CUSAT CAT 2023 Question Paper IP IPR PhD

IPR PHD
(FINAL)

ENGLISH

1. Choose the correct SYNONYM for the following
PLETHORA
(A) Meager
(B) Excess
(C) Vast
(D) Generous

2. Fill in the blanks with correct words which give correct meaning

We have been learning English …………… the last five years

(A) since
(B) for
(C) from
(D) to

3. Fill in the blanks with correct words which give correct meaning

Children are the delight …………… the house

(A) in
(B) with
(C) of
(D) into

4. Fill in the blanks with correct words which give correct meaning

He was not listening …………… I was saying

(A) that
(B) which
(C) to what
(D) what

Direction (Question No. 5 to 9): Read carefully the passage given below and answer the
questions

Throughout the night we continued to feel our way southward along the left bank of the river,
and by four o’clock reached a village which was temporarily deserted; this was fortunate for
us as thanks to our incompetent guide, we plundered into it without any warning. It was only
five miles north of Myo, where a tributary stream entered the river from the east. We still
had four miles to cover before meeting the boatman who had promised to take us across to
the comparative safety of the right bank.

In the two hours before dawn, therefore, there was much to be accomplished and many
difficulties had to be surmounted. We had long since decided that our guide was more of a
liability than an asset; our rate of progress along an unknown track was unavoidably slow; the
good faith of the boatman was problematical; the river, normally two hundred yards wide at
the point of crossing, had been swollen by the recent rains. On the other hand, the men were
in good heart and excellent physical condition; the rain had stopped and the moon no longer
obscured by the black clouds, offered her friendly light when we most needed it; the enemy
did not patrol the left bank above the confluence at Myo. The odds, so overwhelmingly
against us when we started our march, were now in our favour.

5. Choose the right meaning of the word from the options given below

PLUNDER

(A) An act of merry making
(B) An act of rejecting a person
(C) An act of stealing
(D) None of the above

6. Choose the right meaning of the word from the options given below

SURMOUNTED

(A) To overcome a difficulty
(B) To climb up a mountain
(C) To climb down a mountain
(D) None of the above

7. Choose the right meaning of the word from the options given below

TRIBUTARY

(A) To pay contribution
(B) A river that flows to a larger river
(C) Three different direction
(D) None of the above

8. Choose the right meaning of the word from the options given below

OBSCURED

(A) To Secure good marks
(B) To prevent something from being seen
(C) To clear the way
(D) None of the above

9. Choose the right meaning of the word from the options given below

CONFLUENCE

(A) To influence a person illegally
(B) To make a person diffident
(C) The meeting place of two streams
(D) None of the above

10. Choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence

The study of the origin and history of words

(A) Taxonomy
(B) Etymology
(C) Anthology
(D) Linguistics

11. Choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence

Belonging to all parts of the world

(A) Versatile
(B) Cosmopolitan
(C) Universal
(D) Secular

12. Choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence

The first model of a new device

(A) Icon
(B) Photograph
(C) Prototype
(D) Sculpture

13. Which of the following words does NOT have a silent letter?

(A) Debut
(B) Debtor
(C) Extempore
(D) Honest

14. Which among the following is NOT a skill of communication?

(A) Reading
(B) Writing
(C) Listening
(D) Interrupting

15. Find the correct sequence of sentences

P: to derive their answers
Q: them to rely on nothing more than the text
R: from distraction and forces
S: this allows students to work free

(A) RQSP
(B) PQRS
(C) SRQP
(D) QPSR

16. One who abandons his religious faith?

(A) Agnostic
(B) Prostate
(C) Profane
(D) Apostate

17. ‘To have an axe to grind’ means

(A) to work for both sides
(B) to fail to arouse interest
(C) to have no result
(D) a private end to serve

18. Correct the following sentence underlined which conveys proper meaning

The workers are hell bent at getting what is due to them

(A) hell bent on getting
(B) hell bent for getting
(C) hell bent to getting
(D) No improvement

19. The substitute for the given sentence

‘A humorous drawing dealing with current events or politics’

(A) Illustration
(B) Sketch
(C) Cartoon
(D) Skit

20. Choose the appropriate word
His expression is …………..
(A) prudential
(B) providential
(C) tolerant
(D) perspicacious

21. Choose the appropriate word
Some sounds are produced by touching the tongue with the soft and hard…….
(A) Palette
(B) Pallet
(C) Palate
(D) Palete

