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CUSAT CAT 2023 Question Paper Zoology

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Page 1

ZOOLOGY
(FINAL)

1. Renal portal system is absent in which of the following groups?
(A) Amphibians
(B) Reptiles
(C) Aves
(D) Mammals

2. Graafian follicles are found in
(A) Cervix
(B) Uterus
(C) Oviduct
(D) Ovary

3. Gluconeogenesis refers to

(A) Conversion of proteins and fats into glucose
(B) Conversion of glycogen into glucose
(C) Conversion of glucose into glycogen
(D) None of the above

4. The claspers of shark are modified

(A) Pectoral fins
(B) Dorsal fins
(C) Pelvic fins
(D) Caudal fin

5. Which of the following is the larva of starfish?

(A) Auricularia
(B) Glochidium
(C) Trochophore
(D) Bipinnaria

6. Respiratory organs of peripatus are

(A) Coxal gland
(B) Book lungs
(C) Crural gland
(D) Trachea

Page 2

7. Antibacterial enzyme “Lysozyme” is secreted by

(A) Pancreas
(B) Gastric glands
(C) Intestinal glands
(D) Salivary glands

8. Initiation codons for protein synthesis are

(A) UUU and GGG
(B) AUG and GUA
(C) AAU and UAA
(D) GUG and AUG

9. In eukaryotes, a DNA sequence for a functional gene is called

(A) Exon
(B) Muton
(C) Intron
(D) Cistron

10. Hemophilia and Colour blindness are

(A) Sex-linked dominant traits
(B) Sex-linked recessive traits
(C) Autosomal dominant traits
(D) Sex-limited traits

11. During cell division, nuclear membrane is formed by

(A) Endoplasmic reticulum
(B) Plasma membrane
(C) Nucleolus
(D) Ribosome

12. The type of chromosome in which centromere is located at the tip is called

(A) Telocentric
(B) Sub-metacentric
(C) Acrocentric
(D) Metacentric

Page 3

13. NEERI is the abbreviated name for

(A) National Ethological and Ecological Research Institute
(B) National Eugenics and Ecological Research Institute
(C) National Environmental and Engineering Research Institute
(D) National Ethological and Environment Research Institute

14. Synecology deals with

(A) Ecology of species
(B) Ecology of Communities
(C) Ecology of populations
(D) None of the above

15. Name the proteins present in silk

(A) Actin and Myosin
(B) Fibrin and Fibrinogen
(C) Fibroin and Sericin
(D) None of the above

16. Which type of canal system is found in Leucosolenia?

(A) Ascon
(B) Leucon
(C) Rhagon
(D) Syconoid

17. The term “shell-fish” includes

(A) Prawns and lobsters
(B) Crabs and oysters
(C) Clams and mussels
(D) All of the above

18. The sequence of origin of life is

(A) Amino acids-proteins-chlorophyll
(B) Chlorophyll-Starch-Glycogen
(C) Nucleic acid-amino acids-chlorophyll
(D) Chlorophyll-Nucleic acid-amino acid

Page 4

19. Pituitary gland does not control the secretory activity of

(A) Adrenal medulla
(B) Thyroid
(C) Adrenal cortex
(D) Ovary

20. Which of the following is not a catfish?

(A) Clarius batrachus
(B) Channa stratus
(C) Wallago attu
(D) Labeo rohita

21. Respiratory acidosis results from

(A) Low levels of CO2 in the blood
(B) High levels of CO2 in the blood
(C) High levels of lactate in the blood
(D) Low levels of lactate in the blood

22. Which of the following processes is active in fasting state?

(A) Gluconeogenesis
(B) Lipogenesis
(C) Glycogenesis
(D) Ketogenesis

23. Major aerosol pollutant generated by refrigerators is

(A) SO2
(B) CH4
(C) CCl4
(D) CFCs

24. Which of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?

(A) Wild life sanctuaries
(B) Sacred grooves
(C) Seed bank
(D) National park

Page 5

25. Ankylosaurus is also known as

(A) Flying dinosaur
(B) Armoured dinosaur
(C) Horned Dinosaur
(D) Apatosaurus

26. Which of the following is a limbless amphibian?

(A) Ichthyophis
(B) Proteus
(C) Salamander
(D) Ambystoma

27. Jacobson’s organ is concerned with

(A) Smell
(B) Touch
(C) Hearing
(D) Sight

28. Which of the following is a fungal disease of silkworm?

(A) Flacherie
(B) Muscardine
(C) Grasserie
(D) Pebrine

29. How many cervical vertebrae are present in mammals?

(A) 16
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 7

30. Which of the following is a homeothermic animal?

(A) Fish
(B) Frog
(C) Lizard
(D) None of the above

Page 6

31. Which of the following is a RNA-dependant DNA polymerase?

(A) Transcriptase
(B) Restriction Endonuclease
(C) Reverse transcriptase
(D) Transferase

