Karnataka PGCET 2017 Question Paper Environmental Engineering

POST GRADUATE COMMON ENTRANCE TEST-2017
DATE and TIME COURSE SUBJECT
ME/M.Tech/M.Arch/
01-07-2017 ENVIRONMENTAL
courses offered by
2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m. ENGINEERING
VTU/UVCE/UBDTCE
MAXIMUM MARKS TOTAL DURATION MAXIMUM TIME FOR ANSWERING
100 150 Minutes 120 Minutes
MENTION YOUR PGCET NO. QUESTION BOOKLET DETAILS
VERSION CODE SERIAL NUMBER

A-1 109023
DOs :
1. Check whether the PGCET No. has been entered and shaded in the respective circles on the OMR answer sheet.
2. Ensure whether the circles corresponding to course and the specific branch have been shaded on the OMR
answer sheet.
3. This Question Booklet is issued to you by the invigilator after the 2"d Bell i.e., after 2.25 p.m.
4. The Serial Number of this question booklet should be entered and the respective circles should also be shaded
completely on the OMR answer sheet.
5. The Version Code of this question booklet should be entered on the OMR answer sheet and the respective circles
should also be shaded completely on the OMR answer sheet.
6. Compulsorily sign at the bottom portion of the OMR answer sheet in the space provided.
DON 'Ts :
1. THE TIMING AND MARKS PRINTED ON THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHOULD NOT BE
DAMAGED / MUTILATED / SPOILED.
2. The 3" Bell rings at 2.30 p.m., till then;
• Do not remove the paper seal polythene hag of this question booklet.
• Do not look inside this question booklet.
• Do not start answering on the OMR answer sheet.
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. This question booklet contains 75 (items) questions and each question will have one statement and four answers.
(Four different options / responses.) .
2. After the 3' Bell is rung at 2.30 p.m., remove the paper seal / polythene bag of this question booklet and check
that this booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc., if so, get it replaced by a
complete test booklet. Read each item and start answering on the OMR answer sheet.
3. During the subsequent 120 minutes:
• Read each question (item) carefully.
• Choose one correct answer from out of the four available responses (options / choices) given under
each question / item. En case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose only one response for each item.
• Completely darken / shade the relevant circle with a BLUE OR BLACK INK BALL POINT PEN
a°ainst the uestion number on the OMR answer sheet.
Correct Method of shading the circle on the OMR answer sheet is as shown below :

4. Use the space provided on each page of the question booklet for Rough Work. Do not use the OMR answer sheet
for the same.
5. After the last Bell is rung at 4.30 pm, stop marking on the OMR answer sheet and affix your left hand thumb
impression on the OMR answer sheet as per the instructions.
6. Handover the OMR ANSWER SHEET to the room invigilator as it is.
7. After separating the top sheet (KEA copy), the invigilator will return the bottom sheet replica (Candidate's copy)
to you to carry'home for self-evaluation.
8. Preserve the replica of the OMR answer sheet for a minimum period of ONE year.
9. Only Non-programmable calculators are allowed.
Marks Distribution
PART-1 : 50 QUESTIONS CARRY ONE MARK EACH (1 TO 50)
PART-2 : 25 QUESTIONS CARRY TWO MARKS EACH (51 TO 75)

EN-Al I II111111 11111

ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING
PART - I
Each question carries one mark. (50 x 1 = 50)

i. Alkalinity is defined as the quantity of 4. The process of movement of nutrients
ions in water that will reacts to from the soil by the acid rain is called

(A) neutralise hydrogen ion (A) Transpiration

(B) acidify hydrogen ions (B) Evapotranspiration

(C) neutralise oxygen ions (C) Run off

(D) acidify oxygen ions (D) Infiltration

2. Noticeable discoloration of teeth when 5. The ability of a community to
fluoride concentration in drinking establish itself in a different
water exceeds 1.5 ing/lt is called habitat/area is also a form of

(A) Leaching (A) Eutrophication

(B) Bleaching (B) Ecological resilince

(C) Mottling (C) Trophic level

(D) Hardness (D) Food web

3. During waste water treatment 6. Paramxcovirus causes measles and it
protozoan consume is

(A) Suspended bacteria (A) Water borne

(B) Cysts of amoeba (B) Air borne

(C) Mycelium of fungi (C) Chemical borne

(D) Calcium and magnesium (D) Pesticide borne

EN 3 A-1

7. Earth day is held every year on 10. A common impurity that impair the
aesthetic quality of water is
(A) June 5th
(A) 1-17S
(B) November 73rd
(B) Calcium
(C) April
(C) Fluoride
(D) January 28th (D) pH

