CBSE Class 10 Sample Paper 2025 for NCC

CENTRAL BOARD OF SECONDARY EDUCATION

SAMPLE PAPER
CLASS 10
2025

Sample Paper
Class-X (2024-25)
Subject: National Cadet Corps (076)
Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 70
General Instructions
1. The question paper consists of two parts i.e. PART-I (49 marks) and PART-II (21 marks).
2. Part-I is compulsory for all and it comprises of Section-A, Section-B and Section-C.
3. Part-II shall be attempted as per the chosen wing and it comprises of Section-D, Section-E
and Section-F.
4. The paper consists of 01, 02, 04 and 06 mark(s) questions.
5. The answer to the 01 mark question is based on MCQ.
6. The answer to the 02 mark question should not exceed 50 words.
7. The answer to the 04 mark question should not exceed 150 words.
8. The answer to the 06 mark question should not exceed 250 words.

PART-I: COMMON SUBJECTS (Total Marks: 49)

SECTION-A
Q.1 Choose the correct option: (11x1=11 marks)
(i) Which one of these is not an aim of N.C.C.? (CB)
(a) To develop the qualities of (b) To create a human resource of
character, comradeship, discipline, organized trained and motivated
secular outlook, spirit of adventure youth to provide leadership in all
and ideals of selfless service walks of life
(c) To reach out to the maximum (d) To provide an environment
youth through various institutions conducive to motivating young
Indians to choose Armed Forces as
a career

(ii) The N.C.C. Headquarter is situated at ____________________. (CB)/(SB)
(a) Kamptee (b) Chennai
(c) Gwalior (d) New Delhi

(iii) National Youth Day is celebrated on _____________. (CB)/(SB)

(a) 31st December (b) 12th January
(c) 15th January (d) 26th July

(iv) Which one of these is a type of natural disaster? (CB)
(a) Fire (b) Accident
(c) Terrorist Activity (d) Volcano

(v) Assertion (A): Maintenance of essential services during strikes or calamities is an
important task for the government administration.
Reason (R): The NCC cadets can assist in maintaining the essential services and
important tasks during disaster. (CB)
(a) Both A & R are true and R is (b) Both A & R are true but R is not
the correct explanation of A. the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true and R is false. (d) A is false but R is true.

(vi) The principles of drill are: (CB)
1. Smartness
2. Steadiness
3. Coordination
4. Loudness
(a) 1, 2, 4 (b) 1, 2, 3
(c) 1, 3, 4 (d) 2, 3, 4

(vii) The toes angle in Savdhan position is : (CB)
(a) 30 degrees (b) 45 degrees
(c) 90 degrees (d) 180 degrees

(viii) Which one of these is not the word of Command? (CB)
(a) Savdhan (b) Dahine Mud
(c) Khuli Line Chal (d) Daud ke Chal

(ix) Assertion (A): The ability to effectively communicate with other people is an important
life skill.
Reason (R): Communication is conveying a message. (CB)
(a) Both A & R are true but R is not (b) Both A & R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A. the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true and R is false. (d) A is false but R is true.

(x) The indicators of leadership are (CB)
1. Morale
2. Team Spirit
3. Spirituality
4. Materialist
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3

(xi) Skill India Campaign was launched by Government on _____________. (CB)
(a) 02 October, 2015 (b) 12 July, 2015
(c) 21 June, 2015 (d) 15 July, 2015

SECTION-B

Q.2 How many seats are reserved for NCC ‘C’ Certificate holders in Army for men and Women
per year? (2) (R)
Or
How many seats are reserved for NCC ‘C’ Certificate holders in Navy and Air Force?

Q.3 Write any four means for the survival of any nation. (2) (CR)
Or
Write any four factors chiefly responsible for weakening the National Integration.

Q.4 The.22 Deluxe Rifle has ________ grooves in the barrel with a _______ magazine capacity.
(R) (2)
Or
The effective range of .22 Rifle is ________ and Muzzle Velocity is _________.

