CUSAT CAT 2023 Question Paper Biotechnology

BIOTECHNOLOGY
(FINAL)

1. In RNAi, genes are silenced using

(A) ss DNA
(B) ds DNA
(C) ds RNA
(D) ss RNA

2. The mass of P4O10 that will be obtained from the reaction of 1.33 gram of P4 and
5.07 gram of oxygen is

(A) 2.05 gram
(B) 3.05 gram
(C) 4.05 gram
(D) 5.05 gram

3. The octane number of zero is assigned to

(A) 2-methyl octane
(B) n-heptane
(C) iso-octane
(D) 3-methyl octane

4. The metal that is used as a catalyst in the hydrogenation of oils is

(A) Ni
(B) Pb
(C) Cu
(D) Pt

5. The monomer of polythene is

(A) vinyl chloride
(B) ethylene
(C) ethyl alcohol
(D) None of the above

6. The gas used in the manufacture of vanaspati from vegetable oil is

(A) hydrogen
(B) oxygen
(C) nitrogen
(D) carbon dioxide

7. The high reactivity of fluorine is due to

(A) Its high electro negativity
(B) Small size of fluorine atom
(C) Availability of d-orbitals
(D) Strong f – f bond

8. The main chemical constituent of clay is

(A) Silicon oxide
(B) Aluminium borosilicate
(C) Zeolites
(D) Aluminium silicate

9. Bar eye character of Drosophila is due to

(A) duplication in region of 16A of X chromosome
(B) deletion in region of 16A of X chromosome
(C) due to the presence of additional X-chromosome
(D) due to a point mutation in eye-lcous

10. Transmission of a gene from male parent to female child and male grand child is
known as

(A) holandric inheritance
(B) quantitative inheritance
(C) criss-cross inheritance
(D) maternal inheritance

11. Using Bovine Papilloma Virus (BPV) derived vectors, permanent cell lines can be
obtained carrying a recombinant DNA

(A) episomally only
(B) integrated only
(C) either episomally or integrated at high copy number
(D) either episomally or integrated at low copy number

12. Yeast Episomal plasmids (YEP) were constructed using

(A) 2µm yeast plasmid, fragments of yeast nuclear DNA and E coli vector pMB 9
(B) 2µm yeast plasmid, fragments of yeast nuclear DNA and E coli vector pBR
322
(C) 2µm yeast plasmid and E coli vector pBR 9
(D) 2µm yeast plasmid and E coli vector pBR 322

13. Recombinant SV40 virus introduces the foreign DNA into cells

(A) with the DNA mediated transfection
(B) without the DNA mediated transfection
(C) with the RNA mediated transfection
(D) without the RNA mediated transfection

14. Any system that is NOT at equilibrium

(A) is thermodynamically unstable, although it may be kinetically stable
(B) is kinetically unstable, although it may be thermodynamically stable
(C) is rushing toward equilibrium at a very rapid rate
(D) requires an enzyme to reach equilibrium

15. Which is NOT true about a photon?

(A) It is a packet of light energy
(B) The shorter the wavelength, the greater the energy of the photons
(C) It is trapped by photosynthetic unit
(D) It donates electron to reduce carbon dioxide to glucose

16. Why do some redox reactions in cells result in the transfer of electrons from a
reductant with higher standard redox potential to an oxidant with a lower standard
redox potential?

(A) Redox potentials are defined under standard conditions, and cellular condtions
are typically not standard conditions
(B) The rule governing oxidation and reduction apply only in vitro, and not in vivo
(C) Electrons always go from reductants with high redox potentials to oxidants
with low redox potentials
(D) None of the above

17. Pine, fir, spruce, cedar, larch and cypress are famous timber-yielding plants, of which
several are found widely in the hilly regions of India. All these belong to

(A) Angiosperms
(B) Gymnosperms
(C) Monocotyledons
(D) Dicotyledons

18. Pollination is best defined as

(A) transfer of pollen from anther to stigma
(B) germination of pollen grains
(C) growth of pollen tube in ovule
(D) visiting flowers by insects

19. The composition of the inner mitochondrial membrane is most like that of

(A) the outer mitochondrial membrane
(B) the cell’s plasma membrane
(C) some bacterial plasma membrane
(D) the nuclear membrane

20. N2 content is kept constant in the biosphere due to

(A) N2 fixation
(B) industrial pollution
(C) nitrogen cycle
(D) absorption of N2

21. Which molecule serves as a carrier of fatty acids in mitochondria?

(A) Acetyl-CoA
(B) Carnitine
(C) Dolichol
(D) Malonyl-CoA

22. Osmosis is the flow of solution from higher concentration to a solution of lower
concentration through a semi permeable membrane. What is INCORRECT in this
statement?

