CUSAT CAT 2023 Question Paper LLM

LLM
(FINAL)

PROFICIENCY IN ENGLISH AND GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

1. Choose the correct question tag for the sentence given below
Nobody answered it, …………..?
(A) did he
(B) did they
(C) didn’t they
(D) didn’t

2. The idiom ‘gall and wormwood’ means

(A) Boiling with emotions
(B) Feelings of disappointment and dejection
(C) Feelings of bitterness and resentment
(D) Flame with anger

3. Direction: Select a word that is OPPOSITE to the meaning of the word in capital

DILIGENT

(A) Hardworking
(B) Lazy
(C) Punctual
(D) Honest

4. Direction: Select a word that is OPPOSITE to the meaning of the word in capital

BENEVOLENT

(A) Uncharitable
(B) Sensitive
(C) Kind
(D) Charitable

5. Direction: Select a word that is OPPOSITE to the meaning of the word in capital

SPURIOUS

(A) Fake
(B) Right
(C) Illegitimate
(D) Random

6. Match the following phrases given under column A with their meanings, under
column B

Column A Column B
(a) put on for (1) remove
(b) look for (2) extinguish
(c) take off (3) search
(d) put out (4) wear

(A) (a) – (1), (b) – (2), (c) – (3), (d) – (4)
(B) (a) – (3), (b) – (2), (c) – (1), (d) – (4)
(C) (a) – (4), (b) – (3), (c) – (1), (d) – (2)
(D) (a) – (4), (b) – (2), (c) – (3), (d) – (1)

7. Match words in column A with their antonyms under column B and select the correct
answer from the codes given below

Column A Column B
(a) Serenity (1) Shallow
(b) Profound (2) Ugly
(c) Chase (3) Anxiety
(d) Charming (4) Withdraw

(A) (a) – (2), (b) – (3), (c) – (4), (d) – (1)
(B) (a) – (3), (b) – (1), (c) – (4), (d) – (2)
(C) (a) – (1), (b) – (3), (c) – (2), (d) – (4)
(D) (a) – (2), (b) – (1), (c) – (4), (d) – (3)

8. Choose the statement that takes the question tag “shouldn’t they?”

(A) Students cannot be allowed to use the library everyday,
(B) Students must be allowed to use the library everyday,
(C) Students could be allowed to use the library everyday,
(D) Students should be allowed to use the library everyday,

9. Which of the following plural forms is NOT correct?

(A) Daughters-in-law
(B) Crises
(C) Brother-in-laws
(D) Strata

10. Match the words under Column A with the suffixes under Column B

Column A Column B
(a) person (1) ling
(b) comply (2) lette
(c) hire (3) able
(d) novel (4) ance

(A) (a) – (3), (b) – (4), (c) – (1), (d) – (2)
(B) (a) – (4), (b) – (3), (c) – (2), (d) – (1)
(C) (a) – (1), (b) – (2), (c) – (4), (d) – (3)
(D) (a) – (2), (b) – (1), (c) – (3), (d) – (4)

11. Choose the option that contains the right sequence of articles

My manager is ………. multifaceted personality. He was elected ……… chairman of
our board. I am sure he will be …………. best chairman, for he is ………….. honest
worker

(A) a, the, an, the
(B) a, no article, the, an
(C) an, no article, a, the
(D) no article, an, the, a

12. Choose the right preposition to complete the sentence
His father shouted …………. him when he came home late

(A) on
(B) over
(C) for
(D) at

13. Identify the error in the sentences given below

He, you and I will solve this problem together.

(A) He, you and I
(B) will solve
(C) this problem together
(D) No error

14. Direction: Select the alternative which is best substitute of the given phrase

One who does not care for literature or art

(A) Dictator
(B) Hypocrite
(C) Philistine
(D) Primitive

15. Direction: Select the alternative which is best substitute of the given phrase

One skilled in telling stories

(A) Ventral
(B) Fanatic
(C) Raconteur
(D) Tyro

16. Choose the set of words that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole

Our constitution was based on the belief that the free............... of ideas, people and
cultures is essential to the...................of a democratic society

(A) selection, concurrence
(B) interchange, preservation
(C) reversal, upholding
(D) dissemination, congruence

17. The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options
given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph

(P) For that we need who possess not only high skills but high values as well
(Q) So the need of the hour is not only skill-based education but also value-inspired
and value-based education
(R) When we talk of investing in education, a question arises as to what kind of
education needs to be given to the youngster
(S) Our aim is to evolve not only an affluent society, but an egalitarian, just,
humane and compassionate

(A) SPRQ
(B) PRQS
(C) RQSP
(D) RSPQ

18. The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options
given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph

(P) However, our environment also needs some help from all of us to get
maintained as usual to nourish our lives forever and to never ruin our lives
(Q) It gives us all things which we need to live our life on this planet
(R) It provides us better medium to grow and develop
(S) An environment includes all the natural resources which surround us to help in
number of ways

(A) PQRS
(B) QPSR
(C) SRQP
(D) QSPR

Direction: Read the following passage and answer the given questions

After the Second World War, the leaders of the Western world tried to build
institutions to prevent the conflicts of the preceding decades from recurring. They wanted to
foster both prosperity and interdependence, to ‘make war not only unthinkable, but martially
impossible’. Their work bore fruit. Expanded global trade has raised incomes around the
world. While globalization is sometimes portrayed as a corporate plot against the workers;
that was not how it was seen before 1914. British Trade Unions were in favour of free trade,
which kept down food prices for their member and also opened up markets for the factories in
which they worked. Yet, as the Brexit vote demonstrates globalization now seems to be
receding. Most economists have been blindsided by the backslash. Free trade can be a hard
sell politically. The political economy of trade is treacherous. Its benefits, though substantial,
are diluted, but its costs are often concentrated. This gives those affected a strong incentive to
push for protectionism. Globalization itself thus seems to create forces that erode political
support for integration.