Q.5 Enlist the stages of cleaning of Rifle. (R) (2)

Q.6 Write any four causes of female foeticide. (CR) (2)

Q.7 Write four signs of someone not listening to us. . (CR) (2)

Q.8 Write any four initiatives launched by Government of India to bring transformative change
in the society. (CR) (2)

Q.9 Describe any four services in which volunteers are trained in Civil Defence Corps.
(R) (4)
Or
Explain various types of disasters.

Q.10 Describe the procedure of “Dahine Mur” and “Piche Mur”. (CB) (4)

Or

Define Drill and its types. What are the features of command in drill?

Q.11 “You are planning a trekking camp.” Suggest some useful safety tips. (CR) (4)

Q.12 Explain various psychological and philosophical factors affecting personality. (CR) (4)

SECTION-C (Case Based)

Q.13 Read the passage and answer the questions given below. (CB) (2)
The environment means a surrounding where we meet, we live and we breathe. It is one of
the basic essential things for living beings. The word Environment includes all biotic and
abiotic things which are present around us. It provides fundamental things like air, water,
food, and land which is very important for our well-being. It’s a gift given by God to human
beings which helps in nurturing human life.
a) Environment means _______ in which we live and breathe.
b) Environment includes all ______________ and ___________ things.
c) In order to nurture human life, ____________ acts as a gift of God.

Q.14 Read the passage and answer the questions given below. (CB)
Health is a positive state of well-being, where every part of the body and mind is in
harmony and in proper functioning balance with every other part. In other words, when
every organ of the body is functioning normally, the state of physical well-being is known
as health. It has been well said that only the person can be called really healthy, who has a
sound mind in a sound body. Health is the characteristic of life that enables a person to
live longer. According to World Health Organization (WHO), “Health is the state of
complete physical, mental, spiritual and social well-being and not merely an absence of
disease”. If a person is disease free or in a good physical state, but under stress, tension,
anger, greed etc., then that person is not considered as a healthy person. Hygiene and
sanitation are field of medical science which aim to preserve and improve the health of the
individual and of the community as a whole. Its study is aimed at making the cadets aware
of the many preventable health hazards and to enable them to look after themselves and
their community most efficiently.

(a) When every part of body and mind is in harmony then we are considered what? (1)

(b) Who has given the definition of health? (1)

(c) According to WHO, absence of disease in a person means he/ she is healthy. Is it true
or false? (1)

(d) Which fields of medical science aims to preserve the health of an individual and
community? (2)

(e) What is the aim of studying the fields of medical science for cadets? (1)

PART-II: SPECIAL SUBJECTS (ARMY WING) {Total Marks: 21}

SECTION-D
Q.15 Choose the correct option: (CB) (5x1=5 marks)
(i) Field Marshal is a------------rank given to a General for his invaluable service and will
continue to serve the rest of his term with this rank.
(a) Permanent (b) Temporary
(c) Honorary (d) Paid

(ii) The cardinal point with 67and ½ degree is known as_________.
(a) North East North (b) East North East
(c) North East (d) East South East

(iii) The service protractor measures the bearing on ----------.
(a) Ground (b) Map
(c) Both a and b (d) None of these

(iv) A cadet must be able to judge a distance up to about------------yards
(a) 100 Yards (b) 500 Yards
(c) 600 Yards (d) 1000 Yards

(v) Assertion (A): Many objects are instantly recognized by reason of their distinctive
shape.
Reason (R): The objects can be spotted instantaneously because of their contrast with
the surroundings. (CB)
(a) Both A & R are true and R is (b) Both A & R are true but R is not
the correct explanation of A. the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true and R is false. (d) A is false but R is true.
SECTION-E
Q.16: Gallantry awards of Indian Armed Forces Honours and Awards can be divided into how
many categories? (R) 2 Mark
OR
What is the Age and educational Qualifications for NDA?
Q.17: Define conventional signs. (R) 2 marks
Q.18: Describe various types of bearings. (CB) 2 marks
Q.19: Evaluate the disadvantages of line communication? (CB) 2 marks

Q. 20: What are the field signals at night? (CR) 4 Mark

SECTION-F (Case Based)

Q.21 Read the passage and answer the questions given below. (CB) (4)

Manekshaw rose to become the 8th Chief of Army Staff of the Indian Army in 1969 and
under his command, Indian forces conducted victorious campaign against Pakistan in the
Indo- Pakistani War of 1971 that led to the liberation of Bangladesh in December 1971.
Later, he was awarded the Padma Bhushan and the Padma Vibhushan for his services to
the Indian nation.

