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AIMA UGAT 2027 Sample Paper IMBA BBA BCA

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Page 1

AIMA UGAT Sample Paper 2027
AIMA Under Graduate Aptitude Test · IMBA / BBA / BCA paper (Sections 1 to 4) ·
ADMISSION
Practice Paper 1

Questions Marks Time Negative marking
130 MCQs 130 (1 each) 2 hours Yes, for wrong
answers

Part Section Questions Q. No.
Section 1 English Language 40 1 to 40

Section 2 Numerical and Data Analysis 30 41 to 70
Section 3 Reasoning and Intelligence 30 71 to 100
Section 4 General Knowledge 30 101 to 130

Instructions
1. This paper has 130 multiple-choice questions in four sections: English Language (40), Numerical and Data Analysis
(30), Reasoning and Intelligence (30) and General Knowledge (30).
2. Each question has four options; choose the one correct answer. Each correct answer carries 1 mark.
3. There is negative marking for wrong answers, so do not guess blindly. AIMA does not print the exact deduction; for
self-scoring, deduct 0.25 mark for each wrong answer.
4. Time allowed is 2 hours for all four sections. In the actual paper-based test, answers are marked on an OMR
answer sheet and calculators are not allowed.
5. BHM candidates take two more sections (Service Aptitude and Scientific Aptitude, 25 questions each) in an extra
hour. They are not part of this paper.
6. The answer key and short solutions are at the end. Check them only after you finish.

This is an AglaSem practice paper written on the official AIMA UGAT pattern for IMBA, BBA, BCA and similar courses (130
MCQs, 1 mark each, 2 hours, negative marking). It is not an official AIMA paper, and its questions are original.

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Page 2

Section 1

English Language

Read the passage given below and answer the next six questions on the basis of what is stated or
implied in it:
Cities are getting hotter, and not only because the planet is warming. Concrete, asphalt and glass absorb
sunlight during the day and release it slowly at night, so a crowded city centre can stay several degrees
warmer than the fields around it. Scientists call this the urban heat island effect. Its costs are real: higher
electricity bills as air conditioners run longer, more heat-related illness among outdoor workers and the
elderly, and poorer air quality on still summer evenings.
The most effective remedy is also one of the oldest. A large tree shades the ground beneath it and, by
releasing water vapour through its leaves, cools the air around it, much as sweat cools the human body.
Streets lined with mature trees can be noticeably cooler at midday than bare streets a few hundred metres
away. Yet trees are often the first casualties of road-widening and construction, and the saplings planted
in their place take decades to offer the same shade.
Planners are therefore turning to a mix of measures: protecting old trees, painting roofs in light colours
that reflect sunlight, and creating small parks and water bodies that act as cooling pockets. None of these
is costly by itself. What they demand is patience, and a willingness to treat shade as public infrastructure,
as essential to a city as its roads and drains.

1. Which of the following best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) Air conditioners are the best answer to rising city temperatures
(B) Cities can reduce extra heat through simple, patient steps such as protecting trees
(C) New saplings can quickly replace old trees lost to construction
(D) Global warming is the only reason why cities are becoming hotter

2. According to the passage, why does a crowded city centre stay warmer at night?
(A) Built surfaces release the heat they stored during the day slowly
(B) The fields around the city trap cold air
(C) Trees release warm water vapour at night
(D) Air conditioners are switched off after sunset

3. The author compares the cooling effect of a tree to:
(A) the working of an air conditioner
(B) the flow of water in a city drain
(C) the way sweat cools the human body
(D) the shade of a light-coloured roof

4. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a cost of the urban heat island effect?
(A) Poorer air quality on still evenings
(B) More heat-related illness among the elderly
(C) Higher electricity bills
(D) Damage to crops in the fields near the city

5. Why are newly planted saplings not an immediate answer to the problem?
(A) They need far more water than old trees
(B) They are cut down during road-widening
(C) They release too little water vapour in summer
(D) They take decades to give the shade of a mature tree

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Page 3

6. As used in the passage, the word 'casualties' most nearly means:
(A) things lost or destroyed (B) careless remarks
(C) accidental injuries (D) temporary delays

7. Find the part of the sentence that has an error: Neither of the two answers / are correct, / so the teacher
gave no marks.
(A) Neither of the two answers (B) are correct
(C) so the teacher gave no marks (D) No error

8. Find the part of the sentence that has an error: He is one of those boys / who always tries / to help
others.
(A) He is one of those boys (B) who always tries
(C) to help others (D) No error

9. Find the part of the sentence that has an error: I prefer tea / than coffee / in the morning.
(A) I prefer tea (B) than coffee
(C) in the morning (D) No error

