CUET PG 2026 Information Brochure

COMMON UNIVERSITY
ENTRANCE TEST
(POST GRADUATION)

CUET(PG)‌
2026‌

National Testing Agency

Vision
The right candidates joining best institutions will give India her demographic dividend.

Mission
To improve equity and quality in education by administering research based valid,
reliable, efficient, transparent, fair and international level assessments. The best subject
matter experts, psychometricians and IT delivery and security professionals will ensure
that the current gap in existing assessment systems are properly identified and bridged.

Core Values
NTA will create a system which will promote teaching (by teachers), learning (by
students) and assessment (by parents and institutions). NTA strongly believes in quality,
efficiency, effectiveness, equity and security of assessments. To practice these values,
NTA will constantly engage with its stakeholders, viz. students, parents, teachers, experts
and partner institutions.

INDEX
S. NO. CONTENT PAGE NO.
Important Information, Dates at a Glance, Fee
- 4
Structure & Application Procedure
Chapter-1 Introduction 8
1.1 About National Testing Agency (NTA)
1.2 The objectives of NTA
1.3 About CUET (PG) - 2026
1.4 Role of NTA
Chapter-2 Examination Scheme 9
2.1 Mode of Examination
2.2 Medium of Question Papers (QP)
2.3 Medium of Language Papers
2.4 Structure of Examination
2.5 Marking Scheme
2.6 Programme/ Courses/ Discipline and Syllabus
Chapter-3 Eligibility Criteria & Qualifications 11
3.1 Educational Qualification
3.2 University- Specific Age Criteria
Chapter-4 Reservation 12
4.1 Reservation
Provisions relating to Persons with Disability (PwD)/ Persons with
4.2
Benchmark Disability (PwBD)
Chapter-5 Choice of Cities 15
Chapter-6 e-Admit Card 16
Chapter-7 Important Instructions for the CUET (PG)- 2026 17
Unfair Means Practices and Breach of Examination
Chapter-8 19
Rules
8.1 Definition
8.2 Punishment for Using Unfair Means Practices
Chapter-9 Display of Answer Keys for Challenge 21
9.1 Display of Provisional Answer Keys for Challenges
9.2 Display of Recorded Responses
CUET (PG) - 2026 NTA Score for Admissions in
Chapter-10 22
Participating Universities.
10.1 CUET (PG)- 2026 NTA Score for Admission in Participating University
10.2 Re-evaluation/ Re-checking of Result
10.3 Admissions
Chapter-11 Miscellaneous 23
11.1 Correspondence with NTA
11.2 Weeding out Rules
11.3 Legal Jurisdiction

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S. NO. CONTENT PAGE NO.
11.4 RTI
Annexure
Certificate for a person with specified disability covered under
the definition of Section 2 (s) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not
Annexure I covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the said Act, i.e. 25
persons having less than 40% disability and having difficulty in
writing
Annexure II Letter of Undertaking for Using Own Scribe 26
Certificate regarding the physical limitation of an examinee to
Annexure III 27
write
Appendix
Payment of Exam Fee - Procedure/ Mode / Service Provider,
Appendix I 29
Service Charges and Helpdesk
CUET (PG) List of Question Paper Codes with Programme/
Appendix II 31
Courses/ Discipline
Appendix III List of Examination Cities for CUET (PG) – 2026 35
Appendix IV Computer Based Test (CBT) Guidelines 41
Procedure to be adopted for compilation of NTA scores for
Appendix V Multi-Session Papers (Normalization procedure based on 44
Percentile Score)
Procedure to be adopted for compilation of NTA scores in
Appendix VI 48
case of Multi-Session Papers
Appendix VII Gazette Notification for PwBD Candidate 57
Appendix VIII Replica of CUET (PG) - 2026 Examination 60

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IMPORTANT INFORMATION AND DATES AT A GLANCE
Important Dates and Fee Details

Events Tentative Date(s)
Online registration and submission of Application Form 14 December 2025 to 14 January 2026
(complete in all respects) through NTA Website (up to 11:50 P.M.)
Last date for successful transaction of Examination fee (through 14 January 2026
Credit Card/ Debit Card/Net Banking/UPI Payment Modes) (up to 11:50 P.M.)
Correction in the Particulars of the Application Form online 18 January 2026 to 20 January 2026
only (up to 11:50 P.M.)
Intimation of the Cities of exam centres To be Intimated Later
Downloading of the e-Admit Card by the Candidate from the
To be Intimated Later
NTA Website
Month of Examination March 2026
Duration of Examination 90 minutes
Note: Compensatory time for PwBD candidates will be 20 minutes per hour as per Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment dt
29th August 2018
Timing of Examination To be Intimated Later
Exam Centre, Date and Shift Will be indicated on the e-Admit Card
Display of Recorded Responses and Provisional AnswerKeys on
the Website for inviting challenge(s) from Interested To be announced later on website
candidates.
Declaration of Result on the NTA website To be Intimated Later
https://exams.nta.nic.in/cuet-pg/,
Website(s)
www.nta.ac.in
Email [email protected]
Helpline Number 011-40759000

Fee Payable for CUET (PG)- 2026
(Pay fee using the Payment Gateway(s) integrated to the Online Application through Net Banking Debit Card /
Credit Card / UPI)
Application Fee Fees for additional Test
Category
(for up to two Test Papers) Papers (Per Test Paper)
General ₹ 1400 ₹ 700
Gen-EWS*/ OBC-NCL** ₹ 1200 ₹ 600
Scheduled Caste (SC) / Scheduled Tribes
₹ 1100 ₹ 600
(ST)/ Third Gender
Person with Disability PwD/ PwBD ₹1000 ₹ 600
Outside Bharat ₹ 7000 ₹ 3500
Applicable service/processing charges & GST over and above the Examination Fee, are to be paid by the candidate to
the concerned Bank / Payment Gateway Integrator. For details, please refer to Appendix -I
*As per the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated January 17, 2019 issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and
the OM No. 12-4/2019-U1 dated 17.01.2019 as well as the Letters No 35-2/2019- dated 21.01.2019, 01.02.2019, 04.02.2019 and
15.02.2019 of MHRD Department of Higher Education regarding implementation of reservation for Economically Weaker Sections
(EWSs) for admission in Central Educational Institutions.
**OBC (Other Backward Classes)-NCL (Non-Creamy Layer) as per the central list of Other Backward Classes available on the
National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC- Government of India website www.ncbc.nic.in). Candidates listed in this
category may indicate OBC in the Category Column. State list OBC Candidates who are not included in OBC-NCL (Central List)
must choose General.

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Important Instruction
a. Candidates can apply for CUET (PG) - 2026 through the “Online” mode only. The
Application Form in any other mode will not be accepted.
b. Candidates must read carefully the Instructions (including how to fill up the Application Form
online) given in the Information Bulletin available on the NTA Website. Candidates who do
not comply with the instructions shall be summarily disqualified.
c. Candidates are advised to fill only one Application Form and to take utmost care while filling
out the mobile number and e-mail address. One mobile number and email address can
be used for only one Application Form.
d. Instructions for filling the Online Application Form:
❖ Download the Information Bulletin and Replica of the Application Form. Read these
carefully to ensure your eligibility.
❖ An applicant may apply for up to four test papers. The total application fee will be
calculated based on the number of subjects selected, with additional charges
applicable for each extra subject as specified above.
❖ Candidates opting for Test Centres outside India will have to pay the application fee of Rs.
7000/- irrespective of the category they belong to for up to two Test Papers and additional fees
for two more papers as mentioned above.
❖ Follow the steps given below to Apply Online:
Step1: Registration Form: Register for the Online Application Form and note down the
system-generated Application Number. The candidate should provide the required
details while filling out the Online Application Form and is also required to create
a password, choose a Security Question, and enter their answer to the security
question. After successful submission of the personal details, an application number
will be generated, and it will be used to complete the remaining Steps of the
Application Form and will also be required for all future reference/correspondence.
For subsequent logins, the candidate will be able to login directly with the
respective system- generated Application Number and created Password.
Step2: Application Form: The Candidates can log in with the system-generated
Application Number and pre-created Password for completing the
Application Form, including filling up personal details, applying for the Paper,
choosing the Examination Cities, providing the details of Educational
Qualifications, and The candidate will have to upload his/her live photograph at
the time of filling of the application form and will also have to upload his/her
Scanned Images of Photograph (.jpeg/.jpg), Signature, and PwD/PwBD Certificate
(wherever applicable).
Upload Scanned Images of the Candidate’s Photograph, Signature, and PwD
Certificate (if applicable).
i. The recent photograph should be either in colour or black and white
with 80% face (without mask) visible including ears, against a white
background.
ii. The scanned photograph and signature should be in JPG/JPEG format (clearly
legible).
iii. The size of the scanned photograph should be between 10 kb and 200 kb
(clearly legible).
iv. The size of the scanned signature should be between 10 kb and 50 kb (clearly
legible)

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v. Scanned copy of Disability/UDID certificate should be a pdf between 50 kb and 300 kb
(clearly legible).
[Note: The Candidate must upload only his/her own photograph and signature as mentioned
above (and not of anybody else) in a correct/proper manner.
In case, it is found at any time in the future that the Candidate has used/uploaded the
photograph and signature of someone else in his/her Application Form/e-Admit Card, or
he/she has tampered with his/her e-Admit Card/Result/Score Card, these acts of the
candidate shall be treated as Unfair Means (UFM) Practices and he/she shall be
subject to actions as contemplated under the provisions of the Information Bulletin
relating to Unfair Means Practices.
Please check your photograph and signature before submission of the Application Form.
In case the photograph or signature is blurred or not visible, making it difficult to
identify the identity of the candidate, the application will be rejected, and no option for
correction or revision will be permitted thereafter.
Step 3: Fee Payment: After completing Step 1 and Step 2, the candidates must pay the
requisite examination fee. The fee can be submitted only online through Net
Banking, Credit Card, Debit Card, and UPI Services. Processing charges and GST
as applicable are chargeable to the candidate (in addition to the examination fee)
by the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway Integrator. For details/procedure,
please see Appendix-I. Candidates are advised to read Payment instructions
carefully before paying the application fee.
The Confirmation Page of the online Application Form will be generated
only after successful payment of the fee by the Candidate. In case the
Confirmation Page is not generated after payment of fee, then the candidate may
have to approach the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway (in the helpline numbers
and email given in Appendix- I) for ensuring the successful payment or for
obtaining the refund of multiple payments.
❖ Download, save, and print a copy of the Confirmation Page of the Application
Form (which would be downloadable only after the successful remittance of
the fee) for future reference.
❖ All 3 Steps can be done together or at separate times.
“Candidates are requested to fill in the Application Form very carefully. No corrections will
be permitted once the correction period is complete.” Note: Multiple Application Forms
submitted by a candidate will not be accepted.
e. General Instruction to the Candidate:
1. The submission of the Application of a candidate would be considered successful and
his/her candidature would be confirmed only on the successful transaction/receipt of the
prescribed application fee from him/her.
2. Candidates shall ensure that the information entered by them in their respective online
Application Forms is correct.
3. All candidates must ensure that they have provided the correct and accessible e-mail
address and mobile number. They have to ensure that the email/mobile number either
belongs to them or their parents/guardians, as relevant/important information/
communication will be sent by NTA through e-mail on the registered mail address and/or
through SMS on the registered mobile number only.

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NTA shall NOT be responsible for any non-communication /miscommunication with a candidate
in the email address or mobile number given by him/her other than his/her own.
4. Information provided by the candidates in their respective online Application Forms, like,
the name of the candidate, contact details, address details, category, PwBD status,
educational qualification details, date of birth, choice of exam cities, etc. will be treated as
final. Any request for a change in such particulars will not be considered under
any circumstances.
5. Choice of Centre Cities will be limited to the State/UT of Permanent Address and
State/UT of Present Address only filled during the Online Application Form of
CUET (PG) - 2026
6. NTA does not edit/modify/alter any information entered by the candidates after
completion of the application process under any circumstances. Any request for change in
information after the completion of the correction window will not be entertained.
Therefore, candidates are advised to exercise utmost caution before filling up the correct
details in the Application Form.
7. NTA disclaims any liability that may arise to a candidate(s) due to incorrect information
provided by him/her in his/her online Application Form.
8. NTA is facilitating all candidates with an additional platform of Digi Locker for accessing
their Score Card. Candidates are advised to visit the NTA CUET (PG) Website and also
check their e-mails regularly.
9. Candidates shall appear at their own cost at the Examination Centre on the date, shift, and
time indicated on their e-Admit Cards as issued by the NTA through its Website.
10. Candidates are informed that the list of participating universities is dynamic.
Therefore, candidates are advised to keep visiting the NTA and CUET (PG) websites
for the latest updates.
Note:
i. The final submission of the Online Application Form will remain incomplete if Step 3 is not
completed. Such forms will stand rejected and no correspondence on this account will be
entertained.
ii. The entire application process for CUET (PG)-2026 is online, including uploading of scanned
images/documents, payment of fees, and printing of Confirmation Page, e-Admit Card, etc.
Therefore, candidates shall NOT send/ submit any document(s) including the Confirmation
Page, to NTA through Post/ Fax/ WhatsApp/ Email/ by Hand.
iii. For PwD/PwBD candidates, the details of the UDID Card as uploaded will be verified from
UDID portal of the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (DePwD). Those
who do not have UDID Card should upload Disability Certificate in the proper format.
iv. Usage of Data and Information: NTA/Government of India can use the data provided by the
End Users (test taker in this case) for internal purpose(s) including training, research and
development, analysis, and other permissible purposes (s). However, this information is not
to be used by any third party, private agency, or for any other purpose.