Manekshaw was born on 3 April 1914 in Amritsar, Punjab to Parsi parents, Hormusji
Manekshaw, a doctor, and his wife Hilla, who moved to Punjab from the city of Valsad on
the coastal Gujarat. Sam's father served in the British Indian Army as a Captain in the
medical services and also participated in World War I.

Q.1: When was Manekshaw became Chief of Army Staff?
A) 1948 B) 1952 C) 1971 D) 1969

Q.2: Why was Manekshaw awarded Padam Bhushan?
A) For the benefit of country B) For the service of nation
C) For his benefit D) For other reason

Q.3: What was the rank of his father in British Indian Army?
A) Major B) Colonel C) Captain D) Major General

Q.4: Where was Manekshaw was born?
A) Valsad B) Amritsar C) Patna D) Pakistan

PART-II: SPECIAL SUBJECTS (NAVY) {Total Marks: 21}

15. Choose the correct answer. (CB) (5x1=5)
(i) Recall the name under which the Indian Navy functioned from 1863 until January 26, 1950.
a) Bombay Marine
b) Indian Marine
c) Royal Indian Marine
d) All of the above

(ii) Identify the technique used to temporarily connect two ropes together in a method of
joining ropes.
a) Bend
b) Hitch
c) Knots
d) Splice

(iii) Assertion: Prosigns used in Semaphore are single letters or combinations of letters
transmitted as a single character. Reason: Prosigns are used to convey specific meanings
efficiently during Semaphore communication.
a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation
of Assertion.
c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

(iv) Recognize the joint in carpentry that involves overlapping two pieces of wood partially
for joining them together.
a) Mortice and Tenon Joint
b) Lap Joint
c) Bridle Joint
d) Tongue and Groove Joint

(v) Determine which statement accurately explains the significance of a single arrow in
Arrow on Tracks.
a) A single arrow denotes course steered, water track, leeway vector.
b) A single arrow denotes ship’s ground track.
c) A single arrow denotes tidal stream, current, surface drift, and drift.
d) A single arrow denotes speed over the ground.

16. Describe the purpose of an anchor and its relationship with the cable in maritime practices.
(R) (2 marks)

17 Describe the significance of using semaphore as a visual medium of communication.
(R) (2 marks)
Or
Discuss the significance of the Error Sign in semaphore communication.

18. Assess the significance of the Global Positioning System (GPS) for sea-going vessels.
(CB) (2 marks)

19. Elucidate the primary function of an Aircraft Carrier in naval operations.
(CB) (2 marks)

20. Describe the criteria used for evaluating static models in a ship modeling competition and
explain their significance. (CR) (4 marks)

21- Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below. (CR) (4 marks)
One of the significant advantages in ship modeling is that virtually anything will float, and with
sufficient power, it can be propelled through the water. This aspect provides satisfaction to the
casual model maker. A model typically makes its first contact with the water sometime before the
final coat of paint dries and the last details are fitted. However, it is much more practical to test
the model during construction, as altering the position of components later becomes a major
operation. Usually, this testing occurs after applying the initial two or three coats of paint and,
ideally, before permanently attaching the deck and superstructure. To ensure the model floats
true, it's essential to mark the waterline at the stem and stern with pencil marks and place
components or equivalent weights in their correct positions. If additional ballast is needed after
completion to bring the model down to its marks or to correct its trim, the required amount and

position can be determined by stacking cut chunks, flakes, and shots of lead in place. Then, the
lead can be melted into a convenient block and placed or screwed to the hull bottom as low as
possible. For hull types like planked hulls or hard chine hulls, where bulkheads are used to create
watertight compartments and are glued with the keel, a similar process should be followed. After
stacking the flakes or shots in the correct position between the bulkheads, melting the lead and
making the blocks according to the available space, they should be placed or glued as close as
possible to the keel.
1. Why is it important to test the ship model during construction before permanent attachment
of the deck and superstructure, as mentioned in the paragraph?
2. What advantage does ship modeling offer according to the paragraph?
3. When is it recommended to test a ship model during its construction process, as stated in the
paragraph?