(A) Exact concentration of solution is not given
(B) Character of semi permeable membrane is not given
(C) The flow of solution is not possible through semi permeable membrane
(D) All are incorrect

23. Photo-oxidation is

(A) Photorespiration
(B) Photolysis
(C) Light and oxygen induced breakdown
(D) All of the above

24. Neurospora is used as an experimental material in genetic studies because

(A) it has short life cycle of 10 days
(B) the product of single meiosis can be easily analysed
(C) meiotic products are linearly arranged in the form of ordered tetrads
(D) it is a diploid fungus

25. Radial vascular bundles are those in which

(A) Xylem is surrounded by phloem
(B) Phloem is surrounded by xylem
(C) Xylem and phloem occur on the same radius
(D) Xylem and phloem occur on different radii

26. Which of the following is NOT a function of the large central vacuole present in plant
cells?

(A) Storage of food
(B) Support
(C) Locomotion
(D) Waste disposal

27. Which of the following experimental results does NOT support Mitchell’s
chemiosmosis theory?

(A) Electron transport in isolated mitochondria was shown to result in acidification
of the medium
(B) Addition of dinitrophenol to isolated mitochondria was shown to inhibit
electron transport, but had no effect on ATP synthesis
(C) Addition of dinitrophenol to isolated mitochondria during electron transport
was shown to inhibit acidification of the medium
(D) An artificial proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane drives
ATP synthesis in the absence of electron transport

2+
28. The number of d-electron in Fe (Z = 26) is NOT equal to that of

(A) p-electrons in Ne (Z = 10)
(B) s-electrons in Mg (Z = 12)
(C) d-electrons in Fe (Z = 26)
(D) p-electrons in CI (Z = 17)

29. The half life period of an isotope is 2 hours. After 6 hours what fraction of the initial
quantity of the isotope will be left behind?

(A) 1/6
(B) 1/3
(C) 1/8
(D) 1/4

30. The number of atoms present in 21.6 gram of silver (atomic weight = 108) are same
as the molecules in

(A) 108 gram of H2O
(B) 12 moles of KMnO4
(C) 0.6 N H2SO4
(D) 4.6 gram of C2H5OH

31. Equal masses of oxygen, hydrogen and methane are kept under identical conditions.
The ratio of the volumes of gases will be

(A) 2 : 16 : 2
(B) 2 : 16 : 1
(C) 1 : 16 : 2
(D) 1:1:1

32. The mass number of an atom is equal to the number of

(A) protons
(B) protons and electrons
(C) nucleons
(D) neutrons

33. The method of concentrating the ore which makes use of the difference in density
between ore and impurities is called

(A) liquation
(B) leaching
(C) levigation
(D) magnetic separation

− − − +
34. The ionic radii of N3 , O2 , F and Na follow the order

(A) N3− > O2− > F− > Na+
(B) N3− > Na+ > O2− > F−
(C) Na+ > O2− > N3− > F−
(D) O2− > F− > Na+ > N3−

35. The graphite rods in the nuclear reactor

(A) react with U to release energy
(B) produce neutrons
(C) undergo combustion which triggers the nuclear fission
(D) convert fast moving neutrons into thermal neutrons

36. The octane number of zero is assigned to

(A) 2-methyl octane
(B) n-heptane
(C) iso-octane
(D) 3-methyl octane

37. Montocot root differs from dicot root in having

(A) open vascular bundles
(B) scattered vascular bundles
(C) well developed pith
(D) radially arranged vascular bundles

38. A deficiency of the enzyme Hypoxanthine Guanine Phosphoribosyl Transferase
(HGPRT) may cause

(A) Gaucher’s disease
(B) Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
(C) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
(D) Kleinefelter’s syndrome

39. The Southern blotting technique depends on

(A) similarities between the sequences of probe DNA and experimental DNA
(B) similarities between the sequences of probe RNA and experimental RNA
(C) similarities between the sequences of probe protein and experimental protein
(D) the molecular mass of proteins

40. Which of the following triggers the division of activated T lymphocytes?

(A) FGF
(B) Interlukin 2
(C) PDGF
(D) Erythroprotein

41. Which of the following is semi-continuous (diploid) cell line?

(A) HeLa
(B) HEp-2
(C) WI-38
(D) KB

42. The protein that has been produced from a transgenic sheep and is used for
replacement therapy for individuals at risk from emphysema is