22. Fill in the blanks

There is a ………… round the red fort of Delhi

(A) moat
(B) mote
(C) mode
(D) moon

23. Fill in the blanks

The army recovered its ………… and fighting power

(A) moral
(B) morale
(C) morality
(D) mutuality

24. Direction: Select the correct ONE WORD substitute for the following

Divert money fraudulently to one’s own use

(A) Ephemeral
(B) Dubious
(C) Digress
(D) Embezzle

25. Direction: Select the correct ONE WORD substitute for the following

The gradual recovery from illness

(A) Convalescence
(B) Cynosure
(C) Complacent
(D) Indulgence

26. Direction: Select the correct ONE WORD substitute for the following

A place for hiding food, treasure ore weapons

(A) Coffin
(B) Coffer
(C) Cache
(D) Clique

27. Direction: Select the correct ONE WORD substitute for the following

A person who readily believes in others

(A) Credulous
(B) Child
(C) Innocent
(D) Ignorant

28. Direction: Select the correct ONE WORD substitute for the following

Old expressions no more in use

(A) Anglophile
(B) Archaism
(C) Anglophobe
(D) Anorexia

29. Direction: Choose the correct SYNONYM for the following word.

CALUMNY

(A) Canny
(B) Defamation
(C) Artless
(D) Commendation

30. Direction: Choose the correct SYNONYM for the following word.

ACRIMONY

(A) Courtesy
(B) Servile
(C) Bitterness
(D) Adversary

31. Direction: Choose the correct SYNONYM for the following word.

BENIGN

(A) Course
(B) Favorable
(C) Clamorous
(D) Obdurate

32. Direction: Choose the correct SYNONYM for the following word

HAMSTRUNG

(A) Cripple
(B) Encourage
(C) Adore
(D) Uncontrite

33. Direction: Choose the correct ANTONYM for the following word

INSINUATE

(A) Camouflage
(B) Candour
(C) Allude
(D) Effeminate

34. Direction: Choose the correct ANTONYM for the following word

MITIGATE

(A) Augment
(B) Alleviate
(C) Relieve
(D) Trivial

35. Direction: Choose the correct meaning of the idiom

To face the music

(A) To be greeted rudely
(B) To be offered warm hospitality
(C) To be on the front seat in a concert
(D) To bear the consequences

36. Direction: Choose the correct meaning of the idiom

Rule of thumb

(A) Mark of thumb on legal paper
(B) A rough estimate
(C) An easy choice
(D) An unknown rule

37. Direction: Choose the correct meaning of the idiom

To egg on

(A) To advise
(B) To ask
(C) To urge
(D) To warm

38. Direction: Choose the appropriate voice form of the sentence given below

Indiscipline should not be encouraged by us

(A) We shall not encouraging indiscipline
(B) We have encouraged indiscipline
(C) We should not encourage indiscipline
(D) We must not encouraged indiscipline

39. Direction: Choose the appropriate voice form of the sentence given below

They held a meeting very early

(A) A meeting is held by them very early
(B) A meeting was hold by them very early
(C) A meeting will be held by them very early
(D) A meeting was held by them very early

40. Direction: Choose the appropriate voice form of the sentence given below

Will my mother have baked cake?

(A) Will the cake have backed by my mother?
(B) Will the cake has being baked by my mother?
(C) Will the cake be baked by my mother?
(D) Will the cake have been baked by my mother?

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

41. The Profounder of Shakti Vishistadvaita philosophy

(A) Ramanujacharya
(B) Shankaracharya
(C) Basaveshwara
(D) Madvacharya

42. Which Organization has released the report of incidence, mortality, morbidity and
socio-economic burden of snake bite in the country?

(A) ICMR
(B) AIIMS
(C) DCGI
(D) IMA

43. Which one of the following is NOT a correct match?

(A) Ellora Caves – Rastrakuta Rulers
(B) Mahabalipuram – Pallava Rulers
(C) Khajuraho – Chandellas
(D) Elephanta Caves – Mauyra Era

44. Gross Domestic Product means

(A) The total value of goods and services manufactured in the country
(B) The total value of all the transactions in the country
(C) The reduction in the total value of goods and services produced in the country
(D) The monetary value of all finished goods and services made within a country
during a specific period

45. What is the Theme of the G20 summit happening in India?

(A) Shaping an Interconnected World
(B) Fighting poverty with rigidity
(C) Making the world together
(D) One Earth-One Family-One Future

46. Human body fats are stored in

(A) Liver
(B) Epithelial tissue
(C) Adipose tissue
(D) Epidermis

47. India's first human space mission scheduled to launch in 2023 in named as

(A) Gaganyaan
(B) Vayumitra
(C) Chandrayaana-3
(D) Anthariksha paryatna

48. What is the name of the ceremony which makes the end to the Republic day
celebrations?

(A) Vijay Diwas Ceremony
(B) Martyrs’ Day Ceremony
(C) Guard of Honour Ceremony
(D) Beating Retreat Ceremony

49. What viticulture means?

(A) Cultivation of mulberry crops
(B) Cultivation of flowers
(C) Growing of grapes
(D) Fish farming

50. India signed agreement with UN World Food Program for distribution of wheat to
which country?

(A) Afghanistan
(B) Maldives
(C) Syria
(D) Sri Lanka

51. What is RH 560 that is seen in the news recently?

(A) Asteroid
(B) ISRO’s sounding Rocket
(C) Indian Naval Ship
(D) Earth Metal

52. Number times a unit of money changes hands in the course of a year is called

(A) Supply of money
(B) Purchasing power of money
(C) Exchange rate of money
(D) Velocity of money

53. A firm encounters its ‘SHUT DOWN POINT’ when

(A) Average total cost equals price at the profit maximisation level of output
(B) Average variable cost equals price at the profit maximisation level of output
(C) Average fixed cost equals price at the profit maximisation level of output
(D) Marginal cost equals price at the profit maximisation level of output

54. The first Indian to become the president of the UN General Assembly was

(A) V K Krishna Menon
(B) Sarojini Naidu
(C) Syed Akbaruddin
(D) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit

55. Which ancient Indian physician is known as the ‘Father of Surgery’?

(A) Charaka
(B) Sushruta
(C) Nagarjuna
(D) Vagbhatta

GENERAL APTITUDE IN INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY LAW

56. Which of the following cannot be protected under law of copyright?
(A) Prospectus of a book publishing house, Exxon Corporation
(B) Mathematical tables
(C) Sale catalogue of Exxon Corporation
(D) The name of the publishing house, Exxon Corporation

57. In which of the following cases the Delhi High Court observed “the court does sit as a
sentinel of public morals or super censor in exercise of its power under section 57 of
the Copyright Act, 1957”?