10. Find the part of the sentence that has an error: The furniture in the new office / were bought / from a
local store.
(A) The furniture in the new office
(B) were bought
(C) from a local store
(D) No error

11. Find the part of the sentence that has an error: Hardly had we reached the station / when the train /
pulled out of the platform.
(A) Hardly had we reached the station
(B) when the train
(C) pulled out of the platform
(D) No error

12. Choose the word most similar in meaning to AMELIORATE.
(A) Worsen (B) Improve
(C) Measure (D) Delay

13. Choose the word most similar in meaning to FRUGAL.
(A) Thrifty (B) Wasteful
(C) Fragile (D) Generous

14. Choose the word most similar in meaning to OBSOLETE.
(A) Obscure (B) Essential
(C) Modern (D) Outdated

15. Choose the word most similar in meaning to DILIGENT.
(A) Industrious (B) Lazy
(C) Intelligent (D) Indifferent

16. Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to TRANSPARENT.
(A) Clear (B) Shiny
(C) Opaque (D) Obvious

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17. Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to HOSTILE.
(A) Aggressive (B) Friendly
(C) Unfriendly (D) Bitter

18. Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to EXPAND.
(A) Contract (B) Enlarge
(C) Elaborate (D) Extend

19. Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to ARTIFICIAL.
(A) Fake (B) Synthetic
(C) Natural (D) Manufactured

20. Doctor : Hospital :: Teacher : ?
(A) School (B) Lesson
(C) Student (D) Book

21. Bird : Flock :: Fish : ?
(A) Swarm (B) Pack
(C) Herd (D) Shoal

22. Thermometer : Temperature :: Barometer : ?
(A) Altitude (B) Rainfall
(C) Pressure (D) Humidity

23. Rearrange the parts to make a meaningful sentence:
P: of reading; Q: the habit; R: improves; S: our vocabulary
(A) QPRS (B) SRQP
(C) PQRS (D) QRPS

24. Rearrange the parts to make a meaningful sentence:
P: the meeting; Q: was postponed; R: due to; S: heavy rain
(A) PQRS (B) SRPQ
(C) QPRS (D) PRQS

25. Rearrange the parts to make a meaningful sentence:
P: who works hard; Q: a student; R: always; S: succeeds
(A) RQPS (B) PQRS
(C) QRSP (D) QPRS

26. Fill in the blank: The committee could not ___ a decision because the members disagreed.
(A) come (B) reach
(C) arrive (D) get

27. Fill in the blank: If it rains tomorrow, we ___ the match.
(A) would postpone (B) will postpone
(C) postponed (D) had postponed

28. Fill in the blank: She is very good ___ mathematics.
(A) on (B) with
(C) in (D) at

29. Fill in the blank: The news ___ too good to be true.
(A) are (B) was
(C) were (D) have

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Page 5

30. Fill in the blank: He has lived in this town ___ ten years.
(A) since (B) from
(C) for (D) by

31. Fill in the blank: The thief ran away ___ the police could catch him.
(A) unless (B) before
(C) until (D) after

32. Choose the meaning of the idiom: to cost an arm and a leg
(A) to take a long time (B) to be very expensive
(C) to need great effort (D) to cause a serious injury

33. Choose the meaning of the idiom: once in a blue moon
(A) every month (B) at night only
(C) in bad weather (D) very rarely

34. Choose the meaning of the idiom: to let the cat out of the bag
(A) to set a prisoner free (B) to cause a lot of confusion
(C) to avoid a difficult task (D) to reveal a secret by mistake

35. Choose the one word for: a place where birds are kept.
(A) Apiary (B) Aquarium
(C) Kennel (D) Aviary

36. Choose the one word for: a person who does not believe in the existence of God.
(A) Atheist (B) Heretic
(C) Theist (D) Agnostic

37. Choose the one word for: a speech made without any preparation.
(A) Soliloquy (B) Extempore
(C) Monologue (D) Dialogue

38. Choose the correctly spelt word.
(A) Embarass (B) Embarrass
(C) Embarras (D) Emberrass

39. Choose the word that is spelt INCORRECTLY.
(A) Occurence (B) Committee
(C) Receive (D) Separate

40. Choose the correct passive voice of: They are building a new bridge.
(A) A new bridge is built by them.
(B) A new bridge is being built by them.
(C) A new bridge was being built by them.
(D) A new bridge has been built by them.

