goods sold cover all districts of the country in
Which of the following is also known as an National Rural Employment Guarantee
4. inventoriable cost? Programme (NREGP)
A) Period cost A) up to January 1, 2008
B) Fixed cost B) up to March 31, 2008
C) Product cost C) with effect from April 1, 2008
D) Conversion cost D) with effect from April 1, 2009
A cost management tool that brings in its
5. focus the activities performed to produce a 15. Reserve Bank of India calculates four
product is called components of money supply, M1, M2,
A) target costing M3, M4. Which one of the following
B) life cycle costing statement is not correct?
C) ABC A) M1 = currency with public + demand
D) benchmarking deposits with banks
The first Factories Act was enacted in B) M2 = M1 + post office savings
6. A) 1881 deposit
B) 1895 C) M3 = M1 + M2
C) 1897 D) M4 = M3 + total post office deposits
D) 1885 16. What is meant by the term functional
If the date of incorporation of a company is management?
7. 1/01/2005, the first AGM must be held before A) A system of business organization
A) 30/06/2006 that is based on an individual having
B) 31/03/2006 a wide range of skills needed to
C) 31/12/2005 administer a business
D) 31/03/2005 B) A type of management that is based
The ‘right to information’ under the RTI Act, more on personality
8. 2005 includes the right to C) A system that groups together
A) Inspect works, documents, records various jobs and is organized by
B) Take notes, extracts or certified departments, sections, or functions
copies of documents or records D) A system that supports a flat form of
C) Obtain information in form of command chain
printouts, diskettes, floppies, tapes 17. Maslow, in his triangle of human needs,
video cassettes or in any other showed that
electronic mode or through printouts A) Having challenging new tasks is a
D) All of the above basic human need
Long term capital asset is an asset (other than B) Money always motivates workers
9. financial securities) which is held by the C) Safety and security is a low order
assessee for more than human need

86

A) 36 months D) Workers will not give of their best
B) 12 months unless they have good social events
C) 24 months provided by the firm
D) 30 months 18. The purpose of the Malcolm Baldrige
The definition of ‘Goods’ under the Central National Quality Award is to
10. Sales Tax Act, 1956 does not include A) Stimulate efforts to improve quality
A) Newspapers B) Recognize quality achievements of
B) Standing corps companies
C) Computer software C) Publicize successful quality
D) Animals programs
A rational person does not act unless D) All of the above
11. A) the action is ethical 19. The process of collecting information
B) the action produces marginal costs about the external marketing environment
that exceed marginal benefits is
C) the action produces marginal benefits A) Environmental management
that exceed marginal costs B) Environmental scanning
D) the action makes money for the C) Marketing management
person D) Marketing scanning
20. The correct components of the 7-S
framework are
A) Share values, synergy, systems,
strategy, style, staff and structure
B) Standards, strategy, style, staff skills,
systems and security
C) Structure, strategy, shared values,
style, staff, skills and systems
D) Strategy, synergy, shared value,
standardization, skills staff and
structure

Sample Questions for M.Com (Business Innovations)
Q1) India first took part in the Olympic Q7. 48:122::168:? –
games in the Year A) 292
A) 1920 B) 290
B) 1928 C) 225
C) 1972 D) 215
D) 1974 Q8) AKU:?::CMW:DNX
A) BGL
Q2) Where is the headquarters of the Oil B) BLQ
and Natural Gas Corporation C) BGQ
A) Mumbai D) BLV
B) Dehradun Q9) Flow: River::Stagnant: ?
C) Vadodara A. Pool
D) Digboi B. Rain
Q3) The working languages of the C. Stream
UNESCO is/ are D. Canal
A) English only Q 10) A rectangular floor is fully covered
B) French only with square tiles of identical size.
C) English and French The tiles on the edges are white
D) English, French and Russian and tiles in the interior are red. The
number of white tiles is the same as
Q4) After textiles, India’s second important the number of red tiles. A possible
industry is: value of the number of tiles along
A) Sugar the edge of the floor is
B) Jute A. 10
C) Cement B. 12
D) Iron and Steel C. 14
Q5) Vedanta group has been denied D. 16
permission to start its activities in Niyamgiri
Hills of Orissa. What activity was it
pursuing?
A) Steel Production
B) Bauxite mining
C) Gas exploration
D) Timber cutting

87

Q6) Botany: Plants::Entomology:? –
A) Birds
B) Plants
C) Insects
D) Snakes

A) A)

Sample Questions for M.B.A. for Executives (MBAfEX)

Component 1: General Knowledge

1. In which organ of the human body would you find a cluster of cells which produce insulin?
A) Bile
B) Liver
C) Pancreas
D) Brain

Which area in India is the only breeding ground of the flamingo?
A) Rann of Kutch
B) North East
C) Himalayas
D) Bay of Bengal
2. Which was the first Capital of Pakistan?
A) Karachi
B) Lahore
C) Islamabad
D) Peshawar
3. Which Olympic did Mikha Singh break the world record in the 400 meters event?
A) Rome
B) Athens
C) Beijing
D) None of the above
4. Kuchipudi is a dance form of
A) Tamil Nadu
B) Orissa
C) Kerala
D) None of the above
Component II: Economic and Business Environment Awareness
1. A mixed economy is necessarily a ______________ economy.
A) Controlled
B) Planned
C) Organised
D) None of the above
2. Which of the following internal factors influence the strategy and other decisions of the business?
A) Value System
B) Mission and objective
C) Management structure and nature
D) None of the above
3. Environment is synonymous with ______________
A) Task
B) Relations
C) People
D) Situational variables
4. Which is the full form of NTC?
A) National Thermal Corporation
B) National Textile Corporation
C) Non-Textile Corporation
D) None of the above
st
5. In which sector Indian Economy is growing at faster rate in 21 century (after 2000) __________
A) Service
B) Agriculture
C) Manufacturing
D) Public
Component III: Data Interpretation and Problem Solving

88

According to the survey of 2000 educated unemployed persons in which 1200 were men and 800 were women,
the following data were collected.