(A) Najma Heptullah v. Orient Longman Ltd. and others AIR 1989 Delhi 63
(B) Manu Bhandari v. Kala Vikas Pictures (P) Ltd. AIR 1987 Del 13
(C) Amarnath Sehgal v. Union of India (2005) 30 PTC 253 (Del)
(D) Raj Rewal v. Union of India and others (2018)

58. Sam has developed a new plant variety. If the variety has been proved to be seriously
harmful to the environment

(A) Sam can register such plant variety under section 14 of the Protection of Plant
Varieties and Farmers Rights Act, 2001
(B) Sam can register the plant variety under section 15 of the Protection of Plant
Varieties and Farmers Rights Act, 2001
(C) Sam cannot register such plant variety under section 28 of the Protection of
Plant Varieties and Farmers Rights Act, 2001
(D) Sam cannot register such plant variety under section 29 of the Protection of
Plant Varieties and Farmers Rights Act, 2001

59. Nitesh intends to use “Virat Kohli” as trademark of the product, cricket bat,
manufactured by his company. Nitesh files an application for registration of
trademark, “Virat Kohli”

(A) The Registrar of Trademarks may refuse to register the trademark as it is a
well-known mark under section 11
(B) The Registrar may refuse to register the mark as it has become customary in
current language under section 9
(C) The Registrar may refuse to allow registration as it is likely to hurt the
sentiment of the citizen of India under section 9
(D) The Registrar may require Nitesh to produce consent of Virat Kohli as the
name falsely suggests a connection with Virat Kohli under section 14 of the
Trademarks Act, 1999

60. As per section 2(1)(m) of the Trademarks Act, 1999, definition of ‘mark’ does not
include

(A) A device
(B) Single colour
(C) Heading
(D) Shape of goods

61. Bhavesh has filed a suit for infringement of patent against Pankhuri in the District
Court. In response Pankhuri files a counter-claim and claim for revocation of the
patent owned by Bhavesh

(A) The suit along with the counter-claim shall be tried by District Court
(B) The suit along with the counter-claim shall be tried by the Intellectual Property
Appellate Board
(C) The suit along with the counter-claim shall be tried by the Supreme Court
(D) The suit along with the counter-claim shall be tried by High Court

62. Which of the following cases are not related to trademarks dilution under section
29(4) of the Trademarks Act, 1999?

(A) Rolex SA v. Alex Jewellery Pvt. Ltd. (2009)
(B) ITC Ltd. Philips Morris Products SA (2010)
(C) Blue Hill Logistics Pvt. Ltd. v. Ashok Leyland Limited (2011)
(D) Hawkins Cookers Ltd. v. Murugan Enterprises (2008)

63. The popular song, “Dilwale Dulhaniya Le Jayenge” [the copyright of the sound
recording is owned by Yash Raj Films] is played through loudspeaker in a marriage
party hall and also during the marriage procession without any permission from Yash
Raj Films. Yash Raj Films sues the party organiser from copyright infringement

(A) The party organisers are liable for copyright infringement under section
51(a)(i) of the Copyright Act, 1957
(B) The party organisers are not liable for copyright infringement under section
52(1) (zc)
(C) The party organisers are not liable for copyright infringement under section
52(1) (za)
(D) The party organisers are not liable for copyright infringement under section
52(1) (zb)

64. In India, the defence of honest concurrent use can be applied in case of registration

(A) Geographical indication of goods
(B) Patent
(C) Trademarks
(D) Industrial designs
65. Layman-observer test is followed to determine infringement of

(A) Patent
(B) Trademark
(C) Industrial design
(D) Copyright

66. In Star India v. Piyush Agarwal 2014 (58) PTC 169, the Delhi High Court dealt with
the issue of

(A) Liability of Internet Service Providers for infringement of copyright
(B) Ancillary right to short messaging services along with the broadcasting right
(C) Economic right or reproduction of producers in case of cinematograph film
(D) Right of the author against distortion of author’s work as protection of moral
rights

67. In Najma Heptullah v. Orient Longman Ltd. AIR 1989 Del 63, the Delhi High Court
dealt with the issue of

(A) Work of joint authorship of copyright protected work
(B) Requirement of originality of copyright protected work
(C) Determination of ownership of protected works in case of contract of
employment and contract for employment
(D) The differences between assignment and licensing of copyright protected
works

68. Which of the following international instrument established an agreement for the
filing of international patent application for a series of counties?