Deeper economic integration required harmonization of laws and regulations across
countries. Differences in rules on employment contracts or product safety requirements, for
instance, act as barriers to trade. Trade agreements like the Trans-Pacific Partnership focus
more on ‘non-tariff barriers’ than they do on tariff reduction. The net impact of this is likely
to be that some individuals, consumers and businesses are not likely to be as benefited as
others and give rise to discontent. Thus the consequences of such trade agreements often run
counter to popular preferences. Joseph Stiglitz, a Noble Prize winner, has warned that
companies influences over trade rules harms workers and erodes support for trade
liberalisation. Clumsy government efforts to compensate workers hurt by globalization
contributed to the global financial crisis, by facilitating excessive household borrowing,
among other things. Researchers have also documented how the cost of America’s growing
trade with China has fallen disproportionately on certain American cities. Such costs
perpetuate a cycle of globalization. Periods of global integration and technological progress
generate rising inequality, which inevitably triggers two countervailing forces, one beneficial
and one harmful. On the one hand, governments tend to respond to rising inequality by
increasing redistribution and investing in education, on the other, inequality leads to political

upheaval and war. The first era of globalization, which ended in 1914, gave way to a long
period of declining inequality, in which harmful forces plays a bigger rise than beneficial
ones. History might repeat itself he warns. Such warnings do not amount to arguments
against globalization. As many economists are quick to note, the benefits of openness are
massive. It is increasingly clear, however, that supporters of economic integration
underestimated the risks both that big slices of society would feel left behind and that
nationalism would continue to provide an alluring alternative. Either error alone might have
undercut support for globalization and the relative peace and prosperity, it has brought in
combination, they threaten to reverse it.

19. What can be concluded from the example of Britain cited in the passage?

(A) Countries which previously supported globalization no longer do
(B) Trade unions are losing their influence
(C) Agriculture has suffered in most developed countries
(D) Britain has not recovered from the financial crisis

20. Which of the following is the author’s view of Trans-Pacific Partnership?

(A) It is likely to face opposition
(B) It provide beneficial to all workers
(C) It will reduce tariffs effectively
(D) Trade with China will suffer

21. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?

(A) The first era of globalization resulted in a decline in inequality
(B) Governments are making efforts to help workers hurt by globalization
(C) Standardizing policy regulations will boost economic integration
(D) Technology has exacerbated the ill-effects of globalization

22. Which of the following best explains the phrase ‘Such warnings do not amount to
arguments against globalization’ in the context of the passage?

(A) Most economists are unnecessarily alarmist abut globalization
(B) Globalization is beneficial to all
(C) Do not do away with globalization, but take concerns about globalization
seriously
(D) Politicians warn against globalization during elections, but actually support it

23. Which of the following can be said about America’s trade with China?

(A) America’s discontent against globalization has fallen
(B) Workers wages have risen tenfold
(C) America has been badly hit by the slowdown in China
(D) It has been especially harmful for certain American cities

24. Which of the following is the central idea of the passage?

(A) Protectionism is the only way for developed countries to retain stability
(B) Globalization is receding and its decline should be speeded up
(C) While politicians are in favour of globalization, economists are not
(D) The backlash against globalization is serious and must be handled carefully

25. Choose the set of words that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

After a................three months of stock market activity, the price of bonds............last
week

(A) tumultuous, stabilized
(B) hectic, fell
(C) variety, surged
(D) continuous, soared

26. European Court of Human Rights is located in

(A) Hamburg
(B) Strasbourg
(C) Luxembourg
(D) St. Petersburg

27. The word 'UDAN' is related to

(A) Medium Small Micro Enterprises
(B) Regional connectivity and cheap air fare
(C) Scholarship for education in foreign universities
(D) Start-up India

28. The environmental phenomenon of “Acid Rain” is caused by

(A) Nitrogen Oxide and Ozone
(B) Nitrogen Oxide and Carbon Dioxide
(C) Nitrogen Oxide and Hydrocarbon
(D) Nitrogen Oxide and Sulphur Dioxide

29. Which one of the following movements started with the Dandi March?

(A) Quit India Movement
(B) Swadeshi Movement
(C) Civil Disobedience Movement
(D) Noncooperation Movement

30. The words “Satyameva Jayate” inscribed below the base plate of the national emblem
of India are taken from

(A) Ramayana
(B) Sama Veda
(C) Mundaka Upanishad
(D) Rig Veda

31. Political theory which combines preservation of nature with feminism is termed as

(A) Environmental Feminism
(B) Ecofeminism
(C) Radical Feminism
(D) Liberatarian Feminism

32. Who was the director - producer of the first full length Indian film Raja
Harishchandra?

(A) Sudhir Phadke
(B) V. Shantaram
(C) R. Nataraja Mudaliar
(D) Dhundiraj Govind Phalke

