CUSAT CAT 2023 Question Paper Geology

GEOLOGY
(FINAL)

1. The core of the earth is composed essentially of
(A) Mg and Si
(B) Ni and Fe
(C) Na and K
(D) Si and Al

2. The mechanism of plate movement is thought to be driven by
(A) Isostasy
(B) Earth rotation
(C) Thermal convection cells
(D) Polar wandering

3. Most abundant element in the earth’s crust is

(A) Oxygen
(B) Silicon
(C) Iron
(D) Aluminium

4. The term isostasy refers to

(A) Gravitational equilibrium
(B) Thermal equilibrium
(C) Magnetic equilibrium
(D) Electric equilibrium

5. Wadati-Benioff zone indicates

(A) Deep earthquakes
(B) Shallow earthquakes
(C) Intermediate earthquakes
(D) Both shallow and intermediate earthquakes

6. The most voluminous portion of the earth is

(A) Crust
(B) Mantle
(C) Core
(D) Lithosphere

7. Which method is used to date relatively recent geological events?

(A) K-Ar method
(B) U-Pb method
(C) Carbon-14 method
(D) The-Pb method

8. The terrestrial planet is

(A) high dense rocky body
(B) low dense gaseous body
(C) water body
(D) None of the above

9. Sial and sima are separated by

(A) Conrad discontinuity
(B) Mohorovic discontinuity
(C) Lehman discontinuity
(D) Gutenberg discontinuity

10. Which are the two major constituents of atmosphere?

(A) Oxygen and Carbon
(B) Nitrogen and Carbon
(C) Oxygen and Nitrogen
(D) Argon and Oxygen

11. Aeolin topography is created by

(A) rivers
(B) glaciers
(C) wind
(D) oceans

12. Hamada is formed by

(A) deflation
(B) abrasion
(C) corrosion
(D) attrition

13. Varve deposits are formed by

(A) glacial
(B) river
(C) wind
(D) None of the above

14. Ring of fire is observed around

(A) Indian ocean
(B) Pacific ocean
(C) Atlantic ocean
(D) Red sea

15. Which of the following rivers does NOT form delta?

(A) Krishna
(B) Narmada
(C) Godavari
(D) Mississippi

16. Stalagmites are formed in

(A) Shales
(B) Limestones
(C) Sand stones
(D) Granites

17. Lonar lake is formed by

(A) Volcanic crator
(B) Meteoritic impact
(C) Karst lake
(D) By glacial action

+18. The difference between polar and equatorial radii of the Earth is

(A) 41 km
(B) 31 km
(C) 21 km
(D) 11 km

19. Which drainage pattern signifies an area lacking structural control?

(A) Trellis
(B) Dendritic
(C) Rectangular
(D) Radial

20. Uvala is

(A) convergence of sink holes
(B) horizontal passages
(C) vertical passages
(D) deposit at cave floor

21. Dhands are small lakes of

(A) River origin
(B) Glacial origin
(C) Aeolin origin
(D) None of the above

22. The term ‘firm’ indicates

(A) Compact ice
(B) Massive ice mass
(C) Granular ice mass
(D) Melted ice

23. Choose the example of tectonic lake

(A) Caspian sea
(B) Dead sea
(C) Baikal lake
(D) All of the above

24. ‘Bars’ are

(A) connecting morines
(B) connecting hills
(C) connecting spits
(D) connecting mountains

