CUSAT CAT 2023 Question Paper 3 Year LLB

3 YEAR LLB
FINAL

Legal Aptitude

1. A Hindu married woman, who have a Hindu husband living, marries a Muslim is
guilty of

(A) Adultery
(B) Polygamy
(C) Mischief
(D) Bigamy

2. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha?

(A) President
(B) Vice-President
(C) Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
(D) Chief Justice of India

3. A particular village is suffering due to the pollution caused by one of the industries
located at its outskirts. The water in the village lake has become unfit for drinking and
foul smells are constantly emitted from the chimneys of the industry. The villagers
want to file petition in the Supreme Court, they can do so for the violation of which of
the following rights

(A) Right to livelihood
(B) Right to development
(C) Right to clean and healthy environment
(D) Right against exploitation

4. Law can be broadly divided into 2 kinds. Procedural law, which tells us the procedure
for obtaining justice and substantive law, which

(A) creates rights and duties
(B) is procedural law
(C) substantiates moral principles
(D) None of the above

5. A agrees to pay Rs.500 to B if it rains, and B promises to pay a like amount to A if it
does not rain, this agreement is called

(A) Quasi contract
(B) Contingent contract
(C) Wagering agreement
(D) Voidable contract

6. The Article, 21-A, that has been inserted into the Constitution guarantees

(A) Right to primary education
(B) Right to professional education
(C) Right to die
(D) Right to livelihood

7. Nominal Damages can be

(A) Claimed by the aggrieved party as a matter of right
(B) Awarded only at the discretion of the court
(C) Should be specified/qualified in the contract
(D) All of the above

8. Mistake of law is a …………… defence under IPC

(A) Good
(B) Invalid
(C) Valid
(D) None of the above

9. Direction: In the following question, the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) have been
given. Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the
following.

Assertion (A) : Master is liable for the wrongs committed by a servant
Reason (R) : Servant acts on behalf of the master

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation ofA
(B) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation ofA
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

10. Which of the following event known as “Earth Summit”?

(A) Rio de Janeiro Conference,1992
(B) Stockholm Conference,1972
(C) Basel Convention
(D) Universal Declaration of Human Rights

11. The Union Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to

(A) House of People
(B) President of India
(C) Council of States
(D) Prime Minister

12. “Sustainable Development” is a concept of

(A) Environmental law
(B) Property law
(C) Land law
(D) Tax law

13. If the offender does not know his act is so imminently dangerous that it must, in all
probability, cause death he will be guilty of

(A) murder
(B) attempt to murder
(C) culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(D) Either (A) or (B)

14. A, by letter, offers to sell his laptop to B for Rs.20,000. Without knowing A’s offer,
B, by a letter, offers to buy the same laptop from A for Rs. 20,000. Here

(A) binding contract comes into existence B’s letter is equivalent to acceptance of
A’s offer
(B) no binding contract comes into existence as B’s letter is merely a cross offer
(C) no binding contract comes into existence as consideration is insufficient
(D) the Indian Contract Act is silent on such issues

15. Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Right under the Constitution?

(A) Right to Equality
(B) Right to Property
(C) Right to Life and Personal Liberty
(D) Right to Religion

16. Goods kept in show-case of a shop indicating price is

(A) offer
(B) acceptance for offer
(C) invitation to offer
(D) mere promise

17. ‘D’ promises to pay a sum of Rs. 50,000 to ‘X’, a judge to decide the case in his
favour. It is

(A) valid contract
(B) voidable contract
(C) a void agreement
(D) an illegal agreement

18. The reservation of posts in the public employment in favour of the Scheduled Castes
and Scheduled Tribes is justified under

(A) Article 16(4)
(B) Article 15(4)
(C) Article14
(D) Article17

19. ‘A’ made an attempt to pick the pocket of ‘Z’ by thrusting his hand into ‘Z’s pocket.
‘A’ fails in the attempt in consequence of ‘Z’ having nothing in his pocket. Is ‘A’
liable?