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CHAPTER – 1
INTRODUCTION
1.1 About National Testing Agency (NTA)
The Ministry of Education (MoE), Government of India (GoI) has established the National Testing
Agency (NTA) as an independent, autonomous, and self-sustained premier testing organization under
the Societies Registration Act (1860) for conducting efficient, transparent, and international
standardized tests to assess the competency of candidates for admission to premier higher education
institutions with a mission to improve equity and quality in education by developing and administering
research-based valid, reliable, efficient, transparent, fair and international level assessments.

NTA strongly believes in the quality, efficiency, effectiveness, equity, and security of assessments. To
practice these values, NTA continually engages with its stakeholders, including, viz. students, parents,
teachers, experts, and partner institutions.

1.2 The objectives of NTA, inter alia, include:
i. To conduct efficient, transparent, and international standardized tests to assess the
competency of candidates for admission.
ii. To undertake research on educational, professional, and testing systems to identify gaps in the
knowledge systems and take steps to bridge them.
iii. To produce and disseminate information and research on education and professional
development standards.
The National Testing Agency (NTA) has been entrusted by the Ministry of Education and
University Grants Commission (UGC), with the task of conducting CUET (PG)-2026 for
Central Universities and other Participating Universities/ Institutions/Organizations.

1.3 About Common University Entrance Test (CUET (PG) - 2026)
The Common University Entrance Test (CUET) was introduced in 2022 for admission into PG
programmes in Central and participating Universities. The Common University Entrance Test (CUET)
provides a common platform and equal opportunities to candidates across the country, especially
those from the North-East and from rural and other remote areas, and helps to establish a better
connection with universities. A single Examination enables the Candidates to cover a wide outreach
and be part of the admissions process to various Central Universities and other Participating
Universities.
The CUET (PG) - 2026 scores will be used for admissions to the PG programmes of participating
universities in the next academic session, i.e., 2026-27.
1.4 Role of NTA
The Role of NTA is confined to the registration of candidates, the conduct of the test, hosting answer
keys, inviting challenges, finalizing Answer Keys, preparing and declaring results, and hosting
scorecards. A merit list will be prepared by participating Universities/Organizations.
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CHAPTER – 2
EXAMINATION SCHEME
CUET (PG)- 2026
The CUET (PG)- 2026 will be conducted in Computer Based Test (CBT) mode as per the schedule
specified in the ‘Information at a glance’, in the Subjects given at (refer to Appendix -II) in selected
Cities spread across the Country (refer to Appendix -III).
2.1 Mode of Examination
The Examination shall be conducted in Computer Based Test (CBT) mode only.
2.2 Medium of Question Papers
The medium of the Question Paper for CUET (PG)-2026 will be in English and Hindi (Bilingual) except
for languages, M. Tech/Higher Sciences, and Acharya papers (excluding Hindu Studies, Buddhist
Studies, and Indian Knowledge System).
i. Papers for M. Tech/Higher Sciences will only be in English.
ii. Papers for Humanities, Sciences, and Common Subjects will be bilingual (English and Hindi).
Please note that for the correctness of the questions in all question papers, the English version will be
taken as final, except for language papers.
2.3 Medium of Language Papers:
i. Language papers will be in the respective language of the subject, except for Linguistics (English
only).
ii. Acharya Papers will be in Sanskrit, except Hindu Studies which will be in both English & Hindi
and Indian Knowledge System and Baudha Darshan will be in trilingual (English, Hindi &
Sanskrit).
2.4 Structure of Examination
1. Choice of Question Paper Codes: Candidates may select up to FOUR question paper codes
from the list provided at Appendix-II as per the question paper codes mapped against Degree
/Programme offered by the university/ies where admission is sought. The details are available at
the NTA website: https://exams.nta.nic.in/cuet-pg/.
2. Examination Duration: The duration of the examination will be 90 minutes.
3. Number of Questions: Each question paper will comprise 75 questions.
2.5 Marking Scheme:
1. Each question carries 04 (four) marks.
2. For each correct response, the candidate will get 04 (four) marks.
3. For each incorrect response, 01 (one) mark will be deducted from the total score.
4. No marks will be given for questions unanswered/ unattempted/marked for Review.
5. To answer a question, the candidate needs to choose one option as the most appropriate option.
6. Final Reference for Questions: For question papers, except those related to language subjects
and Acharya papers, the English version will be considered final in case of any discrepancies
While every effort will be made to ensure that each question has one unique answer, in case, it
is found that a question has more than one option, it will be dealt with in the following manner:
(i) If more than one option is found to be correct then Four marks (+4) will be awarded to only those who
have marked any of the correct options.
(ii) If none of the options is found correct or a Question is found to be wrong or a Question is dropped then

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all candidates who have appeared will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the
question has been attempted or not attempted by the candidate.

2.6 Programme/ Courses/ Discipline and Syllabus
The List of Programme/ Courses/ Discipline and their QP Codes for CUET (PG) 2026 are given at
Appendix -II.

The syllabus for all question paper codes is available on the official website. https://exams.nta.nic.in/cuet-pg/ All
candidates are advised to go through the syllabus and prepare accordingly.

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CHAPTER – 3
ELIGIBILITY AND QUALIFICATIONS
3.1 Educational Qualification
Candidates who have passed a Bachelor’s degree or equivalent examination or
Candidates who are pursuing their Bachelor’s degree or equivalent Examination and appearing
in the Final Year of their Bachelor’s degree/equivalent examination in 2026, are eligible to appear in
CUET (PG)- 2026
3.2 University-Specific Age Criteria:
There is NO age limit for candidates appearing in the CUET (PG)-2026 examination.
However, Candidates are advised to verify the age requirements of the university to which they wish
to apply before submitting their applications.

Important Note:
• For admission to Universities through CUET (PG) - 2026, the existing policies regarding quota,
category, relaxation, age, reservations, qualification, subject combinations, preferences, etc. of
the respective University shall be applicable.
• As the eligibility criteria for admission may be unique for every University, the
candidates are advised to visit the University website to which they are applying for
their respective programmes. Candidates are advised to satisfy themselves before
applying that they possess the eligibility criteria laid down by the University they are
applying to.
• Mere appearance in the Entrance Test does not entitle a candidate to be considered for
admission to the Programme unless he/she fulfills the Programme-wise eligibility conditions of
the University they are applying to.
• Universities will conduct their individual counselling based on the score card of CUET (PG)-2026
provided by NTA.

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CHAPTER – 4
RESERVATIONS
4.1 Reservations
Indian nationals belonging to certain categories (OBC-NCL, Gen-EWS, SC, ST) are admitted under the
seats reserved for them in accordance with the rules prescribed by the Government of India.
However, in the case of the participating Universities, the reservation policy of the respective
University shall be applicable.
NOTE: Reservation details are to be provided by the admitting Universities/Institutions.
NTA has no role in it.

4.2 Provisions relating to Persons with Disability (PwD)/ Persons with Benchmark
Disability (PwBD):
4.2.1 The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016:
The Gazette of India, Extraordinary Part-II Section 1, Ministry of Law and Justice (Legislative
Department), New Delhi, dated 28 December 2016, on “The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act,
2016. The relevant paragraphs of the above Gazette Notification for consideration are as under: -
Chapter 1.
Para 2 (r) “person with benchmark disability” means a person with not less than forty percent of a
specified disability where specified disability has not been defined in measurable terms and includes a
person with disability where specified disability has been defined in measurable terms, as certified by
the certifying authority;
Para 2 (s) “person with a disability” means a person with long-term physical, mental, intellectual, or
sensory impairment which, in interaction with barriers, hinders his full and effective participation in
society equally with others;
Para 2 (zc) “specified disability” means the disabilities as specified in the Schedule; (Appendix - VII)
(https://cdnbbsr.s3waas.gov.in/s3e58aea67b01fa747687f038dfde066f6/uploads/2023/10/2023101
6 1053958942.pdf )
4.2.2 Office Memorandum dated 29 August 2018:
Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment, Govt. of India, Office Memorandum No. F. No. 34-
02/2015-DD-III dated 29 August 2018 for conducting written examination for persons with specified
disabilities covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the RPwD Act, 2016. The relevant paragraphs
of the above Office Memorandum for consideration are as under: -
Para IV. The facility of Scribe/Reader/Lab Assistant should be allowed to any person with benchmark
disability as defined under section 2(r) of the RPwD Act, 2016, and has limitation in writing including
that of speed if so desired by him/her.
In the case of persons with benchmark disabilities in the category of blindness, locomotor disability
(both arm affected-BA), and cerebral palsy, the facility of scribe/reader/lab assistant shall be given, if
so desired by the person.
In the case of another category of persons with benchmark disabilities, the provision of a
scribe/reader/lab assistant can be allowed on the production of a certificate to the effect that the
person concerned has physical limitations to write, and a scribe is essential to write the examination

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on his behalf, from the Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Medical Superintendent of a Government
health care institution as per proforma at Annexure - I.
In case the candidate is allowed to bring his own scribe, the qualification of the scribe should
be one step below the qualification of the candidate taking the examination. The person
opting for their own scribe should submit details of their own scribe as per proforma in Appendix II.

4.2.3 Office Memorandum dated 10 August 2022:
Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment, Govt. of India, Office Memorandum No F. No. 29-6/2019-
DD-III dated 10 August 2022 for conducting written examination for persons with specified disabilities
covered under the definition of Section 2(s) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered under the definition
of Section 2(r) of the said Act, i.e. person having less than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing.
The relevant paragraphs of the above Office Memorandum for consideration are as under: -
Para 3(b). The facility of scribe and/or compensatory time shall be granted solely to those having
difficulty in writing subject to the production of a certificate to the effect that the person concerned has
limitation to write and that scribe is essential to write the examination on his/her behalf from the
competent medical authority of a Government healthcare institution as per proforma at Annexure III.
Para 3 (c). The medical authority for the purpose of certification as mentioned above should be a multi-
member authority comprising the following: -
i. Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon /Chief District Medical Officer, Chairperson
ii. Orthopedic/PMR specialist
iii. Neurologist, if available*
iv. Clinical Psychologist/Rehabilitation Psychologist/ Psychiatrist/Special Educator
v. Occupational therapist, if available*
vi. Any other expert, based on the condition of the candidate, may be nominated by the Chairperson.
(* the Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Chief District Medical Officer may make full efforts for
inclusion of neurologists, occupational therapists from the nearest District or the Medical
College/Institute if the same is not available in the district)”
The candidate should fill in the details of the scribe as per the undertaking proforma in
Annexure II.

4.2.4 Scribe and Compensatory Time
1. The candidate should have the discretion of opting for his own scribe/reader/lab assistant or
request the Examination Body for the same. The examining body may also identify the
scribe/reader/lab assistant to make panels at the District / Division / State level as per the
requirements of the examination. In such instances, candidates should be allowed to meet the
scribe two days before the examination so that the candidate get a chance to check and verify
whether the scribe is suitable or not.
2. Compensatory time given to the candidate should not be less than 20 minutes per hour of
examination for persons who are allowed the use of ascribe/reader/lab assistant. All candidates
with benchmark disabilities who are eligible to avail of the scribe facility, as per the guidelines in
Para IV of Section 4.2.2. The above may be allowed additional time of a minimum of one hour for
examination of 3 hours duration, whether they use the facility of a scribe or not. If the duration of
the examination is less than an hour, additional time should be allowed on a pro-rata basis.
Additional time should not be less than 5 minutes and should be in multiples of 5.

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Note – Both the guidelines i.e., dated 29 August 2018 (for PwBDs) and dated 10 August 2022 (for
PwDs), have other important aspects such as allowing the use of assistive devices, proper seating
arrangement, accessibility of examination centres, etc., which will be followed.
The scribe will help the Candidate in reading the questions and/or key in the answers as per the
directions of the Candidate. A scribe will NEITHER explain the questions NOR suggest any solution to
the Candidate.
It is to be noted that the Scribe will be provided by the National Testing Agency (NTA) if requested by
the Candidate.
If it is found at any stage of examination process that a candidate has availed the services of a scribe
and/or availed the compensatory time but does not possess the extent of disability that warrants the
use of a scribe and/or grant of compensatory time, the candidate will be excluded from the process of
evaluation and action may be taken. In case such a candidate has already been admitted to any
Institution/University appropriate measures will be taken as per the guideline/ policy of
Institution/University.
A Physical Disability certificate (Unique Disability Identification (UDID)) issued by a notified medical
authority must be uploaded to the Online Application Form of CUET (PG) – 2026.
Note 1: The NTA will not entertain request for any change in the category or sub-category
(PwD/PwBD status) after the submission of the Online Application Form, and in any case, no change
will be entertained by the NTA after the declaration of the NTA Score for CUET (PG) - 2026. Therefore,
the candidates are advised to fill in the category/sub-category column very carefully.
Note 2: The extent of “specified disability” in a person shall be assessed in accordance with the
“Guidelines for the purpose of assessing the extent of specified disability in a person included under
the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016”.
Note 3: Candidates must note that the benefit of reservation will be provided to them subject to the
verification of their documents at the time of admission in their desired university/ies. If it is discovered
at any stage that a candidate has used a false/fake/incorrect document or has furnished false,
incorrect, or incomplete information, to avail the benefit of reservation, then such a candidate shall be
excluded from all admission processes of the university where admission sought. In each such a
candidate has already been given admission the admission shall stand cancelled by university.

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CHAPTER – 5
CHOICE OF CITIES
The cities where the CUET (PG) – 2026 will be conducted are given in Appendix III. While applying,
candidates can select up to a maximum of TWO cities of their choice within the State provided in their
Present and Permanent Address. All efforts will be made to allot the city of Examination to the
candidates in order of choice opted by them in their online Application Form. However, due to
administrative/logistic reasons, a different city can be allotted.
In case, there are very few or no candidates registered for from a City, the NTA reserves the right to
merge one, two or more cities.