25. Travertine or tufa is calcareous deposits formed by

(A) Hot springs
(B) Geysers
(C) Fumaroles
(D) None of the above

26. ‘Butterfly twinning’ is present in

(A) Rutile
(B) Gypsum
(C) Pyrite
(D) Diamond

27. Leucoxene is an alteration product of

(A) Tourmaline
(B) Talc
(C) Sphene
(D) Gypsum

28. In Mohs scale of hardness, how many minerals are silicates?

(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 3

29. Tsunamis are

(A) gravity waves
(B) gravitational waves
(C) magnetic waves
(D) seismic waves

30. Hardness of ‘corundum’ on the Mohs scale is

(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9

31. ‘Schillerization’ is shown by

(A) Plagioclase
(B) Diamond
(C) Hypersthene
(D) Quartz

32. In double-chain structure the ratio of silicon to oxygen is

(A) 1:2
(B) 4:11
(C) 2:7
(D) 4:10

33. Chemical formula of ‘Sylvite’

(A) NaCl
(B) HCl
(C) KCl
(D) HNO3

34. Molybdenite is a/an …………. of molybdenum

(A) Oxide
(B) Sulphide
(C) Carbonate
(D) Chloride

35. Chlorite belongs to

(A) Soro silicates
(B) Phyllo silicates
(C) Ino silicates
(D) Neso silicates

36. Ruby is a red colour variety of

(A) Corundum
(B) Beryl
(C) Calcite
(D) Quartz

37. Peridot is gem variety of

(A) Galena
(B) Olivine
(C) Quartz
(D) Diamond

38. Fayalite crystallizes in which crystal system?

(A) Monoclinic
(B) Triclinic
(C) Orthorhombic
(D) Cubic

39. Mn-Al garnet is

(A) Pyrope
(B) Almandine
(C) Spessartite
(D) Uvarovite

40. Which is the gem variety of spodumene?

(A) Diallage
(B) Omphacite
(C) Kunzite
(D) Hiddenite

41. Garnet is

(A) Isotropic
(B) Anisotropic
(C) Both isotropic and anisotropic
(D) None of the above

42. The refractive index of Canada balsam is

(A) 1.34
(B) 1.44
(C) 1.54
(D) 1.64

43. Optical sign can be determined by

(A) Quartz plate
(B) Mica plate
(C) Gypsum plate
(D) All of the above

44. Rutile is a source of

(A) Titanium dioxide
(B) Tungsten
(C) Manganese
(D) Iron

45. ‘Mineral wool’ is a substitute for

(A) Talc
(B) Gypsum
(C) Asbestos
(D) Galena

46. Iron-cross twin is observed in

(A) Pyrite
(B) Gypsum
(C) Feldspar
(D) Staurolite

47. How many cleavage sets are present in Quartz?

(A) 2 sets
(B) 1 set
(C) 3 sets
(D) No cleavage

48. How many faces a rhombohedron has?

(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 8

49. Emerald is a variety of

(A) Olivine
(B) Beryl
(C) Quartz
(D) Topaz

50. Which of the following minerals cannot be used as an abrasive?

(A) Garnet
(B) Corundum
(C) Quartz
(D) Gypsum

51. Bowen’s reaction series indicate the ………….. process of magma

(A) fractional crystallization
(B) gravity separation
(C) liquid immiscibility
(D) filter pressing

52. Which rock contains relatively high percentage of silica?

(A) Basalt
(B) Andesite
(C) Trachyte
(D) Rhyolite

53. Which one is not a discordant igneous body?

(A) Dyke
(B) Batholith
(C) Sill
(D) Pluton

54. Rift and grain structure is observed in

(A) Basalt
(B) Dolerite
(C) Granite
(D) Andesite

55. Dolerite shows …………….. texture

(A) Seriate
(B) Allotriomorphic
(C) Pandidiomorphic
(D) Ophitic

56. Dacite is volcanic equivalent of

(A) Granite
(B) Diorite
(C) Syenite
(D) Granodiorite

57. Rocks having particles of gravel size are

(A) Arenaceous
(B) Rudaceous
(C) Argillaceous
(D) Calcareous

58. Mantle xenoliths are observed in

(A) Kimberlite
(B) Granulite
(C) Granite
(D) Pegmatite

59. Choose correct pair of plutonic rock and its volcanic equivalent

(A) Gabbro-Trachyte
(B) Granite-Rhyolite
(C) Syenite-Andesite
(D) Grandiorite-Basalt

60. Ripple marks are best observed in

(A) Limestone
(B) Shales
(C) Conglomerate
(D) Sandstones

61. Chemical composition of chalcopyrite is

(A) CuS
(B) Cu2S
(C) CuFeS2
(D) CuCO3

62. Rain prints are observed in

(A) Igneous rocks
(B) Sedimentary rocks
(C) Metamorphic rocks
(D) All of the above

63. Sandstone consisting of 60% quartz and 30% feldspars are called

(A) Grit
(B) Conglomerate
(C) Greywacke
(D) Arkose

64. Chemical composition of Witherite is

(A) CaCO3
(B) BaCO3
(C) MgCO3
(D) PbCO3

65. Satinspar is a variety of

(A) Gypsum
(B) Calcite
(C) Talc
(D) Orthoclase

66. Greywacke is a product of

(A) reducing environment
(B) oxidising environment
(C) neutral environment
(D) None of the above