(A) ‘A’ is liable
(B) ‘A’ is not liable
(C) ‘A’ is partially liable
(D) None

20. In India, the disputes between the Union and States can be resolved exclusively
by

(A) Tribunal constituted by Government of India
(B) High Courts
(C) Supreme Court of India
(D) Inter-State Council

21. Whoever causes bodily pain, disease or infirmity to any person is said to cause

(A) Murder
(B) Hurt
(C) Culpable homicide
(D) Rape

22. Forgery is an offence relating to

(A) Documents and Property marks
(B) Violating copyright Act
(C) Fraud
(D) Unlawful act not punishable under Indian Penal Code

23. The right to vote in elections in India is a
(A) Fundamental right
(B) Constitutional right
(C) Statutory right
(D) Customary right

24. The minimum number of judges of the Supreme Court who are to sit to decide any
case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution
shall be

(A) Three
(B) Five
(C) Seven
(D) Nine

25. The term ‘secularism’ implies that

(A) Parliament should support religions
(B) State and religion are inseparable
(C) State does not recognise any religion as a State religion
(D) People are free to worship State recognised religion

26. Which Right was remarked by Dr B.R. Ambedkar as the “heart and soul of the
Constitution”?

(A) Right to Equality
(B) Right to Freedom
(C) Right to Education
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies

27. Registration of marriage under Hindu Marriage Act 1955 is

(A) Compulsory
(B) Optional
(C) Subject to the discretion of marriage registrar
(D) None

28. Right to choose life partner is established by Supreme Court under which Article of
the Constitutional Law

(A) Article 19(1)(a)
(B) Article 14
(C) Article 25
(D) Article 21

29. X invites his friend Y on dinner but later on declined to arrange it on specified day

(A) X is liable for breach of contract
(B) X is liable, if Y goes to the house of X and returns without dinner
(C) X is liable for breach of contract, if Y gets dinner in hotel
(D) X is not liable for breach of contract

30. In case of Partition under Hindu Succession, which one of the following proposition
best suits?

(A) Male members of the family and their wives get the property
(B) Only sons are eligible to get the property
(C) Sons will get double share than daughters
(D) Both sons and daughters get equal share in the property

31. Which one among the following is NOT an intellectual property?

(A) Know-how
(B) Discovery
(C) Patent
(D) Copy Right

32. There is a school by the side of the road. Three children of nursery class stray away
from the school on to the road. A truck driver, who was driving the truck at a normal
speed, notices the children. While trying to save the children, the truck hits a shop and
an injury is caused to one person. Which of the following assertions correctly
represent the law?

(A) The school management is liable as they are negligent in not keeping the
children within the school premises
(B) The truck driver is liable as he did not take proper care
(C) The children are liable as they contributed to the accident
(D) None is liable as it is a pure accident

33. What is the term of a patent in the Indian system?

(A) 20 years
(B) 40 years
(C) 30 years
(D) 12 years

34. Which one of the following is a fundamental duty of citizens?

(A) To pay equal wages to men and women
(B) To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
(C) Guardians to provide for education to children between 6 and 14 years of age
(D) To organize village panchayats

35. The full form of FIR is

(A) Free Information Report
(B) Frequent Information Report
(C) First Information Report
(D) Fast Information Report

36. If Raju is staying in the house of Shyam by paying the money on monthly basis, what
this arrangement is called?

(A) Sale
(B) Lease
(C) Purchase
(D) Mortgage

37. What is the full form of UNHCR?

(A) United Nations High Level Committee for Rights
(B) United Nations High Level Committee for Refugees
(C) United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees
(D) United Nations Health Committee for Refugees

38. Adult Franchise means

(A) Right to Nomination
(B) Right to Election
(C) Right to Vote
(D) Right to Strike

39. The minimum age prescribed for election as a member of Panchayat is

(A) 25 years
(B) 18 years
(C) 21 years
(D) 30 years

40. Defamation infringes a person’s right to

(A) Reputation
(B) Pride
(C) Privilege
(D) Status

41. Which among the following is NOT a Negotiable Instrument under the Negotiable
Instruments Act?

(A) Money Bill
(B) Promissory Note
(C) Bill of Exchange
(D) Cheque

42. The full form of CARA is

(A) Central Adoption Recognised Agency
(B) Central Adoption Resource Agency
(C) Central Adoption Recognised Authority
(D) Central Adoption Resource Authority

43. In which of the following case the Supreme Court invalidated the Triple Talaq?

(A) Shah Bano v Union of India
(B) Faheema Shirin v State of Kerala
(C) Shayara Bano v Union of India
(D) Abdu Rahiman v Khairunneesa

44. The total weeks of Maternity Leave granted to a women employee under the
Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 is

(A) 26 Weeks
(B) 12 Weeks
(C) 19 Weeks
(D) 20 Weeks

45. The term Apartheid is related to

(A) gender discrimination
(B) racial discrimination
(C) religion based discrimination
(D) age based discrimination

46. A person’s right to path from others property is called

(A) Possession Right
(B) Prescriptive Right
(C) Easement Right
(D) Fundamental Right

