CS CSEET October 2026 Question Paper Business Laws and Management (OMR Based)

FOR CS CSEET EXAM PREPARATION

CS CSEET 2026
Question Paper ·
Business Laws and
Management (OMR
Based)
EXAM YEAR TYPE

CS CSEET 2026 Question Paper
SUBJECT DATE

Business Laws and Management (OMR Based) October 2026

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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714
: 1 :
QUESTION PAPER BOOKLET CODE :
A
714
Question Paper Booklet No.

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Roll No. :
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Time allowed : 2 hours Maximum marks : 100
Total number ofequestions
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Total number of printed pages

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Instructions
1. Candidates should use blue/black ball point pen ONLY to fill-in all the required information in
OMR Answer Sheet and this Question Paper Booklet.
2. OMR Answer Sheet cannot be taken out from the Examination Hall by the examinees and the
same is required to be properly handed over to the Invigilator/Supervisory staff on duty and
acknowledgement be obtained for doing so on the Admit Card before leaving the Examination
Hall.
3. Candidates are required to correctly fill-in the Question Paper Booklet Code and the Question

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Paper Booklet No. (as mentioned on the top of this booklet) in the OMR Answer Sheet, as

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the same will be taken as final for result computation. Institute shall not undertake any responsibility

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for making correction(s) at later stage.

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4. This Question Paper Booklet contains 100 questions. All questions are compulsory and carry ONE

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mark each. There is no negative marking for wrong answers.
5. Seal of this Question Paper Booklet MUST NOT be opened before the specified time of examination.
6. Immediately on opening of Question Paper Booklet, candidates should ensure that it contains 100
questions in total and none of its page is missing/misprinted. In case of any discrepancy, the booklet
shall be replaced at once.
7. Each question is followed by four alternative answers marked as A, B, C and D. For answering
the questions including those requiring filling-in the blank spaces, candidates shall choose one most
appropriate answer to each question and mark the same in the OMR Answer Sheet by darkening

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the appropriate circle only in the manner as prescribed in the OMR Answer Sheet.

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8. Darkening of more than one circle corresponding to any question or overwriting/cutting any answer(s)

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shall be taken as wrong answer for computation of result. Ticking/marking/writing of answer(s)
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in the Question Paper Booklet shall not be considered in any circumstance for award of marks.

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The Institute shall neither entertain any claim nor be liable to respond to any of the query in the

ag aforesaid matter.
9. Rough work, if any, should be done only on the space provided in this Question Paper Booklet.
10. The Copyright of this Question Paper Booklet and Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) contained
therein solely vests with the Institute.
.......................................................
(SIGNATURE OF CANDIDATE)
2/2026/BLM ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED P.T.O.

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Page 1 of 20

714 : 2 :
Part—A

1. The object of law is : 4. The doctrine of justice, equity and good

conscience was introduced by :
(A) Profit maximization
(A) Arthashastra
(B) Order, providing hope of security for
(B) Impey’s Regulations of 1781
the future (C) Indian Penal Code

(C) Only punishment (D) Constitution of India

5. In the case of Kesavananda Bharati vs. State
(D) Only regulation of trade
of Kerala (1973) 4 SCC 225, what does
2. Which of the following is not the kind of
‘‘225’’ denote ?
precedent ? (A) Volume of the case report series

(A) Declaratory (B) Abbreviated title of the law report

(C) Starting page of the judgment in the
(B) Persuasive
report
(C) Conditional
(D) Year case was published (essential for

(D) Judicial locating volume)

3. What do you mean by the term 6. Supreme legislation in India proceeds

from :
‘‘mens rea’’ ?
(A) Municipal bodies
(A) A guilty mind
(B) Parliament and Constitution-authorized
(B) Guilty act
authorities
(C) Accomplished act (C) Trade associations

(D) Pending act (D) Customary practices only

2/2026/BLM ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED Contd. .....
A

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7. The executive power is vested mainly in the 10. Obiter dicta are :

(A) Binding rules of law
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President of India, as per :

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(A) Article 74 ofothe . co
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(B) Persuasive observations said ‘‘by the
c. Constitution of India se
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way’’ in a judgement

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(B) Article
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(C) Statutory provisions

(D) Customs recognized by courts

(C) Article 52(2) of the Constitution of India 11. Which feature of a company ensures that

(D) Article 141 of the Constitution of India it continues despite death or insolvency of

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members ?