Qualification Unemployed Men Unemployed Women
Doctors 12.5% 15%
Engineers 20.0% 7.5%
Trained Teachers 15.0% 22.5%
Post-Graduates 22.5% 25.0%
Graduates 30.0% 30.0%

1. On the basis of above Table, what is the difference between the number of unemployed men and women
doctors?
A) 20
B) 30
C) 40
D) None of the above

2. What is the total number of unemployed Graduates?
A) 425
B) 475
C) 550
D) 600
3. What is the total number of Engineers?
A) 300
B) 350
C) 360
D) 400
4. In which category, unemployed men are more in percentage than unemployed women
A) Doctors
B) Engineers
C) Post Graduates
D) Graduates
Component IV: Numerical Ability
1. How many pillars are needed to construct a bridge of 300 meters long, if pillars are at a distance of 12 ½
meters each?
A) 22
B) 24
C) 25
D) None of the above
2. If 5 x 8 = 28, 3 x 7 = 12, 8 x 6 = 35, then find the value of 13 x 13 =?
A) 169
B) 130
C) 140
D) 144
3. The ratio of boys and girls in a is 3:2. 20% of boys and 25% of girls are scholarships holders. The
percentage of students who are scholarship holders are:
A) 45
B) 53
C) 60
D) 22
th th
4. In a class M is 9 from the top, S is 8 from the bottom and R is exactly in between them. If there are three
children between M and R, find out the total students
A) 24
B) 25
C) 23
D) 27
5. 3, 5, 9, 17, 13, _________
A) 44
B) 65
C) 64
D) 49
Component V: Verbal Ability and Reasoning
1. Disease : Health :: Freedom : ?
A) Slavery
B) Pleasure
C) Plight
89

D) Beauty
2. If you are going to west in the afternoon, the sun will be visible at your left.
A) Never
B) Always
C) Sometimes
D) Often
3. Fill in the blank with the most suitable alternative. He shouted ______________ at the subordinate.
A) Loud
B) Loudily
C) Loudely
D) Loudingly
4. J, F, M, A, M, ?
A) M
B) J
C) D
D) S
5. In a military code CAUTION is coded as VACITNO. How will you uncode MISUNDERSTAND?
A) SIMUNEDSRTAND
B) SIMNUEDSRATDN
C) SMIUNDERSTAND
D) None of the above

Component VI: English Comprehension
The most important reason for this state of affairs, perhaps, is that India was the only country in the world to truly
recognize the achievements of the Soviet-Union-rather than merely focus on the de-bilitating faults that
Communism brought to its people. The people of India realized that the achievement of one hundred per cent
literacy in a country much, much larger than its own and with similarly complicated ethnic and religious groupings,
the rapid industrialization of a nation that was a primarily agrarian society when the Bolshevik revolution took
place in 1917; the attendant revolutionary steps in science and technology, the accessibility of health care
(primeval according to Western standards, perhaps, but not according to India ones) to the general population,
and despite prohibition of the government of the time the vast outpourings in literature, music, art, etc., are
momentous and remarkable feats in any country.

In contrast, all that the West focused on were the massive human rights violations by the Soviet State on its
people, the deliberate uprooting, and mass migrations of ethnic peoples from one part of the country to another in
the name of industrialization, the end of religion in short, all the tools of information were employed to condemn
the ideology of Communism, so much at variance with capitalist thinking.

The difference with the Indian perception, I think here is, that while the Indians reacted as negatively to what the
Soviet governments did to its people in the name of good governance (witness the imprisonment of Boris
Pasternak and the formation of an intentional committee to put pressure for his release with Jawaharlal Nehru at
its head), they took the pain not to condemn the people of that broad country in black and white terms; they
understood that mingled in the shades of gray were grains of uniqueness. (The Russians have never failed that
characteristic in themselves; they have twice experimented with completely different ideologies, Communism and
Capitalism both in the space of century).

1. Which of the following statements according to the passage is correct?
(a) India took heed “On the week faults of Russian policies and system.
(b) India seriously commended the achievement of Russian, i.e. cent per cent literacy and rapid
industrialization.
(c) The process of industrialization had already started when Russian revolution took place in 1917.
(d) The literature, art and music received a setback during the communist regime in Russia.

2. The West did not focus on:
(a) Rapid growth of nuclear weapons in Russia
(b) Massive human rights violation by the Soviet state on its people.
(c) Deliberate uprooting and mass migration of ethnic people in the name of industrialization.
(d) Both (b) and (c)

1. The Indian perception of the USSR was always
(a) Negative
(b) Neutral
(c) Counter – reactionary
(d) Applauding

2. The passage is
(a) Descriptive

90

(b) Paradoxical
(c) Analytical
(d) Thought provoking

Sample Questions for M.P. Ed.
1. India played hockey for the first time on 6. What is the stick used in snooker called:
Olympic Games in: A) A Cue
A) 1924, Paris (France) B) Heave
B) 1928, Amsterdam C) Paddle
C) 1932, Los Angles (USA) D) Togo
D) 1938, Berlin (Germany) 7. “Shivanthi Gold Cup” is associated with
2. “A state of complete physical mental and the game of:
social wellbeing and not merely the A) Hockey
absence of disease or infirmity”. This B) Football
statement which defines health is given C) Volleyball
by: D) Badminton
A) UNESCO B) UNICEF 8. What is the normal life span of RBC’s?
C) WHO D) Red Cross A) 60 days
B) 90 days
3. Three of the following are alike in a C) 120 days
certain way and so they form a group. D) 150 days
Which is the one does not belong to the
group? 9. Chronological age is calculated with the
A) Basketball help of
B) Volleyball A) Mental qualities
C) Hockey B) X-rays
D) Table Tennis C) Calendar Years
4. The Sacrum consists of: D) Organs and secretions
A) 3 Vertebraes
B) 4 Vertebraes 10. YMCA College of Physical Education
C) 5 Vertebraes (Madras) was established in:
D) 7 Vertebraes A) 1956
B) 1920
5. The chief sources of vitamin A is: C) 1931
A) Banana D) 1932
B) Egg
C) Carrot
D) Guava
Sample Questions for B.P. Ed.
1. The ‘Santosh Trophy’ tournament first 6. Which one of the following is different
began in: from the rest of the three?
A) 1940 B) 1941 A) Footbal
C) 1942 D) 1945 B) Basketball
2. Who is the first teacher of a child? C) Cricket
A) Teacher D) Tennis
B) His Parents 7. The name of ‘Tiger Woods’ is
C) His environment associated with:
D) His own conscious mind A) Boxing
3. The first Modern Olympic games were B) B) Tennis
held in the Year: C) Football
A) 1892 D) Golf
B) 1896 8. Thomas Cup’ is associated with:
C) 1900 A) Badminton (women)
D) 1904 B) Badminton (men)
4. Find the odd personality: C) Table Tennis (women)
A) Baichung Bhutia D) Table Tennis (men)
B) Kapil Dev 9. Most import ant component of level of
C) Pete Sampras living is?
D) Jarnail singh A) Health
5. Which of the following tournaments is not B) Occupation
a part of Grand Slam Tennis? C) Education
A) Australian Open D) Housing
B) Wimbledon 10. Vinay is taller than Manu, but not as tall
C) U.S. Open as Yogesh, Karim is taller than Dillip but
D) German Open shorter than Manu, Who is the tallest
among them?
A) Vinay
91