32. Which of the following is a freshwater form?

(A) Mytilus
(B) Sepia
(C) Unio
(D) Loligo

33. DNA finger-printing was developed by

(A) Fredrick Sanger
(B) James D. Watson
(C) Alec J. Jaffery
(D) Thomas H. Morgan

34. Acromegaly is caused by

(A) Excess of somatotrophic hormone
(B) Deficiency of thyroxin
(C) Excess of corticotrophin
(D) Excess of adrenaline

35. In pancreas, the cells that secrete digestive enzymes are arranged in clusters called

(A) Islets
(B) Crypts
(C) Acini
(D) Delta cells

36. Which of the following is a true coelomate?

(A) Roundworm
(B) Tapeworm
(C) Hookworm
(D) Earthworm

Page 7

37. Amnocoete is the larval form of

(A) Petromyzon
(B) Balanoglossus
(C) Branchiostoma
(D) Hippocampus

38. The color of oxygenated haemocyanin, a respiratory pigment in mollusks, is

(A) Red
(B) Green
(C) Blue
(D) Colorless

39. Which one of the following is not a mammalian character in Platypus?

(A) Presence of mammary glands
(B) Presence of cloaca
(C) Presence of sebaceous glands
(D) Presence of hair

40. Podocyte cells are found in

(A) Ducts of Bellini
(B) Glomeruli
(C) Bowman’s Capsule
(D) Distal convoluted tubule

41. Amphioxus (Branchiostomata) belongs to the group

(A) Hemichordate
(B) Cephalochordata
(C) Urochordata
(D) Vertebrata

42. The “Red Data Book” is published by

(A) Convension on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and
Flora
(B) International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Recourses
(C) National Wild Life Plan
(D) National Environmental Engineering Research Institute

Page 8

43. Eutrophication results in the reduction of

(A) Mineral salts
(B) Dissolved Hydrogen
(C) Dissolved Oxygen
(D) Dissolved Nitrates

44. The tendency of two genes remaining together on a chromosome during crossing over
is known as

(A) Gene mapping
(B) Recombination
(C) Linkage
(D) Genotype

45. Alzheimer’s disease in humans is associated with the deficiency of

(A) Acetylcholine
(B) GABA
(C) Glutamic acid
(D) Dopamine

46. The fins in Ichthyosaurus and dolphin represent

(A) Convergent evolution
(B) Microevolution
(C) Divergent evolution
(D) Co-evolution

47. Transition zone between two ecosystems is

(A) Ecotype
(B) Niche
(C) Ecotone
(D) Biome

48. Muga silk is produced by

(A) Bombyx mori
(B) Antheraea mylitta
(C) Antheraea assamensis
(D) Antheraea pernyi

Page 9

49. Bar eye mutation in Drosophila is due to

(A) Deletion
(B) Translocation
(C) Duplication
(D) Inversion

50. Migration of fish from sea to freshwater for spawning is known as

(A) Anadromous migration
(B) Catadromous migration
(C) Omnidromous migration
(D) Amphidromous migration

51. Suicide bags of the eukaryotic cells are

(A) Golgi bodies
(B) Endoplasmic reticulum
(C) Mitochondria
(D) Lysosomes

52. Aurelia belongs to the class

(A) Scyphozoa
(B) Anthozoa
(C) Hydrozoa
(D) Sporozoan

53. The venom glands of a snake are modified

(A) Buccal glands
(B) Parotid glands
(C) Palatine glands
(D) Lacrimal glands

54. Which of the following glands is related with immunity?

(A) Pineal
(B) Adrenal
(C) Thyroid
(D) Thymus

Page 10

55. Which of the following is a sedentary polychaete?

(A) Nereis
(B) Aphrodita
(C) Polynoe
(D) Terebella

56. The theory of inheritance of acquired characters was proposed by

(A) Darwin
(B) Lamarck
(C) De Vries
(D) Weismann

57. Which of the following is commonly known as ‘Portuguese man of war’?

(A) Obelia
(B) Hydra
(C) Aurelia
(D) Physalia

58. In molluscs, the radula is related to the

(A) Digestive system
(B) Respiratory system
(C) Excretory system
(D) Reproductive system

59. The father of white revolution in India is

(A) Salim Ali
(B) Birbal Sahani
(C) Varghese Kurien
(D) Sunderlal Hora

60. PCR – Polymerase chain reaction – is useful in

(A) Cutting a specific segment of DNA
(B) Amplifying a specific segment of DNA
(C) Splicing a specific segment of DNA
(D) All of the above