(A) European Patent Convention
(B) Community Patent convention
(C) Patent Cooperation Treaty
(D) Agreement on Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights

69. Protection of the rights of performers and broadcasting rights is dealt with in

(A) Rome Convention (1961)
(B) Berne Convention (1886)
(C) Universal Copyright Convention (1952)
(D) Paris Convention (1883)

70. Justice Prabha Sridevan dealt with the issue of generic trademarks and its regulation
under the Trademarks Act, 1999 in

(A) Honda Motors Co. Ltd. v. Charanjit Singh and others (2002)
(B) Laxmikant V. Patel v. Chetanbhat Shah (2002)
(C) B. V. Ilango Himachalapathyv. Rank Xerox Ltd. (2012)
(D) Cadbury UK Ltd. v. Lotte India Corporation Ltd. (2014)

71. What is the first sound mark that got trademark registration in India?

(A) Nokia (Guitar notes on switching the device)
(B) ICICI (Corporate jingle)
(C) Britannia Industries (Four note bell sound)
(D) Yahoo (Human voice yodelling Yahoo)

72. Which is the first geographical indications, registered by Geographical Indications
Registry of India?

(A) Aranmulakannadi
(B) Pochampalli ikat
(C) Kotpad handloom fabric
(D) Darjeeling tea

73. Which of the following is patentable in law of patents?

(A) A naturally occurring DNA segment
(B) Identification of virus which caused Hepatitis B
(C) A testing kit, enabling doctors to identify person infected with Hepatitis B
(D) Crick and Watson’s identification of the DNA double helix

74. The notion of moral rights in copyright, namely, integrity right and attribution right
support

(A) Jeremy Bentham’s Utilitarian Theory
(B) Locke’s Labour Theory of Property
(C) Edmund Kitch’s Prospect Theory
(D) Hegelian Personhood Theory

75. Mr. Sahai is a dancer and has performed in a concert on 31.12.2022. Mr. Sahai’s
performer’s right shall subsist till

(A) 31.12.2052
(B) 31.12.2072
(C) 31.12.2092
(D) 31.12.2112

ANALYTICAL AND REASONING ABILITY

76. Fill the blank in the following series.

POQ, SRT, VUW, ............

(A) XYZ
(B) XZY
(C) YXZ
(D) YZY

77. The number of times in a day the hour hand and minute hand of a clock are at right
angle, is

(A) 44
(B) 48
(C) 24
(D) 12

78. In the series

AABABCABCDABCDE….
th
Which letter occupies the 100 position?

(A) H
(B) I
(C) J
(D) K

79. A family has two children along with their parents. The average of the weights of the
children and their mother is 50 kg. The average of the weights of their children and
their father is 52 kg. If the weight of the father is 60 kg, then what is the weight of the
mother?

(A) 48 kg
(B) 50 kg
(C) 52 kg
(D) 54 kg

80. Which one of the following satisfies the relationship?

Dda : aDD :: Rrb : ?

(A) bRR
(B) DDA
(C) RRR
(D) BBr

81. Two trains leave New Delhi at the same time. One travels north at 60 kmph and the
other travels south at 40 kmph. After how many hours will the trains be 150 km apart?

(A) 3 2
(B) 4 3
(C) 3 4
(D) 15 2

82. Number 136 is added to 5B7 and the sum obtained is 7A3, where A and B are
integers. It is given that 7A3 is exactly divisible by 3. The only possible value of B is
(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 8

Direction(83-86): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below
Eight persons E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L are seated around a square table - two on
each side. There are 3 ladies who are not seated next to each other.
• J is between L and F
• G is between I and F
• H, a lady member is second to the left of J
• F, a male member is seated opposite to E, a lady member
• There is a lady member between F and I

83. Who among the following is to the immediate left of F?

(A) G
(B) I
(C) J
(D) H

84. What is true about J and K?

(A) J is male, K is female
(B) J is female, K is male
(C) Both are female
(D) Both are male

85. Who among the following are three lady members?

(A) E, H and J
(B) E, F and G
(C) G, H and E
(D) C, H and J

86. Who among the following is seated between E and H?

(A) F
(B) I
(C) K
(D) Cannot be determined

87. In a tournament 14 teams play league/matches. If each team plays against every other
team only once then how many matches are played?

(A) 79
(B) 105
(C) 91
(D) 85

88. How many different triangles are there in the figure shown below?

(A) 28
(B) 24
(C) 20
(D) 16

rd
89. If the 3 day of a month is Monday, which one of the following will be the fifth day
st
from 21 of this month?

(A) Monday
(B) Tuesday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Friday

Direction: (Q. 90-94): Examine the information given in the following paragraph and answer
the items there follows

Guest lectures on five subjects viz., Economics, History, Statistics, English and Mathematics
have to be arranged in a week from Monday to Friday. Only one lecture can be arranged on
each day. Economics cannot be scheduled on Tuesday. Guest faculty for History is available
only on Tuesday. Mathematics lecture has to be scheduled immediately after the day of
Economics lecture. English lecture has to be scheduled immediately before the day of
Economics lecture.

90. Which lecture is scheduled on Monday?

(A) History
(B) Economics
(C) Mathematics
(D) Statistics

91. Which lecture is scheduled between Statistics and English?

(A) Economics
(B) Mathematics
(C) History
(D) No lecture

92. Which lecture is the last one in the week?

(A) History
(B) English
(C) Mathematics
(D) Economics

93. Which lecture is scheduled on Wednesday?

(A) Statistics
(B) Economics
(C) English
(D) History

94. Which lecture is scheduled before the Mathematics lecture?

(A) Economics
(B) History
(C) Statistics
(D) English

95. A club has 108 members. Two-third of them is men and the rest are women. All
members are married except for 9 women members. How many married women are
there in the club?