67. Shingle is characteristic of …………….. environment

(A) Terrestrial
(B) Abyssal
(C) Neurotic
(D) Littoral

68. What is the most abundant chemically or biochemically precipitated rock?

(A) Limestone
(B) Rock salt
(C) Gypsum
(D) Chert

69. Eclogites are composed of

(A) Hypersthene and almandine
(B) Omphacite and pyrope
(C) Hypersthene and pyrope
(D) Omphacite and almandine

70. Retrograde metamorphism is also known as

(A) Diaphthoresis
(B) Addictive metamorphism
(C) Injective metamorphism
(D) None of the above

71. What is the main difference between limestone and dolomite?

(A) Alumina content
(B) Lime content
(C) Magnesia content
(D) Soda content

72. Carbonate rocks after metamorphism give rise to

(A) Malonate
(B) Marble
(C) Signature
(D) Mark

73. A rock composed of ore mineral and silicates formed by contact metamorphism of
Carbonate rocks is called

(A) Gondite
(B) Skarn
(C) Tactics
(D) Charnockite

74. Psammitic rocks are

(A) Gravel rocks
(B) Aranaceous rocks
(C) Argillaceous rocks
(D) Rudaceous rocks

75. “Aureole” is observed in

(A) Dynamic metamorphism
(B) Plutonic metamorphism
(C) Regional metamorphism
(D) Contact metamorphism

76. The deformation caused by stress is called

(A) Tension
(B) Strain
(C) Compression
(D) Torsion

77. Authigenesis is found in

(A) Igneous rocks
(B) Sedimentary rocks
(C) Metamorphic rocks
(D) All of the above

78. Which fold has two hinges?

(A) Box fold
(B) Chevron fold
(C) Fan fold
(D) Drag fold

79. Columnar jointing generally develops in …………… rocks

(A) Granitic
(B) Syndetic
(C) Dioritic
(D) Basaltic

80. Transform fault is a

(A) strike-slip fault
(B) reverse fault
(C) normal fault
(D) thrust fault

81. In a recumbent fold, the axial plane is nearly

(A) vertical
(B) horizontal
(C) inclined > 40°
(D) inclined < 40°

82. Stress is proportional to strain, this is the statement for

(A) Young’s modulus
(B) Bulk modulus
(C) Body’s law
(D) Hooke’s law

83. Which of the following indicate faulting?

(A) Slicken slides
(B) Breccia
(C) Grooves
(D) All of the above

84. The Parallelism of some directional property in the rock is known as

(A) Foliation
(B) Lineation
(C) Cleavage
(D) Bedding

85. In which type of unconformity the older rocks are of plutonic origin?

(A) Angular unconformity
(B) Disconformity
(C) Non conformity
(D) Local unconformity

86. Plumose marking is associated with

(A) Faults
(B) Joints
(C) Folds
(D) Unconformities

87. The time involved in formation of local unconformity is

(A) Long
(B) Moderate
(C) Short
(D) Not depends on time

88. The age of Bagh beds is

(A) Cretaceous
(B) Triassic
(C) Jurassic
(D) Permian

89. Nallamalai Group is famous for

(A) Iron
(B) Manganese
(C) Mica
(D) Copper and Lead

90. The Dharwarian rocks have a regional strike as

(A) NNW-SSE
(B) NW-SE
(C) E-W
(D) NNE-SSW

91. The age of Muth Quartzite is

(A) Cambrian
(B) Silurian
(C) Ordovician
(D) Devonian

92. Talchir beds are of …………… origin

(A) Glacial
(B) Arid
(C) Marine
(D) Fluvial

93. The strike of Eastern Ghats is

(A) E-W
(B) NE-SW
(C) NW-SE
(D) N-S

94. Glossopteris flora was dominant in

(A) Permo-carboniferous period
(B) Devonian period
(C) Jurassic period
(D) Triassic period