B) Yogesh
C) Karim
D) Manu

Sample Questions for M.Sc. Biochemistry

1. In mammals nor-epinephrine is synthesized 6. The movement of ions through ion
from: channels can be measured with the help
A) Pyruvate of:
B) Arginine A) Extra cellular electrode
C) Catechol B) Intra cellular electrode
D) Tyrosine C) Patch – clamp technique
2. Hyperglycemic agent secreted by the D) Liposome fusion technique
pancreas is: 7. The synthesis of most neuronal proteins
A) Insulin occurs in the:
B) Lipase A) Cell body
C) Glucagon B) Axon
D) FSH C) Synapses
3. Feeding of raw egg may result in the 8. D) Dendrites
deficiency of: Which of the following amino acid does not
A) Vitamin A form peptide bond:
B) Choline A) Cysteine
C) Biotin B) Proline
D) Riboflavin C) Lysine
4. What role RNA plays in the replication of 9. D) Glycine
DNA: Lysozyme is an enzyme which:
A) It acts as template A) Hydrolyses bacterial cell wall
B) It acts as primer B) Is made up of RNA
C) It acts as cofactor C) Contains phospholipids
D) It is essential activator of DNA 10. D) Breaks lipoproteins
polymerase Formation of uric acid from purines is
5. Which of the following is not involved in catalysed by:
antigen – antibody binding: A) Urease
A) Hydrogen bonds B) Uricase
B) Ionic Bonds C) Xanthine oxidase
C) Hydrophobic Interactions D) Adenosine deaminase
D) Disulphide Bonds

Sample Questions M.Tech Instrumentation

1. If an atom losses one or more electrons it
becomes 4. Transformers are rated
a) Electrically neutral
a) kW
b) Electrically positive
b) kV
c) Electrical activist
c) kWh
d) A neutral ion
d) kVA

5. A Step function is applied to the input of a
2. The superposition theorem is applicable to
system and output is of the form y=t, the
a) Voltage system is
b) Current a) Stable
c) Both voltage and current b) Unstable
d) Voltage Current and Power c) Not necessarily stable
d) Conditionally stable
3. When is the bridge circuit balanced?
6. How many 7490 ICs are to be cascaded to
a) When voltage is applied count up to 999?
b) When current flows through the a) 01
opposite ends of the bridge circuit b) 02
c) When no current flows through the c) 03
galvanometer d) 04
d) When impedance is minimum

92

Sample Questions for M.Sc. Biophysics
1. If A & B are vectors, then 20. Mass spectrometry is an analytical
A) Vector A¯ and B¯ are technique for the identification of
perpendicular to each other. molecules by way of measuring their:
¯ ¯
B) Vector A and B are necessarily A) mass only B) charge
parallel. only
¯ ¯
C) Vector A and B must be C) mass to charge ratio
antiparallel. B) charge to mass ratio
D) Vector A¯ and B¯ may be parallel 21. Micro array analysis is used for
or antiparallel. A) quantization of gene expression
2. The minimum charge on a body can be: B) to check the quality of gene
A) one coulomb expression
B) one stat coulomb C) for measuring the copy number
-19
C) 1.6*10 coulomb D) to identity new genes
D) 3.2 x 10 -19 coulomb 22. Component of atom involved in study
3. The potential due to an electric dipole of structure with X-ray crystallography
varies A) Nucleus
A) inversely as the distance B) Electron
B) directly as the distance C) proton
C) inversely as the square of D) Neutrons
distance 23. The radius of an atom is
D) directly as the square of distance approximately
-10
4. Which of these techniques does not give A) 10 m
-12
information about the dimensions of B) 10 m
-13
DNA molecule? C) 10 m
A) Viscosity measurement D) 10-16 m
B) light scattering 24. Rays similar to x-rays but of smaller
C) flow-birefringence wavelength that are given off by
D) Atomic Absorption spectroscopy radioactive Substances are
5. Fluorescence of a protein can be due to A) alpha rays
A) tryptophan B) beta rays
B) tyrosine C) gamma rays
C) phenylalanine D) cosmic rays
D) all the above 25. Antiparticle of electron is
6. The aromatic amino acids are important A) proton
because: B) Antiproton
A) they are ionized by light of C) Positron
wavelength 280mm. D) Neutron
B) they are actually imino acids that 26. Atomic force microscope was
cannot rotate through the angle phi. invented in which Year:
C) they give proteins their absorbance A) 1972 B) 1986
at 280 nm C) 2001 D) 1980
D) they are source of disulfide bonds 27. Nucleic acid absorption (A260)
within the exported proteins changes in different states. It is
7. The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation maximum when it is:
states that: A) Double stranded
k H
A) P = P + log R B) Single stranded
H
B) P = Pk + log R C) All nucleotides are separated
C) PH = pk –log R D) Fragmented
k H
D) R =p -p 28. Which out of these is not a connective
8. The proteins that run the fastest in SDS- tissue:
PAGE are A) Cartilage
A) Large B) bone
B) Small C) muscle
C) Negatively charged D) blood
D) Positively charged 29 Which of these is not a characteristic
o
9. The auditions a ≠ b≠ c, α = γ=90 β ≠ of the Cardiac muscle:
90- describe the ……Unit cell A) nonstriated
A) tetragonal B) Presence of intercalated disc
B) orthorhombic C) Involuntary
C) monoclinic D) Presence of actin and myosin
D) trigonal filaments.
10. The electromagnetic radiation with 30. Fertilization occurs in which region of
longest wavelength. is: female reproductive part:
A) Visible Light A) Infundibulum
B) Radiowaves B) ampulla
C) Microwaves C) Isthmus
D) IR D) Uterus
93

11. Of the following which has got the 31. Brunner glands are present in:
highest frequency? A) Colon
A) ultraviolet rays B) jejunum
B) gamma rays C) duodenum
C) radio waves D) ileum
D) infrared waves 32. A rickshaw puller remembers a large
12. The value of atomic mass unit is: number of places and has the ability
-27
A) 1.66 x 10 Kg to find shortcuts and new routes
-28
B) 1.66 x 10 Kg between familiar places. Which region
-29
C) 1.66 x 10 Kg of the brain is responsible for this?
-24
D) 1.66 x 10 Kg A) Pituitary
B) Thalamus
13. The peptide bond in protein is C) Hypothalamus
A) Planar, but rotates to three preferred D) Hippocampus
dihedral angles 33. A Ramachandran plot show:-
B)Nonpolar, but rotates to the three A) The angles that are allowed
preferred dihedral angles between the bonds connecting the
C)Nonpolar, and fixed in a trans amide nitrogen in a peptide bond
conformation B) The sterically limited rotational
D)Planar, and usually found in a trans angles where phi and psii are allowed
conformation in the protein backbone.
C) The amino acid residues that
14. The lactoferrin is produced by: have the greatest degrees of
A) Spermatogonia rotational freedom
B) Reticulocytes D) The sterically allowed
C) Amebocytes rotational angles between the side
D) Neutrophils chain groups in a peptide backbone.
34. The most sensitive for the lethal
15. During generation of action potential, effects of radiation is
depolarization is due to A) Preimplantation
+
A) k -efflux B) Early organogensis
+
B) Na -efflux C) Late organogensis
+
C) K -influx D) The fetal period
+
D) Na -infflux 35. Which of the following is the primary
factor regulating normal coronary
16. Which of the following wave is likely to blood flow
be absent in ECG A) Aortic diastolic pressure
A) P B) Coronary perfusion pressure
B) T C) Systolic wall pressure
C) Q D) Myocardial oxygen consumption
D) R 36. The term satellite DNA refers to
A) extrachromosomal DNA
17. Indirect immnuofluorescene involves fragments that are found closed to
fluorescently labeled (orbiting) the full length chromosomes
A) Immunoglobulin-specific B) Mitochondrial DNA, which is
antibodies circular in nature
B) Antigen-specific antibodies C) Long tandem repeats of simple
C) Hapten – specific antibodies DNA sequences
D) Carrier – specific antibodies D) Mobile DNA elements such as
18. Prostaglandins are transposons and insertion
A) C20 unsaturated fatty acids sequences
B) C27 saturated alcohols 37. The number of atoms in a crystal
C) C20 saturated fatty acids which surrounded a particular atom as
D) C27 unsaturated alcohols its nearest neighbours is called
A) Charge number
19. Apart from the proton which other nuclei B) Atomic packing factor
of the following is used for NMR. C) Coordination number
A) 13C D) Lattice
B) 12C 38. EPR spectrum is due to
16
C) O A) Change in mass state of an
32
D) P electron
B) Change in L-K transition of an
electron
C) Change in spin state of an
electron
D) Change in both L-K transition
and mass of an electron