47. Which one of the following case, the Supreme Court has held on 10th January 2020
that right to freedom of speech and expression through the medium of internet is a
fundamental right?
(A) Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India
(B) Subramaniaswamy v. Union of India
(C) Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
(D) Suresh Kumar Kausal v. Naz foundation

48. Investigation includes all the proceedings conducted by a Police Officer for

(A) the collection of evidence
(B) enquiry than trial
(C) trial
(D) All of the above

49. An unlawful assembly requires assembly of at least ………… persons with a common
object

(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6

50. The Goods and Services Tax has been introduced by …………. Constitutional
Amendment Act

(A) 99th
(B) 101st
(C) 100th
(D) 98th

LOGICAL REASONING

51. In a certain code, 420 means “You are good” and 6211 means “I am good too”. How
is “Good” coded in this language?

(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 0

Direction (Question 52 to 56): Study the given information carefully and answer the questions.

Rohan, Siddharth, Vishnu, Antony and Niranjana are five cousins. Rohan is twice as old as
Siddharth. Vishnu is half the age of Siddharth. Rohan is half the age of Niranjana and Vishnu
is twice the age of Antony

52. Who is the youngest?

(A) Rohan
(B) Niranjana
(C) Antony
(D) Vishnu

53. Who is the eldest?

(A) Antony
(B) Rohan
(C) Niranjana
(D) None of these

54. Which of the following pairs of persons are of the same age?

(A) Rohan and Siddharth
(B) Siddharth and Vishnu
(C) Siddharth and Antony
(D) None of these

55. Rohan is younger than

(A) Siddharth
(B) Niranjana
(C) Vishnu
(D) None of these

56. If Vishnu is 16 years old, then what is the age of Antony?

(A) 8 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 14 years
(D) 7 years

57. Which of the following diagrams correctly representss lions, elephants, and animals?
animals

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

58. Direction: Choose the correct option which replaces the question marks.

CD HI MN ??

(A) QS
(B) RS
(C) OP
(D) ST

59. Direction: Choose the correct option which replaces the question mark.

XUSPNK?

(A) I
(B) L
(C) M
(D) Q

60. Direction: Choose the correct option which replaces the question mark.

2, 7, 14, 23, ? , 47

(A) 30
(B) 34
(C) 39
(D) 44

61. Direction: Choose the correct option which replaces the question mark.

5, 10, 15, 25, 40, ?

(A) 45
(B) 50
(C) 60
(D) 65

62. Direction: Choose the odd man out.

(A) Nickel
(B) Steel
(C) Iron
(D) Copper

63. Direction: Choose the odd man out.

(A) Dictionary
(B) Atlas
(C) Biography
(D) Almanac

64. Direction: In the question below, a related pair of words in capital letters is followed
by four pairs of words. Select that lettered pair that expresses the relationship that is
most similar to that of the capitalized pair

VANDALISM: PROPERTY

(A) Implication : Crime
(B) Embezzlement : Fraud
(C) Malpracticing : Cheating
(D) Perjury : Testimony

65. Direction: In the question below, a related pair of words in capital letters is followed
by four pairs of words. Select that lettered pair that expresses the relationship that is
most similar to that of the capitalized pair

NITROGEN : GASEOUS

(A) Oxygen : Organic matter
(B) Lead : Heavy
(C) Mercury : Fluid
(D) Feather : Weightless

66. Sham travels 7 km North, then turns right and walks 3 km. He again turns to his right
hand side and moves 7 km forward. How many km is Sham away from the place of
his starting the journey?

(A) 7 km
(B) 3 km
(C) 6 km
(D) 14 km

Directions for 67 to 69: Study the given information and answer the following question

(I) There are 6 check-posts A, B, C, D, E and F
(II) Check-post F is 25 kms to the North of D which is 35 kms to the North-East
of B
(III) Check-post A is 15 kms West of E and 35 kms to the South-West of C
(IV) B, A and E are in straight line
(V) The check posts B and E are 70 kms apart from each other

67. Which check post is the farthest to the South-West of D?

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D

68. Which post is the nearest and to the North-East of E?

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D

69. If a jeep moves from E to F via A, B and D how much distance it will have to cover?

(A) 130
(B) 120
(C) 100
(D) 90

70. Five years ago, the combined age of my mother and mine was 40 years. Now, the
ratio of our age is 4:1. How old is my mother?