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8. The principal sources of Indian law are :

m. (A) Corporate personality

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(A) Customs, Judicial Decisions, Legislation
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(B) Limited liability
(B) Equity, Common Law, Statutes
(C) Perpetual succession
(C) Only Constitution
(D) Transferability of shares
(D) Only Parliament Acts
12. Liability of members in a company limited

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9. The doctrine of stare decisis means : by guarantee arises :

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(A) Adhere to the decision and do not
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(A) At incorporation

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unsettle established principles
when company goes into

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(C) Only persuasive precedents apply (C) Always during operations

(D) Law is always made by legislature only (D) At share transfer
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714 : 4 :

13. Lifting of corporate veil is permitted when : 16. An unlimited company means :

(A) Liability limited to unpaid share value
(A) Company is used for fraudulent
(B) Liability restricted to guarantee amount
conduct
(C) Liability arises only on liquidation of
(B) Company acts lawfully shares

(C) Company earns high profits (D) Liability extends to full personal

property of members
(D) Company has transferable shares
17. A company is called a body corporate
14. As per Section 44 of the Companies Act,
because :
2013, shares are : (A) It is created by natural birth

(A) Immovable property (B) It is incorporated by law and clothed

with legal personality
(B) Movable property, transferable as per
(C) It is always a partnership firm
articles
(D) It is only a voluntary association
(C) Non-transferable property 18. As per Section 174 of the Companies Act,

(D) Always restricted in transfer 2013, the quorum for a meeting of the Board

of Directors of a company shall be :
15. A company limited by shares means liability
(A) One third of its total strength or two
is restricted to :
directors, whichever is higher
(A) Guarantee amount (B) One third of its total strength or two

(B) Entire debts of company directors whichever is lower

(C) Two third of its total strength or two
(C) Unpaid value of shares
directors, whichever is higher
(D) Nominal capital
(D) Only two directors
2/2026/BLM ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED Contd. .....
A

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19. What is the minimum number of independent 22. Consent is not free if obtained by :
directors required in a public company having

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(A) Coercion, undue influence, fraud,

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turnover of one hundred crore rupees or

.c misrepresentation, mistake
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more ?

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(A) One
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(B) gTwo
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(C) Three

(D) No independent director is required (D) Judicial order

20. Which is not expressly the power of the 23. A contingent contract depends on :
Board ?

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(A) Happening or non-happening of

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(A) To authorize buy-back of securities

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an uncertain future event
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under section 68

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(B) To invest the funds of the company (B) Adequate consideration only
(C) To approve amalgamation, merger or
(C) Written agreement only
reconstruction

(D) To alter Memorandum and Articles of (D) Judicial precedent

the company 24. A contract under the Indian Contract Act,

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21. A contract is discharged on the ground of

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1872 is :

c. o (A) Difficulty of performance s e m
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(A) A promise only

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(C) Being prohibited by a subsequent
(C) A social arrangement
change in the law
(D) An illegal agreement
(D) Strikes, lockouts and civil disturbance

2/2026/BLM ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED P.T.O.

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714 : 6 :

25. A void agreement under Section 2(g) is : 28. A valid offer must be :

(A) Enforceable at the option of one party (A) Clear, definite, communicated and final

(B) Vague and uncertain
(B) Always valid
(C) Silent and implied only
(C) Always illegal
(D) Always in writing
(D) Not enforceable by law at all
29. Agreements void as opposed to public policy
26. Consensus-ad-idem means :
include :
(A) Meeting of minds on the same thing
(A) Restraint of marriage, trade, parental
in the same sense and at the same time rights, personal freedom, marriage

(B) Adequate consideration brokerage

(C) Written agreement only (B) All commercial agreements

(D) Judicial precedent (C) All oral agreements

(D) All written agreements
27. Agreements of social or household nature
30. Tender of performance under Section 38 of
are :
the Indian Contract Act, 1872 must be :
(A) Valid contracts
(A) Unconditional, at proper time and
(B) Not contracts, as they lack intention
place, enabling full performance
to create legal relations
(B) Conditional and vague
(C) Always voidable contracts
(C) Silent and partial

(D) Always enforceable (D) Always in writing

2/2026/BLM ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED Contd. .....
A

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31. A and B agree to share profits of a shop. 34. A company differs from partnership

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A runs business, B invests. What is this ? because :

(A) Partnership om . co
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(A) Company has separate legal entity,
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(B) Co-ownership
partnership firm does not
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(C)a Hire purchase
(B) Partners are not agents of each other