95. The composition of Deccan traps is

(A) Granitic
(B) Andesite
(C) Dioritic
(D) Basaltic

96. Weathering of Deccan traps yield

(A) Black carton soil
(B) Laterite soil
(C) Red soil
(D) Alluvial soil

97. One of the youngest tectonic mountains in Indian subcontinent is

(A) Aravallis
(B) Western ghats
(C) Himalayas
(D) Eastern ghats

98. Devonian is the age of

(A) Reptiles
(B) Graptolites
(C) Mammals
(D) Fish

99. Pakhal group is equivalent to

(A) Vindyans
(B) Dharwas
(C) Cuddapahs
(D) Cambrian

100. The Karewars are found in

(A) Gujarat
(B) Kashmir
(C) Assam
(D) Kerala

101. Sinistral coiling is found in

(A) Pupilla
(B) Physa
(C) Natica
(D) Cypraea

102. The tapering of valve of a mollusc is known as

(A) Peduncle
(B) Umbo
(C) Cardinal
(D) Lunule

103. The gastropod shells are made up of

(A) one valve
(B) two equal valves
(C) two unequal valves
(D) All of the above

104. The remains of organisms are better preserved in

(A) on land
(B) in the marine sediments
(C) in the tectonic areas
(D) in river environments

105. The age of “spirifer” of phylum brachiopod is

(A) Ordovician
(B) Silurian to Permian
(C) Cambrian to Ordovician
(D) Permian only

106. Which of the following groups of fossils became extinct at the permo-triassic
boundary?

(A) Graptolites
(B) Ammonites
(C) Trilobites
(D) Dinosaurs

107. Which of the following is found below “CCD”?

(A) Foraminifera
(B) Radiolarian
(C) Ostracods
(D) Coccolithopore

108. The appearance of dinosaurs started in

(A) Jurassic
(B) Cretaceous
(C) Permian
(D) Triassic

109. The corona is the part of ……………shell

(A) Ammonoid
(B) Echinoids
(C) Trilobite
(D) Bivalve

110. Ichnofossil is a

(A) Trace fossil
(B) Living fossil
(C) Index fossil
(D) None of the above

111. What kind of imprints are mold and cast fossils?

(A) both are negative
(B) negative and positive
(C) both are positive
(D) None of the above

112. Which of the following is an upper Gondwana fossil?

(A) Ptilophyllum
(B) Glossopteris
(C) Gangamopteries
(D) Sigillaria

113. Hydrothermal deposits are mostly

(A) Syngeneic
(B) Residual
(C) Epigenetic
(D) Placer

114. Iron is commonly precipitated as

(A) Siderite
(B) Hematite
(C) Limonite
(D) All of the above

115. “Gossan” is a

(A) Ferruginous residue
(B) Siliceous residue
(C) Calcareous residue
(D) Organic residue

116. The path finder element of gold is

(A) As
(B) Mo
(C) Se
(D) SO4

117. Chalcopyrite is the ore mineral of

(A) Al
(B) Fe
(C) Cu
(D) At

118. Which rock is important source of diamond?

(A) Gabbro
(B) Eclogite
(C) Basalt
(D) Kimberlite

119. Which of the following is highest rank of coal?

(A) Peat
(B) Bituminous
(C) Lignite
(D) Anthracite

120. The metal content of ore is called

(A) Gangue
(B) Carat
(C) Tenor
(D) Pitch

121. Brown coal is another term for

(A) Peat
(B) Bituminous
(C) Lignite
(D) Anthracite

122. The major source of power generation in India is

(A) Petroleum
(B) Atomic
(C) Coal
(D) Wind

123. Which of the following is “heavy spar”?

(A) Baryte
(B) Apatite
(C) Calcite
(D) Orthoclase

124. Hydrothermal deposits formed under temperature 50° C – 200° C are known as

(A) Mesothermal
(B) Epithermal
(C) Hypothermal
(D) Telethermal

125. Chromite deposits occur in

(A) Basic rocks
(B) Acidic rocks
(C) Ultrabasic rocks
(D) Potash rocks

126. Petroleum and Natural gas are chiefly composed of

(A) Hydrogen
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Hydrogen and Carbon
(D) Carbon

127. Which type of ore deposit is Diamond?

(A) Early magmatic disseminated
(B) Early magmatic segregation
(C) Late magmatic disseminated
(D) Late magmatic segregation

128. “Digboi” oil field is located in

(A) Assam
(B) Bombay
(C) Gujarat
(D) K-G basin

129. Which one of the following is NOT a source rock of petroleum?

(A) Shale
(B) Limestone
(C) Silt
(D) Sandstone

130. Talchir coal fields are located in

(A) Bihar
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Odisha
(D) Maharashtra