(A) 10
(B) 40
(C) 60
(D) 50

Directions for 71 to 73: Five friends are sitting on a bench in the following order

(I) P is sitting next to Q, and R is next to S
(II) S is not sitting with T; T is on the extreme left hand side of the bench and R is
on the second position from the right hand side
(III) P is on the right hand side of Q and to the right side of T
(IV) P and R are sitting together

71. Who is sitting exactly in the middle?

(A) Q
(B) R
(C) P
(D) T

72. Who is sitting to the left of Q?

(A) S
(B) T
(C) R
(D) P

73. Who is on the extreme right hand side of the bench?

(A) R
(B) T
(C) Q
(D) S

74. If BUTTER = 36 and TOAST = 25, then MILK will be?

(A) 17
(B) 15
(C) 16
(D) 8

75. Direction: In the given question, two statements are given and these statements are
followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given two
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.
Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements: All scientists are hard working.
No hard working men are poor.

Conclusions:
(I) No scientist is poor
(II) All poor men are not scientists

(A) Only conclusion (I) follows
(B) Only conclusion (II) follows
(C) Both conclusions (I) and (II) follows
(D) Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

ENGLISH PROFICIENCY

76. Choose the SYNONYM for the following word.

KIOSK

(A) Store
(B) Shop
(C) Small cubicle
(D) Mall

77. Choose the SYNONYM for the following word.

APPALL

(A) Move
(B) Clear
(C) Fruit
(D) Horrify

78. Choose the SYNONYM for the following word.

TENTATIVE

(A) Experimental
(B) Prevalent
(C) Certain
(D) Mocking

79. Find out the meaning of the word “Adjudicate”?

(A) To accuse
(B) To determine the boundaries’ of
(C) To determine judicially
(D) To renounce or swear off

80. Choose the ANTONYM for the following word.

SERENE

(A) Placid
(B) Indignant
(C) Profound
(D) Disturbed

81. Choose the ANTONYM for the following word.

OVERT

(A) Unambiguous
(B) Concealed
(C) Manifest
(D) Specifically

82. Choose the ANTONYM for the following word.

HOSTILE

(A) Friendly
(B) Sudden
(C) Costly
(D) Unfair

83. Choose the ANTONYM for the following word.

GULLIBLE

(A) Incredulous
(B) Fickle
(C) Easy
(D) Stylish

84. Direction: Identify the part of the sentence with an error (Ignore punctuation errors)

There is no evidence to show that information technology secrets are more vulnerable
in India than in British or the U.S.

(A) There is no evidence to show
(B) that information technology secrets are more
(C) vulnerable in India than in British or the U.S
(D) No error

85. Direction: Identify the part of the sentence with an error (Ignore punctuation errors)

A good statesman, like any other sensible human being always learns more from his
opponents than from his fervent supporters

(A) A good statesman, like any other sensible human being
(B) always learns more from his opponents
(C) than from his fervent supporters
(D) No error

86. Direction: Choose the meaning of the underlined idiom/ phrase

He is so furious that he would go through fire and water to take revenge on his foe.

(A) Approach everybody for help
(B) Avail himself of any opportunity
(C) Use any conceivable method
(D) Undergo any risk

87. Direction: Choose the meaning of the underlined idiom/ phrase.

To mince words

(A) To make matters difficult
(B) To win over people
(C) To be blunt
(D) To talk in an indirect way

88. Fill in the blanks with appropriate articles.

Last week …………European visited us

(A) a
(B) an
(C) the
(D) None of the above

89. Correct the underlined preposition wherever necessary

I am sorry about what I have done

(A) to
(B) by
(C) for
(D) No error

90. Fill in the blanks.

Thirty rupees………enough for the auto fare.

(A) is
(B) should
(C) are
(D) was

91. Fill in the blanks.

Every one of the flats……been occupied

(A) was
(B) has
(C) have
(D) is

92. Fill in the blanks.

The computer age has opened up untold ………..of human progress

(A) opportunities
(B) avenues
(C) chances
(D) possibilities

93. Fill in the blanks.

I have known my friend Rama Rao ……………

(A) last two years
(B) over two years
(C) a long time
(D) since long

94. Fill in the blanks.

Owing to the recession, factories are forced to cut down production and to…………..
workers

(A) hire
(B) send out
(C) lay off
(D) bring in

95. DIRECTION: Choose from the four alternatives, the word, which is the best to
complete the sentence

A group of agitators ………… the mob to break down the Vice-Chancellor’s door

(A) wished
(B) excited
(C) threatened
(D) incited

96. DIRECTION: Rearrange the jumped sentences in the following passages. The first
sentence (S1) and the sixth sentence (S6) are in the proper places. The middle
sentences have been jumbled and named P, Q, R, S. Find the proper sequence of
these sentences