(A) Plasminogen activator (tPA)
(B) α-anti trypsin (AAT)
(C) Casein
(D) Amyloid precursor proteins

43. The success of embryo transplantation depends upon the ability to obtain an increased
number of embryos from animals of superior genetic qualities. This can be achieved
by the use of

(A) exogenous gonadotrophic hormones
(B) endogenous gonadotrophic hormones
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone)

44. Which of the following established cell lines originate from a mouse embryo?

(A) 3T3
(B) BHK
(C) HeLa
(D) BTK

45. Which of the following vir genes are constitutively expressed and control the plant
induced activation of other vir genes?

(A) vir A and vir G
(B) vir C and vir D
(C) vir B and vir E
(D) vir A and vir B

46. The left segment of octopine T-DNA (TL) is necessary for

(A) enzymes involved in agropine biosynthesis
(B) tumour formation
(C) conjugative transfer
(D) All of the above

47. A transgenic event is characterized by

(A) copy number and site of integration
(B) presence of a transgene
(C) production of transgene mRNA
(D) translation into protein

48. A degenerate primer is generally designed from

(A) DNA sequence
(B) Amino acid sequence
(C) RNA sequence
(D) cDNA sequence

49. Ac transposon is a

(A) Non-autonomous element
(B) Autonomous element
(C) Retrotransposon
(D) Intron

50. An expression vector will have

(A) Suppressor
(B) Mutator
(C) Enhancer
(D) Promoter

51. npt II gene imparts resistance to

(A) Ampicillin
(B) Hygromycin
(C) Kanamycin
(D) Chloramphenicol

52. Most commonly used technique for proteomics is

(A) 2-D Gel electrophoresis
(B) RACE
(C) SAGE
(D) In vitro pull down assay

53. Most commonly used promoter for expression of transgenes in plants is

(A) CaMv 35S
(B) npt II
(C) nos
(D) prrn

54. Pseudodominance may be observed in heterozygotes for

(A) Deletion
(B) Duplication
(C) Linkage
(D) Translocation

55. The microarray analysis is NOT appropriate for

(A) monitoring individual gene expression
(B) tentatively assigning gene functions
(C) observing patterns of gene expression
(D) determining phylogenetic relationships

56. The technique used to identify genes which are transcribed in a particular cell line is

(A) Gene expression profiling
(B) DNA variation screening
(C) Microarray comparative genomic hybridization
(D) Transcription-mediated amplification

57. AGO proteins are associated with

(A) Histone complex
(B) RNAi effector complex
(C) SOS mechanisms
(D) Tryptophan operon

58. Fusion between protoplasts can be enhanced by

(A) subjecting to high temperature
(B) low temperature
(C) high intensity of electric current
(D) high light intensity

59. Agrobacterium mediated transformation of monocots require the use of ……………
for the induction of Vir genes

(A) Agarose
(B) Acetophenone
(C) Acetosyringone
(D) Cefatoxime

60. Which among the following is NOT a PCR based marker?

(A) RAPD
(B) SSR
(C) RFLP
(D) STS

61. Sanger’s method of sequencing involves the use of

(A) Chemicals to cleave DNA
(B) ddNTP
(C) Pyridine
(D) Pyridoxine

62. A representative collection of all the DNA fragments from a given source cloned in
vectors, is described as

(A) DNA library
(B) cDNA library
(C) Subcloning
(D) Cloning

63. Seed dormancy is mainly controlled by the hormone

(A) Giberellic acid
(B) Abscissic acid
(C) Cytokinin
(D) Ethylene

64. A genetic unit that codes a complete functional polypeptide is termed as

(A) Intron
(B) Exon
(C) Cistron
(D) Recon

65. Which of the following properties is NOT associated with DNA polymerase –I ?

(A) 5’-3’ exonuclease activity
(B) 3’-5’ exonuclease activity
(C) 5’-3’ endonuclease activity
(D) 5’-3’ polymerase activity

66. The DNA fingerprinting process involves

(A) Chain termination
(B) Degenerate oligonucleotides
(C) VNTR loci
(D) RFLPs

67. Genes whose product are constantly needed for cellular activity are called

(A) Regulator genes
(B) Structural genes
(C) Housekeeping genes
(D) Smart genes

68. Translation occurs in the

(A) Nucleus
(B) Nucleolus
(C) Cytoplasm
(D) Lysosomes

69. In genetic engineering, a chimera is

(A) a plasmid that contains foreign DNA
(B) an enzyme that links DNA molecules
(C) a virus that infects bacteria
(D) a fungus