131. “Manganite” is an ore mineral of

(A) Mg
(B) Fe
(C) Mn
(D) Cu

132. Which of the following places in Kerala is noted for the occurrence of chromiferous
lodestone?

(A) Punalur
(B) Chalingal
(C) Angadipuram
(D) Akkulam

133. Koderma mica-belt is situated in

(A) Bihar
(B) Odisha
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan

134. “Siderites” are

(A) Iron meteorites
(B) Stony meteorites
(C) Stony-Iron meteorites
(D) Copper meteorites

135. Magma is characterized by

(A) composition
(B) mobility
(C) temperature
(D) All of the above

136. Which is the most stable mineral in the weathering environment?

(A) Quartz
(B) Hornblende
(C) Feldspar
(D) Olivine

137. Sea water is

(A) slightly alkaline
(B) slightly acidic
(C) neutral
(D) None of the above

138. Ratio of volume of voids to the total volume is

(A) Permeability
(B) Porosity
(C) Specific yield
(D) Effective porosity

139. Secondary porosity is resulted

(A) during the formation of rocks
(B) after formation of rocks
(C) before formation of rocks
(D) both during and after formation of rocks

140. Clay is an example of

(A) Aquifer
(B) Aquiclude
(C) Aquitard
(D) Aquifuse

141. Isohyet is connecting equal

(A) temperature
(B) depth
(C) thickness
(D) rainfall

142. In which configuration the spacing between electrodes is kept equal?

(A) Wenner
(B) Schlumberger
(C) Both Wenner and Schlumberger
(D) None of the above

143. Space Application Centre (SAC) located in

(A) Hyderabad
(B) Bangalore
(C) Nagpur
(D) Ahmedabad

144. Principal ore of Mercury

(A) stibnite
(B) cinnabar
(C) orpiment
(D) realgar

145. Generally aerial photographs are taken

(A) horizontally
(B) vertically
(C) at an angle of 45°
(D) at an angle of 75°

146. The subsurface location where earthquake occur is known as

(A) Focus
(B) Mesocentre
(C) Epicentre
(D) Isocentre

147. P and S waves are

(A) body waves
(B) love waves
(C) surface waves
(D) None of the above

148. “ZnS” is composition of

(A) Sphalerite
(B) Anglesite
(C) Cerrusite
(D) Smithsonite

149. Lithospheric plate is composed of

(A) Crust
(B) Crust and upper Mantle
(C) Mantle
(D) All of the above

150. Which of the following is an ore mineral of Uranium?

(A) Sphalerite
(B) Pitchblende
(C) Wolframite
(D) Casitterite

FINAL ANSWER KEY
Subject Name: GEOLOGY
SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key
1 B 31 C 61 C 91 D 121 C
2 C 32 B 62 B 92 A 122 C
3 A 33 C 63 D 93 B 123 A
4 A 34 B 64 B 94 A 124 B
5 A 35 B 65 A 95 D 125 C
6 B 36 A 66 A 96 A 126 C
7 C 37 B 67 D 97 C 127 A
8 A 38 C 68 A 98 D 128 A
9 A 39 C 69 B 99 C 129 D
10 C 40 D 70 A 100 B 130 C
11 C 41 A 71 C 101 B 131 C
12 A 42 C 72 B 102 B 132 B
13 A 43 D 73 B 103 A 133 A
14 B 44 A 74 B 104 B 134 A
15 B 45 C 75 D 105 B 135 D
16 B 46 A 76 B 106 C 136 A
17 B 47 D 77 B 107 B 137 A
18 C 48 C 78 A 108 D 138 B
19 B 49 B 79 D 109 B 139 B
20 A 50 D 80 A 110 A 140 B
21 C 51 A 81 B 111 B 141 D
22 C 52 D 82 D 112 A 142 A
23 D 53 C 83 D 113 C 143 D
24 C 54 C 84 B 114 D 144 B
25 A 55 D 85 C 115 A 145 B
26 B 56 D 86 B 116 A 146 A
27 C 57 B 87 C 117 C 147 A
28 A 58 A 88 A 118 D 148 A
29 A 59 D 89 D 119 D 149 B
30 D 60 D 90 A 120 C 150 B