Section 2

Numerical and Data Analysis

41. The sum of the present ages of a father and his son is 56 years. Four years ago, the father was three
times as old as the son. Find their present ages.
(A) 42 and 14 years (B) 40 and 16 years
(C) 44 and 12 years (D) 38 and 18 years

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Page 6

42. In a group of 60 people, 35 like tea, 30 like coffee and 10 like both. How many like neither?
(A) 15 (B) 5
(C) 10 (D) 0

43. In a circle with centre O, the arc AB subtends an angle of 110° at O. What angle does it subtend at a
point P on the remaining part of the circle?
(A) 125° (B) 70°
(C) 110° (D) 55°

44. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. What is the largest angle?
(A) 100° (B) 60°
(C) 80° (D) 90°

45. A rectangle has a perimeter of 46 cm and a length of 15 cm. What is its area?
(A) 105 cm² (B) 120 cm²
(C) 150 cm² (D) 130 cm²

46. What is the area of a circle of radius 14 cm? (Take π = 22/7.)
(A) 1232 cm² (B) 616 cm²
(C) 308 cm² (D) 88 cm²

47. A number is first increased by 20% and then decreased by 25%. What is the net change?
(A) No change (B) 5% decrease
(C) 10% decrease (D) 5% increase

48. The marked price of a jacket is ₹1,200. A discount of 15% is given. What is the selling price?
(A) ₹1,080 (B) ₹1,000
(C) ₹1,180 (D) ₹1,020

49. By selling a watch for ₹450, a shopkeeper loses 10%. At what price should he sell it to gain 10%?
(A) ₹550 (B) ₹495
(C) ₹500 (D) ₹540

50. If A : B = 2 : 3 and B : C = 4 : 5, then A : B : C is:
(A) 2 : 3 : 5 (B) 6 : 12 : 15
(C) 8 : 12 : 10 (D) 8 : 12 : 15

51. A 40-litre mixture has milk and water in the ratio 3 : 1. How much water must be added to make the
ratio 3 : 2?
(A) 12 litres (B) 5 litres
(C) 10 litres (D) 8 litres

52. 12 men can finish a piece of work in 18 days. In how many days can 18 men finish it?
(A) 12 days (B) 10 days
(C) 27 days (D) 15 days

53. Pipe A can fill a tank in 20 minutes and pipe B can empty it in 30 minutes. If both are opened together in
an empty tank, how long will it take to fill?
(A) 60 minutes (B) 50 minutes
(C) 12 minutes (D) 10 minutes

54. A car goes from P to Q at 60 km/h and returns along the same road at 40 km/h. What is its average
speed for the whole journey?
(A) 52 km/h (B) 48 km/h
(C) 45 km/h (D) 50 km/h

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Page 7

55. A boat goes downstream at 15 km/h and upstream at 9 km/h. What is the speed of the stream?
(A) 12 km/h (B) 3 km/h
(C) 4.5 km/h (D) 6 km/h

56. At what rate of simple interest per annum will a sum double itself in 10 years?
(A) 12.5% (B) 10%
(C) 8% (D) 20%

57. What is the compound interest on ₹8,000 at 5% per annum for 2 years, compounded annually?
(A) ₹820 (B) ₹810
(C) ₹840 (D) ₹800

58. What is the smallest number which, when divided by 6, 8 and 12, leaves a remainder of 3 in each case?
(A) 27 (B) 24
(C) 51 (D) 21

59. What is the HCF of 84 and 126?
(A) 14 (B) 252
(C) 21 (D) 42

60. Simplify: (0.4 × 0.25) ÷ 0.05
(A) 2 (B) 0.2
(C) 0.5 (D) 20

61. What is the average of the first 20 natural numbers?
(A) 21 (B) 10
(C) 10.5 (D) 11

62. If x + 1/x = 5, what is the value of x² + 1/x²?
(A) 27 (B) 25
(C) 21 (D) 23

63. Two fair dice are thrown together. What is the probability that the sum of the numbers is 7?
(A) 1/6 (B) 7/36
(C) 1/12 (D) 5/36

Study the table and answer the next four questions:
Production of cars by a company (in thousands)
Year Model X Model Y Model Z
2021 40 25 35
2022 45 30 45
2023 50 40 50
2024 60 45 55

64. What was the total production of cars in 2023?
(A) 145 thousand (B) 150 thousand
(C) 130 thousand (D) 140 thousand

65. By what percentage did total production increase from 2021 to 2024?
(A) 50% (B) 75%
(C) 40% (D) 60%

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Page 8

66. What was Model Y's approximate share of total production in 2023?
(A) 28.6% (B) 30.0%
(C) 33.3% (D) 25.0%

67. What was the average yearly production of Model X over the four years?
(A) 47.5 thousand (B) 49.25 thousand
(C) 48.75 thousand (D) 50 thousand

A family's monthly income of ₹60,000 is spent as shown below. Answer the next three questions:
Item Share of income
Food 30%
Rent 25%
Education 15%
Transport 10%
Savings 20%

68. How much does the family spend on rent each month?
(A) ₹12,000 (B) ₹18,000
(C) ₹25,000 (D) ₹15,000

69. By how much do the family's monthly savings exceed its spending on transport?
(A) ₹4,000 (B) ₹10,000
(C) ₹6,000 (D) ₹12,000