(A) 20
(B) 24
(C) 27
(D) 30

96. Direction: In the following question, three statements are followed by four
conclusions I, II, III and IV. You have to assume everything in the statements to be
true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically
follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statements.

Statements: I. All Pens are Tables.
II. Some tables are rulers.
III. Some rulers are chalk.

Conclusion: I. Some tables are chalk.
II. Some pens are chalk.
III. Some rulers are pens.
IV. Some chalk are rulers.

(A) Only IV follows
(B) Only II and I follow

(C) Only III follows
(D) Only I, II and III follows

97. Statement: Most labourers are poor

Conclusions: (i) Some labourers are poor
(ii) All labourers are not poor

Which of the following is implied?

(A) Only (i) is implied
(B) Only (ii) is implied
(C) Both (i) and (ii) are implied
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is implied

98. Find the odd number from the given alternative

(A) 5720
(B) 6710
(C) 4270
(D) 2640

99. Direction: In question below a statement is given, followed by three assumptions
numbered I, II, and III. You have to consider the statement and the following
assumptions, decide which of the assumptions is implicit is the statement and choose
your answer accordingly

Statement: The central government has directed the state government to reduce
government expenditure in view of the serious resource crunch and
it may not be able to sanction any additional grant to the states for
the next 12 months
Assumptions: (I) The State Governments is totally dependent on central
Government for its expenditure
(II) The Central Government has reviewed the expenditure account
of the state government
(III) The State Government will abide by the directive

(A) None is implicit
(B) Only (II) and (III) are implicit
(C) Only (III) is implicit
(D) All are implicit

100. Direction: In the question given below, a statement followed by three assumptions
numbered I, II, and III. You have to consider the statement and the following
assumptions, decide which of the assumptions is implicit is the statement and choose
your answer accordingly

Statement: To improve the employment situation in India, there is a need to
recast the present educational system towards implementation of
scientific discoveries in daily life
Assumptions: (I) The students after completing such education may be able to earn
their livelihood
(II) This may bring meaning of education in the minds of the youth
(III) The state may earn more revenue as more and more people will
engage themselves in self-employment

(A) Only (I) and (II) are implicit
(B) Only (I) and (III) are implicit
(C) None is implicit
(D) Only (III) is implicit

101. Direction: In the question given below, a statement followed by two Courses of
action numbered I, II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and
on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested
course of action logically follow(s) for pursuing

Statement: Severe drought is reported to have set in several parts of the
country
Course of action:
(I) Government should immediately make arrangement for
providing financial assistance to those affected
(II) Food, water and fodder should immediately be sent to all these
areas to save the people and cattle

(A) Only (I) follow
(B) Only (II) follow
(C) Both (I) and (II) follows
(D) Neither (I) nor (II) follows

102. Direction: In the question given below, a statement followed by three Courses of
action numbered I, II and III. You have to assume everything in the statement to be
true, and then decide which of the three suggested course of action logically follow(s)
for pursuing

Statement: A large number of students who have passed their XII
Standard terminal examination in the country could not get
admission to colleges as the numbers of seats available are
grossly inadequate
Course of action:
(I) The evaluation system of XII standard terminal examination
should be made tougher so that fewer students pass the
examination

(II) The Government should encourage the private sector to open
new colleges by providing them land at cheaper price
(III) The rich people should be asked to send their wards to foreign
countries for higher studies enabling the needy students to get
admission in colleges within the country

(A) Only (I) follow
(B) Only (II) follow
(C) Only (I) and (II) follows
(D) Only (II) and (III) follows

103. Direction: In the question given below, a statement followed by three Courses of
action numbered I, II and III. You have to assume everything in the statement to be
true, and then decide which of the three suggested course of action logically follow(s)
for pursuing

Statement: Any further increase in the petition level in the city by way of
industrial effluents and automobile exhaustions would pass a
severe threat to the inhabitants
Course of action:
(I) All the factories in the city should immediately be closed
down
(II) The automobiles should not be allowed to ply on the road for
more than fours a day
(III) The Government should restrict the issue of fresh licenses to
factories and automobiles

(A) All follows
(B) Only (II) follow
(C) Only (III) follow
(D) None follows

Direction (104-108): In the question below is given a passage followed by several
inferences. You have to examine such inference separately in the context of the passage and
decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.

The domestic market for electronic hardware in the country is likely to grow from
Rs.1800 crore to about Rs. 6500 crore per annum in the next few years. The
Government is likely to further restrict foreign exchange needed for imports. So far,
India has been importing about 80% of the components required for manufacturing
electronic gadgets. The country produced only “Passive Components” like resistors,
capacitors and conductors. Even integrated Circuits (ICs) are being produced in a
small way at high cost. Semi-conductors have remained India’s weak spot.