94

Sample Questions for M.Sc. Mathematics
1. Let G be a group of order 147. For any a ∈ G ,
a ≠ e , the number of solutions of x 2 = a is 6. The integrating factor of the
A) 49 differential ∂y
+ 2 xy = 4 x 3
is
B) one ∂x
C) three given by
D) zero (A) e y 2
2
(B) e x
2. In the ring Z [i ] , where Z is the ring of integers, the (C) e x
element 1 − i D) e y
A) is both irreducible as well as prime 7. If φ ( x 1 y 1 z 1 = 3 x 2 y − y 3 z 2 , then
B) is neither irreducible nor prime
C) is irreducible but not prime ∇ φ at the point (1, − 2 ,1) is
D) is prime but not irreducible (A) ∧ ∧ ∧
− 12 i − 9 j − 16 k
(B) ∧ ∧
i + 9 j − 16
∧

3. The equation of the tangent to the curve f ( x, y ) 12 k
(C) − 12
∧
i + 9
∧
j + 16
∧

=0 at any point ( a , b ) is given by k
(D) − 12
∧
i + 9
∧
j − 16
∧
k
A) ∂f ∂f
(x − a) (a, b) + ( y − b ) (a , b ) = 0
∂y ∂x
8. If one root of the equation
x 3 − 13 x 2 + 15 x + 189 = 0
B) ∂f ∂f exceeds the other by 2, then all the
(x − a) (a ,b ) − ( y − b ) (a, b) = 0
∂y ∂x roots are
C) ∂f ∂f 6 (A) 7, 9 and 3
( y − b) (a ,b ) + ( x − a ) (a , b ) = 0
∂y ∂x (B) -7, -9 and -3
(D) ∂f ∂f (C) 7, 9 and –3
(x − a) (a ,b ) − ( y − b ) (a, b) = 0 (D) -7, -9 and 3
∂x ∂y
4. Two spheres 9.
Two forces 13 kg.wt. and 3 3 kg.wt.
2 2 2
x +y +z + 2u1 x + 2 v1 y + 2 w1 z + d 1 = 0 act on a particle at an angle θ
x 2
+ y 2
+ z 2
+ 2u 2 x + 2v2 y + 2 w 2 z + d 2 = 0 and equal to a resultant force of 14
kg.wt., then the angle between the
forces is
cut each other orthogonally if (A) 45
0
(A) 2 u 1u 2 + 2 v 1v 2 + 2 w 1 w 2 = d 1 + d 2 (B) 30
0
0
(B) u 1u 2 + v1v 2 + w1 w 2 = 0 (C) 60
(C) u1 v w1 d (D) 900
= 1 = = 1
u2 v2 w2 d2 10. Let
W 1 and W 2 be subspaces of
(D) 2 ( u 1 − u 2 ) + 2 ( v 1 − v 2 ) + 2 ( w 1 − w 2 ) = ( d 1 − d 2 )
dimensions 5 and 4 respectively of a
vector space V of dimension 6.
5. The series 1 is
∑ n (log n ) p Then dim ( W 1 ∩ W 2 ) is
(A) convergent if p > 0 (A) Zero
(B) one
(B) convergent if p > 1
(C) at most two
(C) divergent if p > 1 (D) at least three
(D) convergent if 0 < p < 1

95

Sample Questions for M.Sc. 2-Year Course (Bioinformatics/ System Biology and
Bioinformatics)

1. Which are the repositories for raw 6. Which of the following sequence is
sequence data correct:
A) Gen Bank A) DNA, RNA, Protein
B) EMBL B) DNA, Protein, RNA
C) DDBJ C) RNA, DNA, Protein
D) GGPP D) Protein, DNA, RNA
7. Which is not the method of protein/DNA
2. Which of the following annotation is not sequence alignment
provided by SWISS-PROT A) Matrix
A) Protein function B) Brute force
B) Domain structure C) Dynamic programming
C) Post translation modification D) Heuristic methods
D) Crystal formations 8. The method not used in NSA
programming is
3. Which is the most important computer A) Sum of pairs methods
language used in Bioinformatics B) Spare alignment
A) Pascal C) Two step method
B) Perl D) Fitch/Margoliosh method
C) Java 9. Distance matrix method are used for
D) C++ A) Carbohydrate structure prediction
B) Proteins structure prediction
4. Which type of analysis cannot be C) Phylogenetic analysis
performed on raw DNA sequence using D) Primer design
Bioinformatics tools 10. FASTA-BLAST, WU-BLAST are
A) Identifying coding regions programmes used for determining
B) Identification of introns and exons A) Sequence similarity of Protein only
C) Gene product prediction B) Sequence similarity of DNA only
D) Identifying cis and trans regions C) Sequence similarity of Carbohydrate
only
5. OMIM is engaged in study of D) Sequence similarity of Protein and
A) Human molecular Biology DNA
B) Plant molecular biology
C) Bacterial molecular biology
D) Yeast Molecular biology

Sample Questions for M.Sc. 2-Year Course for M.Sc. (Environment)
1. A thin copper wire of length one metre 10. Which of the following is a deadly nerve
increases in length by 4% when heated by gas developed during the second world
o
10 C. What will be the per cent increase in war?
area when a square copper sheet of side one A) Nitric oxide
o
metre is heated by 10 C? B) Phosgene
A) 4% C) Sarine
B) 8% D) Dioxin
C) 16% 11. The natural rubber obtained from trees
D) 24% is made of:
2. If the unit of length and force are increased A) Isoprene units
by 4 times, the unit of energy gets increased B) Vinyl chloride
by how many times? C) Acetylene
A) 4 times D) Neoprene
B) 8 times 12. Which of the following is differentially
C) 16 times permeable?
D) does not change A) Cell wall
3. The scientific principle involved in radio and B) Tonoplast
television is: C) Nuclear membrane
A) Superconductivity D) Cytoplasm
B) Semiconductiography 13. Which of the following prevents leaf
C) Propagation of e.m. waves shedding in plant?
D) Electromagnetic induction A) Auxins
4. A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin. B) Gibberellins
If it falls behind him, the train must be moving C) Cytokinins
with D) Abscisic acid
A) An acceleration 14. Sugar in chloroplast is synthesized in:
B) A deceleration A) Quantasomes
C) Uniform speed B) Stroma
D) It can never happen C) Thylakoids
D) Matrix