33. Who is the author of the book ''The Kingdom of God is Within You‟?

(A) John Stuart Mill
(B) Ivan Turgenev
(C) Walt Whitman
(D) Leo Tolstoy

34. Who was founder of the Satyashodhak Samaj in Maharashtra?

(A) V.S. Khandekar
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) V.D. Savarkar
(D) Jyotiba Phule

35. The renowned Indologist Max Müller edited the 50 volumes of

(A) The Story of the World
(B) A History of India
(C) The Sacred books of Hindus
(D) The Sacred books of the East

36. “I Have a Dream” is a historical speech delivered by

(A) Martin Luther King, Jr.
(B) Abraham Lincoln
(C) Nelson Mandela
(D) Frantz Fanon

37. "Historical Materialism" was expounded by …………. as theoretical approach to
study politics and societies

(A) Charles Darwin
(B) Adam Smith
(C) Karl Marx
(D) Francis Bacon

38. Long Walk to Freedom is the inspirational autobiography of

(A) Martin Luther King Jr.
(B) Abraham Lincoln
(C) Nelson Mandela
(D) Frantz Fanon

39. Who was the first Governor-General of Bengal?
(A) Warren Hastings
(B) William Bentinck
(C) Lord Dalhosie
(D) Lord Auck land

40. Which place was the capital city of Tipu Sultan?
(A) Mysore
(B) Srirangapattanam
(C) Shringeri
(D) Dindigal

41. For which movement did Gandhiji give the slogan, ‘Do or Die’?

(A) Civil disobedience movement
(B) Khilafat movement
(C) Quit India Movement
(D) Salt Satyagraha movement

42. Who is the First President of America?

(A) Thomas Jefferson
(B) Abraham Lincoln
(C) Benjamin Franklin
(D) George Washington

43. Which of the following civilisations was the first to use potter’s wheel to make iron
implements?

(A) Mesopotamian civilisation
(B) Greek civilisation
(C) Roman civilisation
(D) Chinese civilisation

44. Which city’s governance in the world announced first to go 100% paperless?

(A) Washington
(B) Tokyo
(C) Dubai
(D) Beijing

45. Which of the following is the first residential university in the world?

(A) Nalanda
(B) Takshashila
(C) Vikramashila
(D) Valabhi

46. In which country does the Mount Everest lie?

(A) India
(B) China
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Nepal

47. Indian State having the longest coastline

(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Gujarat
(C) Kerala
(D) West Bengal

48. First country that made public transport free

(A) France
(B) Switzerland
(C) Sweden
(D) Luxembourg

49. India got Gold Medal in Tokyo Olympics 2020 in

(A) Badminton
(B) Javelin throw
(C) Shooting
(D) Hockey

50. Vitamin E deficiency leads to

(A) Dermatitis
(B) Anaemia
(C) Infertility
(D) Night Blindness

ANALYTICAL REASONING CAPABILITY

51. In a class of 45 students, one of the student ranks 20th. When two more students take
admission then his rank gets one place down. What is his position from the bottom?

(A) 28
(B) 26
(C) 25
(D) 27

52. A is the mother of D and sister of B. B has a daughter C who is married to F. G is the
husband of A. How is G related to D?

(A) Son
(B) Father
(C) Uncle
(D) Husband

53. If the price of a book is first decreased by 25% and then increased by 20%, then the
net change in the price will be

(A) 10% increase
(B) 20% increase
(C) 10% decrease
(D) 5% decrease

54. Two numbers are in the ratio of 3:7. If 5 is subtracted from each of the numbers, the
ratio becomes 4:11. The numbers are

(A) 18,42
(B) 12,28
(C) 9,16
(D) 21,49

55. Direction: In the following question, given a statement followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then
consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows
beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.
Statements:
(i) All servants are cooks
(ii) Some cooks are peons
Conclusions:
(I) Some servants are peons
(II) Peons which are cooks, are not servants

(A) Only conclusion (II) follows
(B) Only conclusion (I) follows
(C) Both conclusions follow
(D) None of the conclusions follows

56. Francis is two years older than Amar who is twice as old as Nirmal. If the total of the
ages of Francis, Amar and Nirmal is 27, then how old is Amar?

(A) 11
(B) 9
(C) 12
(D) 10

57. Renu, Sheena, Heena and Seema are sitting around a table. Renu is just right to the
Sheena. Heena is left to Seema. Who amongst the following facing each other?

(A) Renu – Sheena
(B) Renu – Seema
(C) Sheena – Seema
(D) Heena – Renu

58. Reptile is to lizard as Flower is to

(A) petal
(B) stem
(C) tulip
(D) alligator

59. If ROSE is coded as 6821, CHAIR is coded as 73456 and PREACH is coded as
961473, what will be the code for SEARCH?

(A) 246173
(B) 214673
(C) 214367
(D) 216473

60. If in a certain language FASHION is coded as FOIHSAN, how is PROBLEM coded
in that code?

(A) ROBLEMP
(B) PELBORM
(C) PRBOELM
(D) RPBOELM

61. The present population of a city “X” is 180000. If it increases at the rate of 10% per
annum, its population after 2 years will be:

(A) 207800
(B) 227800
(C) 217800
(D) 237800

62. If in a certain code '157' means 'Mother always affectionate'. '619' means 'Always
fortunate future' and '952' means 'Mother very fortunate' then which digit is used for
'future' ?