The decision of the NTA regarding the allotment of the City/Centre shall be final. No further
correspondence or request shall be entertained in such a case.
In case of foreign candidates as well, the Choice of Cities will be based on their Present and
Permanent address from Appendix -III for the exam Centre in order of their priority.
For convenience, the candidates may select their own city or neighboring cities in their State of
Residence or permanent address only. NTA will not be responsible for any inconvenience caused by
the incorrect selection of cities by candidates.
Though every effort will be made to allot a Centre in one of the cities selected by the candidate, the
NTA reserves the right to allot a Centre in a city other than the candidate’s choice.
Allotment of Centres will be done mostly in one of the preferred cities of the candidates and there will
be no human intervention.

Note: All efforts will be made by NTA to consider the comfort and convenience of candidates,
including PwD/ PwBD Candidates while allotting Centres.



Page 15 of 70

CHAPTER –6
e-ADMIT CARD

1. The e-Admit Card would be issued provisionally to the candidates through the NTA website:
https://exams.nta.nic.in/cuet-pg/ subject to the fulfillment of the eligibility conditions and
receipt of the prescribed application fee by NTA.
2. The candidate has to download the e-Admit Card from the NTA website. The candidate will appear
in the examination at the given Centre on the date and shift/timing as indicated in his/her e-Admit
Card. No intimation regarding the release of the e-Admit card will be sent through mail etc. No
candidate will be allowed to appear at the examination Centre, on the date and
shift/time other than that allotted to them in their e-Admit Card.
In case a candidate is unable to download his/her e-Admit Card from the website, they should approach
the NTA Help Line Number: 011-40759000 between 10.00 am to 5.00 pm.
3. In case of any discrepancy in the particulars of the candidate or their photograph and signature
shown on the e-Admit Card and Confirmation Page, the candidate may immediately approach
the NTA Help Line between 10.00 am to 5.00 pm. In such a case, the candidate would
appear in the examination with the already downloaded e-Admit Card. However, NTA
will take necessary action to make corrections in the record later.
4. The timing for downloading the e-Admit Card for the exam will be announced on the NTA
website https://exams.nta.nic.in/cuet-pg/
5. The candidates are advised to read the instructions on the e-Admit Card carefully and
strictly follow them during the examination.

Note:
a. The Candidates may note that e-Admit Cards will not be sent by post or email.
b. In no case, the duplicate e-Admit Card for CUET (PG) - 2026 would be issued at the Examination Centres.
c. The candidates must not mutilate the e-Admit Card or change any entry made therein.
d. Candidates are advised to preserve their e-Admit Cards in good condition for future reference.
e. No e-Admit Card shall be issued to the candidates whose applications are found to be incomplete for any
reasons (including indistinct photographs/unsigned Applications) or who do not fulfill the eligibility
criteria for the examination.
f. Issue of e-Admit Cards, however, shall not necessarily mean acceptance of eligibility which shall be
further scrutinized at subsequent stages of the admission process by the University



Page 16 of 70

CHAPTER – 7
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS FOR THE CUET (PG)- 2026
1. Candidates are advised to report at the Examination Center well in time i.e., about 90 Minutes
before the commencement of the examination.
2. Candidates should take their seats immediately after the opening of the Examination Hall. If
candidates do not report in time due to any reason, they are likely to miss some of the important
instructions that will be announced in the Examination Rooms/Halls. NTA shall not be responsible
for any delay.
3. The candidate must show, on demand, the e-Admit Card downloaded/printed from the NTA
website for admission in the examination room/hall. The Test Centre Staff on duty is authorized to
verify the identity of candidates and may take steps to verify and confirm the identity credentials.
Candidates are requested to extend their full cooperation.
4. Candidate who do not possess a valid e-Admit Card and authorized Photo ID shall not be permitted
to take the examination under any circumstances by the Centre Superintendent.
5. A seat indicating Roll Number will be allotted to each candidate. Candidates should find and sit in
their allocated seats only. In case a candidate ventures to change their seat and does not sit on the
seat allotted to them could face cancellation of candidature. No plea would be entertained in this
regard.
6. The candidate should ensure that the Question Paper available on the computer is as per their opted
subject indicated in the e-Admit Card. In case, the subject of the Question Paper is other than their
opted subject, the same may be brought to the notice of the Invigilator concerned immediately.
7. The candidates may approach the Centre Superintendent/Invigilator in the room for any technical
assistance, first aid emergency, or any other information during the course of the examination.
For any queries or issues regarding the computer-Based Test, the candidates may contact the Helpline
Numbers available on the Common University Entrance Test website.

8. In case a candidate, by furnishing false information, appears in more than one shift/date, their
candidature will be cancelled and their result will not be declared.
9. Candidates who do not appear or are unable to appear on their scheduled examination
date for any reason will not be provided a re-test by NTA under any circumstances.

Note:
1. Candidates shall appear at their own cost at the Examination Centre on the Date,
Shift, Time and city of the Examination as indicated in their e-Admit Card issued by
the NTA.
2. Under no circumstances the choice of cities for the Centre and the timing of examination
provided in the e-Admit Card will be changed.

Page 17 of 70

Candidates MUST bring the following documents on the day of examination at the test
centre. In the absence of these documents, candidates will not be allowed to appear for in the
examination.
a. Printed copy of e-Admit Card along with Self Declaration (Undertaking) downloaded from
the NTA Website (a clear printout on A4 size paper) duly filled in.
b. One passport-size photograph (same as uploaded on the Online Application Form) for
pasting on the specific space in the Attendance Sheet at the Centre during the examination.
c. A simple transparent Ball Point Pen.
d. Any one of the authorized photo IDs (must be original, valid, and non-expired) –
University/College Identity Card/ PAN card/ Driving License/ Voter ID/ Passport/
Aadhaar Card (With photograph)/E-Aadhaar with photograph/ Ration Card with
photograph/ University e-Admit Card with photograph/ Bank Passbook with Photograph.
e. If the name has been changed due to events such as marriage, the candidate must show
the relevant document at the time of the exam. e.g. Marriage Certificate/ Divorce/
Decree/ Legal Name Change Document.
f. PwBD certificate issued by the authorized medical officer, if claiming the relaxation under
the PwBD category
or
PwBD Certificate regarding physical limitation in an examination to write
as per Annexures given in Information Bulletin, if claiming the relaxation under the
PwBD category.

10 ROUGH WORK AND RETURN OF SHEETS

All calculations/writing work is to be done only in the Rough Sheet provided in the Examination
Room/Hall at the Test Centre. Candidate must write their name and application number on the top
of each Rough Sheet. On completion of the test, candidates must hand over the Rough Sheets to the
Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.



Page 18 of 70

CHAPTER – 8
UNFAIR MEANS PRACTICES AND BREACH OF EXAMINATION RULES
8.1 Unfair Means Practices and Breach of Examination Rules
Definition: Unfair Means practices refer to any activity or action that gives a candidate an unfair
advantage over others during an examination. As per the Public Examination (Prevention of
Unfair Means Act, 2024), the following actions are considered Unfair Means practices:
a. Possession of Prohibited Items: Being in possession of any prohibited item or article that can be
used for unfair practices. This includes but is not limited to, stationery items, communication
devices, accessories, eatables, ornaments, or any material (whether relevant or not) related to the
examination.
b. Impersonation: Engaging someone to write the examination on the candidate's behalf (either
physical or virtual impersonation) or preparing material to aid copying during the examination.
c. Wrong Examination Centre: Attempting to write the examination at a centre other than the one
allotted to the candidate.
d. Violation of Examination Rules: Disregarding any examination rules or directives issued by
NTA in relation to the CUET(PG) – 2026.
e. Assisting Malpractices: Helping other candidates to engage in malpractices, or giving/receiving
assistance in any form, directly or indirectly or attempting to do so.
f. Unauthorized Communication: Attempting to contact or communicate with any person other
than examination staff during the examination, whether physically or through any electronic
means.
g. Threatening Officials or Candidates: Threatening any examination official or other candidates
connected with the conduct of the examination.
h. Use of Undesirable Methods: Using or attempting to use any unauthorized or illegal methods
to influence the examination.
i. Manipulation of Examination Documents: Fabricating or manipulating any official documents
related to the examination, such as Confirmation Page, Application Form, e-Admit Cards, Score
Card, Rank Letters, Self-Declaration forms, etc.
j. Forceful Entry or Exit: Forcibly entering or exiting the examination centre or hall.
k. Use of Electronic Devices: Using or attempting to use any electronic device after entering the
examination centre, which is prohibited under examination guidelines.
l. Affixing Morphed Documents: Affixing or uploading false, altered, or morphed photographs or
signatures on the application form, e-Admit card, or any related documents.
m. Disrupting Examination Process: Creating obstacles or disturbances that interfere with the
smooth and fair conduct of the examination.
n. Misuse of Scribe or Compensatory Time: Availing of a scribe and/or compensatory time
without fulfilling the required criteria and proper documentation justifying such a request.
o. Other Malpractices: Engaging in any other malpractices, whether explicitly listed here or
determined by NTA, that fall under Unfair Means as per the Public Examination (Prevention
of Unfair Means Act, 2024).

Page 19 of 70

9.2 Punishment for Unfair Means Practices
As per the Public Examination (Prevention of Unfair Means Act, 2024), if a candidate
is found to have engaged in any of the above-mentioned practices during, before, or after the
examination, they shall be treated as having committed an Unfair Means (UFM) offense and will
be subject to the following penalties:
• Debarment: The candidate shall be debarred from appearing in future public examinations
for a period of up to 3 (Three) years.
• Criminal Action: The candidate shall be liable for criminal action in accordance
with the provisions of the law.
• Other Disciplinary Actions: Any additional action deemed appropriate by the examination
authorities, in line with the severity of the offense, may also be taken, including
cancellation of examination results or other administrative actions.
These provisions aim to ensure the integrity and transparency of the examination process
and provide a fair environment for all candidates, as per the regulations outlined in the Public
Examination (Prevention of Unfair Means Act, 2024)

Disclaimer- The decision of NTA shall be final and binding for declaration of any person / candidate
guilty of foregoing or such offence as shall be classified as Unfair Means Case (UFC).



Page 20 of 70

CHAPTER – 9
DISPLAY OF ANSWER KEYS FOR CHALLENGE
9.1 DISPLAY OF PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEYS FOR CHALLENGES
1. The NTA will display the Provisional Answer Keys of the questions on the NTA website:
https://exams.nta.nic.in/cuet-pg/ , with a Public Notice, to provide an opportunity for the
candidates to challenge the Provisional Answer Keys. There will be a non-refundable fee of ₹ 200/-
(payable online) per question challenged as processing charges. The provisional Answer Keys are
likely to be displayed for two to three days.
2. Only challenges made during the stipulated time, after successful payment, through the ‘key
challenge link’ will be considered. Challenges without justification/evidence and those filed on
any medium other than the prescribed link will not be considered.
3. The decision of NTA on the challenges made shall be final and no further communication will be
entertained. NTA will not inform the Candidates individually about the outcome of the challenges
made.
4. The subject experts will examine all the challenges received and then the final answer keys will be
displayed and declared.
5. The result shall be compiled based on the final answer key declared. No grievance with
regard to answer keys after the declaration of the result/NTA Score of CUET (PG) - 2026
will be entertained.

9.2 DISPLAY OF RECORDED RESPONSES
The NTA will display the recorded responses and Question Paper attempted by the candidates on the
NTA website https://exams.nta.nic.in/cuet-pg/ prior to the declaration of the result/NTA Score.
The recorded responses are likely to be displayed for two to three days.


Page 21 of 70

CHAPTER – 10
CUET (PG) - 2026 NTA SCORE FOR ADMISSIONS IN PARTICIPATING
UNIVERSITIES
10.1 CUET (PG) - 2026 NTA SCORE FOR ADMISSION IN PARTICIPATING UNIVERSITIES
a. The NTA Score of CUET (PG) - 2026 would be valid for admission to the academic year 2026-
27 only.
b. Scores and candidate data would be shared with all the participating Universities/
Institutions.
c. Evaluation of multiple-choice questions of all the Test Papers will be carried out using final answer
keys and the raw (actual) marks obtained by a candidate will be considered further for computation
of the result of CUET (PG)-2026.
d. For preplanned multi-shift papers, raw (actual) marks obtained by the candidates in different
shifts/sessions will be converted to NTA Score. (details given at Appendix V)
e. No Score Card will be dispatched to the candidates The candidates are advised to download
their Score Cards for CUET (PG) - 2026 from the website: https://exams.nta.nic.in/cuet-pg/
10.2 RE-EVALUATION / RE-CHECKING OF RESULT
a. The result for CUET (PG) - 2026 will be processed based on the Final Answer Keys verified by
the experts after the challenges. No grievance with regard to Final Answer Key(s) after the
Declaration of Result of CUET (PG) - 2026 will be entertained.
b. There shall be no re-evaluation/re-checking of the result. No correspondence in this regard
shall be entertained.
10.3 ADMISSIONS
a. Merely appearing in CUET (PG) - 2026 does not confer any right to the candidate for admission
to the desired University.
b. The selection and admission would be subject to fulfilling the admission criteria, eligibility, rank in
the merit list, medical fitness, verification of original documents, and such other criteria as may be
prescribed by the University, where candidate is applying to.
c. Admissions are handled at the level of the Central and Participating Universities for their
respective programmes. After the declaration of the CUET (PG) - 2026 result by NTA, the
respective Universities will declare the counselling/ admission schedule and merit list based
on the CUET (PG) - 2026 score and the other criteria of the respective University. For all
admission-related procedures/queries, the candidates are advised to refer to the website of the
University where they wish to take admission.
d. NTA has no role in the selection process - transfer/cancellation/ conversion of seats
and admission of CUET (PG) - 2026 candidates in the CUET - (PG) courses and refund of
fees paid by them to Counseling Authorities/ Admission, etc.