104. Government is considering further restricting foreign exchange needed for imports

(A) If the inference is ‘definitely true’ it directly follows from the facts given in the
passage
(B) If the inference is ‘probably true’ though not definitely true in the light of the
facts given
(C) If the inference is ‘probably false’ though not definitely false in the light of the
facts given
(D) If you think the inference is ‘definitely false’ it contradicts the given facts

105. In India many manufacturers are reluctant to produce semi-conductors

(A) If the inference is ‘definitely true’ it directly follows from the facts given in the
passage
(B) If the inference is ‘probably true’ though not definitely true in the light of the
facts given
(C) If the inference is ‘probably false’ though not definitely false in the light of the
facts given
(D) If you think the inference is ‘definitely false’ it contradicts the given facts

106. India does not have expertise in producing passive components like resistors,
capacitors etc

(A) If the inference is ‘definitely true’ it directly follows from the facts given in the
passage
(B) If the inference is ‘probably true’ though not definitely true in the light of the
facts given
(C) If the inference is ‘probably false’ though not definitely false in the light of the
facts given
(D) If you think the inference is ‘definitely false’ it contradicts the given facts

107. An increase of about 250% in India’s domestic electronic market is predicted during
the next few years

(A) If the inference is ‘definitely true’ it directly follows from the facts given in the
passage
(B) If the inference is ‘probably true’ though not definitely true in the light of the
facts given
(C) If the inference is ‘probably false’ though not definitely false in the light of the
facts given
(D) If you think the inference is ‘definitely false’ it contradicts the given facts

108. All the integrated circuits required for India are imported from USA

(A) If the inference is ‘definitely true’ it directly follows from the facts given in the
passage
(B) If the inference is ‘probably true’ though not definitely true in the light of the
facts given
(C) If the inference is ‘probably false’ though not definitely false in the light of the
facts given
(D) If you think the inference is ‘definitely false’ it contradicts the given facts

109. Direction: The following question contains a small paragraph followed by a question
on it. Read each paragraph carefully and answer the question given below it

Due to enormous profits involved in smuggling, hundreds of persons have been
attracted towards this anti-national activity. Some of them became millionaires
overnight. India has a vast coastline both on the Eastern and Western Coast. It has
been a heaven for smugglers who have been carrying on their activities with great
impunity. There is no doubt that from time to time certain seizures were made by the
enforcement authorities, during raids and ambush but even allowing these losses the
smugglers made huge profits

The passage best supports the statement that

(A) Smuggling hampers the economic development of a nation
(B) Smuggling ought to be curbed
(C) Authorities are taking strict measures to curb smuggling
(D) Smuggling is fast increasing in our country owing to the quick profit it entails

110. Direction: The following question contains a small paragraph followed by a question
on it. Read each paragraph carefully and answer the question given below it

There is a shift in our economy from a manufacturing to a service orientation. The
increase in service-sector will require the managers to work more with people rather
than with objects and things from the assembly line.

The passage best supports the statement that

(A) Managers should have a balanced mind
(B) Assembly line will exist in service organizations
(C) Interpersonal skills will become more important in the future workplace
(D) Manufacturing organizations ignore importance of people

111. Direction: In the following question, two statements numbered I and II are given.
There may be cause and effect relationship between the two statements. These two
statements may be the effect of the same cause or independent causes. These
statements may be independent causes without having any relationship. Read both the
statements and mark your answer.

I There is sharp decline in the production of oil seeds this year
II The government has decided to increase the import quantum of edible oil

(A) Statement I is cause and II is its effect
(B) Statement II is cause and I is its effect
(C) Both I and II are Independent causes
(D) Both statements are effects of independent causes

112. Direction: In the following question, two statements numbered I and II are given.
There may be cause and effect relationship between the two statements. These two
statements may be the effect of the same cause or independent causes. These
statements may be independent causes without having any relationship. Read both the
statements and mark your answer

I The life today is too fast, demanding and full of variety in all aspects which
at times leads to stressful situations
II Number of suicide cases among teenagers is on increase

(A) Statement I is cause and II is its effect
(B) Statement II is cause and I is its effect
(C) Both I and II are Independent causes
(D) Both statements are effects of independent causes

113. Direction: In the following question given below consists of six statements followed
by options consisting of three statements put together in a specific order. Choose the
option which indicates a valid argument containing logically related statements that is,
where the third statement is a conclusion drawn from the preceding two statements

a Lizards are birds
b Some birds are ants
c Lizards are ants
d Some lizards are ants
e Some lizards are not ants
f No lizard is ant

(A) ace
(B) adb
(C) bac
(D) bfd

114. Vickram and Madhu start from a fixed point. Vickram moves 4 km to the South, then
turns left and moves 3 km. Madhu moves 3 km towards West, then turns right and
moves 4 km further. How far apart are they now?

(A) 7 Km
(B) 13 Km
(C) 10 Km
(D) 14 Km

115. A, P, R, X, S and Z are sitting in a row. S and Z are in the centre, and A and P are at
the ends. R is sitting on the left of A. Then who is on the right of P?