S1. Democracy has another merit
S6. I believe in the Private Member who makes himself a nuisance
P That is why I believe in the Press, despite all its lies and vulgarity, and
why I believe in Parliament
Q It allows criticism, and if there is no public criticism there are bound to be
hushed up scandals
R I believe in it because it is a talking shop
S Parliament is often sneered at because it is a Talking Shop

(A) QPSR
(B) RQSP
(C) RSQP
(D) SQRP

97. Direction: Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for
the given words/Sentence

Lack of skill

(A) Inertness
(B) Insistence
(C) Ineptness
(D) Insolence

98. Direction: Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for
the given words/Sentence

An act when people vote in order to make a decision about a particular subject or
policy rather than voting for a person

(A) Election
(B) Exit poll
(C) By-election
(D) Referendum

99. Direction: Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for
the given words/sentences

A person who has lost the protection of the law

(A) Outlaw
(B) Immigrant
(C) Outcast
(D) Orphan

100. Direction: Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly.
Choose the correctly spelt word.

(A) Quintessance
(B) Quintessence
(C) Quaintessence
(D) Quintassence

COMPREHENSIVE ABILITY

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below

Rural India faces serious shortages-power, water, health facilities, roads, etc-these are
known and recognised. However, the role of technology in solving these and other
problems is barely acknowledged and the actual availability of technology in rural areas
is marginal. The backbone of the rural economy is agriculture; which also provides
sustenance to over half the country's population.

The "Green Revolution" of the 1970s was, in fact, powered by the scientific work in
various agricultural research institutions. While some fault the Green Revolution for
excessive exploitation of water and land resources through overuse of fertilizers, it did
bring about a wheat surplus and prosperity in certain pockets of the country.

In rural India today, there is a dire inadequacy of both science (i.e., knowledge) and
technology (which derives from science and manifests itself in physical form). The scope
to apply technology to both farm and non-farm activities in rural areas is huge, as are the
potential benefits. In fact, crop yields are far lower than what they are in demonstration
farms, where science and technology are more fully applied. Technologies that reduce
power consumption of pumps are vital: unfortunately, their use is minimal, since
agricultural power is free or largely subsidised. Similarly, there is little incentive to
optimize-through technology or otherwise water use, especially in irrigated areas (a third
of total arable land), given employment and incomes, but at present deployment of
technology is marginal, cold storage and cold-chains for transportation to market is of
great importance for many agricultural products particularly, fruits and vegetables-but are
non-existent. These are clearly technologies with an immediate return on investment, and
benefits for all, the farmer, the end consumer, the technology provider. However,
regulatory and structural barriers are holding back investments.

Power is a key requirement in rural areas, for agricultural as well as domestic uses.
Technology can provide reliable power at comparatively low cost in a decentralized
manner. However, this needs to be upgraded and scaled in a big way, with emphasis on
renewable and non-polluting technologies. Reliable and low cost means of transporting
goods and people is an essential need for rural areas. The bullock-cart and the tractor-
trailer are present vehicles of choice. Surely, technology can provide a better, cheaper and
more efficient solution? Information related to commodity prices, agricultural practices,
weather, etc., are crucial for the farmer. Technology can provide these through mobile
phones, which is a proven technology; however, the challenge to ensure connectivity
remains. Thus, there is a pressing need for technology as currently economic growth-
though skewed and iniquitous-has created an economically attractive market in rural
India.

101. According to the author, which of the following is/ are the problems facing India’s
rural population?

I Unavailability of healthcare facilities
II The technological advancements, which have been borrowed from abroad have
not been suitably adapted to the Indian scenario
III Lack of awareness about the importance of utilizing technology in the
agricultural sector

(A) Only I
(B) Only III
(C) Both I and II
(D) Both I and III

102. Which of the following is NOT an impact of the Green Revolution?

(A) Over utilization of water resource
(B) Application of scientific research only in demonstration farms
(C) Wealth creation restricted to certain areas
(D) Damage caused to land by inordinate use of fertilizers

103. Why is there no motivation to reduce power consumption?

(A) Freely available renewable sources of energy
(B) Government will have to subsidise the cost of technology required to reduce
power consumption
(C) Power distribution has been decentralized
(D) The cost of implementing power saving technology is exorbitant for the
customer

104. What effect will the implementation of post-harvest technologies such as cold storage
have?

(A) Regulatory procedures will have to be more stringent
Prices of commodities like fruits and vegetables will fall since there is no
(B)
wastage from spoilage
(C) Incomes of rural population will fail
(D) None of the above

105. The author’s main objective in writing the passage is to

(A) Censure scientist for not undertaking research
(B) Criticize farmers for not utilizing experimental, low cost post harvesting
technology
(C) Exhort the government to subsidise the cost of utilizing technology
(D) Advocate broadening the scope of research and use of technology in
agriculture

106. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage?