70. The vectors commonly used for sequencing human genome is

(A) YAC
(B) Plasmids
(C) M13
(D) PAC

71. CRISPR refers to repeated sequences located in the

(A) Viral DNA
(B) Bacterial DNA
(C) Fungal DNA
(D) Viral RNA

72. All are intermediates of glycolysis, except

(A) Glucose-6-phosphate
(B) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
(C) Glycerol-3-phosphate
(D) Fructose-6-phosphate

73. The effectiveness of many chemical preservatives on food depends primarily on

(A) pH
(B) Temperature
(C) Water content
(D) Acidity

74. Chromosome movement during cell division is regulated by

(A) Microfilaments
(B) Microtubules
(C) Intermediate filaments
(D) All of the above

75. Flowers in the members of the family Asteraceae are NOT

(A) ebracteate
(B) pentamerous
(C) actinomorphic
(D) hypogenous

76. Inflorescence of the family Asteraceae is called as

(A) Verticillaster
(B) Capitulum
(C) Cyathium
(D) Catkin

77. Alternation of generations is exhibited by

(A) Bryophytes
(B) Pteridophytes
(C) Gymnosperms
(D) All plants

78. Zooidogamy is seen in

(A) Cycas
(B) Marchantia
(C) Selaginella
(D) Angiosperms

79. Vascular bundles in a dicot stem are

(A) open, collateral, exarch
(B) closed, collateral, exarch
(C) open, collateral, endarch
(D) closed, collateral, endarch

80. Light reaction of photosynthesis occurs in

(A) Grana
(B) Thylakoids
(C) Stroma
(D) Mitochondria

81. Sclerenchymatous bundle sheath is present in

(A) Grass
(B) Mango
(C) Banyan
(D) Brinjal

82. The fruit of plants in the family Fabaceae is

(A) Siliqua
(B) Etaerio
(C) Nut
(D) Pod

83. The lateral roots generally originate from

(A) Cork cambium
(B) Cortex
(C) Pericycle cells lying against protoxylem
(D) Endodermal cells lying against protoxylem

84. Xylem consists of

(A) Tracheids, vessels, fibres and parenchyma
(B) Tracheids, vessels and companion cells
(C) Tracheids, fibres and parenchyma
(D) Tracheids, vessels, sieve cells and companion cells

85. The dominant generation in Pteridophytes is

(A) Haploid
(B) Diploid
(C) Triploid
(D) Gametophytic

86. Chlorosis in plants occurs due to the deficiency of

(A) Zn
(B) Ca
(C) Cl
(D) B

87. The most advanced order in gymnosperms is

(A) Coniferales
(B) Gnetales
(C) Cycadales
(D) Taxales

88. Nodulated roots are characteristic of the family

(A) Fabaceae
(B) Poaceae
(C) Asteraceae
(D) Solanaceae

89. In cyclic photophosphorylation, the high-energy electrons are driven out from

(A) P700
(B) P870
(C) Chlorophyll a 673
(D) Chlorophyll a 683

90. Stomata open at night and close during the day time in

(A) Xerophytes
(B) Succulents
(C) Mesophytes
(D) Hydrophytes

91. Dark reaction is traced by
14
(A) CO2
(B) X-rays
(C) P32
(D) O19

92. How many distinct body sections do Crustaceans have?

(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

93. Nereis is commonly called as

(A) Earthworm
(B) Ringworm
(C) Roundworm
(D) Clamworm

94. Bipinnaria larva is found in the development of

(A) Sea-star
(B) Starfish
(C) Sea-cucumber
(D) Sea lily

95. Parasitic protozoan are

(A) Holozoic
(B) Holophytic
(C) Coprozoic
(D) Saprozoic

96. Ecdysteroids are required for

(A) moulting
(B) mating
(C) walking
(D) feeding

97. The excretory organ of Ascaris is

(A) Ectoderm
(B) Mesoderm
(C) Endoderm
(D) Meso-endoderm

98. Placoid scales are present in

(A) Salmons
(B) Lamprey
(C) Sharks
(D) Hag fishes

99. Which of the following is referred to as the Peanut Worm?

(A) Sipuncula
(B) Annelida
(C) Echiura
(D) Hirudina

100. Tricholygasorbillans (Uzi fly) is a

(A) Predator of silkworms
(B) Pest of silkworms
(C) Parasite in the silkworms
(D) None of the above