96

5. Zero error of an instrument introduces: 15. The structure of protoplasm is:
A) Systematic error A) Granular
B) Random error B) Fibrillar
C) Per cent error C) Reticular
D) Means no error D) Colloidal Matrix
6. The Science of surveying and mapping the 16. Which of the following could be ‘cancer’
earth’s surface is known as: of the lymph nodes and spleen?
A) Cartography A) Carcinoma
B) Geodesy B) Sarcoma
C) Topography C) Leukemia
D) Scienodsy D) Lymphoma
17. The major component of Bacterial cell
7. The gravitational force with which a body is
wall is
attracted towards the earth is
A) Xylan
A) Maximum at the equator and minimum
B) Chitin
at the poles
C) Peptidoglycan
B) Minimum at the equator and maximum
D) Cellulose
at the poles
C) The same at the equator and the poles 18. How many bones does the Cranium of
D) Depends on the altitude at the given man have?
point A) 8 B) 12
C) 16 D) 20
8. Which of the following is used as an
antiseptic? 19. When is the world Population day
A) Iodine celebrated?
B) Bromine A) August 3
C) Chlorine B) April 16
D) Fluorine C) October 18
9. Washing soaps produces a scum with hard
D) July 11
water and not much of foam, because the
hard water contains: 20. In a Nuclear Reactor the heavy water is
A) Many suspended particles used to :
B) Many dissolved inorganic salts A) cool the neutrons
C) Chalk and sulphur B) slow down the neutrons
D) Dissolved organic matter C) absorb the neutrons
D) control the number of neutrons

Sample Questions for M.Sc. 2-Year Course (Human Genomics)

1. Which one of the following is an essential 5. Signaling between cells usually results
component of DNA? in the activation of protein
A) Protein A) lipase
B) Carbohydrate B) kinases
C) Lipids C) proteases
D) Vitamins D) nuclease
2. Three types of RNA involved in comprising 6. Highly repetitive DNA has
the structural and functional core for protein A) a very short repeating sequence
synthesis, serving as a template for and no coding function
translation, and transporting amino acid, B) a moderate repeating sequence
respectively, are: and a coding for house keeping
A) mRNA, tRNA, rRNA gene
B) rRNA, tRNA, mRNA C) a simple repeat sequence and
C) tRNA, mRNA, rRNA no coding function
D) rRNA, mRNA ,tRNA D) None of the above
3. A synthetic mRNA of repeating sequence 5'- 7. From which grandparent or
CACACACACACACACAC... is used for a grandparents did you inherit your
cell-free protein synthesizing system like the mitochondria? Is it your:
one used by Nuremberg. If we assume that A) mother's parents
protein synthesis can begin without the need B) paternal grandfather
for an initiator codon, what product or C) grand mothers
products would you expect to occur after D) maternal grandmother
protein synthesis. 8. What are the possible blood types of
A) One protein consisting of a single the offspring of a cross between
amino acid individuals that are type AB and
B) Three proteins , each consisting of a type O? (Hint: blood type O is
different , single amino acid recessive)
C) One protein, with an alternating A) AB or O
sequence of two different amino acids B) A, B, or O
D) Two proteins, each with an alternating C) A or B
sequence of two different amino acids. D) A, B, AB, or O
97

9. A woman with an X-linked dominant
4. A replicon is: disorder mates with a phenotypically
A) an enzyme complex that replicates normal male. On average, what
DNA proportion of this couple's daughters
B) the amount of time required to duplicate will be affected with the disorder?
a genome A) 0.5
C) larger in complex eukaryotes and B) 1.0
smaller in bacteria C) 0.75
D) the DNA sequences that specify and D) 0.25
are replicated by a single replication
initiation event 10. A messenger acid is 336 nucleotides
long, including the initiator and
termination codons. The number of
amino acids in the protein translated
from this mRNA is:
A) 999
B) 630
C) 330
D) 111

Sample Questions for M.Sc. 2-Year
Course (Instrumentation)
4. What do we call the temperature
1. Maximum volume of blood at a given time and pressure at which solid, liquid,
is found in the and
a) Heart vapor phases of a particular
b) Capillaries substance coexist in equilibrium?
c) Venules and veins [A] Equilibrium point
d) Aorta [B] Triple point
[C] Normal point
2. Zener diodes are also known as [D] Break Point
a) Voltage regulators
b) Forward bias diode 5. What is rectifier used for?
c) Breakdown diode [A] for converting alternating current
d) Power Amplifier into direct current
[B] for converting direct current into
3. When is the bridge circuit balanced? alternating current
a) When voltage is applied [C] for increasing the power of signal
b) When current flows through the opposite [D] for decreasing the voltage
ends of the bridge circuit
c) When no current flows through the
galvanometer 6 .Which of the following polymer is
d) When impedance is minimum obtained by the condensation
reaction
between ethylene glycol and
terephthalic acid?
[A] Terelene
[B] PMMC
[C] PVC
[D] PVA

Sample Questions for M.Sc. 2-Year Course in Nuclear Medicine

1. We can’t produce colors with white light 6. Macrophage – like cells in the
through: connective tissue are
A) Interference A) Osteoclasts
B) Polarization B) Mesanglial cells
C) Diffraction C) Histiocytes
D) Dispersion D) Microglial cells
2. Methods of Fourier Transformation are 7. Zinc finger proteins and helix-turn-helix
applied in proteins are:
A) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance A) Types of DNA-binding proteins
B) X-ray crystallography B) Involved in the control of translation
C) Medical Imaging C) Components of ribosomes
D) All of the above D) Part of the hemoglobin in blood
3. Which one of the following is correctly cells

98

matched? 8. Transcription of DNA into mRNA is
A) Chloroplast – storage of enzymes catalyzed by
B) Lysosome – powerhouse of cell A) DNA polymerase
C) Nucleolus – stie of ribosomal B) RNA synthetase
synthesis C) RNA polymerase
D) Glyoxysome – structural support of D) Rnase
cell 9. Which nitrogenous bases is NOT found
4. Which amino acid can stabilize protein in DNA?
structure by forming covalent cross links A) Thymine
between polypeptide chins? B) Uracil
A) Ser C) Adenine
B) Gly D) gunanine
C) Glu 10. How would the complementary strand of
D) Cys DNA appear if the original strand of DNA
5. In CT imaging the phenomenon used is contained the bases T-A-G-C in the
A) Radiation absorption order?
B) Radiation damage A) U-A-C-G
C) Free radical formation B) G-C-A-T
D) Radiation fluorescence C) T-A-C-G
D) A-T-C-G