70. If this data is drawn as a pie chart, what will be the central angle for Education?
(A) 15° (B) 60°
(C) 45° (D) 54°

Section 3

Reasoning and Intelligence
71. Find the next number in the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
(A) 36 (B) 40
(C) 44 (D) 42

72. Find the next number in the series: 5, 11, 23, 47, 95, ?
(A) 189 (B) 193
(C) 191 (D) 190

73. Find the next number in the series: 7, 10, 16, 25, 37, ?
(A) 52 (B) 55
(C) 49 (D) 50

74. Find the next letter in the series: Z, X, U, Q, L, ?
(A) E (B) G
(C) F (D) H

75. Find the next term in the series: AZ, BY, CX, DW, ?
(A) EU (B) EW
(C) FV (D) EV

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Page 9

76. In a certain code, GOLD is written as TLOW. How is SILVER written in that code?
(A) HRPEVI (B) HROEVI
(C) HROFVI (D) GROEVI

77. If each letter stands for its position in the alphabet (A = 1, B = 2 ... Z = 26), then CAT = 24. What is
DOG?
(A) 24 (B) 25
(C) 27 (D) 26

78. In a code language, 'mo ka ti' means 'sky is blue', 'ka lu ti' means 'blue is deep' and 'ka pe sa' means
'is the sea'. What is the code for 'sky'?
(A) ti (B) mo
(C) lu (D) ka

79. 3 : 27 :: 5 : ?
(A) 75 (B) 15
(C) 125 (D) 25

80. Eye : Ophthalmologist :: Skin : ?
(A) Cardiologist (B) Dermatologist
(C) Otolaryngologist (D) Neurologist

81. Find the odd one out.
(A) Mercury (B) Venus
(C) Moon (D) Mars

82. Find the odd one out: 17, 23, 29, 33
(A) 29 (B) 23
(C) 17 (D) 33

83. Find the odd one out.
(A) RTW (B) BDF
(C) MOQ (D) HJL

84. Pointing to a photograph, Arun said, "She is the daughter of my grandfather's only son." How is the girl
related to Arun?
(A) Cousin (B) Aunt
(C) Sister (D) Niece

85. X is the mother of Y. Y is the brother of Z. Z is the husband of W. How is X related to W?
(A) Sister-in-law (B) Mother-in-law
(C) Aunt (D) Mother

86. A man is facing south. He turns 90° clockwise and then 135° anticlockwise. Which direction is he facing
now?
(A) North-East (B) South-East
(C) South-West (D) North-West

87. Sita walks 10 m east, turns left and walks 5 m, then turns left again and walks 10 m. Where is she now
with respect to her starting point?
(A) 10 m to the north (B) 5 m to the north
(C) 15 m to the west (D) 5 m to the south

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Page 10

88. In a class, Rahul is 9th from the top and 21st from the bottom. How many students are there in the
class?
(A) 29 (B) 31
(C) 30 (D) 28

89. 1 January 2026 was a Thursday. What day of the week will 1 January 2027 be?
(A) Sunday (B) Thursday
(C) Friday (D) Saturday

90. What is the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock at 3:30?
(A) 60° (B) 82.5°
(C) 75° (D) 90°

91. Find the missing number: (3, 4) → 25, (6, 8) → 100, (5, 12) → ?
(A) 170 (B) 289
(C) 169 (D) 144

92. Statements: All doctors are graduates. No graduate is illiterate.
Conclusions: I. No doctor is illiterate. II. Some graduates are doctors.
Which conclusion(s) follow?
(A) Only I follows (B) Neither I nor II follows
(C) Both I and II follow (D) Only II follows

93. Statements: Some cats are dogs. All dogs are rats.
Conclusions: I. Some cats are rats. II. All rats are cats.
Which conclusion(s) follow?
(A) Only I follows (B) Only II follows
(C) Neither I nor II follows (D) Both I and II follow

94. If the 26 letters of the English alphabet are written in reverse order, which letter will be 8th from the left?
(A) T (B) R
(C) H (D) S

95. Which of the following words cannot be formed from the letters of the word CONSTITUTION? (Each
letter may be used only as often as it appears.)
(A) TUITION (B) NOTION
(C) COUNT (D) STATION

Read the information below and answer the next five questions:
Amit and Bina like Cricket and Tennis. Bina and Chetan like Tennis and Chess.
Chetan and Deepa like Chess and Football. Amit and Deepa like Hockey.
No one likes any game other than those stated.