11. Bacteriophage is used to monitor
8. Waterlogging is a phenomena in
which (A) COD

(B) Microbial pollution
(A) Crop patterns arc rotated
(C) Fluoride
(B) Soil root zones becomes
(D) Eutrophication
saturated due to over irrigation

(C) Erosion of soil
12. Red tides are produced by
(D) Organic farming (A) Algae

(B) Fungi

(C) Virus
9. Plants can take up nitrogen in two
(D) Bacteria
forms they are

(A) NH +4 and NO 13. In a static fluid, the pressure at any
given point is
(B) NH and NO (A) zero
,
(B) different in different directions
(C) NO1
(C) the same in all directions
(D) NO, (D) acting in only one direction

A-1 4 EN

14. Viscosity is the property of a fluid and 17. Diaphragm pump is an example of

in the SI system, it has the units of (A) Centrifugal pump

(A) poise (B) Reciprocating pump

(B) Stoke (cm-/s) (C) Gear pump

(C) gm/(cm.$) (D) Mono pump

(D) Pa-s (N.S/m2)
18. The equation for steady state yield
from a tube-well was first developed
15. For laminar flow in a circular pipe,
by
average velocity is
(A) Darcy
(A) one third of the maximum
(B) Jacob
velocity
(C) Chow
(B) equal to maximum velocity
(D) Dupuit
(C) half of the maximum velocity

(D) three fourth of maximum
velocity 19. S-curve hydrograph is used

(A) to estimate the peak flood from a
basin due to a given storm.
16. The friction loss from a sudden
(B) to develop synthetic unit
contraction of the cross-section of the
hydrogrpah.
pipe is proportional to
(C) to convert the unit hydrograph of
(A) Pressure head
given duration into a unit
(B) Gravity head hydrograph of any other
(C) Velocity head duration.

(D) Potential head (D) to estimate the infiltration losses.

EN 5 A-1

20. Which one of the following formations 23. F/M is accurately given by
does not contain ground water ? BOD
(A)
Total solids
(A) Aquifer
COD
(B) Aquitard (B)
MLSS
(C) Aquifuge
BOD
(C)
MLVSS
(D) Aquicludc

(D) BUD
MLSS
21. The chemical compound which is

itenerally used to reduce the
24. Organic loading of ASP is
evaporation from water bodies is
(A) 100 to 200 g/m3/day
(A) D.D.T.D.
(B) 200 to 400 g/m3/day
(B) Alum
(C) 500 to 650 g/m3/day
(C) Potassium dichromate
(D) 650 to 800 glm3iday
(D) Acetyl alcohol

25. Sludge from a Biological treatment is
11. Depth of standard rate of trickling
(A) Harmless inorganic sediment.
filter is
(B) Rich in organic matter and
(A) 0.5 to 1.0 m
Bacteria.
(B) 1 to 2.0 in
(C) Rich in organic matter and
(C) 1.5 to 4.8 m micro-organisms.

(D) 1 to 8.0 in (D) Rich in Bigger inert solids.

A-1 6 EN

26. Waters from the following source is 29. For an old city with constraints for

likely to be hard : growth the best method of forecasting

Lake future population is
(A)

(B) Pond (A) Incremental increase method

(C) Deep well (B) Geometrical increase method

(D) River (C) Logestic curve method

(D) Arithmetical increase method

27. Design period mainly depends on

(A) pecentage interest at which the 30. The usual amount of residual chlorine
loan is taken. required after 10 minutes of contact is

(B) capacity of the municipality to (A) 0.1 mg//
repay.
(B) 0.2 mg//
(C) rate of growth of population.
(C) 1 mg//
(D) maintaining of fittings.
(D) more than 3 mgil

28. The average domestic demand of
water for an Indian city is 31. Free chlorine residual means

(A) 2701pcd (A) HOC1 + HCI

(B) 400 Ipcd (B) HC1 + OCI

(C) 700 Iped (C) HOCI + 0C1

(D) 135 1pcd (D) Chloramines

EN 7 A-1

32. A lamp hole is helpful in 36. OTEC means
(A) illuminating sewer line (A) Optimal Thermal Energy
(B) cleaning sewer line Conversion
(C) repairing (B) Ocean Thermal Energy
(D) testing sewers Conversion