(C) Members of company have limited
(D) Bailment
liability
32. A minor is admitted to benefits of partnership.
(D) All of the above

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He is :

c. o35. A sub-partner :
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(A) Personally liable for debts

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(B) Entitled to profits only
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(C) Full partner
(C) can bind firm by his acts
(D) Not allowed at all
(D) is liable for firm’s debts
33. A partnership deed is :
36. Mr. A lends his name to a firm but invests
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(A) Oral agreement only
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c. o (B) Written document containing mutual
nothing. He is :

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(A) Sleeping partner

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rights and obligations of partners (B) Nominal partner

(C) Always a public document (C) Sub-partner

(D) Issued by Registrar of Companies (D) Partner in profits only

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714 : 8 :

37. Which of the following statement is 39. In co-ownership :

correct ? (A) Co-owner is not agent of other

(A) LLP is a separate legal entity while an co-owners

ordinary partnership is not a separate (B) Co-owner always shares profits and

legal entity losses

(B) Ordinary partnership is a separate legal
(C) Co-owner must register firm
entity while LLP is not a separate legal
(D) Co-owner always has lien on property
entity
40. In a Hindu joint family business :
(C) LLP is not required to maintain books
(A) Firm arises by status, not contract
of accounts while ordinary partnership
(B) Death of co-parcener dissolves firm
is required to maintain proper books
(C) Every member has implied authority to
of accounts
borrow
(D) In LLP, the liability of partners is
(D) Registration is compulsory
unlimited while the partners of ordinary
41. A contract of sale of goods must be for :
partnership have limited liability
(A) Exchange of goods for goods
38. Doctrine of holding out does not apply to :
(B) Transfer of ownership in goods for
(A) Torts committed by partners
money consideration
(B) Contracts entered by firm
(C) Transfer of immovable property
(C) Liability to creditors
(D) Gratuitous transfer
(D) Retirement without notice

2/2026/BLM ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED Contd. .....
A

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42. In a sale, risk of loss falls on : 45. Condition as to merchantable quality means

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goods must be :

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(A) Seller

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(B) Buyer

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(C) Both equally
(B) Free from all defects

(D) Insurance company (C) Always new

43. ‘‘Goods’’ under Section 2(7) include : (D) Examined by buyer before delivery

(A) Actionable claims and money 46. Mr. B agrees to sell mangoes from next

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c. o (A) Sale of existing goods
season’s crop. This is :
(B) Stock, shares, crops, grass, things

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attached to land agreed to be severed

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(B) Sale of future goods
(C) Immovable property
(C) Contingent goods

(D) Services (D) Bailment

44. Breach of a condition gives the buyer the 47. Mr. C buys milk which contains germs. His

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right to : wife dies. Seller is :

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c. o (A) Claim damages only (A) Not liable
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(B) Treat breach as warranty always
wholesomeness
(C) Accept goods without remedy
(C) Liable for warranty breach only

(D) Repudiate the contract and reject goods (D) Buyer’s fault

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714 : 10 :

48. Caveat emptor does not apply when : 51. A negotiable instrument under Section 13(1)

means :
(A) Buyer relies on seller’s skill and
(A) Promissory note, bill of exchange, or
judgement for a particular purpose
cheque payable to order or bearer
(B) Buyer makes wrong selection
(B) Any written contract

(C) Goods are bought under trade name (C) Only cheques

(D) Buyer fails to examine goods (D) Only promissory notes

49. Risk of loss generally follows : 52. A holder in due course is entitled to :

(A) Sue on the instrument in his own name
(A) Delivery
(B) Transfer only with court approval
(B) Ownership
(C) Hold instrument till maturity without
(C) Payment of price
rights

(D) Possession (D) Recover only from original drawer

50. In bailment, property in goods : 53. An inchoate instrument under Section 20

means :
(A) Never passes, only possession is
(A) A fully completed instrument
transferred
(B) A signed but incomplete instrument
(B) Passes immediately
giving authority to fill up
(C) Always passes on delivery
(C) A cancelled instrument

(D) Passes only on payment of hire charges (D) A dishonoured instrument

2/2026/BLM ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED Contd. .....
A

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54. A promissory note must contain : 58. Mr. D draws bill in India payable in USA

on a person resident in India. It is :
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(A) An unconditional undertaking to pay

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c. opromise to pay when able
a certain sum of money
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(A) Foreign bill