96. Who likes Cricket, Tennis and Chess?
(A) Amit (B) Deepa
(C) Chetan (D) Bina

97. Who likes Tennis, Chess and Football?
(A) Amit (B) Chetan
(C) Deepa (D) Bina

98. Which game do both Amit and Chetan like?
(A) Tennis (B) Cricket
(C) Chess (D) Hockey

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99. Who likes both Hockey and Football?
(A) Amit (B) Bina
(C) Deepa (D) Chetan

100. How many of the four friends like Chess?
(A) 3 (B) 1
(C) 4 (D) 2

Section 4

General Knowledge
101. What is the currency of Japan?
(A) Yen (B) Yuan
(C) Won (D) Ringgit

102. What is the name of Japan's national parliament?
(A) Diet (B) Duma
(C) Storting (D) Knesset

103. Who wrote the novel 'Pride and Prejudice'?
(A) Enid Blyton (B) Jane Austen
(C) George Eliot (D) Virginia Woolf

104. What is the capital of Australia?
(A) Melbourne (B) Perth
(C) Sydney (D) Canberra

105. Which is the largest planet in the Solar System?
(A) Jupiter (B) Saturn
(C) Neptune (D) Earth

106. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly of India?
(A) Rajendra Prasad (B) B. R. Ambedkar
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru (D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

107. Who was the first woman Prime Minister of India?
(A) Sucheta Kripalani (B) Pratibha Patil
(C) Indira Gandhi (D) Annie Besant

108. In which year did the Jallianwala Bagh massacre take place in Amritsar?
(A) 1917 (B) 1905
(C) 1920 (D) 1919

109. In which year did Mahatma Gandhi lead the Dandi March (Salt Satyagraha)?
(A) 1928 (B) 1920
(C) 1930 (D) 1942

110. Who founded the Mughal Empire in India?
(A) Babur (B) Sher Shah Suri
(C) Akbar (D) Humayun

111. Which is the longest river flowing within India?
(A) Kosi (B) Krishna
(C) Ganga (D) Godavari

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Page 12

112. Which is the largest state of India by area?
(A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Rajasthan
(C) Gujarat (D) Maharashtra

113. Which Indian state is known as the 'Land of Five Rivers'?
(A) Bihar (B) Punjab
(C) Assam (D) Haryana

114. Which vitamin does the human skin make when exposed to sunlight?
(A) Vitamin C (B) Vitamin K
(C) Vitamin D (D) Vitamin A

115. Deficiency of iodine in the diet causes:
(A) Anaemia (B) Scurvy
(C) Goitre (D) Rickets

116. What is the chemical symbol of gold?
(A) Au (B) Ag
(C) Gd (D) Go

117. Who proposed the theory of relativity?
(A) Niels Bohr (B) Albert Einstein
(C) Galileo Galilei (D) Isaac Newton

118. Where are the headquarters of the United Nations?
(A) New York (B) The Hague
(C) Geneva (D) Vienna

119. How many rings are there in the Olympic symbol?
(A) 5 (B) 7
(C) 6 (D) 4

120. The term 'checkmate' is associated with which game?
(A) Golf (B) Tennis
(C) Chess (D) Polo

121. How many players of one team are on the field in a football (soccer) match?
(A) 7 (B) 12
(C) 11 (D) 9

122. Which organ of the human body produces insulin?
(A) Gall bladder (B) Liver
(C) Stomach (D) Pancreas

123. Who wrote 'The Discovery of India'?
(A) Subhas Chandra Bose (B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) B. R. Ambedkar (D) Mahatma Gandhi

124. Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution of India by which Amendment?
(A) 86th (B) 44th
(C) 73rd (D) 42nd

125. What is the minimum age to be elected President of India?
(A) 25 years (B) 35 years
(C) 40 years (D) 30 years

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126. How many members of the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President of India?
(A) 14 (B) 10
(C) 12 (D) 15

127. Which is the smallest continent by area?
(A) Antarctica (B) South America
(C) Australia (D) Europe

128. Which strait separates India from Sri Lanka?
(A) Strait of Malacca (B) Bering Strait
(C) Cook Strait (D) Palk Strait

129. Kaziranga National Park, famous for the one-horned rhinoceros, is in which state?
(A) Kerala (B) Uttarakhand
(C) Bihar (D) Assam

130. What does GDP stand for?
(A) Gross Development Product (B) General Domestic Production
(C) Gross Demand Price (D) Gross Domestic Product