(C) Ocean Tidal Energy Conversion
33. In General Imperviousness of any
(D) Optimal Tidal Energy
catchment shall be between
Conversion
(A) 1% to 95%

(B) 0.1% to 10%
37. Mining acitvity
(C) 0.01% to 95%
(D) 0.0001% to 100% (A) Devastates ecosystem

(B) Creates biodiversity

34. Moisture content of solid waste is (C) Recycles solid waste
found in
(D) Controls pollution
(A) Proximate analysis

(B) Ultimate analysis
Potential analysis 38. Under superadiabatic conditions, with
(C)
light to moderate wind speed, on a hot
(D) Carbon analysis
summer afternoon when large scale
thermal eddies are present, the plume
35. Energy content of a solid waste is
behaviour would be
expressed in
(A) Coning
(A) kJ

(B) kJ.kg (B) Looping

(C) kJ/kg (C) Fanning

(D) kg (D) Trapping

A-1 8 EN

39. The air sample collected by filling an 42. Widely used device for controlling
evaculated flask or an inflotable bag is particulate emissions at industrial
installations ranging from power
called
plants, cement and paper mills to oil
(A) Freeze out sampling refineries are

(B) Grab sampling (A) Catalytic convertors

(C) Coarse sampling (B) Electrostatic precipitators

(C) Cyclone separators
(D) Grannular sampling
(D) Settling chambers

40. Formation of ozone layer is explained 43. Rate of oxidation of organic matter
by can be approximated as

(A) Rosenmund's reaction (A) First order reaction

(B) Second order reaction
(B) Chapman's reaction
(C) Third order reaction
(C) Henderson's reaction
(D) Zero order reaction
(D) Perkin's reaction

44. Fick's law can be represented as

41. Estimated residence time of SO, in a (A) JA
dt
dry atmosphere is
dc
(B) JA = At
(A) 4 days cbc

(B) 7 days (C) -DAB
aCA
az
(C) 8 months
(D) JA — aCA
(D) 3 years aZ

EN 9 A-1

45. The ditThrence between the saturation 48. Most air pollution episodes have
concentration of DO(CS) and the occurred in the season
concentration actually present in water
(A) Rainy
(CL) is called as
(B) Summer
(A) Additional DO
(C) Winter
(B) Excess DO
(D) August to September
(C) Ultimate DO

(D) 1)0 deficit
49. The analytical function not associated
with environmental impact assessment
46. The record of repeated observations
include
made at a particular location in the
(A) Prediction
environment is called
(B) Defining scope of EIA
(A) Observations
(C) Impact evaluation and analysis
(B) Time series
(D) Recycle and Reuse
(C) Polynomial series

(D) Comprehensive

50. In comprehensive EIA, the radius of

47. The term EIA came into existence influence of the project on the

through NEPA on environment is

(A) 20 Jan 1972 (A) 100 kin

(B) 10 Jan 1980 (B) 25 km

(C) I Jan 1970 (C) 10 km
(D) 500 km
(D) 15 Aug 1980

A-I 10 EN

PART - 2
Each question carries two marks. (25 x 2 = 50)

51. What is the suitable diameter for the 54. The head loss due to friction measured
pores in a filter used for concentrating in terms of metre(m) of a flowing fluid
virus from a 100 ml water sample ?
is given by
(A) 10 pm
411 u 2
(B) 100 psn (A)
= 2gD
(C) 10 nm
(B) A E, =
(D) 100 nm

AP
(C) h t, -=
2gD
52. Nobel Peace Price (2004) for
contribution to sustainable
4L2
development was awarded to (D) he, =
2uD
(A) Madhav Gadgil

(B) Wangari Maathai

(C) Medha Patkar 55. Overall efficiency of a pump is

(D) Sunderlal Bahuguna defined as ratio of

(A) pressure to head
53. Reynold's number is the ratio of
(B) useful work to pressure
(A) Gravity three to pressure force
(C) hydraulic work performed to the
(B) Inertia force to the viscous force
actual work input
(C) Pressure force to shear force

(D) Gravity force to viscous force (D) actual work input to velocity

EN 11 A-1

56. Water of density 1000 kg/m 3 and 59. A catchment of 20.000 m3 has runoff

viscosity 0.0008 (N.S)/m2 is pumped co-efficient 0.4 and received rainfall at
at a rate of 1000 cm.'Is through a an uniform rate of 5 mm/hour, what is
25 mm i.d. pipe. Reynold's number of the maximum rate of runoff?
water will be
(A) 0.011 m3/s
(A) 2246
(B) 2 m 3/s
(B) 63662
(C) 1.4 m3/s
(C) 5001