(A) A

(B) X
(C) S
(D) Z

APTITUDE TO DO RESEARCH
116. A researcher does not fix the ultimate size of the sample in advance but determines
according to mathematical decisions on the basis of information yielded as data
collection progresses. This is technically called
(A) Systematic sampling
(B) Random sampling
(C) Sequential sampling
(D) Quota sampling

117. The Validity of a research can be ensured by

(1) Avoiding the extraneous variables
(2) Taking the true representation sample of the population
(3) Stratified sample
(4) Only field study

(A) (1) and (3) correct
(B) (1) and (4) correct
(C) (1), (2) and (3) correct
(D) (1) and (2) correct

118. In which of the following methods, a deep, detailed and intensive study of a social
unit is required?

(A) Descriptive research
(B) Experimental research
(C) Case Study research
(D) Ex-post facto research

119. The conceptual frame work of the research to be carried is also known as

(A) Synopsis of research
(B) Research hypotheses
(C) Research design
(D) Research paradigm

120. Legal commentaries, encyclopedia, opinions of legal experts and reputed legal
dictionaries are
(A) Primary sources of law
(B) Secondary sources of law

(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

121. The main aim of the scientific method in the research field is to

(A) improve data interpretation
(B) confirm triangulation
(C) eliminate spurious relations
(D) introduce new variables

122. Action-research can be understood as

(A) A longitudinal research
(B) An applied research
(C) A kind of research being carried out to solve a specific problem
(D) All of the above

123. A successful teacher is one who is

(A) Quite and reactive
(B) Passive and active
(C) Compassionate and disciplinarian
(D) Tolerant and dominating

124. Random sampling is helpful as it is

(A) An economical method of data collection
(B) Free from personal biases
(C) Reasonably accurate
(D) All the above

125. A hypothesis that proposes no relationship between two variables is called

(A) Casual hypothesis
(B) Directional hypothesis
(C) Null hypothesis
(D) Correlative hypothesis

126. The essential qualities of a researcher is/are

(A) spirit of free enquiry
(B) reliance on observation and evidence
(C) systematization or theorizing of knowledge
(D) All of the above

127. The variable which impacts the relationship between an independent variable and a
Dependent variable is known as

(A) Antecedent variable
(B) Precedent variable
(C) Predictor variable
(D) Control variable

128. …………… is a preferred sampling method for the population with finite size.

(A) Area sampling
(B) Cluster sampling
(C) Purposive sampling
(D) Systematic sampling

129. Basic research is also known as

(A) Evaluative research
(B) Descriptive research
(C) Fundamental research
(D) Analytical research

130. When verbal and non-verbal messages are contradictory, it is said that most people
believe in
(A) Indeterminate messages
(B) Verbal messages
(C) Non-verbal messages
(D) Aggressive messages

131. The research which is exploring new facts through the study of the past events is
known as

(A) Mythological research
(B) Philosophical research
(C) Historical research
(D) Prognostic research

132. A researcher is interested in studying the prospects of a political party in an urban
area. What is the appropriate tool he prefers for the study?

(A) Interview method
(B) Rating scale
(C) Questionnaire method
(D) Schedule

133. The type of research which focuses on describing the culture of a group people is
called

(A) Survey
(B) Case study
(C) Ethnography
(D) Phenomenology

134. Which of the sets of activities best indicate the cyclic nature of action research
strategy?

(A) Plan, Act, Observe, Reflect
(B) Observe, Act, Reflect, Plan
(C) Act, Plan, Observe, Reflect
(D) Reflect, Observe, Plan, Act

135. Direction: Given below is a principle and facts choose the answer from the options
given based on principles and facts.

PRINCIPLE: The right of private defence entitles one to do harm to a proportional
extent provided it is done in good faith, it is proportional and is inflicted only to the
extent is necessary to stop a person from committing harm against oneself.

FACTS: A doctor with the intention of saving a terminal patient’s life decides to
administer an experimental drug to the patient without informing the patient or taking
consent from the patient’s relatives leading to the patient’s death.

(A) The act shall not constitute an offence as there was no criminal intention
(B) The act shall not constitute an offence as there was no knowledge
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

136. Direction: Given below is a principle and facts choose the answer from the options
given based on principles and facts.

PRINCIPLE: No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence
twice.

FACTS: ‘A’, a kleptomaniac, was an acquaintance of ‘B’ and used to visit ‘B’s home
on weekends. One day, ‘B’ was unable to find his watch after a visit from ‘A’.
Ultimately, ‘B’ informed the police about the missing watch and the persons who had
been to his room. The police, among others, made a search on person of ‘A’ and
found the watch in his pocket. At his trial, the Court found him guilty of theft and
sentenced him to 3 months in prison. After completing his sentence, ‘A’ went to ‘B’s’
home to apologise for his conduct. After ‘A’ left, it was discovered that ‘B’s’ watch
was missing. ‘B’ informed the police who located the watch from ‘A’s home. Can ‘A’
be prosecuted for theft?

(A) No, he has already been prosecuted and punished for theft and cannot be
punished for the same again
(B) No, he is a kleptomaniac with a psychological disorder of stealing and
therefore cannot be found guilty
(C) Yes, he can be prosecuted because he has committed two separate acts of theft
(D) Yes, he can be prosecuted because the recovery of the stolen goods in each
case has been made from separate places

137. The main concept behind doing research is to

(A) Study and explore knowledge
(B) Start with predefined and clear-cut objectives
(C) Get new ideas
(D) Define clear objectives

138. What is a research design?

(A) A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory
(B) The choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods
(C) The style in which you present your research findings, e.g. a graph
(D) A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data

139. Probability sampling is rarely used in qualitative research because

(A) Qualitative researchers are not trained in statistics
(B) It is very old-fashioned
(C) It is often not feasible
(D) Research questions are more important than sampling