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Answer Key

1 B 2 A 3 C 4 D 5 D 6 A 7 B 8 B 9 B 10 B
11 D 12 B 13 A 14 D 15 A 16 C 17 B 18 A 19 C 20 A
21 D 22 C 23 A 24 A 25 D 26 B 27 B 28 D 29 B 30 C
31 B 32 B 33 D 34 D 35 D 36 A 37 B 38 B 39 A 40 B
41 B 42 B 43 D 44 C 45 B 46 B 47 C 48 D 49 A 50 D
51 C 52 A 53 A 54 B 55 B 56 B 57 A 58 A 59 D 60 A
61 C 62 D 63 A 64 D 65 D 66 A 67 C 68 D 69 C 70 D
71 D 72 C 73 A 74 C 75 D 76 B 77 D 78 B 79 C 80 B
81 C 82 D 83 A 84 C 85 B 86 B 87 B 88 A 89 C 90 C
91 C 92 C 93 A 94 D 95 D 96 D 97 B 98 A 99 C 100 A
101 A 102 A 103 B 104 D 105 A 106 B 107 C 108 D 109 C 110 A
111 C 112 B 113 B 114 C 115 C 116 A 117 B 118 A 119 A 120 C
121 C 122 D 123 B 124 D 125 B 126 C 127 C 128 D 129 D 130 D

Solutions

English Language
1. (B) The passage explains the heat island effect and says the remedy lies in low-cost measures, mainly trees, that
need patience.
2. (A) The passage says concrete, asphalt and glass absorb sunlight by day and release it slowly at night.
3. (C) Trees cool the air by releasing water vapour, 'much as sweat cools the human body'.
4. (D) The passage lists bills, illness and air quality. Crop damage is not mentioned; the fields are only a point of
comparison.
5. (D) The passage says saplings 'take decades to offer the same shade'.
6. (A) Trees are the first 'casualties' of construction, that is, the first things to be lost or destroyed.
7. (B) 'Neither of' takes a singular verb: 'Neither of the two answers is correct.'
8. (B) 'Who' refers to 'those boys' (plural), so the verb is 'try': 'one of those boys who always try to help others.'
9. (B) 'Prefer' is followed by 'to', not 'than': 'I prefer tea to coffee.'
10. (B) 'Furniture' is an uncountable noun and takes a singular verb: 'was bought'.
11. (D) 'Hardly had ... when' is the correct pattern, so the sentence has no error.
12. (B) To ameliorate is to make something bad better, that is, to improve it.
13. (A) Frugal means careful with money and resources, that is, thrifty. Wasteful is its opposite.
14. (D) Obsolete means no longer in use, out of date.
15. (A) Diligent means hard-working and careful, that is, industrious.
16. (C) Transparent means letting light through; opaque means not letting light through. Clear and obvious are near-
synonyms.
17. (B) Hostile means unfriendly or opposed; its opposite is friendly.
18. (A) Expand means to become larger; contract means to become smaller. The other three are near-synonyms of
expand.
19. (C) Artificial means made by people; its opposite is natural.
20. (A) A doctor works in a hospital; a teacher works in a school.

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21. (D) A group of birds is a flock; a group of fish is a shoal (or school). A herd is of cattle, a pack of wolves, a swarm of
bees.
22. (C) A thermometer measures temperature; a barometer measures atmospheric pressure.
23. (A) Q P R S: 'The habit of reading improves our vocabulary.'
24. (A) P Q R S: 'The meeting was postponed due to heavy rain.'
25. (D) Q P R S: 'A student who works hard always succeeds.'
26. (B) We 'reach a decision' or 'arrive at a decision'. 'Arrive' and 'come' need 'at', so 'reach' is correct.
27. (B) A first conditional (if + present) takes 'will' + verb in the main clause.
28. (D) The adjective 'good' takes 'at' when it means skilled: good at mathematics.
29. (B) 'News' is uncountable and takes a singular verb, so 'was' is correct.
30. (C) 'For' is used with a period of time (ten years); 'since' is used with a point in time.
31. (B) He escaped first, so the police could not catch him: 'ran away before the police could catch him'.
32. (B) Something that costs an arm and a leg is very expensive.
33. (D) Once in a blue moon means very rarely.
34. (D) To let the cat out of the bag is to reveal a secret, usually carelessly.
35. (D) An aviary is for birds. An apiary is for bees, an aquarium for fish and a kennel for dogs.
36. (A) An atheist denies that God exists. A theist believes; an agnostic holds that it cannot be known.
37. (B) An extempore speech is given on the spot without preparation.
38. (B) The correct spelling is embarrass: double R and double S.
39. (A) The correct spelling is occurrence (double C, double R and -ence). The other three are spelt correctly.
40. (B) Present continuous active (are building) becomes 'is being built' in the passive.