(A) 9
(B) 6
(C) Data inadequate
(D) 1

Direction (Q. No. 63-67): Based on the given statements, answer the question given below:

Anita and Amit play hockey and cricket.
Amit and Madhu like to play chess and hockey.
Alok and Anita play football and cricket.
Alok and Srishti play golf and football.
Srishti is good at golf, football and chess

63. Who among the following plays chess, hockey and cricket?

(A) Anita
(B) Alok
(C) Srishti
(D) Amit

64. Who among the following plays golf, football and cricket?

(A) Srishti
(B) Anita
(C) Alok
(D) Amit

65. Who among the following plays hockey and chess but not cricket?

(A) Srishti
(B) Alok
(C) Madhu
(D) Amit

66. Who among the following plays golf, football and chess?

(A) Srishti
(B) Alok
(C) Madhu
(D) Amit

67. Who among the following plays cricket, hockey and football?

(A) Amit
(B) Anita
(C) Srishti
(D) Madhu

68. A boat moves downstream at the rate of 1 km in 6 minutes and upstream at the rate of
1 km in 10 minutes. The speed of current is

(A) 2 km/hr
(B) 1 km/hr
(C) 1.5 km/hr
(D) 2.5 km/hr

69. The area of a rectangle is 16 sq. metres and its length is 4 times that of breadth. What
is the perimeter of the rectangle?

(A) 20 m
(B) 18 m
(C) 16 m
(D) 14 m

70. A bicycle marked at Rs. 1,500 is sold for Rs. 1,350. What is the percentage of
discount?

(A) 12%
(B) 15%
(C) 11%
(D) 10%

71. 12 men complete a 2400 sq.m ploughing work in 10 days. How many men are
required to complete 3600 sq.m ploughing work in 18 days?

(A) 10 men
(B) 15 men
(C) 18 men
(D) 20 men

Direction: for Question Numbers (72 – 74) : Read the following information carefully and
choose the appropriate option in the questions given below

(I) There is a group of five persons – Albert, Burn, Cash, Dan and Ether
(II) One of them is a Singer, one is a Dancer, one is a Painter, one is a Teacher and
one is a Doctor
(III) Three of them – Albert, Cash and the Doctor prefer rice to chapatti and two of
them – Burn and the Painter prefer chapatti to rice
(IV) The Teacher, Dan and Albert are friends to one another but two of these prefer
chapatti to rice
(V) The Singer is Cash’s brother

72. Who is a Dancer?

(A) Dan
(B) Cash
(C) Albert
(D) Ether

73. Who is a Teacher?

(A) Burn
(B) Ether
(C) Cash
(D) Dan

74. Who is a Singer?

(A) Cash
(B) Dan
(C) Albert
(D) Burn

75. If in a code language, ‘ABANDON’ is written as ‘aramoim’; ‘BORE’ is written as
‘rits’ and ‘BASIL’ is written as ‘rabut’, then what is the original word for the code:
‘bituo’?

(A) SOMAD
(B) SOLID
(C) NASIA
(D) SOFIA

76. Direction: The following question has a statement followed by two Conclusions I
and II. Consider the statement and the following conclusions. Decide which of the
conclusion follows from the statement.

Statement: Fortune favours the brave

Conclusions:
(I) Risks are necessary for success
(II) Cowards die many times before their death

(A) Conclusion I follows
(B) Conclusion II follows
(C) Either Conclusion I or II follows
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

77. Direction: The following question has a statement followed by two Conclusions I
and II. Consider the statement and the following conclusions. Decide which of the
conclusion follows from the statement.

Statement: Morning walks are good for health

Conclusions:
(I) All healthy people go for morning walks
(II) Evening walks are harmful

(A) Conclusion I follows
(B) Conclusion II follows
(C) Either Conclusion I or II follows
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

78. Direction: The following question has a statement followed by two Conclusions I
and II. Consider the statement and the following conclusions. Decide which of the
conclusion follows from the statement.

Statement: The best way to escape from a problem is to solve it

Conclusions:
(I) Your life will be dull if you don’t face a problem
(II) To escape from problems, you should always have some solution
with you

(A) Conclusion I follows
(B) Conclusion II follows
(C) Either Conclusion I or II follows
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

79. Direction: The following question has a statement followed by two Conclusions I
and II. Consider the statement and the following conclusions. Decide which of the
conclusion follows from the statement.

Statement: The best evidence of India’s glorious past is the growing
popularity of Ayurvedic medicines in the West

Conclusions:
(I) Ayurvedic medicines are not popular in India
(II) Allopathic medicines are more popular in India

(A) Conclusion I follows
(B) Conclusion II follows
(C) Either Conclusion I or II follows
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

80. Direction: The following question has a statement followed by two Conclusions I
and II. Consider the statement and the following conclusions. Decide which of the
conclusion follows from the statement.