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(B) A conditional

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(B) Inland bill

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(C) A promise
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(D)agA promise to pay in foreign currency
(C) Accommodation bill

only (D) Bank draft

55. A Bill of Exchange contains : 59. Mr. E writes ‘‘I owe you ` 500’’ to B. Is
(A) An unconditional order to pay
it a promissory note ?
(B) An unconditional promise to pay

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(A) Yes

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(C) A conditional undertaking
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(D) A request to pay

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56. An accommodation bill is one :
(A) Always foreign bill a (C) Yes, if signed
(B) Drawn for genuine trade transaction
(D) Yes, if stamped
(C) Always dishonoured
60. An endorsement that restricts or prohibits
(D) Drawn without consideration to oblige
another party the further negotiation of a negotiable

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57. A cheque differs from a Bill of Exchange instrument is known as :

c. o because : s e m
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(A) Partial endorsement

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(A) It is always a time instrument

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(B) Restrictive endorsement

a (B) It requires acceptance before payment
(C) Endorsement in full/Special
(C) It is always drawn on a banker and
payable on demand endorsement

(D) It cannot be crossed (D) Blank endorsement

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Page 11 of 20

714 : 12 :
Part—B

61. The most authoritative ancient Indian text on 64. Management encouraging creativity and
administration is : innovation during organizational
(A) Manusmriti
restructuring is :
(B) Arthashastra by Kautilya
(A) Autocratic management
(C) Rigveda
(B) Transformational management
(D) Mahabharata
(C) Democratic management
62. Management is multi-dimensional because it
(D) Consultative management
involves :

(A) Work, people and operations 65. What is the best management style during

(B) Planning, organizing and controlling a factory crisis requiring immediate

only shutdown ?

(C) Finance, marketing and HR only (A) Coaching
(D) Strategy, leadership and innovation only (B) Democratic
63. Management is called an intangible force
(C) Consultative
because :
(D) Autocratic
(A) It cannot be seen or touched but its
66. A leader providing extensive welfare benefits
presence is felt in organizational
but expecting obedience is :
functioning

(B) It is always autocratic (A) Paternalistic management

(C) It is limited to written rules (B) Democratic management

(D) It is restricted to production activities (C) Consultative management

only (D) Coaching management

2/2026/BLM ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED Contd. .....
A

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67. Visionary management emphasizes :
70. Which of the following is also known as

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(A) Employee welfare only

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‘‘Delegative Management’’ ?
(B) Strict adherence
s e
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(C) Short-term

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(D) Articulating a clear, inspiring future
(B) Laissez-faire Management
direction

68. A CEO listens to expert advice but makes (C) Coaching Management

m (D) Consultative Management
the final decision alone is :

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(A) Democratic management
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71. Planning is considered the primary function
a
(B) Consultative management

(C) Autocratic management of management because :

(D) Coaching management
(A) It is only forecasting
69. Coaching management is best used when :

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(B) It is optional at lower levels
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(A) Employees have high potential and need

c. o s e m
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(C) It precedes and guides all other

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(B) Crisis requires immediate decisions
functions
(C) Employees resist growth

(D) Manager wants strict obedience (D) It is limited to top management

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714 : 14 :

72. A company ensuring smooth communication 75. A manager preparing a capital expenditure

between departments to avoid duplication is : plan for machinery purchase is :

(A) Planning (A) Budgeting

(B) Staffing (B) Staffing

(C) Organizing
(C) Coordinating
(D) Directing
(D) Budgeting
76. Directing is called a continuous process
73. Henri Fayol defined organizing as :
because :
(A) Providing the business with everything
(A) It is restricted to top management
useful to its functioning
(B) It is limited to one-time instructions
(B) Coordinating activities of people only
(C) It is only financial planning
(C) Delegati ng authority w it hout
(D) It involves ongoing supervision,
responsibility
motivation and leadership
(D) Structuring only financial resources
77. Management reporting is important
74. Staffing includes :
because :

(A) Only recruitment and selection (A) It provides information on performance

(B) Recruitment, selection, training, and deviations

performance appraisal, compensation (B) It substitutes planning

(C) Reporting of deviations (C) It eliminates staffing needs

(D) Communicating financial priorities (D) It is only financial reporting

2/2026/BLM ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED Contd. .....
A

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78. A company conducting performance appraisals 81. The principle of Unity of Command

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to evaluate employee efficiency is : means :

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(A) Budgeting om .
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(A) Employees should follow multiple

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(B) Planning managers
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(C)a Directing (B) One employee should receive orders