Numerical and Data Analysis
41. (B) Let the son be S; father = 56 − S. Then 52 − S = 3(S − 4), so 4S = 64 and S = 16, father = 40. Check: 4 years
ago, 36 = 3 × 12.
42. (B) Tea or coffee = 35 + 30 − 10 = 55. Neither = 60 − 55 = 5.
43. (D) The angle at the centre is twice the angle at the circumference, so the angle at P = 110°/2 = 55°.
44. (C) 2x + 3x + 4x = 180°, so x = 20° and the largest angle is 4 × 20° = 80°.
45. (B) 2(15 + b) = 46 gives b = 8 cm. Area = 15 × 8 = 120 cm².
46. (B) Area = πr² = (22/7) × 14 × 14 = 616 cm². (88 cm is the circumference.)
47. (C) 1.20 × 0.75 = 0.90, so the number falls by 10%.
48. (D) Discount = 15% of 1200 = 180. Selling price = 1200 − 180 = ₹1,020.
49. (A) 0.9 × CP = 450, so CP = 500. For a 10% gain, SP = 1.1 × 500 = ₹550.
50. (D) Make B equal: A : B = 8 : 12 and B : C = 12 : 15, so A : B : C = 8 : 12 : 15.
51. (C) Milk = 30 L, water = 10 L. For 3 : 2, water must be 20 L, so add 10 litres.
52. (A) Total work = 12 × 18 = 216 man-days. 216/18 = 12 days.
53. (A) Net filling per minute = 1/20 − 1/30 = 1/60, so the tank fills in 60 minutes.
54. (B) For equal distances, average speed = 2xy/(x + y) = 2 × 60 × 40/100 = 48 km/h.
55. (B) Speed of stream = (downstream − upstream)/2 = (15 − 9)/2 = 3 km/h.
56. (B) To double, SI = P. So P = P × R × 10/100, giving R = 10%.
57. (A) Amount = 8000 × 1.05 × 1.05 = 8820, so CI = ₹820.
58. (A) LCM of 6, 8 and 12 is 24, so the number is 24 + 3 = 27. (51 also works but is not the smallest.)
59. (D) 84 = 2²·3·7 and 126 = 2·3²·7, so HCF = 2·3·7 = 42. (252 is the LCM.)
60. (A) 0.4 × 0.25 = 0.1, and 0.1 ÷ 0.05 = 2.
61. (C) Sum = 20 × 21/2 = 210, so the average is 210/20 = 10.5.

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62. (D) (x + 1/x)² = x² + 2 + 1/x², so x² + 1/x² = 25 − 2 = 23.
63. (A) The pairs (1,6), (2,5), (3,4), (4,3), (5,2), (6,1) give 7: 6 out of 36 = 1/6.
64. (D) 50 + 40 + 50 = 140 thousand.
65. (D) Totals: 2021 = 100, 2024 = 60 + 45 + 55 = 160 thousand. Increase = 60/100 × 100 = 60%.
66. (A) Model Y = 40 out of 140 thousand: 40/140 × 100 ≈ 28.6%.
67. (C) (40 + 45 + 50 + 60)/4 = 195/4 = 48.75 thousand.
68. (D) 25% of 60,000 = ₹15,000.
69. (C) Savings − transport = 20% − 10% = 10% of 60,000 = ₹6,000.
70. (D) 15% of 360° = 54°.

Reasoning and Intelligence
71. (D) The terms are 1×2, 2×3, 3×4, 4×5, 5×6, so the next is 6×7 = 42.
72. (C) Each term is double the previous one plus 1: 95 × 2 + 1 = 191.
73. (A) The gaps are 3, 6, 9, 12, so the next gap is 15: 37 + 15 = 52.
74. (C) The letters go back by 2, 3, 4, 5, so the next step is 6: L (12) − 6 = 6 = F.
75. (D) The first letters go forward (A, B, C, D, E) and the second letters go backward (Z, Y, X, W, V).
76. (B) Each letter is replaced by its mirror letter in the alphabet (A↔Z, B↔Y ...): G↔T, O↔L, L↔O, D↔W. So S→H,
I→R, L→O, V→E, E→V, R→I: HROEVI.
77. (D) D + O + G = 4 + 15 + 7 = 26.
78. (B) 'ka' is common to all three, so ka = is. 'ti' is common to the first two (blue), so ti = blue. The remaining code in
the first sentence, mo, means sky.
79. (C) 27 = 3³, so the answer is 5³ = 125.
80. (B) An ophthalmologist treats the eyes; a dermatologist treats the skin.
81. (C) Mercury, Venus and Mars are planets; the Moon is a natural satellite of the Earth.
82. (D) 17, 23 and 29 are prime numbers; 33 = 3 × 11 is not.
83. (A) BDF, HJL and MOQ each skip one letter (+2, +2). In RTW the steps are +2 and +3.
84. (C) Arun's grandfather's only son is Arun's father. His daughter is Arun's sister.
85. (B) X is the mother of Y and Z (Z is male, being W's husband). So X is the mother of W's husband: W's mother-in-
law.
86. (B) Facing south, 90° clockwise brings him to west. Turning 135° anticlockwise from west: 90° gives south and 45°
more gives south-east.
87. (B) East 10 m, north 5 m, then west 10 m cancels the eastward walk, so she is 5 m north of the start.
88. (A) Total = 9 + 21 − 1 = 29.
89. (C) 2026 is not a leap year, so it has 365 days = 52 weeks + 1 day. The day moves forward by one: Friday.
90. (C) Angle = |30H − 5.5M| = |90 − 165| = 75°.
91. (C) The rule is a² + b²: 9 + 16 = 25, 36 + 64 = 100, so 25 + 144 = 169.
92. (C) All doctors are inside 'graduates', which has no overlap with 'illiterate', so I follows. 'All doctors are graduates'
also gives 'some graduates are doctors', so II follows.
93. (A) The cats that are dogs are also rats, so I follows. Nothing says every rat is a cat, so II does not follow.
94. (D) In reverse order the 8th letter from the left is the 8th from the end of A–Z: 27 − 8 = 19th letter, S.
95. (D) CONSTITUTION has no letter A, so STATION cannot be formed. NOTION, TUITION and COUNT can.
96. (D) Amit: Cricket, Tennis, Hockey. Bina: Cricket, Tennis, Chess. Chetan: Tennis, Chess, Football. Deepa: Chess,
Football, Hockey. Only Bina likes Cricket, Tennis and Chess.
97. (B) Chetan likes Tennis (with Bina), Chess and Football (with Deepa).
98. (A) Amit likes Cricket, Tennis and Hockey; Chetan likes Tennis, Chess and Football. The only common game is
Tennis.