The letters/e-mails/grievances/queries/RTI applications/Court cases pertaining to admission
related matters/procedures will not be entertained by NTA. The same may be addressed to the
concerned University.


Page 22 of 70

CHAPTER – 11
MISCELLANEOUS
11.1 CORRESPONDENCE WITH NTA
All correspondence should preferably be addressed via email. The email query shall be addressed only
if it is not anonymous and contains the name, postal address, and contact number of the sender. An
email containing vague or general queries and other queries as contained in the Information Bulletin
shall not be entertained. Queries shall not be entertained from a person claiming to be representative,
or associat of the applicant candidate.
The following information shall not be revealed by phone or email:
a. Internal documentation/status.
b. The internal decision-making process of NTA. Any claim/counterclaim thereof.
c. Dates and venue of internal meetings and/or name of the staff/officers dealing with it.
d. Any information which cannot be revealed in the opinion of NTA.

11.2 WEEDING OUT RULES
The record of the Common University Entrance Test CUET (PG) - 2026 will be preserved up to 90
days from the date of declaration of the result.

11.3 LEGAL JURISDICTION
All disputes pertaining to the conduct of the CUET (PG) – 2026 Examination including Results shall fall
within the jurisdiction of Delhi/New Delhi only. Further, any grievance/representation arising out of
the Result shall be entertained only when raised within 30 days from the declaration of the result.
Further, the copy of the Legal Notice or Writ Petition/Petition/Appeal/Reply may be served to NTA
only through: [email protected]

11.4 RTI
Information uploaded on the website shall not be provided to the candidate or any other person under
RTI Act, 2005. The information uploaded on the website shall remain for a specific period only.
Therefore, candidates are advised to download the uploaded information and keep it for future
reference. In the course of examination or in the middle of the process, neither any application under
the Right to Information Act, 2005 shall be entertained nor information will be provided.


Page 23 of 70

Annexure

Page 24 of 70

Annexure I
(Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment, Govt. of India F. No. 29-6/2019-DD-III dated 10 August 2022)

Certificate for a person with specified disability covered under the definition of Section 2
(s) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the said
Act, i.e. persons having less than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing.

This is to certify that, we have examined Mr/Ms/Mrs … … … … … … … … . (name of the
candidate), S/o/D/o ……………………., a resident of ……………………… (Vill/ PO/ PS/
District/State), aged …………………….. yrs, a person with ……………………………. (nature of
disability/condition), and to state that he/she has a limitation which hampers his/her writing capability
owing to his/her above condition. He/she requires the support of a scribe for writing the examination.
2. The above candidate uses aids and assistive devices such as prosthetics & orthotics, and hearing aids
(name to be specified) which is /are essential for the candidate to appear at the examination with the
assistance of a scribe.
3. This certificate is issued only for the purpose of appearing in written examinations conducted by
recruitment agencies as well as academic institutions and is valid up to ……………….. (it is valid for
a maximum period of six months or less as may be certified by the medical authority)

Signature of Medical Authority

(Signature & Name) (Signature & Name) (Signature & Name) (Signature & Name) (Signature & Name)
Orthopedic/ PMR Clinical Psychologist/ Neurologist Occupational Other Expert, as
specialist Rehabilitation Psychologist (if available) therapist (if available) nominated by the
Chairperson (if any)
/Psychiatrist/Special
Educator

(Signature & Name)

Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Chief District Medical Officer Chairperson

Name of Government Hospital/Health Care Centre with Seal

Place:

Date:

Page 25 of 70

Annexure II
LETTER OF UNDERTAKING FOR USING OWN SCRIBE

I , a candidate with (nature of the disability)
appearing for (name of the examination) bearing Roll No. __________ at
______________________ (name of the centre) in the district , (name
of the State). My educational qualification is .
I do hereby state that ____________________________________________ (name of the scribe) will
provide the service of scribe /reader/lab assistant for the undersigned for taking the aforementioned
examination.
I do hereby undertake that his qualification is ____________________________________. In case,
subsequently, it is found that his qualification is not as declared by the undersigned and is beyond my
qualification. I shall forfeit my right to the post and claims relating thereto.

(Signature of the candidate)
(Counter signature by the parent/
guardian, if the candidate is minor)

Place:

Date:

Page 26 of 70

Annexure III
(Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment,
Govt. of India
F. No. 34-02/ 2015- DD-III dated 29 August 2018)
Certificate regarding physical limitation in an examinee to write

Affix Passport size
Photograph of the
candidate (same as
uploaded on the
Online Application
Form) duly attested
by the issuing
authority

This is to certify that, I have examined Mr./Ms./Mrs. (Name of the candidate
with disability), a person with (nature and percentage of disability as mentioned in the
certificate of disability), S/ o/ D/ o a resident of (Village/ District/ State)
and to state that he/ she has physical limitation which hampers his/her writing capabilities owing to
his/ her disability.

Signature
Chief Medical Officer/ Civil Surgeon/ Medical Superintendent of
A Government health care institution
Name and Designation.

Name of Government Hospital/Health Care Centre with Seal
Place:
Date:

Note: -
Certificate should be given by a specialist of the relevant stream/ disability (e.g. Visual
impairment — Ophthalmologist, Locomotor disability — Orthopedic specialist/ PMR).

Page 27 of 70

Appendix

Page 28 of 70

Appendix-I
PAYMENT OF EXAM FEE - PROCEDURE/ MODE / SERVICE PROVIDER(S), SERVICES
CHARGES AND HELPDESK

After completing Step 2 of the Online Application Form, candidates may remit the examination fee
(Step 3) by choosing the following options:
Online Mode i.e. Debit/ Credit Card/ UPI or Internet banking through any of the payment
gateway of SBI/ CANARA /ICICI BANK:
▪ Check the validity of the Debit/Credit Card and keep it ready with you while logging on to the
website for submitting the application form. The candidate should enter the requested information
and make payment through Debit / Credit Card.
▪ Through Net Banking, check the balance in your account and keep all credentials ready with you
while logging on to the website to submit the application form. Candidate should log in with their
credentials for Net Banking and make payments through Net Banking.
Please select any Mode of Payment/ Service Provider (Service & other charges as applicable
per transaction to be paid by the candidate to the concerned Bank/ Payment Gateway
Integrator)

Payment Modes, Charges and Helpline No
S. Mode of
STATE BANK OF INDIA CANARA BANK ICICI BANK
No Payment
Other Banks
(Including
SBI Rs.5.00+GST Rs.13 + GST ICICI NIL Charge
Net Canara
1 Bank)
Banking
Other HDFC, ICICI,
Rs 5.00+GST Rs.17 + GST Other Banks 4.00 + GST
Banks SBI, AXIS
Transaction up to
Rs.2000/- 0.40% + GST
Debit Visa/Master
2 Nil Transaction above Nil Nil
Cards Rs.2000/- 0.85% + GST
Rupay NIL Charge
0.80% + GST 0.40%of
Domestic Domestic
(Minimum Rs 11/-) Transaction value
Credit
3 Domestic 1.10% + GST
Cards Internatio 3.50% of Fee+ GST 2.35%of
International
nal (Minimum Rs 11/-) Transaction value
Unified
Payment
4 NIL Charge NIL Charge NIL Charge
Interface
(UPI)

Note: In case, the fee payment status is not ‘OK’, or the Confirmation Page of the Online Application
is not generated after fee payment (completion of Step 3) the candidate is advised to contact the
helpline number/email of the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway Integrator, as mentioned below: -

Page 29 of 70

If Paying through State Bank of India:
Level Name Email ID Contact Number
1 Helpdesk3 [email protected] 011-26391804
2 Customer Care [email protected] 1800112211
3 Through SMS UNHAPPY (add text) 8008202020

If paying through Canara Bank:
Level Name Email ID
[email protected]; [email protected];
1 Help Desk
[email protected]; [email protected];
Complaint Management [email protected] [email protected];
2
Services [email protected]; [email protected]
[email protected] [email protected];
3 Customer Care
[email protected]; [email protected]
4 Through SMS ---

If Paying through ICICI Bank

Level Name Email ID Contact Number
Customer support Helpline 18602332332
1 [email protected]
number (9AM to 6PM)

2. Procedure to raise payment related Grievance:
After successful completion of Step-3, Confirmation Page of the Application Form, should be
downloaded and a printout of the same may be retained for future reference. The Confirmation Page
of the online Application Form could be generated only after successful payment by the Candidate.
In case the Confirmation Page is not generated after payment of prescribed Fee, then the candidate
should approach the concerned Bank/ Payment Gateway integrator (in the helpline number and email
mention above) for ensuring the successful payment.
Inspite of above, if successful transaction is not reflected on the Portal, the candidate may contact NTA
Helpline. If the payment issue is still not resolved, the candidate may pay second time.
Email: [email protected].
Phone No.: 011-40759000
However, any duplicate payment received from the candidate by NTA in course of said transactions
will be refunded through the same payment mode through which the duplicate payment is received,
after fee reconciliation by NTA.
Information to be provided by the Candidate while raising any payment related query/grievance
through email / Helplines:
a. Name of the Bank and / or payment Gateway.
b. Date and time of the transaction
c. Transaction Number
d. Bank Reference Number
e. Proof of transaction Screenshot from the payment portal (in case of payment failure)

Page 30 of 70

Appendix II
CUET (PG) 2026 List of Question Paper Codes with Programme/ Courses/ Discipline
Common
S. No QP Code Programme/ Courses/ Discipline
1 COQP01 Agri-Business Management etc.
2 COQP02 Applied Geography / Geoinformatics
B.Ed., B.Ed.-M.Ed. Integrated, B.Ed. (HI), B.Ed. (ID), B.Ed. (VI), Lifelong Learning
3 COQP03
and Extension etc.
4 COQP04 B.Ed. Humanities and Social Sciences
5 COQP05 B.Ed. Languages
6 COQP06 B.Ed. Science
7 COQP07 B.Ed. Mathematics
8 COQP08 Commerce
9 COQP09 Disaster Studies
10 COQP10 Economics
11 COQP11 General
12 COQP12 General - Management
13 COQP13 Library and Information Science
14 COQP14 L.L.M.
15 COQP15 M.Ed.
16 COQP16 M.A. Education
17 COQP17 Mass Communication and Journalism
18 COQP18 Physical Education
19 COQP19 Public Health
20 COQP20 Sports - Physiology, Biochemistry, Nutrition, Biomechanics etc.
21 COQP21 Yoga
22 COQP22 Healthcare & Hospital Management
Languages
S. No QP Code Programme/ Courses/ Discipline
1 LAQP01 English
2 LAQP02 Hindi
3 LAQP03 Sanskrit
4 LAQP04 Linguistics
5 LAQP05 Arabic
6 LAQP06 Assamese
7 LAQP07 Bengali
8 LAQP08 Bhutia
9 LAQP09 Chinese
10 LAQP10 French
11 LAQP11 Garo
12 LAQP12 German
13 LAQP13 Gujarati
14 LAQP14 Hispanic
15 LAQP15 Japanese
16 LAQP16 Kannada
17 LAQP17 Kashmiri
18 LAQP18 Khasi

Page 31 of 70

Languages
S. No QP Code Programme/ Courses/ Discipline
19 LAQP19 Kokborok
20 LAQP20 Korean
21 LAQP21 Lepcha
22 LAQP22 Limbu
23 LAQP23 Malayalam
24 LAQP24 Manipuri
25 LAQP25 Marathi
26 LAQP26 Nepali
27 LAQP27 Odia
28 LAQP28 Pali
29 LAQP29 Pashto
30 LAQP30 Persian
31 LAQP31 Prakrit
32 LAQP32 Prayojanmoolak Hindi (Patrakarita)
33 LAQP33 Punjabi
34 LAQP34 Russian
35 LAQP35 Tamil
36 LAQP36 Telugu
37 LAQP37 Urdu
38 LAQP38 Urdu Journalism
39 LAQP39 Indo-Tibetan
40 LAQP40 Santali
41 LAQP41 Italian

Science
S. No QP Code Programme/ Courses/ Discipline
1 SCQP01 Agricultural Science
2 SCQP02 Agro-forestry
3 SCQP03 Microbiology/Applied Microbiology
4 SCQP04 Architecture and Planning
5 SCQP05 Biochemistry
6 SCQP06 Bioinformatics
7 SCQP07 Botany
8 SCQP08 Chemistry
9 SCQP09 Computer Science / Information Technology /Artificial Intelligence
10 SCQP10 Criminology
11 SCQP11 Environmental Sciences/Studies
12 SCQP12 Food Science and Technology
13 SCQP13 Forensic Science.
14 SCQP14 Geology / Applied Geology
15 SCQP15 Geophysics
16 SCQP16 Horticulture
17 SCQP17 Life Science
18 SCQP18 Material Science
19 SCQP19 Mathematics, Applied Mathematics, Electronics

Page 32 of 70

Science
S. No QP Code Programme/ Courses/ Discipline
20 SCQP20 Medical Laboratory Technology, Medical Physics, etc.
21 SCQP21 MPT/Master in Respiratory Theory (MRT)
22 SCQP22 Nanoscience/Integrative Biosciences
23 SCQP23 Pharmacy
24 SCQP24 Physics
25 SCQP25 Plant Biotechnology
26 SCQP26 Soil Science
27 SCQP27 Statistics
28 SCQP28 Zoology
29 SCQP29 Atmospheric Science
30 SCQP30 Animal Science (Poultry)