140. Which of the following is not a data-collection method?

(A) Research questions
(B) Unstructured interviewing
(C) Postal survey questionnaires
(D) Participant observation

141. A systematic step-by-step procedure following logical process of reasoning is called

(A) Experiment
(B) Observation
(C) Deduction
(D) Scientific method

142. “A system of systematically interrelated concepts definitions and propositions that are
advanced to explain and predict phenomena” is

(A) Facts
(B) Values
(C) Theory
(D) Generalization

143. Which of the following is not a criterion for the statement of a good research
problem?

(A) Clarity and unambiguousness
(B) Possibility of empirical testing
(C) Possibility of use of statistical analysis
(D) Expression of relationship between/among variables

144. A study in which direct perception of an incident or object made is

(A) Naturalistic research
(B) Practitioner research
(C) Phenomenological research
(D) Descriptive research

145. The major objective of a qualitative research study is to

(A) Understand a process or concept
(B) Study group-differences
(C) Predict relationships
(D) Explain variation in measurements

146. The size of sample for a study mostly depends on

(A) Gravity of the population
(B) Geographical area of the study
(C) Homogeneity and heterogeneity of the population
(D) Type of population

147. What is the purpose of the conclusion in a research report?

(A) It explains how concepts were operationally defined and measured
(B) It contains a useful review of the relevant literature
(C) It outlines the methodological procedures that were employed
(D) It summarizes the key findings in relation to the research questions

148. Direction: Given below is a principle and facts choose the answer from the options
given based on principles and facts

PRINCIPLE: When a contract has been broken, the party who suffers by such breach
is entitled to receive, from the party who has broken the contract, compensation for
any loss or damage caused to him thereby, which naturally arose in the usual course
of things from such breach, or which the parties knew, when they made the contract to
be likely to result from the breach of it. Such compensation is not given for any
remote or indirect loss or damage sustained by reason of the breach. Decide, whether
and to what extent B is entitled to damages in the following situation.

FACTS: A contracts with B to sell him 1,000 tonnes of iron at Rs.100 per tonne. B
tells A that he needs the iron for export purposes, and that he would be selling the iron
at Rs.200 per tonne. A breaks the contract. When the question comes about damages,
A says he will pay only Rs.5,000 as damages because the same variety of iron was
available in the market at Rs.105 per tonne. B however contends that he should be
given Rs.1,00,000 because that was the profit which he would have made had A
fulfilled the contract. B had actually bought the iron at Rs.110 and had exported it. B
is

(A) not entitled to damages
(B) entitled to Rs.10,000 as damages
(C) entitled to Rs.5,000 as damages
(D) entitled to Rs.1,00,000 as damages

149. Which of the following is an example of primary data?

(A) Book
(B) Newspaper
(C) Journal
(D) Census Report

150. Direction: Given below is a principle and facts choose the answer from the options
given based on principles and facts.

PRINCIPLE: The contract after death of one party can be continued if it is ratified
by the surviving party.

FACTS: Vishal, a famous artist was requested by Arun, an industrialist to draw the
portrait of his deceased wife and paid Rs. 20,000 in advance and agreed to pay when
the work was completed, a sum of Rs.2 lakhs. When the portrait was half drawn,
Vishal died due to heart attack. His son also a fine artist completed his father’s work
and demanded the money from Arun. Arun refused to pay and to accept the portrait
drawn by Vishal’s son and also demanded the advance to be returned.

(A) Arun cannot demand the advance amount from the son of Vishal, because in
normal cases the son is not responsible for the father’s contractual obligation
(B) Son of Vishal cannot demand the rest of amount from Arun because Arun has
not assigned him the work
(C) Arun can demand the rest of the amount
(D) Both (A) and (B)

FINAL ANSWER KEY
Subject Name: LLM (IP) PhD AND LLM (IPR) PhD
SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key
1 B 31 B 61 D 91 C 121 C
2 B 32 A 62 D 92 C 122 C
3 C 33 A 63 C 93 C 123 C
4 C 34 A 64 C 94 A 124 D
5 C 35 D 65 D 95 C 125 C
6 A 36 B 66 B 96 A 126 D
7 B 37 C 67 D 97 B 127 D
8 B 38 C 68 C 98 C 128 D
9 C 39 D 69 A 99 B 129 C
10 B 40 D 70 C 100 A 130 C
11 B 41 C 71 D 101 B 131 C
12 C 42 A 72 D 102 D 132 C
13 C 43 D 73 C 103 A 133 C
14 D 44 D 74 D 104 A 134 A
15 C 45 D 75 B 105 B 135 D
16 D 46 C 76 C 106 D 136 C
17 D 47 A 77 A 107 A 137 C
18 A 48 D 78 B 108 D 138 D
19 C 49 C 79 D 109 D 139 C
20 D 50 A 80 A 110 C 140 A
21 C 51 B 81 A 111 A 141 D
22 A 52 D 82 D 112 A 142 C
23 B 53 C 83 C 113 B 143 C
24 D 54 D 84 D 114 C 144 C
25 A 55 B 85 C 115 B 145 A
26 C 56 D 86 C 116 C 146 C
27 A 57 B 87 C 117 D 147 D
28 B 58 D 88 A 118 C 148 C
29 B 59 D 89 B 119 C 149 B
30 C 60 B 90 D 120 B 150 D