Sample Questions for M.Sc. 2-Year Course in Forensic Science
Section A: General Science Section B: Any two of the four sub-
(Compulsory) sections
1. Which acid is produced when milk gets Biology
sour? 1. The most abundant protein on
A) Tartaric Acid earth is
B) Butyric Acid A) Keratin
C) Lactic Acid B) Rubisco
D) Acetic Acid C) RuBP
D) Fibrinogen

2. The bond which is present between 2. Type of mimicry in which both the
water molecules is: minic and model are harmful
A) Electrovalent bond (unpalatable) to the predator
B) Covalent bond Batesian mimicry
C) Hydrogen bond Mullerian mimicry
D) Vander Waalls bond Warning mimicry
Concealing mimicry
3. The number of Chromosomes pairs in Chemistry
Human body are : The correct decreasing order of the
A) 23 boiling points is
B) 42 A) NH3>H2O> HF
C) 46 B) H2O> HF>NH3
D) None of above C) NH3> HF > H2O
D) HF>H2O>NH3
4) The mass of the body at the centre of 2. The element that shows both +3 and
earth is +4 oxidation is
A) Less than at the surface A) Cerium
B) Remains constant B) Promethium
C) More than the surface C) Gadolinium
D) Zero D) Holmium

Forensic Science Physics
1. Who suggested the practical method of 1. Where can Maxwell’s equation be
finger-printing and their classification derived
A) Francis Galton A) Gauss’s las
B) Henry Faulds B) Gauss’s magnetic law
C) Albert Osborn C) Faraday law
D) Calvin Goddard D) All the above

2. Study of the motion of a projectile from 2. A particle executive a vibratory motion
the muzzle of the weapon to the target is passing through mean point has
A) External Ballistics A) Maximum potential energy and
B) Terminal Ballistics minimum kinetic energy
C) Internal Ballistics B) Maximum kinetic energy and
D) None of the above minimum potential energy
C) Kinetic energy and potential energy
99

both maximum
D) Kinetic energy and potential energy
both minimum

Sample Questions for M.Sc. Statistics 8. Let A be a n × n real matrix. Then, which of the
 
1.
→ 
is following statements is true?
(a) 
(a) If the eigenvalues of A are λ1, . . . , λn, then A is
similar to a diagonal matrix with
(b) 1
(c) −
λ1, . . . ,λn along the diagonal.
(d) /2
(b) If rank (A) = r, then A has ‘r’ non-zero
eigenvalues.
(c) If Ak = 0 for some k > 0, then trace(A) = 0.
 
(d) If A has a repeated eigenvalue, then A is not
For ℛ,
 →∞ 
is diagonalizable.

2.
(a)




9. The system of equations 4x + 6y = 5, 8x +
(b)


12y = 10 has:
(c)


(a) A unique solution
(d) (b) No solution
(c) Infinitely many solutions
&
(d) None of the above
3. The value of 
|"# − $%| ', where
"# is the greatest integer less then or
equal to x and $% is the fractional part
10. If two matrices A and B have the same size
and the same rank, then
of x is
(a) they have determinant 0
(a) 7/2
(b) they are equivalent
(b) 5/2
(c) A and B have common elements.
(c) 1/2
(d) A and B have at least two elements common
(d) 3/2
)


The value of
/) *+,  − 
' is 11. The system AX = O in ‘n’ unknowns has only
( (
4.
trivial solution if:
(a) ρ(A) >,
5. The number of accidents per week in a (b) ρ(A) <,
small city has a Poisson distribution (c) ρ(A)=n
with mean equal to 3. The probability (d) ρ(A)≥n
of exactly 2 accidents in 2 weeks is
(a) 2e −3 (b) 9e −3 (c) 18e −6(d) 18e −3 12. Let F and G be two events in the sample
space S such that P( F U G) = .8,
2 P(F)= p and P(G) = .3. The value of p
6. The Quadratic form Q(x, y, z) = x + for which F and G are independent is:
2 2
3y + 2z is A. .5
B. .6
(a) Positive definite (b) Positive semi- C. 2/3
definite (c) Negative definite (d) D. 1/5
Indefinite
13. The particular integral of (D2 + D)y = x2 + 2x
sin 
7. The function
+4 is
-./ = 1  : -78 ≠ 0
3 2 3 2
A. 4x+c B. x + 2x +4x C. x /3 + 2x
1 -78 = 0
3
+4x D. x /3 +4x
<)
14. The value of > = '?, where C: |Z+1-i|=
< &<
is 2 is:
(a) continuous at x = 0 A. 0 B (i-2) C. π ((i-2) D. π/2
(b) not continuous at x = 0
(c) not differentiable at x = 0
<=
(d) nowhere differentiable at x = 0 15. The residue of f(Z) = .<
/=.<&/ at pole 1 is :
A. 1/3 B. 5/9 C. 2/3 D. 0

16. The complete solution of (x+1) dy/dx –y =
3x 2
e (1+x ) is :
3x
A. -1/(x+1) B. 1/(x+1) C. (e /3 + c) (1+x)
3x
D. (e /3 + c)

100

17. The solution of p = sin (y-px) , where p =
dy/dx, is
-1 -1
A. px + sin p B. cx + sin c C. cx
-1
D. sin c
18. The value of k for which the area under the
curve f(x) = k(y+1) , 2<y< 4 and zero
otherwise, will be one is:
A. 1/8 B. 8 C. 1 D. ¾

19. The value of @ 
(/& ' is:
∞

A. 2 B. 1 C. 4 D ½

20. A person selects two items randomly, one by
one without replacement, from a lot
containing 4 defective and 6 non-defective items.
The probability that second drawn item will be
defective given that first was non defective
is:
A. 4/15 B. 6/25 C. 4/9 D. 4/10

21. Random variable X follows Poisson distribution
such that 3 P[ X = 1] = 2 p[ X = 2]. The
mean of X is:
A. 2 B. 3 C. 3/2 D. 1

Sample Questions for M.Sc. in Renewable
Energy and Smart Materials
(c) Electronic transition is always
accompanied by vibrational and
rotational effects
1. What is the elemental composition of (d) Single transition is not
fullerene? possible.
(a) C, O, H
(b) C 5. What are the general modes of
(c) C, N, Si operation of atomic force microscopy
(d) Si, Mo, S (AFM)?
2. Which of the following nanomaterials (a) Contact and tapping modes
(minerals) are frequently employed in (b) Magnetic and electric modes
sunscreens? (c) Electric and tapping modes
(a) TiO2 and ZnO (d) Magnetic and tapping modes.
(b) TiO2 and UO2 6. Benzenium ion (C6H7+) ion is a
(c) UO2 and ZnO relatively stable system due to:
(d) ZrO2 and Ag2O (a) Breaking of aromatic system
(b) Delocalization effect
3. FTIR spectrum of a molecule shows a (c) Formation of a new bond on
peak in the region 3000-3600 cm-1. addition of H
+
What is the most likely stretching of a (d) None of the above
functional group?
(a) O-O str 7. If a molecular ion peak of a molecule
(b) O-H str from the corresponding mass
(c) C-O str spectrum is observed at m/z = 78,
(d) C-N str what is the most likely molecule?
(a) C6H14
4. Why an absorption band is noticed (b) C6H12
from a molecule in Ultraviolet and (c) C6H6
Visible Spectroscopy, rather than (d) None of the above
absorption lines?
(a) Presence of several functional 8. FT-IR spectroscopy is a useful tool to
groups in the molecule detect functional groups which is
(b) Variation in the electronic based on:
transition
101

(a) Molecular rotations of a
particular bond
(b) Molecular vibrations
(c) Nuclear magnetic resonance
(d) Fragmentation of molecules.