Statement: Animals live on oxygen

Conclusions:
(I) Plants do not live on oxygen
(II) Anything that needs oxygen is bound to be animal

(A) Conclusion I follows
(B) Conclusion II follows
(C) Either Conclusion I or II follows
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

Directions (81-83) Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions

(I) Eight friends A,B,C,D,E,F,G and H are seated in a circle facing the centre
(II) D is between B and G and F is between A and H
(III) E is second to the right of A

81. Which of the following is A’s position?

(A) Left of F
(B) Right of F
(C) Between E and F
(D) Cannot be determined

82. Which of the following information is not required to ascertain the position of C?

(A) I
(B) Either II or III
(C) III
(D) All required

83. Which of the following is C’s position?

(A) Between E and F
(B) Between G and E
(C) Second to the left of B
(D) None of these

Directions (84-89) Read the following information carefully to answer the questions that
follow

(I) There is a family of six members
(II) Members are A,B,C D,E and F
(III) A and B are married couple, B being the female member
(IV) B is the daughter-in-law of F
(V) D is the only son of C
(VI) E is the sister of D
(VII) F’s husband is not alive
(VIII) C is A’s brother

84. How is F related to C?

(A) Sister
(B) Mother
(C) Aunt
(D) Mother-in-Law

85. How is E related to C?

(A) Mother
(B) Aunt
(C) Cousin
(D) Daughter

86. Who is C to B?

(A) Nephew
(B) Brother
(C) Brother –in-law
(D) Son-in-law

87. How is F related to A?

(A) Sister
(B) Sister – in – law
(C) Mother
(D) Mother-in-law

88. How many males are there in the family?

(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2

89. How many females are there in the family?

(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 2

90. Vandana is going northwards. She turns right, moves some distance and again turns to
her right. After moving some distance she turns to her left, goes forward and again
turns to her left. In which direction now is Vandana going?

(A) North
(B) South-West
(C) South
(D) West

91. Shiv goes 4 km straight from his school. He turns to his right and walks 3 km. He
again moves 2 km after turning right to reach his house. If his house is located in
South-East from his school, then in which direction Shiv started moving initially from
his school?

(A) North-East
(B) West
(C) East
(D) North

92. The time on the watch is 9:15 and the hour hand points towards West. The direction
of the minute hand is

(A) North
(B) South
(C) East
(D) West

93. If ‘SWAMINATHAN’ is coded as ‘NAHTANIMAWS’ in a certain code language,
then how would you code ‘SIRNAME’ in that language?

(A) EMAMSIR
(B) EMARNIS
(C) EMNARIS
(D) EMANRIS

94. Direction: In the following question, two words are given which are related to each
other in a particular manner and you have to find the word from the given alternative
which bears exactly same relationship to the third word, as the first two bear.

‘Metal’ is related to ‘Sculptor’ in the same way as ‘Canvas’ is related to

(A) Painter
(B) Cloth
(C) Colours
(D) Painting

95. Direction: In the following question, two words are given which are related to each
other in a particular manner and you have to find the word from the given alternative
which bears exactly same relationship to the third word, as the first two bear.

‘Ship’ is related to ‘Captain’ in the same way as ‘Newspaper’ is related to

(A) Reader
(B) Printer
(C) Publisher
(D) Editor

96. Vinay is taller than Hansika, Hansika is taller than Abhay, Aalok is taller than
Ashok and Ashok is taller than Vinay. Who is the shortest in the group?

(A) Aalok
(B) Ashok
(C) Hansika
(D) Abhay

97. In a group of five persons Kamal is the tallest while Lata is the shortest. Rashmi is
shorter than Kamal but taller than Vandana and Prem. Prem is second shortest person
in the group. Who is the third tallest?

(A) Vandana
(B) Rashmi
(C) Prem
(D) Lata

98. Vishal is elder than Aakash but younger than Subhi, Yaksh is younger than Deepak
but elder than Aakash. If Subhi is younger than Deepak, then who is the eldest?

(A) Aakash
(B) Vishal
(C) Subhi
(D) Deepak

99. Sunil is heavier than Abhinav but not as heavier as Rajiv. Abhinav is heavier than
Jayesh. Kashi is heavier than Sunil but not as heavier as Rajiv.Who is the heaviest?

(A) Sunil
(B) Abhinav
(C) Rajiv
(D) Kashi

100. Vikash is more competent than Keshav, Shiv is less competent than Aashu but more
competent than Keshav. Vikash is less competent than Shiv. Who is the most
competent in the group?

(A) Aashu
(B) Keshav
(C) Vikash
(D) Shiv

COMPULSORY PAPERS IN LAW AS PRESCRIBED BY THE BAR COUNCIL OF INDIA

101. Which of the following statements about the offence of dacoity under the Indian Penal
Code, 1860 are correct

(I) Attempt to commit dacoity is punishable
(II) Assembling for the purpose of dacoity is punishable
(III) Preparation for dacoity is punishable

(A) Only (I) and (III) are correct
(B) Only (I) and (II) are correct
(C) Only (II) and (III) are correct
(D) (I), (II) and (III) are correct

102. Who among the following remarked that international law is positive morality?

(A) Lon Fuller
(B) Jeremy Bentham
(C) H.L.A. Hart
(D) John Austin

103. In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court made it mandatory for
candidates contesting elections to the legislatures and their spouses to declare their
source of income at the time of filing nominations?

(A) People’s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India
(B) Jan Chaukidar v. Union of India
(C) Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India
(D) Lok Prahari v. Union of India

104. In which of the following offences, a minimum five offenders are required?

(I) Affray
(II) Robbery
(III) Dacoity
(IV) Rioting

(A) (I), (II) and (III) only
(B) (II), (III) and (IV) only
(C) (I) and (IV) only
(D) (III) and (IV) only

105. Dissolution of a firm can be carried by

(A) expiry of the term for which it was constituted
(B) adjudication of a partner as an insolvent
(C) death of a partner
(D) All of these

106. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option

(I) The Bolitho test relates to medical negligence
(II) The Bolitho test was referred to in Malay Kumar Ganguly v. Sukumar
Mukherjee

(A) Both (I) and (II) are correct
(B) Both (I) and (II) are incorrect
(C) (I) is correct but (II) is incorrect
(D) (I) is incorrect but (II) is correct

107. ‘A’ instigates ‘B’ to murder ‘C’. ‘B’ refuses to do so. Which offence under the Indian
Penal Code, 1860 has been committed by ‘A’?