Humanities
S. No QP Code Programme/ Courses/ Discipline
1 HUQP01 Ancient Indian History, Culture and Archaeology
2 HUQP02 Anthropology
3 HUQP03 Applied Arts
4 HUQP04 Art and Aesthetics
5 HUQP05 Dance
6 HUQP06 Development and Labour Studies
7 HUQP07 Fine Arts
8 HUQP08 Geography
9 HUQP09 History
10 HUQP10 History of Art
11 HUQP11 Home Science
12 HUQP12 Music- Karnatak/Carnatic
13 HUQP13 Museology
14 HUQP14 Music – Hindustani
15 HUQP15 Painting
16 HUQP16 Philosophy
17 HUQP17 Plastic Arts
18 HUQP18 Political Science
19 HUQP19 Pottery and Ceramics
20 HUQP20 Psychology / Applied Psychology
21 HUQP21 Social Work
22 HUQP22 Sociology
23 HUQP23 Textile Design
24 HUQP24 Theatre
25 HUQP25 Music- Percussion
26 HUQP26 Rabindra Sangit

M. Tech./ Higher Sciences
S. No QP Code Programme/ Courses/ Discipline
1 MTQP01 Chemical, Thermal and Polymer Engineering
2 MTQP02 Civil, Structural and Transport Engineering
3 MTQP03 Dairy Technology
4 MTQP04 Data Science, Artificial Intelligence, Cyber Security and Computer Science,
Engineering/Technology

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M. Tech./ Higher Sciences
S. No QP Code Programme/ Courses/ Discipline
5 MTQP05 Electronics, Communication and Information Engineering,
6 MTQP06 Food Engineering and Technology
7 MTQP07 Mechanical Engineering
8 MTQP08 Nano Science/Nano Technology
9 MTQP09 Nanoelectronics/Material Sciences
10 MTQP10 Electrical, Power, and Energy Engineering
11 MTQP11 Water Engineering and Management
12 MTQP12 Textile Engineering
Acharya
S. No QP Code Programme/ Courses/ Discipline
1 ACQP01 Shiksha Shastri B.Ed.
2 ACQP02 Shiksha Acharya M.Ed.
3 ACQP03 Agama
4 ACQP04 Baudha Darshan / Buddhist Studies (Trilingual - Hindi/Sanskrit/English)
5 ACQP05 Dharma Shastra, Vastu and Paurohitya
6 ACQP06 Dharma Vijnan
7 ACQP07 Dharmashastra
8 ACQP08 Hindu Studies (Bilingual - Hindi/English)
9 ACQP09 Indian Knowledge System (Trilingual - Hindi/Sanskrit/English)
10 ACQP10 Jain Darshan
11 ACQP11 Jyotish - Falit
12 ACQP12 Jyotish - Ganit
13 ACQP13 Krishna Yajurveda
14 ACQP14 Nyaya Vaisheshika
15 ACQP15 Phalita and Siddantha Jyotisha
16 ACQP16 Puranetihas
17 ACQP17 Rigveda
18 ACQP18 Sahitya
19 ACQP19 Sahitya (Alankara and Kavya Varga)
20 ACQP20 Samveda
21 ACQP21 Shukla Yajurveda
22 ACQP22 Veda etc.
23 ACQP23 Vedanta
24 ACQP24 Vedanta, Sarvadarshan, Mimansa, Nyaya etc.
25 ACQP25 Vyakaran
26 ACQP26 Vyakarana and Sabdabodha Systems

Very Important:
Applicants are advised to check the course, its eligibility, and subject code carefully from the website,
as similar courses are being evaluated under various question paper codes by different universities.
e.g. Hindu Studies.
Applicants are solely responsible for choosing the correct question paper code as per the universities.
where admission is sought.

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Appendix – III
List of Examination Cities for CUET (PG) – 2026
The CUET (PG) - 2026 will be conducted in the following Cities, provided there are sufficient numbers of
candidates in the City. State-wise/UT-wise list of Cities in India and Abroad: -
Sr. No State City City Code
1 ARUNACHAL PRADESH ITANAGAR/NAHARLAGUN/PAPUM PARE AL01
2 ASSAM GUWAHATI AM02
3 ASSAM JORHAT AM03
4 ASSAM SILCHAR (ASSAM) AM04
5 ASSAM TEZPUR AM05
6 ASSAM DIBRUGARH AM01
7 ANDAMAN & NICOBAR ISLANDS (UT) PORT BLAIR AN01
8 ANDHRA PRADESH ANANTAPUR AP01
9 ANDHRA PRADESH CHITTOOR AP05
10 ANDHRA PRADESH ELURU AP06
11 ANDHRA PRADESH GUNTUR AP07
12 ANDHRA PRADESH KADAPA AP08
13 ANDHRA PRADESH KAKINADA AP09
14 ANDHRA PRADESH KURNOOL AP10
15 ANDHRA PRADESH NELLORE AP11
16 ANDHRA PRADESH ONGOLE AP12
17 ANDHRA PRADESH RAJAHMUNDRY AP13
18 ANDHRA PRADESH SRIKAKULAM AP14
19 ANDHRA PRADESH TIRUPATHI/TIRUPATI AP16
20 ANDHRA PRADESH VIJAYAWADA AP17
21 ANDHRA PRADESH VISAKHAPATNAM AP18
22 ANDHRA PRADESH VIZIANAGARAM AP19
23 ANDHRA PRADESH NARASARAOPET AP20
24 ANDHRA PRADESH PRODDATUR AP21
25 ANDHRA PRADESH SURAMPALEM AP23
26 ANDHRA PRADESH MACHILIPATNAM AP27
27 ANDHRA PRADESH NANDYAL AP29
28 ANDHRA PRADESH TADEPALLIGUDEM AP30
29 BIHAR AURANGABAD (BIHAR) BR01
30 BIHAR BHAGALPUR BR02
31 BIHAR DARBHANGA BR04
32 BIHAR GAYA BR05
33 BIHAR MUZAFFARPUR BR06
34 BIHAR PATNA BR07
35 BIHAR PURNEA BR08
36 BIHAR ARRAH BR09
37 BIHAR SAMASTIPUR BR12
38 BIHAR SASARAM (ROHTAS) BR17
39 CHHATTISGARH BILASPUR (CHHATTISGARH) CG02
40 CHHATTISGARH RAIPUR CG03
41 CHHATTISGARH JAGDALPUR CG08
42 CHHATTISGARH BHILAI NAGAR (DURG) CG01
43 CHHATTISGARH AMBIKAPUR CG04
44 CHANDIGARH (UT) CHANDIGARH/PANCHKULA CH01
45 PUNJAB SAHIBZADA AJIT SINGH NAGAR/MOHALI PB12
46 DAMAN & DIU (UT) DIU DD02
47 DELHI (NCT) DELHI/NEW DELHI DL01

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Sr. No State City City Code
48 DADRA & NAGAR HAVELI (UT) SILVASSA DN01
49 GUJARAT AHMEDABAD GJ01
50 GUJARAT ANAND GJ02
51 GUJARAT JAMNAGAR GJ06
52 GUJARAT JUNAGADH GJ07
53 GUJARAT PALANPUR (BANASKANTHA) GJ19
54 GUJARAT RAJKOT GJ10
55 GUJARAT SURAT GJ11
56 GUJARAT VADODARA GJ12
57 GUJARAT MEHSANA GJ08
58 GUJARAT GANDHINAGAR GJ23
59 GUJARAT BHUJ GJ17
60 GUJARAT VALSAD/VAPI GJ13
61 GUJARAT BHAVNAGAR GJ03
62 GOA PANAJI/MADGAON/MARGAO GO01
63 HIMACHAL PRADESH HAMIRPUR (HIMACHAL PRADESH) HP03
64 HIMACHAL PRADESH SHIMLA HP06
65 HIMACHAL PRADESH MANDI HP08
66 HIMACHAL PRADESH UNA HP09
67 HIMACHAL PRADESH KULLU HP10
68 HIMACHAL PRADESH BILASPUR (HIMACHAL PRADESH) HP01
69 HIMACHAL PRADESH KANGRA/PALAMPUR HP04
70 HARYANA AMBALA HR01
71 HARYANA GURUGRAM HR04
72 HARYANA FARIDABAD HR03
73 JHARKHAND BOKARO JH01
74 JHARKHAND DHANBAD JH02
75 JHARKHAND JAMSHEDPUR JH03
76 JHARKHAND RANCHI JH04
77 JHARKHAND HAZARIBAGH JH05
78 JHARKHAND RAMGARH JH06
79 JAMMU & KASHMIR JAMMU JK02
80 JAMMU & KASHMIR SRINAGAR (J & K) JK04
81 JAMMU & KASHMIR PULWAMA JK06
82 JAMMU & KASHMIR SAMBA JK03
83 KARNATAKA BALLARI KK03
84 KARNATAKA BELAGAVI (BELGAUM) KK02
85 KARNATAKA BENGALURU KK20
86 KARNATAKA CHIKABALLAPUR KK22
87 KARNATAKA DAVANGERE KK06
88 KARNATAKA GULBARGA/KALABURGI KK08
89 KARNATAKA HASSAN KK09
90 KARNATAKA DHARWAD KK10
91 KARNATAKA MANGALURU (MANGALORE) KK12
92 KARNATAKA MYSURU (MYSORE) KK14
93 KARNATAKA SHIVAMOGA (SHIMOGA)/SHIVAMOGGA KK15
94 KARNATAKA TUMAKURU KK16
95 KARNATAKA CHIKMAGALUR KK23
96 KARNATAKA HUBLI KK27
97 KARNATAKA UDUPI/MANIPAL KK17
98 KERALA IDUKKI KL05
99 KERALA KANNUR KL07
100 KERALA KASARAGOD KL08

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Sr. No State City City Code
101 KERALA KOLLAM KL09
102 KERALA KOTTAYAM KL11
103 KERALA KOZHIKODE/CALICUT KL12
104 KERALA MALAPPURAM KL13
105 KERALA PALAKKAD KL15
106 KERALA PATHANAMTHITTA KL16
107 KERALA THIRUVANANTHAPURAM KL17
108 KERALA THRISSUR KL18
109 KERALA WAYANAD KL19
110 KERALA ALAPPUZHA/CHENGANNUR KL01
111 KERALA ERNAKULAM/MOOVATTUPUZHA KL04
112 LAKSHADWEEP (UT) KAVARATTI LD01
113 LEH & LADAKH (UT) LEH LL01
114 LEH & LADAKH (UT) KARGIL LL02
115 MEGHALAYA SHILLONG MG01
116 MEGHALAYA TURA MG04
117 MANIPUR IMPHAL MN01
118 MADHYA PRADESH BHOPAL MP03
119 MADHYA PRADESH GWALIOR MP06
120 MADHYA PRADESH INDORE MP07
121 MADHYA PRADESH JABALPUR MP08
122 MADHYA PRADESH SAGAR MP12
123 MADHYA PRADESH SATNA MP13
124 MADHYA PRADESH UJJAIN MP15
125 MADHYA PRADESH KHANDWA MP29
126 MAHARASHTRA AHILYANAGAR/AHMEDNAGAR MR01
127 MAHARASHTRA AKOLA MR02
128 MAHARASHTRA AMRAVATI MR03
129 AURANGABAD (MR)/CHHATRAPATI
MAHARASHTRA SAMBHAJINAGAR MR04
130 MAHARASHTRA CHANDRAPUR MR09
131 MAHARASHTRA DHULE MR10
132 MAHARASHTRA JALGAON MR13
133 MAHARASHTRA KOLHAPUR MR14
134 MAHARASHTRA LATUR MR15
135 MAHARASHTRA NAGPUR MR17
136 MAHARASHTRA NANDED MR18
137 MAHARASHTRA NASHIK MR19
138 MAHARASHTRA PUNE MR22
139 MAHARASHTRA RAIGAD MR23
140 MAHARASHTRA SANGLI MR25
141 MAHARASHTRA SATARA MR26
142 MAHARASHTRA SOLAPUR MR27
143 MAHARASHTRA THANE MR28
144 MAHARASHTRA WARDHA MR29
145 MAHARASHTRA BEED MR30
146 MAHARASHTRA BHANDARA MR31
147 MAHARASHTRA BULDHANA MR32
148 MAHARASHTRA RATNAGIRI MR24
149 MAHARASHTRA YAVATMAL MR34
150 MAHARASHTRA PARBHANI MR38
151 MAHARASHTRA GADCHIROLI MR40
152 MAHARASHTRA JALNA MR42
153 MAHARASHTRA MUMBAI MR16