9. Which of the following technique is
based on spin of protons?
(a) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance
(NMR)
(b) Electron Paramagnetic
Resonance (EPR)
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) Mössbauer spectroscopy.

10. Michaelis-Menten equation is derived
for
(a) Protein folding kinetics
(b) Homogeneous and
heterogeneous catalysis
(c) Enzyme kinetics
(d) None of the above.

11. The square of the magnitude of the
wave function is called
(a) Current density.
(b) Zero density.
(c) Probability density.
(d)Volume density

12. The attractive force binding the
proton and neutron in the nucleus of
the atom is known as:
(a) Nuclear force
(b) Coulumb force
(c) Electromagnetic force
(d) Electromotive force

13. Boolean algebra is essentially based
on:
(a) Symbols
(b) logic
(c) Truth
(d) Numbers

14. When used in a circuit, the Zener diode is
always
(a) Forward-biased
(b) connected in series
(c) troubled by overheating
(d) Reverse-biased

15. Working of transformer essential
depends on
(a) self-induction
(b) mutual induction
(c) Magnetic circuit
(d) Magnetic flux

102

Sample Questions for M.Sc. Geology

1.A Sandstonde containing of at least 25% 4. Mica Plate gives the retardation of:
Feldspar is : A) 1 Lameda
A) Orthoquarzite B) ½ Lameda
B) Arkose C) ¼ Lameda
C) Graywacke D) Variable retardation
D) Sublithic Wacke
5. Which of the following mineral is
2. An intergrowth texture in which Aluminosilicate:
plagioclase contains inclusion of potash A) Quartz
feldspar is known as : B) Garnet
A) Perthite C) Biotite
B) Antiperthite D) Sillimanite, Robins, Crows
C) Graphic
D) Seriate

3. Which of the following rock is not of
metamorphic origin:
A) Slate
B) Phyllite
C) Schist
D) Shale

Sample Questions for M.Sc. (Stem Cell & Tissue Engineering)

1. Cholera spreads due to 7. Fluid-mosaic hypothesis was proposed by

A. Air pollution A. Danielli Robertson
B. Line sources B. Singer and Nicolson
C. Humid weather C. Davson
D. Water pollution D. Robertson
2. Type of immunoglobulin present in tears is 8. Which of the following is a sugar molecule?
A. Glucose
A. IgA B. Glycine
B. IgG C. palmitic acid
C. IgD D. adenine
D. IgE
3. Cofactor is generally 9. Leaf pigments are separated from a mixture
by
A. protein A. Spectrophotometry
B. vitamin B. Chromatography
C. sugar C. Autoradiography
D. lipid D. SDS-PAGE
10. The cause of diabetes is
4. The enzyme which joins two DNA molecules
is called A. Insulin deficiency
A. DNA Ligase B. Glucose deficiency
B. DNA polymerase C. Presence of glucose in urine
C. protease D. Bacterial infection
D. kinase
11. Kidney plays an important role in the
5. Ribosomes are attached to Endoplasmic following process
Reticulum (ER). This ER is called A. secretion of pepsin
A. Rough ER B. excretion
B. smooth ER C. contraction
C. ribozyme D. respiration
D. ribonuclease
12. The chromosomes are aligned at the
6. The lysosomes are organelle of the cell. They
equatorial plate of the cell during which stage
……..
of mitosis?
A. contain hydrolytic enzymes
A. prophase
B. are called power house of the cell
B. metaphase
C. contain DNA
C. anaphase
D. contain RNA
D. telophase

Sample Question Paper for M.Sc. (2 Year Course) Microbial Biotechnology

1. Which one of the following processes refers to removal of only pathogenic organisms from an animate surface?
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A. Disinfection
B. Antisepsis
C. Tyndallization
D. Inspissation
2. Under conditions of antigen excess, the complexes between IgA and a tetravalent antigen will have the composition
A. Ag2Ab1
B. Ag4Ab1
C. Ag4Ab3
D. Ag2Ab7
3. Ebola is a
A. Haemorrhagic fever of humans and other primates caused by ebolaviruses
B. Prion disease of primates and humans
C. Equine bolus Aswan syndrome caused by unknown aetiological agent
D. Bacterial febrile illness that leads to sudden death
4. Which of the following chromatography techniques can be used to separate a protein that binds strongly to its substrate
incorporated onto a column?
A. Size-exclusion chromatography
B. Ion exchange chromatography
C. Affinity chromatography
D. Partition chromatography
5. The N2 fixation reaction catalysed by the enzyme nitrogenase is a high energy demanding reaction that requires
approximately
A. 12 ATP
B. 25 ATP
C. 18 ATP
D. 7 ATP
6. In light microscopy, if the wavelength of the light illuminating a sample is increased the resolving limit and the
resolving power of the microscope will______________and, respectively.
A. Increase; Increase
B. Increase; Decrease
C. Decrease; Increase
D. Decrease; Decrease
7. The affinity of an enzyme for its substrate, when the enzyme has a Km of 0.50mM will bethan the affinity of an enzyme
for its substrate when the enzyme has a Km of 0.05mM.
A. Half
B. Greater
C. Lesser
D. Equal
8. For recovering citric acid from culture medium after the fermentation, Ca(OH)2 is added to the slurry to
A. Precipitate calcium carbonate
B. Precipitate calcium sulphate
C. Precipitate calcium phosphate
D. Precipitate calcium citrate
9. Chronic granulomatous disease arises due to defects in the
A. Monocytes and neutrophils
B. T cells
C. B cells
D. RBCs
10. Cathepsin G is a marker for
A. Mitochondria
B. Chloroplast
C. Lysosomes
D. Golgi bodies

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Sample Questions for M.Sc. Biotechnology

1. Correct sequence of stages in cell cycle is 7. The smallest unit of DNA capable
A) G1, S, G2, M of coding for the synthesis of a
B) S, G2, M, G1 polypeptide is the
C) G1, G2, M, S A) Operon
D) G1, G2, S, M B) cistron
C) promoter
2. Which of the following does not contain both D) replicon
DNA and RNA?
8. Exonuclease is an enzyme, which
A) Yeast cleaves DNA from
B) Bacteria A) 3’ end
C) Mycoplasma B) 5’ end
D) Virus C) both 3’ and 5’ end
D) internal bonds in DNA
3. Which of the following is not an antibacterial 9. Which of the following is not part of
antibiotic the lac operon of E. coli?
A) Tetracyclin A) genes for inducible enzymes of
B) Ampicillin lactose metabolism
C) Nystatin B) genes for the repressor, a
D) Nalidixic acid regulatory protein
C) gene for RNA polymerase
2. The development of egg without fertilization is D) a promoter, the RNA
called polymerase binding site
A) Blastgenesis
B) Parthenogenesis 10. Which of the following primers
C) Cogenesis would allow copying of the single-
D) Gametogenesis stranded DNA sequence
E) 5' ATGCCTAGGTC?
3. TATA box and Pribnow box are components of A) 5’ ATGCC,
A) Operators B) 5’ TACGG
B) Promoters C) 5’ CTGGA
C) Enhancers D) 5’ GACCT
D) Activators