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99. (C) Hockey: Amit and Deepa. Football: Chetan and Deepa. Only Deepa likes both.
100. (A) Bina, Chetan and Deepa like Chess; Amit does not. So 3.

General Knowledge
101. (A) Japan's currency is the yen. The won is South Korea's, the yuan China's and the ringgit Malaysia's.
102. (A) Japan's parliament is the National Diet. The Knesset is Israel's, the Storting Norway's and the Duma Russia's
lower house.
103. (B) Pride and Prejudice (1813) is by Jane Austen.
104. (D) Canberra is the capital of Australia, though Sydney and Melbourne are larger cities.
105. (A) Jupiter is the largest planet; Saturn is second.
106. (B) Dr B. R. Ambedkar chaired the Drafting Committee. Dr Rajendra Prasad was the President of the Constituent
Assembly.
107. (C) Indira Gandhi became Prime Minister in 1966. Pratibha Patil was the first woman President and Sucheta
Kripalani the first woman Chief Minister.
108. (D) The massacre took place on 13 April 1919.
109. (C) The Dandi March began on 12 March 1930 and reached Dandi on 6 April 1930.
110. (A) Babur founded the Mughal Empire after the First Battle of Panipat in 1526.
111. (C) The Ganga is the longest river in India. The Godavari is the longest river of peninsular India.
112. (B) Rajasthan is the largest state by area, followed by Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.
113. (B) Punjab means 'five waters' (rivers) in Persian.
114. (C) Sunlight (UV-B) helps the skin make vitamin D.
115. (C) Iodine deficiency causes goitre (enlarged thyroid). Scurvy is from lack of vitamin C, rickets from lack of vitamin
D, and anaemia mostly from lack of iron.
116. (A) Gold's symbol is Au (from Latin aurum). Ag is silver and Gd is gadolinium.
117. (B) Albert Einstein proposed the special (1905) and general (1915) theories of relativity.
118. (A) The UN headquarters is in New York. The International Court of Justice sits at The Hague.
119. (A) The Olympic symbol has five interlocking rings.
120. (C) Checkmate ends a game of chess, when the king is attacked and cannot escape.
121. (C) Each football team has 11 players on the field, including the goalkeeper.
122. (D) Insulin is made by the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas.
123. (B) Jawaharlal Nehru wrote The Discovery of India in 1944, while in Ahmednagar Fort prison.
124. (D) The 42nd Amendment (1976) added Part IVA (Article 51A), the Fundamental Duties.
125. (B) Under Article 58, a candidate must be at least 35 years old.
126. (C) The President nominates 12 members with special knowledge of literature, science, art and social service.
127. (C) Australia (the continent of Australia/Oceania) is the smallest continent by area.
128. (D) The Palk Strait lies between Tamil Nadu and northern Sri Lanka.
129. (D) Kaziranga National Park is in Assam.
130. (D) GDP is Gross Domestic Product: the value of all final goods and services produced within a country in a year.

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Document Details

Board / OrgAIMA
ExamAIMA UGAT
TypeSample Paper
Pages17
Languageenglish
Updated27 Oct 2026

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