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Sr. No State City City Code
154 MIZORAM AIZAWL MZ01
155 NAGALAND DIMAPUR NL01
156 NAGALAND KOHIMA NL02
157 ODISHA BALASORE (BALESWAR) OR02
158 ODISHA BERHAMPUR / GANJAM OR03
159 ODISHA BHUBANESWAR OR04
160 ODISHA CUTTACK OR05
161 ODISHA DHENKANAL OR06
162 ODISHA SAMBALPUR OR09
163 ODISHA ANGUL OR10
164 ODISHA BHADRAK OR11
165 ODISHA BARIPADA/MAYURBANJ OR12
166 ODISHA ROURKELA OR08
167 ODISHA KENDUJHAR (KEONJHAR) OR15
168 ODISHA PURI OR16
169 ODISHA JAGATSINGHPUR OR17
170 ODISHA JEYPORE (ODISHA) OR19
171 ODISHA BALANGIR OR20
172 ODISHA BARAGARH OR21
173 ODISHA RAYAGADA OR26
174 ODISHA KENDRAPARA OR14
175 PUNJAB AMRITSAR PB01
176 PUNJAB BHATINDA PB02
177 PUNJAB JALANDHAR PB04
178 PUNJAB LUDHIANA PB05
179 PUNJAB PATHANKOT PB07
180 PUNJAB PATIALA/FATEHGARH SAHIB PB08
181 PUDUCHERRY PUDUCHERRY PO01
182 RAJASTHAN AJMER RJ01
183 RAJASTHAN ALWAR RJ02
184 RAJASTHAN BIKANER RJ05
185 RAJASTHAN JAIPUR RJ06
186 RAJASTHAN JODHPUR RJ07
187 RAJASTHAN KOTA RJ08
188 RAJASTHAN SIKAR RJ09
189 RAJASTHAN SRIGANGANAGAR RJ10
190 RAJASTHAN UDAIPUR RJ11
191 RAJASTHAN BHILWARA RJ12
192 RAJASTHAN BHARATPUR RJ16
193 RAJASTHAN DAUSA RJ17
194 RAJASTHAN HANUMANGARH RJ23
195 SIKKIM GANGTOK SM01
196 TRIPURA AGARTALA TA01
197 TELANGANA KARIMNAGAR TL02
198 TELANGANA KHAMMAM TL03
199 TELANGANA MAHBUBNAGAR TL04
200 TELANGANA NALGONDA TL05
201 TELANGANA WARANGAL TL07
202 TELANGANA NIZAMABAD TL08
203 TELANGANA SURYAPET TL09
204 TELANGANA SIDDIPET TL11
205 TELANGANA JAGTIAL TL15
206 TELANGANA KOTHAGUDEM TL17

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Sr. No State City City Code
207 TELANGANA HYDERABAD/SECUNDERABAD TL01
208 TAMIL NADU CHENNAI TN01
209 TAMIL NADU COIMBATORE TN02
210 TAMIL NADU CUDDALORE TN03
211 TAMIL NADU KANCHIPURAM TN05
212 TAMIL NADU NAGERCOIL (KANYAKUMARI) TN06
213 TAMIL NADU MADURAI TN08
214 TAMIL NADU NAMAKKAL TN10
215 TAMIL NADU SALEM TN11
216 TAMIL NADU THANJAVUR TN12
217 TAMIL NADU THOOTHUKUDI TN13
218 TAMIL NADU TIRUCHIRAPPALLI TN14
219 TAMIL NADU TIRUNELVELI TN15
220 TAMIL NADU VELLORE TN18
221 TAMIL NADU VIRUDHUNAGAR TN20
222 TAMIL NADU KRISHNAGIRI TN21
223 TAMIL NADU TIRUPPUR TN22
224 TAMIL NADU VILUPPURAM TN23
225 TAMIL NADU DHARMAPURI TN26
226 TAMIL NADU DINDIGUL TN27
227 TAMIL NADU ERODE TN28
228 TAMIL NADU KARUR TN29
229 TAMIL NADU PUDUKKOTTAI TN31
230 TAMIL NADU RAMANATHAPURAM TN32
231 TAMIL NADU SIVAGANGA TN33
232 TAMIL NADU THIRUVALLUR TN34
233 TAMIL NADU TIRUVANNAMALAI TN35
234 UTTARAKHAND DEHRADUN UK01
235 UTTARAKHAND HALDWANI UK02
236 UTTARAKHAND ROORKEE UK06
237 UTTARAKHAND PAURI GARHWAL UK08
238 UTTARAKHAND ALMORA UK09
239 UTTAR PRADESH AGRA UP01
240 UTTAR PRADESH ALIGARH UP02
241 UTTAR PRADESH ALLAHABAD/PRAYAGRAJ UP03
242 UTTAR PRADESH BAREILLY UP04
243 UTTAR PRADESH GHAZIABAD UP07
244 UTTAR PRADESH GORAKHPUR UP08
245 UTTAR PRADESH NOIDA/GREATER NOIDA UP09
246 UTTAR PRADESH JHANSI UP10
247 UTTAR PRADESH KANPUR UP11
248 UTTAR PRADESH LUCKNOW UP12
249 UTTAR PRADESH MATHURA UP13
250 UTTAR PRADESH MEERUT UP14
251 UTTAR PRADESH MORADABAD UP15
252 UTTAR PRADESH MUZAFFARNAGAR UP16
253 UTTAR PRADESH VARANASI UP18
254 UTTAR PRADESH AZAMGARH UP19
255 UTTAR PRADESH BALLIA UP20
256 UTTAR PRADESH FAIZABAD (AYODHYA) UP06
257 UTTAR PRADESH FIROZABAD UP22
258 UTTAR PRADESH GHAZIPUR UP23
259 UTTAR PRADESH AMBEDKAR NAGAR UP25

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Sr. No State City City Code
260 UTTAR PRADESH BULANDSHAHR UP29
261 UTTAR PRADESH MAU UP35
262 UTTAR PRADESH SAHARANPUR UP38
263 UTTAR PRADESH CHANDAULI UP41
264 WEST BENGAL ASANSOL WB01
265 WEST BENGAL BURDWAN (BARDHAMAN) WB02
266 WEST BENGAL DURGAPUR WB04
267 WEST BENGAL HOOGHLY WB06
268 WEST BENGAL HOWRAH WB07
269 WEST BENGAL KALYANI WB08
270 WEST BENGAL KOLKATA WB10
271 WEST BENGAL SILIGURI WB11
272 WEST BENGAL KHARAGPUR (PASCHIM MEDINIPU) WB13
273 WEST BENGAL PURBA MEDINIPUR WB14
274 WEST BENGAL BANKURA WB16
275 WEST BENGAL MURSHIDABAD WB21
276 WEST BENGAL SURI WB22
277 Bahrain Manama ZZ01
278 Qatar Doha ZZ03
279 UAE Dubai ZZ04
280 UAE Sharjah ZZ08
281 UAE Abu Dhabi ZZ17
282 Nepal Kathmandu ZZ05
283 Oman Muscat ZZ06
284 Saudi Arabia Riyadh ZZ07
285 Singapore Singapore ZZ09
286 Kuwait Kuwait City ZZ10
287 Malaysia Kuala Lumpur ZZ11
288 Nigeria Lagos/Abuja ZZ12
289 Indonesia West Java ZZ14
290 USA Washington D.C ZZ15
291 Germany Munich ZZ16
292 Canada Ottawa ZZ21

Disclaimer:
NTA has reserves the right to change the centre and city at any time, subject to availability.

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Appendix-IV
Computer Based Test (CBT) Guidelines
A CBT requires candidates to sit in front of a computer terminal (node) allocated to them against their Roll number
and e-Admit card in a designated Test Centre. After logging the candidate will get detailed instructions for the
examinations. At the designated time of the start of the examination, the candidates will be able to proceed and
see the questions on the computer screen using the computer mouse.

Procedure for Appearing in Computer Based Test (CBT)
(a) A computer terminal (node) indicating the Roll Number will be allocated to each candidate.
Candidates should find and sit on their allocated computers only. Any candidate found to have
changed their room/hall or computer on their own, rather than the one allotted would be liable
for cancellation of candidature and no plea in this regard would be entertained.
(b) The computer terminal allotted to the candidate will display a Welcome login screen, the
Candidate’s photograph, and the subject opted by the candidate. For login, the candidate will need
to enter their login ID and password.
(c) After login, the candidate shall be able to see the detailed instructions for the examination.
Candidates are advised to go through the instructions carefully regarding the type of questions
and the Marking Scheme. At the designated time of the start of the examination, the candidates
will be able to proceed and see the questions on the computer screen.
The keyboard attached to the computer, if any, will be disabled during the entire duration of the
examination. Depending on the type of question, the answers to questions can either be entered
by clicking on the virtual on-screen keyboard (numeric or otherwise) using the computer mouse
or by clicking the chosen option(s) using the computer mouse.
Candidates will have the option to change/modify answers already entered at any time
during the entire duration of the examination.
In case the computer/mouse allotted to any candidate malfunctions at any time during the test, the
candidate will be immediately allotted to another computer system and the time lost due to this will be
adjusted in the server so as to give the candidate the full allotted time.
(d) The on-screen computer clock counter of every candidate will be set at the server. The countdown
timer located in the top right corner of the computer screen, will display the time remaining (in
minutes) available for the candidate to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero,
the examination will end by itself. Candidate will not be required to end or submit the examination.
(e) The Question Palette displayed on the right side of the screen will show the status of each question
using one of the following text/color codes/symbols.

You have not visited the question yet.
You have not answered the question.
You have answered the question.
You have NOT answered the question but have marked the question for review.
The question(s) “answered and marked for Review” will be considered for
evaluation.

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The question(s) “Answered and Marked for Review” status for a question indicates that the
candidate would like to have a relook at that question again. A candidate has the option of
answering a question and simultaneously placing it under “Marked for Review”, these answers
will be considered for evaluation. However, if a candidate has put “Marked for Review” for a
question without answering it, the corresponding question ‘Marked for Review’ without an answer
will not be considered for evaluation. It may be noted that a candidate can return to any “Marked
for Review” question any time during the examination by clicking on the corresponding question
number icon displayed on the Question Palette of the corresponding section.
(f) Candidate can click on an arrow/symbol which appears to the left of the question palette to
collapse the question palette, thereby maximizing the question viewing window. To view the
question palette again, the candidate can click on the arrow/symbol that appears on the right side
of the question window.
(g) Candidate can click to navigate to the bottom and to navigate to the top of the question area,
without scrolling. Using the computer mouse the candidate can scroll up and down the question
viewing area to view the entire question.
(h) The full paper can be viewed by clicking the “Question Paper” icon on the top right corner of the
screen.
(i) Blank Sheets for doing rough work/calculations shall be provided to the candidates. The Blank
Sheets would have a Header page for the candidates to write down their Name and Roll Number.
All calculations/writing work is to be done only in the Blank Sheets provided at the Centre in the
Examination Room/Hall, and on completion of the test, candidates must hand over the rough
sheets to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
(j) Navigating to a Question
To navigate between questions within a Paper, the candidate needs to do the following:
i. Click on the question number in the Question Palette at the right of the screen to go to that
numbered question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save the answer to the
currently displayed question.
ii. Click on “Save & Next” to save the answer to any question. Clicking on “Save & Next” will
save the answer for the current question and the next question will be displayed on the
candidate’s computer screen.
iii. Click on “Mark for Review & Next” to mark a question for review (without answering it) and
proceed to the next question.
(k) Answering a Question
1. Procedure for answering a multiple-choice type of question:
a. To select the option, click on the button of one of the options.
b. To deselect the chosen answer, click on the button of the chosen option again or click on
the “Clear Response” button.
c. To save the answer, the candidate MUST click on the “Save & Next” button.
d. To mark the question for review (without answering it), click on the “Mark for Review &
Next” button.
2. Procedure for answering questions that require inputs from on-screen virtual
keyboard (numeric or otherwise):
a. Candidate will have to use the on-screen virtual keyboard (that would be displayed just
below the question statement of these types of questions) and the attached computer

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mouse to enter their answer in the space provided for the answer.
b. The answer can be changed, if required, anytime during the test. To save the answer, the
candidate MUST click on the “Save & Next “button.
c. To mark the question for review (without answering it), click on the “Mark for Review &
Next” button.
3. Navigating through sections:
a. Sections on the question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions in a
section can be viewed by clicking on the section name. The section in which the candidate
is currently viewing will be highlighted.
b. After clicking the “Save & Next” button on the last question for a section, the candidate
will automatically be taken to the first question of the next section.
c. Candidate can shuffle between sections and questions within sections any time during the
examination as per their convenience, only during the time stipulated.
d. Candidate can view the corresponding section summary as part of the legend that appears
in every section above the question palette.

The candidate will have the option to change previously saved answers to any
question, at any time during the entire test duration. To change the answer to a
question that has already been answered, first select the corresponding question
from the Question Palette, then click on “Clear Response” to clear the previously
entered answer and subsequently follow the procedure for answering that type
of question.
4. Rough Work and Return of Rough Sheets:
All calculations/writing work is to be done only in the Rough Sheet provided in the
Examination Room/Hall at the Test Centre. Candidate must write their name and application
number on the top of each Rough Sheet. On completion of the test, candidates must hand
over the Rough Sheets to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.

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Appendix - V
National Testing Agency (NTA)
Procedure to be adopted for compilation of NTA scores in case of Multi Session Papers
(Normalization procedure based on Percentile Score)
NTA may conduct same examinations on multiple dates/shift/secession. The candidates will be given
different sets of questions per dates/shift/secession, and it is quite possible that, in spite of all efforts
to maintain equivalence among various question papers, the difficulty level of this question papers
administered in different sessions may not be exactly the same. In order to overcome such a situation,
“Normalization procedure based on Percentile Score” will be used for ensuring that candidates
are neither benefitted nor disadvantaged due to the difficulty level of the examination. With the
objective of ensuring that a candidate’s true merit is identified, and that a level playing field is created
in the above context, the Normalization Procedure, set out below shall be adopted for compiling the
NTA scores for multi-session papers.

The process of Normalization is an established practice for comparing candidate scores
across multi session papers and is similar to those being adopted in other large educational
selection tests conducted in India. For normalization across sections, NTA shall use the
percentile equivalence.

Percentile Scores: Percentile scores are scores based on the relative performance of all those who
appear for the examination. Basically, the marks obtained are transformed into a scale ranging from
100 to 0 for each session of examinees.