(A) No offence
(B) Abetting to commit murder
(C) Conspiracy to commit murder
(D) Attempt to murder

108. Which of the following goals are mentioned in the preamble of the UN Charter?

(I) To save succeeding generations from the scourge of war
(II) To reaffirm faith in fundamental human rights, in the dignity and worth of the
human person, in the equal rights of men and women and of nations large and
small
(III) To promote social progress and better standards of life in larger freedom
(IV) To promote democratic order in conflict-ridden societies

Choose the correct option from below:

(A) Only (I) and (III) are correct
(B) Only (I) and (II) are correct
(C) Only (II) and (IV) are correct
(D) (I), (II) and (III) are correct

109. Match list I with list II and choose the best answer

List I (Acts) List II (Years)
(a) The Forests (Conservation Act) (1) 1972
(b) The Wildlife (Protection) Act (2) 1974
(c) Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act (3) 1960
(d) Water (Prevention and Control of (4) 1980
Pollution) Act

(A) (a) – (3), (b) – (4), (c) – (1), (d) – (2)
(B) (a) – (3), (b) – (1), (c) – (2), (d) – (4)
(C) (a) – (4), (b) – (3), (c) – (1), (d) – (2)
(D) (a) – (4), (b) – (1), (c) – (3), (d) – (2)

110. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer given below

List I List II
(Cases) (Authority for)
(a) Carllic v. Carbolic Smoke ball Co. (1) Offers at large
(b) Fischer v. Bell (2) Invitation to treat
(c) Tin v. Hoffman (3) Quotation of price
(d) Harvey v. Facey (4) Cross offers

(A) (a) – (4), (b) – (2), (c) – (3), (d) – (1)
(B) (a) – (1), (b) – (2), (c) – (3), (d) – (4)
(C) (a) – (1), (b) – (3), (c) – (4), (d) – (2)
(D) (a) – (1), (b) – (2), (c) – (4), (d) – (3)

111. A contracts to pay B Rs.10000 if B’s house is burnt. This is a

(A) void contract
(B) voidable contract
(C) contingent contract
(D) standard form contract

112. Agreements entered by a minor are

(A) Void
(B) Voidable
(C) Void ab intio
(D) Enforceable contracts

113. Which of the following is an offer?

(A) A catalogue of goods for sale
(B) Advertisement for sale of goods
(C) Advertisement for auction of goods
(D) A bid at an auction sale

114. As per Sec.10 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 when parties fail to
determine the number of arbitrators the arbitral tribunal shall consist of

(A) One arbitrator
(B) Two arbitrators
(C) Three arbitrators
(D) Any number of persons as decided by the court

115. Arrange in chronological order the cases listed below starting with the earliest

(1) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
(2) Sajjan Singh Case
(3) Keshavanada Bharathi v. State of Kerela
(4) Golaknath v.State of Punjab

(A) (1) - (2) - (3) - (4)
(B) (1) - (2) - (4) - (3)
(C) (1) - (4) - (3) - (2)
(D) (4) - (3) - (2) - (1)

116. Which of the following statements regarding the Keshavananda Bharthi Case are
RIGHT?

(I) The Keshavananda Bharathi case is also called the Fundamental Rights Case
(II) The amendments challenged were 24, 25 and 29
(III) The 24th amendment was held valid by all 13 judges of the bench
(IV) Justice Khanna didn’t hold the right to property as a basic feature in the case
(V) The 25th and the 29th amendments were held valid in the case

(A) (I), (III) and (V)
(B) (I), (II), and (III)
(C) (II), (III), (IV) and (V)
(D) (I), (II), (III) and (IV)

117. Which one of the followings pairs is NOT correctly matched?

(A) Colourable Legislation What cannot be done directly can be done indirectly
(B) Pith and substance Incidental encroachment on the field of another
legislature is permissible
(C) Territorial Nexus Subject of legislation must have territorial
connection with state
(D) Repugnancy A situation in which a law made by the Union is in
conflict with a law made by the state

118. Match List (I) with List (II) and select the correct answer given below:

List I List II
(Case) (General Principle referred)
(a) Chorzow Factory (1) Estoppel
(b) Diversion of water from Meuse (2) Res judicata
(c) Mosul Boundary Case (3) No one can be a Judge in his one
cause
(d) German interests in Upper Silesia (4) Litispendence

(A) (a) - (1), (b) - (2), (c) - (4), (d) - (3)
(B) (a) - (2), (b) - (1), (c) - (3), (d) - (4)
(C) (a) - (4), (b) - (1), (c) - (3), (d) - (2)
(D) (a) - (3), (b) - (2), (c) - (4), (d) - (1)

119. No act is an offence, which is done by a person who is

(A) 100 year old man
(B) 12 year old girl
(C) 18 year old girl
(D) 6 year old boy

120. The Maxim ‘de minimus non curat lex’ means

(A) Law would not take action in serious matter
(B) Law would not take action on small and trifling matter
(C) Law does not ignore any act which causes the slightest harm
(D) Law would take action in small and trifling act