I In recent times the benefit of science and technology have not been felt in
agriculture
II The current means of rural transportation are ideal i.e. low cost and non-
polluting
III Agriculture provides livelihood to over 50% of the Indian population

(A) Both I and II
(B) Only II
(C) Only III
(D) Both I and III

107. What has hampered investment in post-harvest technologies?

(A) Cost of implementing such technology is higher than the returns
(B) No tangible benefits to technology suppliers
(C) Obstacles from statutory authorities
(D) Rapid economic growth has drawn investors away from agriculture to more
commercially viable sectors

108. What is the role of mobile technology in the rural economy?

I It will not play a large role since the technology is largely untested
II It provides opportunities for farmers to manipulate commodity prices
III It will largely be beneficial since such technology is cheap

(A) Both I and III
(B) Only I
(C) Both I and III
(D) None of these

109. Which of the following is currently not a threat to the rural economy?

I Inadequate rural infrastructure such as roads
II Excessive utilization of technology
III Fluctuating power supply

(A) Only III
(B) Only I
(C) Both I and III
(D) Only II

110. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?

I About 33% of arable land in India is irrigated
II There is hardly any motivation to utilize technology to optimize water usage
among farmers
III Climatic information can easily be made available to farmers

(A) All I, II and III
(B) Both I and II
(C) Only I
(D) None of these

Direction (Question No. 111 to 115): Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below

The Indians as a group are not cohesive. There is a lack of ‘coordination’ among
individuals, groups, institutions and States. This lack of ‘coordination’ may be traced
to selfishness, lack of trust and the inability to find joy in working together as a team
for a common goal. This leads to divisiveness, asking for criticism, with the result
images are tarnished and the main purpose is defeated. This phenomenon is visible
among the bureaucrats, the politicians, the intellectuals, the business community and
the sports fraternity, all those who matter and who give a poor account of themselves
as a group despite individual brilliance. This contrast in human behavior can perhaps
be traced to age-old beliefs, religious tolerance, poverty and the diversity in
day-to-day living conditions

111. Why are the Indians not cohesive as a group?

(A) There is a lack of coordination between individuals
(B) There is a lack of coordination among individuals, groups and States
(C) There is lack of coordination between individuals and States
(D) There is a lack of coordination among individuals, groups institutions and
states

112. What does lack of coordination lead to?

(A) Divisiveness
(B) Divisiveness, tarnished images and defeated purpose
(C) Asking for criticism
(D) Nothing in particular

113. Which word in the passage means loss of brightness or dull?

(A) Brilliance
(B) Phenomenon
(C) Visible
(D) Tarnish

114. To what can the contrast in human behaviour be traced?

(A) Age-old beliefs and diversity in day-to-day life
(B) Age-old beliefs and religious tolerance
(C) Age-old beliefs, religious tolerance, poverty and diversity in day-to-day living
(D) Nothing in particular

115. What does ‘goal’ in this passage means?

(A) the place where the ball has to pass in football match
(B) the object of ambition
(C) a point scored by a particular team in a football match
(D) the poles fitted at the end of a football field

Direction: Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each
question out of the four alternatives

"Rivers should link, not divide us," said the Indian Prime Minister expressing
concern over interstate disputes and urged state governments to show "understanding
and consideration, statesmanship and an appreciation of the other point of view,"

Water conflicts in India now reach every level; divide every segment of our
society, political parties, states, regions and sub-regions within states, districts, castes
and groups and individual farmers. Water conflicts within and between many
developing countries are also taking a serious turn. Fortunately, the "water wars",
forecast by so many, have not yet materialized. War has taken place, but over oil, not
water. Water is radically altering and affecting political boundaries all over the world.
Between as well as within countries. In India, water conflicts are likely to worsen
before they begin to be resolved. Till then they pose a significant threat to economic
growth, security and health of the eco-system and the victims are likely to be the
poorest of the poor as well as the very sources of water-rivers, wetlands and aquifers

Conflicts might sound bad or negative, but they are logical developments in
the absence of proper democratic, legal and administrative mechanisms to handle
issues at the root of water conflicts. Part of the problem stems from the specific nature
of water, namely that water is divisible and amenable to sharing; one unit of water
used by one is a unit denied to others; it has multiple uses and users and involves
resultant trade-offs. Excludability is an inherent problem and very often exclusion
costs involved are very high: it involves the issue of graded scales and boundaries and
need for evolving a corresponding understanding around them. Finally, the way water
is planned, used and managed causes externalities, both positive and negative, and
many of them are unidirectional and asymmetric.