101. Soto is caused by

(A) Beauveria
(B) Streptococcus
(C) Bacillus
(D) Aspergillus

102. Bone deformities occur due to the excess intake of

(A) Phosphorus
(B) Fluorine
(C) Fatty acid
(D) Potassium

103. Foot and mouth disease in bovids is caused by

(A) Phytoreo virus
(B) Picorna virus
(C) Una virus
(D) Adenovirus

104. Sahiwal is a breed of

(A) Buffalo
(B) Cow
(C) Goat
(D) Sheep

105. Atoms having the same mass number and different atomic numbers are known as

(A) Isotopes
(B) Isotones
(C) Isomers
(D) Isobars

106. The atomic theory was proposed by

(A) John Dalton
(B) Neils Bohr
(C) Robert Millikan
(D) J. J. Thomson

107. The octet rule is observed in

(A) PCI5
(B) CO2
(C) BCI3
(D) SF6

108. Sulphate ion is

(A) square planar
(B) pyramidal
(C) rhombic
(D) tetrahedral

109. Which of the following is the poorest conductor of heat?

(A) Lead
(B) Mercury
(C) Silver
(D) Copper

110. Which among the following is an example of an alicyclic compound?

(A) Cyclohexane
(B) Cyclohexene
(C) Tetrahydrofuran
(D) All of the above

111. Identify the chiral molecule among the following

(A) 2-pentanol
(B) Isopropyl alcohol
(C) 1-bromo 3-butene Isobutyl alcohol
(D) Isobutyle alcohol

112. A water drop is spherical in shape due to

(A) Surface tension
(B) Poise
(C) Reflection
(D) Viscosity

113. The unit of rate constant of zero-order reactions is

(A) s−1
(B) L mol−1 s−1
(C) L2 mol−2 s−1
(D) mol L−1 s−1

114. In the reaction 2A + B → A2B, if the concentration of A is doubled and that of B is
halved, then the rate of the reaction will

(A) increase 2 times
(B) increase 3 times
(C) increase 4 times
(D) remain the same

115. The catalyst used in the Haber-Bosch process is

(A) iron with molybdenum as a promoter
(B) platinized asbestos
(C) alumina
(D) copper oxide

116. A catalyst alters

(A) Entropy
(B) Enthalpy
(C) Internal energy
(D) Activation energy

117. Which of the following is a natural rubber?

(A) Lexan
(B) Silk
(C) Kevler
(D) Bakelite

118. The primary substance used for vulcanizing rubber is

(A) Sulphur
(B) Ammonium hydroxide
(C) Isoprene
(D) Zinc oxide

119. Aniline is separated from a mixture by

(A) Fractional crystallization
(B) Fractional distillation
(C) Vacuum distillation
(D) Steam distillation

120. The interchange of amino group of an amino acid with keto group is called
(A) Deamination
(B) Transamination
(C) Nitrogen transfer
(D) Oxidation

121. Compounds with same name and chemical structure but with different optical
properties are called

(A) Isomers
(B) Epimers
(C) Anomers
(D) Enantiomers

122. Which one of the following immune cells produces antibodies?

(A) Killer cells
(B) T-Lymphocytes
(C) B-Lymphocytes
(D) Thymocytes

123. A conical mass of cells developed at the wound of the regenerating organ is called as

(A) Blastema
(B) Blastoderm
(C) Blastodisc
(D) Balfour’s cyst

124. An insect hormone secreted by corpus allatum is

(A) Juvenile hormone
(B) Ecdysone
(C) Moulting hormone
(D) Estrogen

125. A relatively small discarded nucleus of the maturing oocyte is

(A) Pronucleus
(B) Epiblast
(C) Otocyst
(D) Polar body

126. Which one of the following is NOT a type of holoblastic cleavage?

(A) Discoidal cleavage
(B) Bilateral cleavage
(C) Radial cleavage
(D) Spiral cleavage

127. The outermost membrane surrounding the foetus is

(A) Columella
(B) Allantois
(C) Choroid fissure
(D) Chorion

128. Spindle fibres formed during cell division are made up of

(A) Microfilaments
(B) Actin
(C) Microtubules
(D) Myosin

129. Distal saccules of Golgi complex give rise to

(A) Lysosomes
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Nucleus
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum

130. Polytene chromosomes are found in the salivary glands of

(A) Coleopteran insects
(B) Amphibians
(C) Hemipteran insects
(D) Dipteran insects