The Percentile Score indicates the percentage of candidates that have scored EQUAL TO OR
BELOW (same or lower raw scores) that particular Percentile in that examination. Therefore,
the topper (highest score) of each session will get the same Percentile of 100 which is
desirable. The marks obtained between the highest and lowest scores are also converted to
appropriate Percentiles.

The Percentile score will be the Normalized Score for the Examination (instead of the raw
marks of the candidate) and shall be used for the preparation of the merit lists.

The Percentile Scores will be calculated up to 7 decimal places to avoid bunching effect and
reduce ties.

The Percentile score of a Candidate is calculated as follows:

100 X Number of candidates appeared in the ‘Session’ with raw score EQUAL TO OR LESS
than the candidate.

Total number of the candidates who appeared in the ‘Session’

Note: The Percentile of the Total shall NOT be an aggregate or average of the Percentile of individual
subjects. The percentile score is not the same as the percentage of marks obtained.
Example: Suppose a test was held in 4 sessions of examinees as per the details given below:
(Allocation of Days and shifts were done randomly)
(a) Distribution of candidates were as follows:

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Session-1: Day-1 Shift-1, Session-2: Day-1 Shift-2, Session-3: Day-2 Shift-1 and Session-4: Day-
2 Shift-2.
No of Candidates Marks
Session Day/ Shift
Absent Appeared Total Highest Lowest
Session-1 Day-1 Shift-1 3974 28012 31986 335 -39
Session-2 Day-1 Shift-2 6189 32541 38730 346 -38
Session-3 Day-2 Shift-1 6036 41326 47362 331 -49
Session-4 Day-2 Shift-2 9074 40603 49677 332 -44
Total (Session-1 to Session-4) 25273 142482 167755 346 -49
In this method of scoring the HIGHEST RAW SCORE in each paper (irrespective of the raw scores)
will be the 100 Percentile, indicating that 100% of candidates have scores equal to or lesser than the
highest scorer/ topper for that session.
Highest Raw Score and Percentile Score: All the highest raw scores will have a normalized
Percentile Score of 100 for their respective session.

Candidates who
Total Highest scored EQUAL OR
Session Candidates Raw LESS THAN the Percentile Score Remarks
Appeared Score Highest Raw
Score
100.0000000
Session-1 28012 335 28012
[(28012/28012) *100] i.e. all the highest
100.0000000 raw scores would be
Session -2 32541 346 32541
[(32541/32541) *100] normalized to a 100
100.0000000 Percentile Score for
Session -3 41326 331 41326
[(41326/41326) *100] their respective
100.0000000 session.
Session -4 40603 332 40603
[(40603/40603) *100]
Lowest Raw Score and Percentile Score: Percentile Score of all the lowest raw scores will
depend on the total number of candidates who have taken the Examination for their respective
session

Candidates who
Total Lowest scored EQUAL
Session Candidates Raw OR LESS THAN Percentile Score Remarks
Appeared Score the Lowest Raw
Score
0.0035699 [(1/28012) i.e. , Percentile Score
Session -1 28012 -39 1
*100] of all the lowest raw
0.0030730 [(1/32541) scores are different,
Session -2 32541 -38 1
*100] i.e., Percentile Score
0.0024198 [(1/41326) depends on the total
Session -3 41326 -49 1
*100] number of
candidates who have
0.0024629 [(1/40603) taken the
Session -4 40603 -44 1
*100] Examination for their
respective session.

Page 45 of 70

The following is a further explanation of the interpretation of the raw scores and
Percentile Score in Session-3 (Day-2 and Shift-1) with 41326 candidates who have taken
the examination.
Percentile No of Raw
Candidate Remark
Score Candidates Score
Indicates that amongst those appeared, 100% have
100.0000000 scored either EQUAL TO OR LESS THAN the
A [(41326/41326) 1 331 candidate A (331 raw score).
*100] It also indicates that no candidate has scored more
than the candidate A (331 raw score).
Indicates that amongst those appeared,
90.1224411 90.1224411% have scored either EQUAL TO OR
B [(37244/41326) 77 121 LESS THAN the candidate B (121 raw score).
*100] It also indicates that remaining candidates have
scored more than candidate B (121 raw score).
Indicates that amongst those appeared,
50.4549194% have scored either EQUAL TO OR
50.4549194
LESS THAN the candidate C (41 raw score).
C [(20851/41326) 381 41
It also indicates that the remaining candidates who
*100]
appeared have scored more than candidate C (41
raw score).
Indicates that amongst those appeared,
31.7040120 31.7040120% have scored either EQUAL TO OR
D [(13102/41326) 789 25 LESS THAN the candidate D (25 raw score)
*100] It also indicates that remaining candidates have
scored more than candidate D (25 raw score).
Indicates that amongst those appeared, 1.1034216%
1.1034216 have scored either EQUAL TO OR LESS THAN the
E [(456/41326) 100 -15 candidate E (-15 raw score)
*100] It also indicates that remaining candidates have
scored more than candidate E (-15 raw score)

Page 46 of 70

STEP-BY-STEP PROCEDURE FOR NORMALIZATION AND PREPARATION OF RESULT:

Step-1: Distribution of Examinees in two shifts:
Candidates have to be distributed into two sessions randomly so that each session has
approximately on equal number of candidates. These two sessions would be as follows:

Session-1: Day-1 Shift-1, Session-2: Day-1 Shift-2

In the event of more number of days or less number of shifts, the candidates will be divided
accordingly.

This will ensure that there is no bias in the distribution of candidates who shall take the
examination. Furthermore, with a large population of examinees spread across the entire
country, the possibility of such bias becomes remote.

Step-2: Preparation of Results for each Session:
The Examination results for each session would be prepared in the form of
➢ Raw Scores
➢ Percentiles Scores of Total raw scores.
The Percentiles would be calculated for each candidate in the Session as follows:
Let TP1 be the Percentile Scores of the Total Raw Score of that candidate

Total No. of candidates appeared from the session with
Percentile 100 raw score EQUAL TO OR LESS than T1 score
(TP1): X Total number of candidates appeared in the session

Step-3: Compilation of NTA score and Preparation of Result:
The Percentile scores for the Total Raw Score for all the sessions (Session-1: Day – 1 Shift –
1, Session-2: Day – 1 Shift – 2) as calculated in Step-2 above would be merged and
shall be called the NTA scores which will then be used for the compilation of results
and further processing for deciding the allocation.

In the events of the percentiles for the multi-shifts being dissimilar / unequal, the lowest will
be the eligibility cut off for that category for all candidate (i.e. all shifts).

For Example: In the Examination held in two shifts, if the 40% marks correspond to a Percentile
score of 78 in Shift 1 and 79 in Shift 2, then all those equal to or above 78 percentiles (Percentile
score of 100 to 78) in both shifts will become eligible in the General Category. A similar method
will be adopted for the other categories to determine eligibility cut-offs. In the event that the
Examination is held in more than one shift, the same principle shall apply.

Page 47 of 70

Appendix - VI
Procedure to be adopted for compilation of NTA scores for multi-session Papers
(Normalization procedure based on Percentile and Equi percentile method)

Need for Normalization

For several subjects, the CUET (PG) 2026 may be conducted in different shifts. Since the question
papers for any subject in different shifts are different and it is quite possible that despite all the best
possible efforts of maintaining equivalence among various question papers, the difficulty level of these
question papers administered in different sessions may not be the same or similar. There is a need for
normalizing the marks across shifts.

A Committee headed by a Senior Professor from the Indian Statistical Institution Delhi and comprising
of Senior Professors from the Indian Institute of Technology Delhi and the University of Delhi had
detailed deliberations to arrive at the methodology.

As per Information Bulletin of CUET (PG) the raw score of each candidate in each subject will be
normalized using the Equi-percentile method. This is done separately for each subject for which the
examination is held in multiple shifts.

For each subject for which the examination is held in multiple shifts, the raw score for each candidate
appearing for the subject will be converted into NTA Score (Percentile Score & Normalized Score) in
the following three steps.

Step 1: Convert Raw Scores into Percentile Scores.
The percentiles are calculated separately for each shift.
Record the number of candidates who have appeared in a shift. Denote this number by N.
Sort all the candidates in one shift in decreasing order of their marks.
Note the raw marks for each candidate. Suppose this is denoted by T. Count the number of
candidates in that shift whose raw scores are less than or equal to T. Denote this number by
m.
The percentile score for this candidate is then calculated as:

Illustration:
Suppose that the examination in a certain subject is held in two different shifts, S1 and S2,
say. Consider six candidates A, B, C, D, E, and F out of which A, B, and C are from shift S1
and the other three are from shift S2.
Let the raw marks of the six candidates be 𝑥𝐴, 𝑥𝐵, 𝑥𝐶 (shift S1 marks) and 𝑦𝐷, , 𝑦𝐹 (shift S2
marks).
For candidates A, B, and C, the percentiles are calculated using the total marks obtained by
candidates appearing in shift S1 (in the same subject) as explained above.

Page 48 of 70

Similarly, for candidates D, E, and F, the percentiles are calculated using the total marks
obtained by candidates appearing in shift S2 (in the same subject) as explained above.
Let the respective percentiles be denoted by PA, PB, PC, PD, PE, and PF.
The above data is summarized in the following table. The terms in red colour indicate that
these are the output of this step.
Shift S1 Shift S2
Candidate Raw score Percentile Candidate Raw score Percentile
A XA PA D YD PD
B XB PB E YE PE
C XC PC F YF PF

Since the calculation for percentiles in any shift depends only on the data from that shift
alone, there is a separate table for each shift.

Step 2: Pull the percentiles to the marks scale for each session to get aNormalized Score.
The data across all sessions tabulated at the end of step 1 is collated into a single
table.
The columns for the shift-wise raw score should be kept separate.
All the records are then sorted in decreasing order of the percentiles.

Illustration (Continued):

In the illustrative example given above, suppose that the percentiles of the six
candidates satisfy.
PE>PA>PC =PF>PB>PD
Then the collated table would look as given below:
Candidate Percentile RawscoreS1 RawScoreS2
E PE – YD
A PA XA –
C&F PC=PF XB YE
B PB XC –
D PD – YF

Candidate C from shift S1 and candidate F from shift S2 have the same percentile. The
relevant entries under “Raw Score S1” and “Raw Score S2” are the actual raw scores 𝑥𝐶
and 𝑦F respectively. This has the obvious interpretation that marks 𝑥𝐶 of shift S1 are
equivalent to marks 𝑦𝐹 of shift S2.
Candidates A and B, appearing in shift S1, have a blank entry in column “Raw Score S2”,
as there is no corresponding candidate having exactly the same percentile from shift S2.
Similarly, Candidates D and E, appearing in shift S2, have a blank entry in column “Raw
Score S1”, as there is no corresponding candidate having exactly the same percentile from
shift S1.
• In the remaining part of this Step 2, the blank entries in the two “Raw Score” columns are
filled up using linear interpolation.

Page 49 of 70

• Consider a record (row) whose entry in the column “Raw Score S1” is blank. The blank
will be replaced by the interpolated score X which is calculated as:

Where:
P is the corresponding entry in t h e “Percentile” column
x1 is the first non-blank entry BELOW X. i.e., x1<X and there is no other non-blank
entry in the column between x1 and X.
x2 is the first non-blank entry ABOVE X. i.e., x2> X and there is no other non-blank
entry in the column between x2 and X.
p1 is the entry in the “Percentile” column corresponding to x1 from the column “Raw Score S1”.
p2 is the entry in the “Percentile” column corresponding to x2 from the column “Raw Score S1”.
Note that there may be several blank entries between x1 and x2.
All the blank entries in column “Raw Score S1” can now be replaced by the interpolated values.
The blank entries in column “Raw Score S2” are also replaced using a similar procedure.