There is a relatively greater visibility as well as a greater body of experience in
evolving policies, frameworks, legal set-ups and administrative mechanisms dealing
with immobile natural resources, however, contested the space may be. Reformists as
well as revolutionary movements are rooted in issues related to land. Several political
and legal interventions addressing the issue of equity and societal justice have been
attempted. Most countries have gone through land reforms of one type or another.
Issues related to forests have also generated a body of comprehensive literature on
forest resources and rights. Though conflicts over them have not necessarily been
effectively or adequately resolved, they have received much more serious attention,
have been studied in their own right and practical as well as theoretical means of
dealing with them have been sought. In contrast, water conflicts have not received the
same kind of attention.

116. According to the author which of the following is/are consequences of water
conflicts?

(I) Trans-border conflicts between developing countries
(II) Water bodies will remain unused and unaffected till the conflict is resolved
(III) Water conflicts have altered the political boundaries within countries

(A) Only (I)
(B) Only (II)
(C) Only (III)
(D) Both (I) and (III)

117. Why does the author ask readers not to view conflicts too negatively?

(I) Most countries have survived them easily
(II) They bring political parties together
(III) They only affect the grassroots levels

(A) Only (I)
(B) Only (II)
(C) All (I), (II) and (III)
(D) None of the above

118. The author's main objective in writing the passage is to

(A) Showcase government commitment to solve the water distribution problem
(B) Make a strong case for War as the logical resolution for water conflicts
(C) Point out the seriousness of the threat posed by unresolved water conflicts
(D) Describe how the very nature of water contributes to water struggles

119. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?

(A) Water wars are taking place between many developing countries
(B) There have been several legal interventions in India to govern the use of water
resources
(C) The poor people are worst affected by water conflicts
(D) Water diversion by Indian states has helped resolve water disputes

120. What is the Prime Minister's advice to resolve water disputes?

(A) Link all rivers to make national grid
(B) Politicians alone can solve the problem
(C) Bridges and dams can resolve water issues
(D) Make consensual and conscious efforts

121. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage?

(A) Deeper problems exist at the root of all water conflicts
(B) Competing uses of water is a cause of water conflict
(C) In India water conflicts affect all levels
(D) Only social stability is unaffected by water disputes

122. According to the author, which of the following factors aggravates water disputes?

(A) Political interventions
(B) Excessive analysis of the issue and Reformist movements by political parties
(C) Inadequate administrative and legislative frameworks
(D) None of the above

123. Which of the following can be inferred about water conflicts?

(A) Water management techniques like dams, linking rivers, etc have negative and
positive consequences
(B) There is no real solution to water conflicts
(C) Despite receiving much attention water conflicts remain unresolved
(D) Water conflicts threaten the livelihood of those who depend on water sources

124. According to the passage, which of the following is a limitation of water resulting in
disputes?

(A) Water is not a divisible resource
(B) Manipulation of water distribution is easy
(C) Water is an interconnected resource and an immobile resource
(D) None of the above

125. The author of the passage states “Water conflicts in India now reach every level”
means

(A) Divided our society
(B) Divided political parties, states, regions and sub regions within states and
districts
(C) Divided castes, groups and individual farmers
(D) All of the above are correct

GK/CURRENT AFFAIRS

126. The Constitution Day of India is celebrated on

(A) 26th October
(B) 26th November
(C) 26th December
(D) 26th January

127. Who is the author of the book “An Era of Darkness”?

(A) Sudha Murthy
(B) V S Naipaul
(C) Manu S Pillai
(D) Sashi Tharoor

128. The FIFA World Cup 2022 final was held on 18th December, 2022 in Qatar which is
also observed to be,

(A) Qatar Family Day
(B) Qatar Human Rights Day
(C) National Environmental Day
(D) Qatar National Day

129. The theme of the 2023 World Environment Day is,

(A) Towards sustainable development
(B) To beat plastic pollution
(C) Climate Change for better future
(D) No pollution

130. In which year “The Information Technology Act” was implemented?

(A) 2000
(B) 2002
(C) 2018
(D) 2019

131. The 2024 Paralympics will be held

(A) Berlin
(B) Canberra
(C) Delhi
(D) Paris

132. Tally Valley Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which State ?

(A) Assam
(B) Manipur
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Nagaland