131. Any cell that undergoes meiosis is called

(A) Meiosome
(B) Meiocyte
(C) Meioblast
(D) Plastid

132. Inversion control of gene expression has been reported in

(A) Neurospora and bacteria
(B) Neurospora and Drosophila melanogaster
(C) Bacteria
(D) Bacteria and bacterial viruses

133. The vir region of t-DNA comprises

(A) 2 operons
(B) 4 operons
(C) 6 operons
(D) 8 operons

134. Which one of the following is a dominant trait?

(A) Blood group O
(B) Rh+ blood group
(C) Rh− blood group
(D) AB blood group

135. Molecular pathology of beta-thalassaemia does NOT involve

(A) point mutation
(B) deletion
(C) inversion
(D) insertion

136. Generally, SRY gene activates

(A) RSP01
(B) SOX9
(C) Fgf9
(D) Wnt

137. Which one of the following protozoans has the ability to synthesise long chain fatty
acid?

(A) Perkin susmarinus
(B) Podophyra
(C) Toxoplasma gondii
(D) Giadria lamblia

138. Which one of the following forms of Trypanosoma lacks flagellum?

(A) Trypanosomal form
(B) Crithidaial form
(C) Leptomonad form
(D) Leishmanial form

139. In Taenia saginata

(A) Rostellum and hooks are absent
(B) Rostellum and hooks are present
(C) Head is absent
(D) Neck is absent

140. The infective stage of a liver fluke is

(A) Miracidium
(B) Redia
(C) Cercaria
(D) Metacercaria

141. Which was absent in the atmosphere at the time of origin of life?

(A) Oxygen
(B) Ammonia
(C) Methane
(D) Hydrogen

142. The random change in the frequency of alleles in a population is called

(A) Genetic drift
(B) Genetic polymorphism
(C) Genetic load
(D) Genetic variation

143. Which of the following Salamanders does NOT possess hind legs?

(A) Proteus
(B) Siren
(C) Triton
(D) Amphiuma

144. Alloy of Brass contains

(A) Cu+Zn
(B) Cu+Sn
(C) Cu+Ni
(D) Cu+Al

145. Which one is Rock salt?

(A) KCl
(B) NaCl
(C) LiCl
(D) CsCl

146. Which one of the following halogens is solid at room temperature?

(A) Fluorine
(B) Chlorine
(C) Bromine
(D) Iodine

147. Kjeldahl’s method is used in the estimation of

(A) Nitrogen
(B) Carbon
(C) Sulphur
(D) Oxygen

148. Polymer of chloroethylene is

(A) PVC
(B) Teflon
(C) Terrylene
(D) Nylon

149. Fats and oils are

(A) Esters
(B) Acids
(C) Alcohols
(D) Ethers

150. Phenolphthalein is a good indicator for titrating

(A) NaOH against (COOH)2
(B) NaOH against HCl
(C) NaOH against H2SO4
(D) FeSO4 against KMnO4

FINAL ANSWER KEY
Subject Name: 601 BIOTECHNOLOGY
SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key
1 C 31 C 61 B 91 A 121 A
2 B 32 C 62 A 92 C 122 C
3 B 33 C 63 B 93 D 123 A
4 A 34 A 64 C 94 B 124 A
5 B 35 D 65 C 95 D 125 D
6 A 36 B 66 C 96 A 126 A
7 A 37 C 67 C 97 B 127 D
8 D 38 C 68 C 98 C 128 C
9 A 39 A 69 A 99 A 129 A
10 C 40 B 70 A 100 B 130 D
11 C 41 C 71 B 101 C 131 B
12 A 42 B 72 C 102 B 132 D
13 B 43 A 73 A 103 B 133 C
14 A 44 A 74 B 104 B 134 B
15 D 45 A 75 D 105 A 135 C
16 A 46 B 76 B 106 A 136 B
17 B 47 A 77 D 107 B 137 A
18 A 48 B 78 A 108 D 138 D
19 C 49 B 79 C 109 A 139 A
20 C 50 D 80 A 110 D 140 D
21 B 51 C 81 A 111 D 141 B
22 A 52 A 82 D 112 A 142 A
23 D 53 A 83 C 113 D 143 B
24 A 54 A 84 A 114 A 144 A
25 D 55 D 85 B 115 A 145 B
26 C 56 A 86 A 116 D 146 D
27 B 57 B 87 A 117 B 147 A
28 D 58 C 88 A 118 A 148 A
29 C 59 C 89 A 119 D 149 A
30 B 60 C 90 B 120 A 150 A