4- What is the significance of marking the waterline and checking the hull's floating alignment
during the ship modeling process, according to the paragraph?

PART-II: SPECIAL SUBJECTS (AIR WING) {Total Marks: 21}

SECTION-D
Q.15 Choose the correct option: 1 X 5 = 5 marks

i) What is the maximum speed of the SU-30 MKI?
a) 2200 km/hr
b) 2500 km/hr
c) 2800 km/hr
d) 2000 km/hr
ii) Which fighter aircraft is of French origin and serves as a single-seater air defence and
multi-role fighter?
a) Mirage-2000
b) MiG-29
c) MiG-21 BISON
d) SU-30 MKI
iii) What type of aircraft is the Jaguar?
a) Multi-role Fighter
b) Assault Helicopter
c) Deep Penetration Strike Aircraft
d) Transport Aircraft

iv) Assertion: Aviation is affected by atmospheric weather processes.
Reason: Atmospheric weather phenomena like wind, turbulence, and cloud formation
directly impact aviation operations, influencing flight safety and efficiency.
a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
v) Water vapour, dust, suspended particles, and other impurities affect the smoke
transparency of the______________ .
a) troposphere
b) atmosphere
c) mesosphere
d) thermosphere

SECTION-E

Q.16. Define air navigation. 2 marks

Q.17. What are some key characteristics used to identify fighter aircraft? 2 marks

Q.18. Define aeromodelling. 2 marks

OR

What are the critical aspects of aeromodelling? 2 marks

Q.19. Who were “mukti fauj” and “mukti bahini”? 2 marks

OR

Explain in brief ‘Indo-Pak war – 1971’.

Q. 20. Identify and briefly explain the major aviation weather hazards. 4 marks

Q. 21. Operation Safed Sagar, a critical component of the Kargil War, aimed to evict Pakistani
intruders from the heights they had occupied in the Kargil region. The Indian Air Force's role was
paramount in this operation. Pilots faced formidable challenges navigating through narrow
valleys and steep mountain ranges while contending with adverse weather conditions, including
dense fog, high winds, and low visibility, severely restricting flying capabilities. Moreover, the
mountainous terrain posed significant risks of downdrafts and turbulence, requiring pilots to
demonstrate exceptional skill and precision in manoeuvring their aircraft. Despite these daunting
conditions, the Indian Air Force executed precise airstrikes, targeting enemy bunkers, artillery

positions, and supply routes with remarkable accuracy. The success of Operation Safed Sagar was
instrumental in regaining control of key strategic locations, ensuring the safety of Indian territory,
and ultimately leading to victory in the Kargil War. 4 marks

i) During which war was Operation Safed Sagar conducted?
a) Indo-Pak War of 1965
b) Kargil War of 1999
c) Indo-Pak War of 1971
d) Siachen Conflict of 1984
ii) What was the primary objective of Operation Safed Sagar?
a) Counterinsurgency operations in urban areas
b) Providing humanitarian aid to remote villages
c) Securing the Kargil region from enemy infiltration
d) Conducting reconnaissance missions in border areas
iii) What were some of the challenges faced by pilots during Operation Safed Sagar?
a) Dense fog and high winds
b) Urban warfare
c) Desert terrain
d) Coastal navigation
iv) How did Operation Safed Sagar contribute to the overall objective of the Kargil War?
a) By conducting peacekeeping operations in disputed territories
b) By providing medical assistance to civilians in conflict zones
c) By neutralizing enemy positions and securing strategic locations
d) By facilitating cultural exchanges between India and Pakistan

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