4. Peptide chain elongation involves all the
following except
A) peptidyl transferas
B) GTP
C) Tu, Ts and G factors
D) Formyl tRNA

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Sample Questions for M.Sc. Botany

1. In C4 plants the first CO2 acceptor is : 7. Most bryophytes are autotrophic but a
A) Ribulose – 1,5-bisphosphate few are more or less saprophytic. Which
B) Phosphenol pyruvate of the following is totally devoid of
C) Pyruvate chlorophyll and depends upon a
D) Ribulose-5-phosphate mycorrhizal association for its growth
2. In majority of angiosperms, the female and development?
gametophyte at the time of fertilization is : A) Cyptothallus mirabilis
A) 8-celled B) Funaria hygromitrica
B) 7-celled C) Concephalum conium
C) 6-celled D) Pellia epiphylla
D) 4-celled 8. Somaclonal variations are:
3. Agar-agar is extracted from which of the A) Variations produced during tissue
following genera culture
A) Gracilaria B) Variations produced during sexual
B) Dictyota reproduction
C) Ectocarpus C) Variations caused by mutagenic
D) Laminaria chemicals
4. Black rust of wheat is caused by : D) Variations caused by Gamma rays
A) Ustilago tritici
B) Puccinia graminis tritici 9. Trisomic condition is expressed as
C) Protomyces macrosporus A) 2n-1
D) Albugo candida B) 2n-2
5. Oomycota is a phylum in kingdom: C) 2n+1
A) Fungi D) 2n+2
B) Chromista
C) Protozoa 10. The functional unit in ecology is the:
D) Mycota A) Organism
6. Cystidium is a B) Biosphere
A) Sterile element occurring in the C) Ecosystem
hymenium of certain Basidiomycetes D) Population
B) Reproductive organ of a green alga
C) Fertile part of lichen thallus
D) Asexual spore

Sample Questions for M.Sc. Chemistry

1.Phenolic esters on heating with AlCl3 gives o- and p- acyl phenol. This is termed as:

(A) Favorski rearrangement (B) Beckmann rearrangement
(C) Fries rearrangement (D) Wolff rearrangement

2. Product of the rapid photochemical reaction of following aromatic compound is:

3. With the molecular formula C9H11Cl assign the plausible structure to the compound from the following
sets of NMR data:
(і) Quintet (δ 2.15) 2H
(іі) Triplet (δ 2.75) 2H
(ііі) Triplet (δ 3.38) 2H
(іv) Singlet (δ 7.22)5H

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4.Ozonolysis of butan-1-ene followed by reduction with Zn / CH3COOHgives:

(A) Acetaldehyde and formaldehyde B) Acetaldehyde and acetone

(C) Acetone and formaldehyde (D) Propionaldehyde and formaldehyde

5. The equilibrium constant of a reaction doubles on raising the temperature from 25°C to 35°C. Calculate
∆H° for the reaction( in KJ mol⁻¹):
(A) 52.89 (B) 0
(C) 60.5 (D) 46.3

6. No. of vibrational degree of freedom in benzene:
(A) 6 (B) 2
(C) 31 (D) None of the above

7. What is the constant volume heat capacity of an ideal monoatomic gas (in unit J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹)?
(A) 12.47 (B) 6.1
(C) 0 (D) Infinite
8. Average kinetic energy of the gas molecules at temperature, T is:
(A) 2/3 RT (B) 2/3 NokT
(C) 3/2 NoRT (D) 3/2 NokT
9. (C2H5)₂Zn on reaction with acetyl chloride gives:
(A) Butane (B) Butanoic acid
(C) Butanone (D) Butene
10. Which of the following combination of orbitals is not permissible?
(A) n = 3, l = 2, m = 0, s = -1/2 (B) n = 5, l = 0, m = 0, s = ½
(C) n = 2, l = 1, m = 0, s = 1/2 (D) n = 4, l = 3, m = -3, s = 0
11. Calculate the effective nuclear charge at the outer boundary of copper atom:
(A) 3.85 (B) 4.35
(C) 1.3 (D) 13.05

12. Which of the following has highest ionic mobility in aqueous solution?
(A) Li⁺ B) Na⁺
(C) K⁺ (D) Cs⁺

107

Sample Questions for M.Sc. Physics/ Physics (Specialisation in Electronics)/ M.Sc. (2 Year course) Medical
Physics

108

Sample Questions for M.Sc. Zoology

1. Which of the following types of DNA 6. Which of the following genus is the
replication or repair systems is blood fluke of man and other animals?
dysfunctional in individuals with A) Schistosoma
Xeroderma pigmentosum? B) Ophisthorchis (Clonorchis)
A) Mismatch repair C) Paragonimus
B) Base excision repair D) Diplozoom
C) Nucleotide excision repair
D) DNA helicase 7. Populations that are morphologically
similar but do not interbreed for
2 The part of the embryo from which physiological or behavioral reasons are
ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm are grouped as
formed in chick is known as A) Races
A) Primitive streak B) Varieties
B) Hypoblast C) Sub-species
C) Cytotrophoblast D) Sibling species
D) Epiblast
8. The cranial capacity of which
3. N- linked oligosaccharides on secreted prehistoric human was almost the
glycoproteins are attached to same as that of the modern man?
A) Nirtogen atoms in the A) Neanderthal man
polypeptide backbone B) Peking man
B) The serine or threonine in the C) Java ape man
sequence Asn-X-Ser/Thr D) Australophithecus man
C) The amino terminus of the
protein 9. An example of competitive inhibition of
D) The asparagines in the sequence an enzyme is the inhibition of
Asn-X-Ser/Thr A) Succinic dehydrogenase by
4. Which of the following in star fish can turn malonic acid
inside out? B) Cytochrome oxidase by
A) Madreporite cyanide
B) Stone canal C) Hexokinase by glucose 6
C) Tube feet phosphate
D) Cardiac stomach D) Carbonic anhydrase by
carbon dioxide
5. Antennae in hymenoptera, dipteral and
odonata are The isoelectric point of a protein is
10.
A) Short & filiform, aristate, defined as
geniculate respectively A) The pH at which the net
B) Short & filiform, geniculate, charge on the molecule is
aristate respectively zero
C) Geniculate, aristate, short & B) The pH at which all groups are
filiform respectively protonated
D) Aristate, geniculate, short & C) The pH at which all groups are
filiform respectively unprotonated
D) The pH at which each acidic
groups is protonated and each
basic groups is unprotonated.

109