2x 104 (D) 2.5 m'is
(D)

57. If the gauge pressure is 32424 N/m 2, 60. An isolated 4h storm occured over a
the absolute pressure is equal to
catchment as follows :
(A) 1421 N/m2 1r
Time 1st hr I '-)11 hr 3rd hr!4th hr.
(B) 22 x 10' N/m 2 H I 1
Rainfall (mm) 9 28 12 ; 7
(C) 44313 N/m2
The index for the catchment is
(D) 133749 N/m2
10 numb. The estimated run-off depth

from the catchment due to the above
58. Discharge through a rectangular notch
storm is
varies as

(A) H9-5 (A) 10 mm

(B) H2.5 (B) 20 mm

(C) H1 ' (C) 23 mm

(D) 1-1().5 (D) 16 mm

A-1 12 EN

61. In the application of rational formula 63. The detention period for a standard
for computing the design discharge, rate digester is
the rainfall duration is stipulated as the (A) 10 to 20 days
time of concentration because
(B) 20 to 30 days
(Q) This leads to the largest possible
(C) 30 to 90 days
rainfall intensity.
(D) 90 to 180 days
(B) This leads to the smallest
possible rainfall intensity.
64. The last trap provided in a house
(C) The time of concentration is the
drainage system is
smallest rainfall duration for
(A) Q-trap
which the rational formula is
applicable. (B) Floor trap

(D) The time of concentration is the (C) Nahani trap
largest rainfall duration for (D) Interception trap
which the rational formula is
applicable.
65. Design a circular settling tank unit
for a primary treatment of sewage at
62. The vertical hydraulic conductivity of the 12 million Its/day. Assume suitable
top soil at certain stage is 0.2 cm/h a storm values of detention period and surface
of intensity 0.5 cm/h occurs over the soil loading.
for an indefinite period. Assuming the
(A) Settling tank with 18.7 m dia and
surface drainage to be adequate, the
3.2 in water depth
infiltration rate after the storm has lasted
(B) Settling tank with 19.6 in dia and
for a very long time, shall be
3.2 m water depth
(A) 0.2 cm/h
(C) Settling tank with 20.7 in dia and
(B) smaller than 0.2 em/h 3.2 m water depth
(C) 0.5 cm/h (D) Settling tank with 20.99 m dia
(D) between 0.2 and 0.5 cm/h and 3.2 m water depth

EN 13 A-1

66. Amount of return sludge in 69. Zero hardness of water is achieved

conventional ASP is by

(A) Lime soda process
(A) 10 — 20%
(B) iuri exchangL:
(B) 25 — 50%
(C) Excess lime treatment
(C) 50 — 100%
(D) Excess alum and lime treatment
(D) 100 -- 300%

70. What is the density of the sludge

67. If a sample is heated to 600 °C the removed from the aeration tank ?

fraction getting evaporated represents (A) 990 kinim-1

(A) fixed solids (B) 1000 kg/m3

(B) volatile solids (C) 1011 kg/m3

(C) total dissolved solids (D) 1022 kg/m3

(D) settleble solids
71. Permissible standards of air quality
fixed in India for residential areas for

SPM, SO,, NO & CO in µg/m-1
68. Volatile solids represents
respectively are
(A) Organic dissolved solid
(A) 500, 120, 5000, 6000
(B) Inorganic dissolved solid
(B) 160, 80, 100, 1000

(C) Total dissolved solid (C) 100, 30, 30, 1000

(D) Suspended and colloidal solids (D) 200, 80, 80, 2000

A-1 14 EN

72. An anemometer at a height of 10 in 74. EIA-report is prepared refering

above the ground measures the wind

speed at 2.5 m/s, the wind speed at an (A) Base line data

elevation of 300 m in rough terrain for

atmospheric stability class C with (B) Composting

exponent P = 0.2 is
(C) Geological data only
(A) 5 m/s

4.9 m/s (D) Previous reports
(B)

(C) 6 m/s

(D) 9 m/s
75. Specific surface area of Activated

Carbon is around

73. An aerobic method of decomposing of

solid waste is called (A) 1 — 2 m2/g

(A) Incineration
(B) 10 — 20 in2/g

(B) Burning

(C) 100 — 200 m'-/g
(C) Pyrolysis

(D) Composting (D) 1000 — 1500 m2/g

EN 15 A-1

Space for Rough Work

A-1 16 EN