121. The Supreme Court recognized, ‘transgender people as a third gender’ in its landmark
judgement in the case of:

(A) NAZ foundation v. Govt. of NCT (Delhi)
(B) NALSA v. Union of India
(C) Baljit Sing v. State of Haryana
(D) Vajresh Vankatray v. State of Karnataka

122. A man who allows his brother who is sick and an idiot to die will

(A) be liable for the death as liability arises only when a man is under legal duty
(B) not be liable for the death as liability doesn’t arise when a man is under legal
duty
(C) be liable for the death as liability doesn’t arise when a man is under legal duty
(D) not be liable for the death as liability arises only when a man is under legal
duty

123. Holland has defined ‘jurisprudence’ as
(A) “the science of law”
(B) “the formal science of positive law”
(C) “the formal science of actual law”
(D) “the science of civil and positive law”

124. Which of the following is INCORRECT?
(A) Salmond defines legislation as, “that source of law which consists in the
declaration of legal rules by a competent authority”
(B) Prof. Patterson defines obiter dictum as a “statement of law in the opinion
which could not logically be a major premise of the selected facts of the
decision”
(C) Prof. Allen defines custom as “the uniformity of conduct of all persons under
like circumstances”
(D) Pindar called law as “the king of all, both mortals and immortals”

125. Person is derived from ……………….. word persona

(A) Greek
(B) Hebrew
(C) Sumerian
(D) Latin

126. “One by which two persons, professing to hold opposite views touching the issue of a
future uncertain event, mutually agree that, dependant on the determination of that
event, one shall win from the other, and that other shall pay or hand over to him, a
sum of money or other stake; neither of the parties having any other interest in that
contract than the sum or stake he will win or lose, there is no other consideration for
making of such contract by either of the parties. If either of the parties may win but
cannot lose or may lose but cannot win, it is not a wagering contract”. This
observation can be attributed to

(A) GherulalParekh v. MahadeoDas 1959 AIR 781
(B) Carlill v. Carbolic Smokeball Co [1893] 1 QB 256 (CA)
(C) Williams v. Carwardine[1833] EWHC KB J44
(D) Brogden v. Metropolitan Rly Co (1866-77) LR 2 App Cas 666

127. Which of the following is NOT related to the test of reasonable foresight under law of
torts?

(A) Re Polemis (1971) 3 KB 560
(B) Overseas Tankship (UK) Ltd. V.Morts Dock and Engineering Company Ltd.
(1961) AC 388
(C) Hughes v. Lord Advocate (1963) 1 All ER 705
(D) Doughty v. Turner Manufacturing Co. Ltd. (1964) 1 QB 518

128. Ferae Naturae means

(A) wild animals
(B) domesticated animals
(C) both wild as well as domesticated animals
(D) flowers that grow naturally

129. Choose the correct option from the following pairs

(I) Ashby v. White (1) Rescue cases
(II) Haynes v. Harwood (2) Doctrine of alternative danger
(III) Brook v. Bool (3) Law of Tort
(IV) Jones v. Boyce (4) Joint Tortfeasors

(A) (I) - (3), (II) - (2), (III) - (4), (IV) - (1)
(B) (I) - (3), (II) - (1), (III) - (4), (IV) - (2)
(C) (I) - (4), (II) - (2), (III) - (3), (IV) - (1)
(D) (I) - (3), (II) - (4), (III) - (1), (IV) - (2)

130. Which of these is a divorce based on mutual consent under the Muslim law?

(A) Khula
(B) Ila
(C) Zihar
(D) Lian

131. Which of these is NOT correct?

(A) Culpable homicide is not murder if the offender, in the exercise in good faith of
the right of private defence of person or property, exceeds the power given to
him by law and causes the death of the person against whom he is exercising
such right of defence without premeditation and without any intention of doing
more harm than is necessary for the purpose of such defence
(B) Culpable homicide is not murder if the offender, being a public servant or
aiding a public servant for the advancement of public justice, exceeds the
powers given to him by law, and causes the death by doing an act which he in
good faith believes to be lawful and necessary for the due discharge of his duty
as such public servant and without ill-will towards the person whose death is
caused
(C) Culpable homicide is not murder if the offender, whilst deprived of the power
of self-control by grave and sudden provocation, causes the death of the person
who gave the provocation or causes the death of any other person by mistake
or accident
(D) Culpable homicide is not murder if it is committed without premeditation in
the heat of passion upon a sudden quarrel and without the offenders having
taken undue advantage or acted in a cruel or unusual manner

132. The Constitution (104th Amendment) Act relates to

(A) the determination of socially and educationally backwards classes
(B) reservation for economically weaker sections
(C) constitutional status to National Commission for Backward classes
(D) reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Tribes in LokSabha and State
Assemblies

133. In which of the following cases, Supreme Court struck down Part IX-B of the
Constitution?

(A) Pichda VargKalyanMahasabha v. State of Haryana
(B) Union of India v. Rajendra N Shah
(C) Mehsana Dist. C.Co-op. Bank Ltd. v. State of Gujarat
(D) The Bijnor Urban Cooperative Bank Ltd., Bijnor Vs. Meenal Agarwal

134. A mortgages a certain plot of building land to B and afterwards erects a house on the
plot. For the purpose of his security, B is entitled to

(A) the house only
(B) the plot only
(C) the house as well as the plot
(D) the mortgage stands cancelled due to erection of house