133. Name of the First Indian digital coin

(A) GanderCoin
(B) Petra
(C) Binance
(D) Laksmy

134. What was the book written by Kautilya on Indian property, politics and economics,
called as?

(A) Panchatantra
(B) Baburnama
(C) Chanakkyaneeti
(D) Arthasastra

135. The full form of SDGs

(A) Sustainable Department Goals
(B) Sustainable Discussion Goals
(C) Sustainable Development Guide
(D) Sustainable Development Goals

136. Black revolution stands for

(A) Fish
(B) Petroleum Products
(C) Leather
(D) Jute

137. Who is currently the First Lady of UK?

(A) Anuska Murthy
(B) Akshata Murthy
(C) Akshaya Murthy
(D) Anya Murthy

138. Who is the current Drug Controller General of India?

(A) Mansukh L. Mandaviya
(B) Girish Chandra Murmu
(C) Rajeev Singh Raghuvanshi
(D) V G Somani

139. World Environment Day is observed on

(A) June 5th
(B) August 5th
(C) March 8th
(D) December 10th

140. The Present Attorney General of India is

(A) R Venkataramani
(B) K K Venugopal
(C) Soli Jehangir Sorabjee
(D) Mukul Rohatgi

141. The first Indian actress to receive the Padma Shri Award was

(A) Nargis Dutt
(B) Madhubala
(C) Devika Rani
(D) Patience Cooper

142. Which among the following is the Judicial Capital of Andra Pradesh?

(A) Amaravati
(B) Visakhapatnam
(C) Kurnool
(D) Dharmavaram

143. Which global payments company is associated with the world’s first “crypto-backed”
payment card?

(A) Visa
(B) Master Card
(C) Rupay
(D) American Express

144. Which movie won the Oscar Award 2022 for Best Picture?

(A) King Richard
(B) The Power of Dog
(C) CODA
(D) West Side Story

145. India is not party to or signed which of the following conventions or agreements?

(A) Trade- Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights
(B) International Union for the Protection of New Varieties of Plants Convention
(C) Convention on Biological Diversity
(D) International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture

146. Gogona is a traditional instrument which is played during which of the following folk
dances?

(A) Bihu
(B) Odissi
(C) Chhau
(D) Dumhal

147. Consider the following statements about the ASEAN Summit:

(I) The ASEAN Summit is a biannual meeting held by the 10 members of the
Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
(II) The East Asia Summit (EAS) meetings are held after the annual ASEAN
leaders’ meetings

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) (I) only
(B) (II) only
(C) Both (I) and (II)
(D) Neither (I) nor (II)

148. Ghoramara Island which was in the news recently, because of the submergence it is
facing due to sea level rise is located in

(A) Arabian Sea
(B) Kaveri Delta
(C) Sundarbans delta
(D) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

149. The Dadra and Nagar Haveli have been merged with which Union Territory?

(A) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(B) Daman and Diu
(C) Lakshadweep
(D) Puducherry

150. Who created world record for the longest single spaceflight by a woman?

(A) Christina Koch
(B) Peggy Whitson
(C) Jessica Meir
(D) Anne Mc Clain

FINAL ANSWER KEY
Subject Name: THREE YEAR LLB

SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key
1 D 31 B 61 D 91 B 121 D
2 B 32 A 62 B 92 B 122 D
3 C 33 A 63 C 93 D 123 A
4 A 34 B 64 D 94 C 124 D
5 C 35 C 65 C 95 D 125 D
6 A 36 B 66 B 96 A 126 B
7 B 37 C 67 B 97 C 127 D
8 B 38 C 68 C 98 D 128 D
9 A 39 C 69 A 99 A 129 B
10 A 40 A 70 B 100 B 130 A
11 A 41 A 71 C 101 D 131 D
12 A 42 D 72 B 102 B 132 C
13 C 43 C 73 D 103 A 133 A
14 B 44 A 74 C 104 D 134 D
15 B 45 B 75 A 105 D 135 D
16 C 46 C 76 C 106 B 136 B
17 C 47 A 77 D 107 C 137 B
18 A 48 A 78 A 108 D 138 C
19 A 49 C 79 C 109 D 139 A
20 C 50 B 80 D 110 A 140 A
21 B 51 B 81 B 111 D 141 A
22 A 52 C 82 A 112 B 142 C
23 B 53 C 83 A 113 D 143 B
24 B 54 D 84 C 114 C 144 C
25 C 55 B 85 D 115 B 145 B
26 D 56 A 86 D 116 D 146 A
27 B 57 A 87 D 117 D 147 C
28 D 58 B 88 A 118 C 148 C
29 D 59 A 89 C 119 C 149 B
30 D 60 B 90 A 120 D 150 A