Illustration (Continued):
The table in the illustrative example would look like the following, where the entries in red
indicate the additional output at the end of this step
Candidate Percentile Raw Score S1 Raw Score S2
E PE XE 𝑦𝐸
A PA XA YA
C&F PC=PF XC 𝑦𝐹
B PB XB YB
D PD XD 𝑦𝐷

Step3: Calculation of the Normalized Score
Now for each subject, there is a score assigned to each percentile value for each session. The
Normalized score, Z, corresponding to a percentile value P, is calculated as:

Where 𝑢𝐴, 𝑢𝐵, … … 𝑢𝑡 denote the raw scores corresponding to the percentile P in each of t he different
sessions

Illustration (Continued):
The final table in the illustrative example would be as follows:

Page 50 of 70

Candidate Percentile Raw ScoreS1 Raw ScoreS2 Normalized Score
E PE XE 𝑦𝐸 (XE + 𝑦𝐸)/2
A PA XA YA (𝑥𝐴 +YA)/2
C&F PC=PF XC 𝑦𝐹 (𝑥𝐶 + 𝑦𝐹)/2
B PB XB YB (𝑥𝐵 +YB)/2
D PD XD 𝑦𝐷 (XD + 𝑦𝐷)/2

Step-by-Step Procedure for Converting from Raw Score to Normalized Score: -
Example: Suppose a test was held in 4 phases of examinees as per details given
below:
(Allocation of Days and shifts were done randomly)
No of Candidates Raw Score
Session Day Shift
Absent Appeared Total Highest Lowest
Session-1 Day-1 Shift-1 3974 28012 31986 200 -40
Session-2 Day-1 Shift-2 6189 32541 38730 194 -36
Session-3 Day-2 Shift-1 6036 41326 47362 188 -36
Session-4 Day-2 Shift-2 9074 40603 49677 200 -40
Total (Session-1 to Session-4) 25273 142482 167755 200 -40

Highest Raw Score and Percentile Score: -
Total Candidates who scored
Highest Raw
Session Candidates Equal or Less Than Percentile Score Remarks
Score
Appeared Highest Raw Score
100.0000000
Session-1 28012 200 28012 i.e., All the
[(28012/28012) *100]
100.0000000 highest raw
Session-2 32541 194 32541 scores would be
[(32541/32541) *100]
normalized to 100
100.0000000
Session-3 41326 188 41326 Percentile Score
[(41326/41326) *100] for their
100.0000000 respective session.
Session-4 40603 200 40603
[(40603/40603) *100]

Lowest Score and Percentile Score: -
Total Candidates Who Scored
LowestRaw
Session Candidates Equal or Less Than PercentileScore Remarks
Score
Appeared Highest RawScore
0.0035699 i.e., the Percentile Score
Session-1 28012 -40 1 of all the lowest raw
[(1/28012) *100]
0.0030730 scores are different i.e.,
Session-2 32541 -36 1 Percentile Score depends
[(1/32541) *100]
on the total number of
0.0024198 candidates who have
Session-3 41326 -36 1
[(1/41326) *100] taken the examination
0.0024629 for their respective
Session-4 40603 -40 1 session.
[(1/40603) *100]

Step1: Convert Raw Score into Percentile Score
The percentile score for this candidate is then calculated as:

Page 51 of 70

Candidate Raw Score S1 Percentile Score Candidate Raw Score S2 Percentile Score
A20020720 200 100 B20123935 194 100
A20411664 192 99.969144 B20012622 192 99.9990405
A20018569 190 99.831255 B20656224 100 96.9671093
A20339879 184 99.732901 B20410215 42 69.2904047
A20074407 180 99.432054 B20236444 26 67.7672549
A20751862 88 88.654575 B20128586 14 46.3751151
A20922992 48 74.137715 B20001667 4 27.0887703
A21004667 40 69.290405 B20042147 2 23.9100399
A21141123 22 52.135343 B20051256 0 12.225608
A25465232 8 30.675846 B20481968 -2 11.6211621
A26545946 6 27.584445 B20091701 -12 10.4982563
A25656543 2 24.886459 B20549576 -14 10.3947421
A26625216 1 22.351432 B20098269 -30 10.2430506
A26174451 0 19.997686 B20071356 -36 0.053034
A25463225 -1 15.23523
A26598636 -6 11.104361
A26596462 -40 0.053034

Candidate Raw Score S3 Percentile Score Candidate Raw Score S4 Percentile Score
C20150694 188 100 D20479616 200 100
C20087997 186 99.969144 D20040337 194 99.9990405
C20121991 184 99.831255 D20467385 98 88.6545749
C20058572 180 99.732901 D20398094 44 68.9660903
C20060310 172 99.432054 D20428934 40 49.5097099
C20008597 56 78.338974 D20032939 32 46.3751151
C20430859 36 69.00182 D20690279 30 27.0887703
C20518247 20 52.135343 D20840699 28 23.9100399
C20045510 14 38.091932 D20084751 26 20.8800276
C20860609 9 30.675846 D21237483 24 12.1887008
C20861476 5 27.584445 D21077463 1 11.5349248
C20512680 3 24.886459 D20348188 -2 11.0243302
C20069270 2 22.351432 D25463225 -40 0.053034
C20355550 0 12.188701
C20549576 -3 11.23523
C26598636 -22 0.0539983
C26596462 -36 0.053034

Page 52 of 70

Step 2: Pull Back the percentiles to the scale of the marks for each session to get
Normalized marks.
Candidate Percentile Raw Raw Raw Raw
Score Score S1 Score S2 Score S3 Score S4
A20020720=B20123935=C20150694 100 200 194 188 200
=D20479616
B20012622=D20040337 99.99904053 - 192 - 194
A20411664=C20087997 99.9691438 192 - 186 -
A20018569=C20121991 99.8312554 190 - 184 -
A20339879=C20058572 99.7329013 184 - 180 -
A20074407=C20060310 99.4320538 180 - 172 -
B20656224 96.9671093 - 100 - -
A20751862=D20467385 88.6545749 88 - - 98
C20008597 78.3389742 - - 56 -
A20922992 74.1377149 48 - - -
A21004667=B20410215 69.2904047 40 42 -
C20430859 69.0018201 - - 36 -
D20398094 68.9660903 - - - 44
B20236444 67.7672549 - 26 - -
A21141123=C20518247 52.1353428 22 - 20 -
D20428934 49.50970986 - - - 40
B20128586=D20032939 46.37511514 - 14 - 32
C20045510 38.0919321 - - 14 -
A25465232=C20860609 30.6758464 8 - 9 -
A26545946=C20861476 27.5844446 6 - 5 -
B20001667=D20690279 27.08877034 - 4 - 30
A25656543=C20512680 24.886459 2 - 3 -
B20042147=D20840699 23.91003991 - 2 - 28
A26625216=C20069270 22.3514324 1 - 2 -
D20084751 20.88002763 - - - 26
A26174451 19.9976858 0 - - -
A25463225 15.23523 -1 - - -
B20051256 12.225608 - 0 - -
C20355550=D21237483 12.1887008 - - 0 24
B20481968 11.62116211 - -2 - -
D21077463 11.53492478 - - - 1
C20549576 11.23523 - - -3 -
A26598636 11.1043613 -6 - - -
D20348188 11.0243302 - - - -2
B20091701 10.49825625 - -12 - -
B20549576 10.39474209 - -14 - -
B20098269 10.2430506 - -30 - -
C26598636 0.0539983 - - -22 -

Page 53 of 70

A26596462=B20071356=C26596462 0.053034 40 -36 -36 -40
=D25463225

In the remaining part of Step 2, the blank entries in the Raw Score Columns are filled up.
Candidate Percentile Score Raw Score S1 RawScore S2 Raw Score S3 Raw Score S4
A20020720=B20123935=C20150694= 100 200 194 188 200
D20479616
B20012622=D20040337 99.9990405 199.7512409 192 187.93781 194
A20411664=C20087997 99.9691438 192 171.96504 186 171.96504
A20018569=C20121991 99.8312554 190 167.63275 184 167.63275
A20339879=C20058572 99.7329013 184 164.54257 180 164.54257
A20074407=C20060310 99.4320538 180 155.09028 172 155.09028
B20656224 96.9671093 158.958447 100 158.4442 101.91063
A20751862=D20467385 88.6545749 88 82.580043 112.72997 98
C20008597 78.3389742 56.7810489 60.96241 56 69.707196
A20922992 74.1377149 48 52.158146 47.207694 58.184318
A21004667=B20410215 69.2904047 40 42 36.629757 44.889504
C20430859 69.0018201 39.6972017 38.968549 36 44.097997
D20398094 68.9660903 39.6597121 38.593224 35.966106 44
B20236444 67.7672549 38.4018305 26 34.828858 43.753534
A21141123=C20518247 52.1353428 22 17.231221 20 40.539799
D20428934 49.5097099 20.1081761 15.758363 18.878207 40
B20128586=D20032939 46.3751151 17.8496346 14 17.538962 32
C20045510 38.0919321 11.8814266 9.7051566 14 31.141031
A25465232=C20860609 30.6758464 8 5.8599046 9 30.371981
A26545946=C20861476 27.5844446 6 4.2570079 5 30.051402
B20001667=D20690279 27.0887703 5.2651195 4 4.6325597 30
A25656543=C20512680 24.886459 2 2.6143453 3 28.614345
B20042147=D20840699 23.9100399 1.6148289 2 2.6148289 28
A26625216=C20069270 22.3514324 1 1.7332164 2 26.97122
D20084751 20.8800276 0.374867 1.4813591 1.7104312 26
A26174451 19.9976858 0 1.3303305 1.5367886 25.79696
A25463225 15.23523 -1 0.5151508 0.5995493 24.70105
B20051256 12.225608 -4.6428439 0 0.0072632 24.008493
C20355550=D21237483 12.1887008 -4.6875164 -0.122119 0 24
B20481968 11.6211621 -5.3744647 -2 -1.785703 4.0338503
D21077463 11.5349248 -5.4788463 -2.767984 -2.057041 1
C20549576 11.23523 -5.8415966 -5.436905 -3 -0.760858
A26598636 11.1043613 -6 -6.602352 -3.222382 -1.529777
D20348188 11.0243302 -6.24622 -7.315066 -3.358377 -2
B20091701 10.4982563 -7.8647146 -12 -4.252322 -3.822101
B20549576 10.3947421 -8.1831815 -14 -4.428221 -4.180631
B20098269 10.2430506 -8.6498685 -30 -4.685987 -4.706027

Page 54 of 70

Candidate Percentile Score Raw Score S1 RawScore S2 Raw Score S3 Raw Score S4
C26598636 0.0539983 -39.9970333 -35.99943 -22 -39.99666
A26596462=B20071356=C26596462= 0.053034 -40 -36 -36 -40
D25463225
Step 3: Calculation of Normalized Score: Now for each subjects, there is a score assigned to each
percentile value for each session. The Normalized score, Z, corresponding to a percentile value P,
is calculated as Z= Average of (𝑢𝐴, 𝑢𝐶,………..𝑢𝑡)= 𝑢𝐴 + 𝑢𝐵 + 𝑢𝐶 +,…..+ 𝑢𝑡/ t
Where 𝑢𝐴, 𝑢𝐶,………..𝑢𝑡 denote the raw scores corresponding to the percentile P in each of the different
sessions
NormalizedMark
Candidate Percentile Score Raw Score S1 Raw Score S2 Raw Score S3 Raw Score S4
s
A20020720=B20123935=C20 100 200 194 188 200 195.5
150694=D20479616
B20012622=D20040337 99.999041 199.7512409 192 187.9378 194 193.4223
A20411664=C20087997 99.969144 192 171.965 186 171.965 180.4825
A20018569=C20121991 99.831255 190 167.6327 184 167.6327 177.3164
A20339879=C20058572 99.732901 184 164.5426 180 164.5426 173.2713
A20074407=C20060310 99.432054 180 155.0903 172 155.0903 165.5451
B20656224 96.967109 158.958447 100 158.4442 101.9106 129.8283
A20751862=D20467385 88.654575 88 82.58004 112.73 98 95.3275
C20008597 78.338974 56.7810489 60.96241 56 69.7072 60.86266
A20922992 74.137715 48 52.15815 47.20769 58.18432 51.38754
A21004667=B20410215 69.290405 40 42 36.62976 44.8895 40.87982
C20430859 69.00182 39.6972017 38.96855 36 44.098 39.69094
D20398094 68.96609 39.6597121 38.59322 35.96611 44 39.55476
B20236444 67.767255 38.4018305 26 34.82886 43.75353 35.74606
A21141123=C20518247 52.135343 22 17.23122 20 40.5398 24.94276
D20428934 49.50971 20.1081761 15.75836 18.87821 40 23.68619
B20128586=D20032939 46.375115 17.8496346 14 17.53896 32 20.34715
C20045510 38.091932 11.8814266 9.705157 14 31.14103 16.6819
A25465232=C20860609 30.675846 8 5.859905 9 30.37198 13.30797
A26545946=C20861476 27.584445 6 4.257008 5 30.0514 11.3271
B20001667=D20690279 27.08877 5.2651195 4 4.63256 30 10.97442
A25656543=C20512680 24.886459 2 2.614345 3 28.61435 9.057173
B20042147=D20840699 23.91004 1.6148289 2 2.614829 28 8.557414
A26625216=C20069270 22.351432 1 1.733216 2 26.97122 7.926109
D20084751 20.880028 0.374867 1.481359 1.710431 26 7.391664
A26174451 19.997686 0 1.330331 1.536789 25.79696 7.16602
A25463225 15.23523 -1 0.515151 0.599549 24.70105 6.203938
B20051256 12.225608 -4.6428439 0 0.007263 24.00849 4.843228
C20355550=D21237483 12.188701 -4.6875164 -0.12212 0 24 4.797591
B20481968 11.621162 -5.3744647 -2 -1.7857 4.03385 -1.28158
D21077463 11.534925 -5.4788463 -2.76798 -2.05704 1 -2.32597
C20549576 11.23523 -5.8415966 -5.43691 -3 -0.76086 -3.75984
A26598636 11.104361 -6 -6.60235 -3.22238 -1.52978 -4.33863
D20348188 11.02433 -6.24622 -7.31507 -3.35838 -2 -4.72992
B20091701 10.498256 -7.8647146 -12 -4.25232 -3.8221 -6.98478
B20549576 10.394742 -8.1831815 -14 -4.42822 -4.18063 -7.69801

Page 55 of 70

NormalizedMark
Candidate Percentile Score Raw Score S1 Raw Score S2 Raw Score S3 Raw Score S4
s
B20098269 10.243051 -8.6498685 -30 -4.68599 -4.70603 -12.0105
C26598636 0.0539983 -39.9970333 -35.9994 -22 -39.9967 -34.4983
A26596462=B20071356=C26 0.053034 -40 -36 -36 -40 -38
596462=D25463225

The above method is based on the work: “Normalization of marks in multi-session
examinations”, Abhay G. Bhatt et al, CURRENT SCIENCE, Vol. 118, No. 1, 10 January
2020

Note: The NTA is planning to conduct the CUET (PG) 2026 examination in a single shift for each
language/subject/General Test, so that the need for Normalization will not exist. However, under
unavoidable circumstances, if any subject is conducted in multi-shifts, then normalization will be done. The
performance of every candidate will be evaluated using the equi-percentile method wherein normalized
marks of each candidate will be calculated using the percentiles of each group of students in a given shift
across multiple days for the same subject.

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Appendix – VII
Gazette Notification for PwBD Candidate

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