(D) Staffing from one superior only

79. A manager guiding employees during a new (C) Authority must be centralized

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software implementation is : (D) Discipline must be enforced strictly

c. o82. Frederick Taylor is known as :
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(A) Organizing

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(B) Planning
a g (A) Father of Modern Management

(C) Directing (B) Father of Scientific Management

(D) Coordinating (C) Father of Administrative Management

80. A company allocating resources and assigning (D) Father of Human Relations

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authority to achieve objectives is : 83. Management by Objectives (MBO) aligns :

c. o (A) Organizing s e m
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(A) Employer interests with competitors

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ag (B) Staffing (B) Only financial targets with profits

(C) Directing (C) Company goals with employee objectives

(D) Budgeting (D) Employee goals with trade unions

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714 : 16 :

84. Situational Leadership Theory emphasizes : 86. ‘‘Tactics’’ in MOST analysis refers to :

(A) Leaders adapt style based on follower
(A) Long-term vision only

maturity and readiness
(B) Mission statement only
(B) Leaders must always delegate
(C) Short term operational plans and
(C) Leaders must always command

projects that will implement the strategy
(D) Leaders must ignore employee

competence (D) Employee discipline rules

85. The theory which suggests leaders can adapt 87. Which principle of Henri Fayol emphasizes

their behaviour to fit their team’s needs using
that management should strive to minimize

directive, supportive, participative or
employee turnover ?

achievement-oriented styles is known as :
(A) Stability of Tenure of Personnel
(A) Situational Leadership Theory

(B) Subordinate of individual interest
(B) Decision Making Theory

(C) Equity
(C) Fiedler’s Contingency Theory

(D) Path-Goal Theory (D) Esprit de corps

2/2026/BLM ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALL ONLY BE EXAMINED Contd. .....
A

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88. A limitation of Management by Objectives 90. According to Frederick Taylor, prosperity of

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(MBO) is : employer and employee :
.c se
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(A) It ignores performance evaluation (A) is antagonistic
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(B) It always fails in large organizations (B) is mutually dependent and aligned

(C) It excludes employee participation (C) depends only on employer’s profit

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c. o
(D) Over emphasis on targets may ignore (D) depends only on employee’s wages

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broader organizational values
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89. The contingency approach suggests : 2013, a Company Secretary is recognized

(A) Only autocratic style works best as :

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c. o
(B) There is no single best way to manage; (A) Auditor
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it depends on circumstances (B) Key Managerial Personnel (KMP)

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ag (C) Only democratic style works best (C) Independent Director

(D) Management principles are absolute (D) Compliance Officer only

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714 : 18 :

92. A Company Secretary must report to the
95. Corporate Secretarial Services include :
Board about :
(A) Taxation services only
(A) Compliance with provisions of the Act

and applicable laws (B) Promotion, incorporation, filing

(B) Employee performance
documents, maintaining records,
(C) Marketing strategies
arranging meetings
(D) Financial projections only

93. Secretarial Audit is mandatory for : (C) Only HR services

(A) Only small companies
(D) Only IT compliance
(B) Only private companies
96. Representation services of a Company
(C) Only foreign companies

(D) Every listed company and certain Secretary include appearing before :

public companies with specified capital/
(A) NCLT, Competition Commission, SAT,
turnover/borrowings
Registrar of Companies, Labour
94. Secretarial Audit Report must be annexed

to : Courts, Consumer Forums

(A) Board’s Report
(B) Income Tax Department only
(B) Auditor’s Report
(C) RBI only
(C) CSR Report

(D) Tax Audit Report (D) Ministry of Corporate Affairs only

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97. A Company Secretary must be conversant 99. According to Regulation 16 of the SEBI

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with management knowledge because :
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(LODR) Regulations, 2015 senior

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s e management does not include : g l a
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(A) He/she only manages HR policies

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(B) He/she only files annual returns
(A) Whole time director

(C) He/she only drafts contracts
(B) CEO, CFO

(D) He/she plays a strategic managerial role

o m (C) Managing Director
along with compliance responsibilities .
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(D) Board of Directors
98. Management theories assist a Company

100. A Secretarial Audit Report is given by a
Secretaries in :

company secretary in practice in Form :
(A) Comprehending critical issues and

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(A) MR-2

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devising best solutions for stakeholders

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em (B) MR-3 as
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(B) Only preparing financial statements

ag (C) GNL-1
(C) Only conducting taxation audits

(D) Only managing IT systems (D) GNL-3

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714 : 20 :
Space For Rough Work

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A

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