135. Choose the incorrect statement in reference to the Transfer of Property Act, 1882

(A) Section 35 relates to the doctrine of election
(B) Section 13 deals with transfer for the benefit of unborn person
(C) A transfer by an ostensible owner shall not be voidable on the ground that the
transferor was not authorized to make it
(D) Every transfer of immovable property made with intent to defeat or delay the
creditors of the transferor shall be void

136. A agrees absolutely in writing to pay B, Rs. 1000 on the 1st March, 2022. The fact
that, at the same time an oral agreement was made that the money should not be paid
till the thirty-first March

(A) can be proved
(B) shall be proved
(C) cannot be proved
(D) should not be proved

137. In the case of public nuisance, a suit for declaration and injunction may be instituted

(A) by the Advocate-General
(B) by two or more persons, with the leave of the Court
(C) by the Attorney General or two or more persons
(D) both (A) and (B)

138. Which of these is NOT a member of the Selection Committee recommending the
appointment of Chairperson and members of Lokpal?

(A) Chairman of the Council of States
(B) Speaker of the House of the People
(C) Leader of Opposition in the House of the People
(D) One eminent jurist nominated by the President, on the recommendations of
Chairperson and other members of Selection Committee

139. Offences punishable with imprisonment of three years and above under the
Information Technology Act, 2000 shall be

(A) cognizable
(B) cognizable and bailable
(C) bailable
(D) determined as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973

140. Meaning of the word “Volksgeist” is

(A) General consciousness of the people
(B) Law prevailing in the country
(C) The bunch of customs
(D) The series of judge made laws

141. “Nemo debut vis Vexari” principles is related to

(A) Self incriminatory
(B) Ex-post facto law
(C) Retrospective operation
(D) Double Jeopardy

142. On whose recommendation was the Constituent Assembly formed?

(A) Cabinet Mission Plan
(B) Government of India Act, 1935
(C) Mountbatten Plan
(D) Cripp’s mission

143. What does the principle ‘pacta sunt servanda’ means?

(A) Parties to a treaty should adhere to its terms in good faith
(B) Parties to a treaty should be cognizant of its terms and not misinterpret them
(C) Parties to a treaty should not violate the most important provisions of the treaty
(D) Parties to a treaty should safeguard the object and purpose of the treaty

144. Which state ordinarily exercise jurisdiction in respect of crimes committed on board
of vessels?

(A) The coastal state
(B) The flag state
(C) All states enjoy such jurisdiction
(D) The international tribunal for the law of the sea

145. A quasi-contract is based on the principle that

(A) No one shall be allowed to retain unjust benefit at the expense of another
(B) No one shall be allowed to breach the contract
(C) Words given shall always be honoured
(D) Gentlemen should honor their obligations

146. A certificate of Registration of a Trade Union may be cancelled on the

(A) application made by the trade union
(B) directions of the Conciliation officer
(C) basis of the award made by the labour court
(D) request made by the employer

147. Section 303 IPC prescribed death sentences mandatory to a convict who commits
murder while undergoing the sentence of life imprisonment. This section has been
struck down as unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in

(A) Ranjith Singh Vs. Union of India
(B) Mithu Vs. State of Punjab
(C) Hukiram Pardhan Vs. State
(D) V.K.Saxena Vs. State of U.P.

148. The right to compensation for the victim of unlawful arrest and detention has been
recognised by the Supreme Court, in

(A) Neela Bati Behra Vs. State of Orissa
(B) A.K.Gopalan Vs. State of Madras
(C) Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union of India
(D) M.C.Mehta Vs. Union Bank of India

149. ‘Ashby Vs. White’ case stands for

(A) Damnum sine injuria
(B) Injuria Sine damnum
(C) Negligence
(D) Recklessness

150. If the information sought under the RTI Act, 2005 is concerned with the life of liberty
of a person, the same shall be provided within.................of the receipt of the
application

(A) 30 days
(B) 7 days
(C) 48 hours
(D) 24 hours

FINAL ANSWER KEY
Subject Name: LAW (FOR LLM)
SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key
1 B 31 B 61 C 91 C 121 B
2 C 32 D 62 C 92 C 122 D
3 B 33 D 63 D 93 D 123 B
4 A 34 D 64 C 94 A 124 C
5 B 35 D 65 C 95 D 125 D
6 C 36 A 66 A 96 D 126 B
7 B 37 C 67 B 97 A 127 A
8 D 38 C 68 A 98 D 128 A
9 C 39 A 69 A 99 C 129 B
10 A 40 B 70 D 100 A 130 A
11 B 41 C 71 A 101 D 131 D
12 D 42 D 72 A 102 D 132 D
13 A 43 A 73 C 103 D 133 B
14 C 44 C 74 C 104 D 134 C
15 C 45 A 75 B 105 D 135 D
16 B 46 D 76 A 106 A 136 C
17 D 47 B 77 D 107 C 137 D
18 C 48 D 78 B 108 D 138 A
19 A 49 B 79 D 109 D 139 A
20 A 50 C 80 D 110 D 140 A
21 A 51 D 81 B 111 C 141 D
22 C 52 B 82 D 112 C 142 A
23 D 53 C 83 D 113 D 143 A
24 D 54 D 84 B 114 A 144 B
25 B 55 B 85 D 115 B 145 A
26 B 56 D 86 C 116 D 146 A
27 B 57 B 87 C 117 A 147 B
28 D 58 C 88 C 118 B 148 A
29 C 59 B 89 B 119 D 149 B
30 C 60 B 90 A 120 B 150 C