Page 11

61. Erythroblastosis foetalis is also called

(A) Sickle cell anaemia
(B) Bleeder’s disease
(C) Proton defect
(D) Haemolytic disease of the new-born

62. Scientific name of our National bird is

(A) Pavo cristatus
(B) Columba livia
(C) Gallus gallus
(D) Corvus spledens

63. The process of digestion proceeds in the order

(A) Digestion → Ingestion → Solution → Absorption → Egestion
(B) Ingestion → Digestion → Absorption → Assimilation → Egestion
(C) Ingestion → Solution→ Absorption → Accumulation → Egestion
(D) Ingestion → Digestion → Absorption → Solution → Egestion

64. Which of the following is a living fossil?

(A) Euglena
(B) Sycon
(C) Limulus
(D) Balanoglossus

65. In birds, the flight muscles are attached to the

(A) Synsacrum
(B) Pygostyle
(C) Sternum
(D) Thoracic mass

66. Both Polyp and medusa are found in

(A) Hydrozoans
(B) Schyphozoans
(C) Anthozoans
(D) All coelenterates

Page 12

67. Wings of insects and birds are examples of

(A) Analogous organs
(B) Homologous organs
(C) Vestigial organs
(D) Divergent evolution

68. Which of the following organs synthesizes urea?

(A) Duodenum
(B) Kidney
(C) Liver
(D) Pancreas

69. Gills are covered by operculum in

(A) Cartilaginous fishes only
(B) Bony fishes only
(C) Both Cartilaginous fishes and bony fishes
(D) Fishes and aquatic reptiles

70. Which of the following statements is correct about frog?

(A) Adults are ammonotelic and larvae are ureotelic
(B) Larvae are ammonotelic and adults are ureotelic
(C) Both adult and larva are ammonotelic
(D) Both adult and larva are ureotelic

71. The number and sequence of amino acids in a protein molecule are determined by the

(A) DNA molecule
(B) mRNA molecule
(C) Enzymes involved in the process of translation
(D) rRNA molecule

72. ABO – blood grouping in man is controlled by

(A) Multiple alleles
(B) Multiple genes
(C) Sex – linked genes
(D) Y- linked genes

Page 13

73. In a polysaccharide, the individual monosaccharides are linked by a

(A) Glycosidic bond
(B) Ester bond
(C) Hydrogen bond
(D) Phosphodiester bond

74. Acrosome is derived from the

(A) Mitochondria
(B) Golgi apparatus
(C) Ribosomes
(D) Lysosomes

75. Calcium levels decrease in blood due to hyposecretion of

(A) Parathyroid hormone
(B) Calcitonin
(C) Thyroxine
(D) Adrenaline

76. Pyridoxal phosphate serves as transient carriers of
(A) Electrons
(B) Acyl groups
(C) Hydrides
(D) Amino groups

77. Glycolytic pathway occurs in

(A) Chloroplast
(B) Glyoxysomes
(C) Mitochondria
(D) Cytosol

78. Number of maximum possible isomers for fructose is

(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 16
(D) 32

Page 14

79. The leakage of blood, lymph, or other fluid from a blood vessel into the tissue is
called

(A) Necroptosis
(B) Anoikis
(C) Extravasation
(D) Metastasis

80. It is the only class of intercellular junctions in plants that directly connect the
cytoplasm of adjacent cells

(A) Connexin
(B) Plasmodesmata
(C) ICAM
(D) Selectin

81. Which anti-cancer drug interferes with breakdown of microtubules required for cell
division?

(A) Methotrexate
(B) Etoposide
(C) 5-fluorouracil
(D) Paclitaxel

82. If a Drosophila embryo doesn’t have head and thorax, it is due to the absence of the
gene

(A) Torso
(B) Vasa
(C) Oskar
(D) Bicoid

83. Cells that are able to self-renew by dividing and developing into the three primary
groups of cells that make up a human body

(A) Pluripotent
(B) Totipotent
(C) Determined
(D) Differentiated

Page 15

84. Which of the following is a conceptual domain that generates intercellular signaling
molecules to induce the dorsal organizer in early embryonic development?

(A) Brachet’s cleft
(B) Nieuwkoop center
(C) Spemann’s organizer
(D) Hensen’s node

85. Which of the following methods is involved in randomly breaking up the genome into
small DNA fragments that are sequenced individually?

(A) Shot gun sequencing
(B) Illumina sequencing
(C) 454 sequencing
(D) Sequencing of BAC libraries

86. Which type of immunological application is used for either monoclonal or polyclonal
antibodies?

(A) ELISA
(B) Bacterial agglutination
(C) Diagnostic tissue typing
(D) None of the above

87. RACE method is used for

(A) DNA-protein interaction
(B) FAM
(C) Determining the ends of mRNA
(D) Construction of synthetic DNA

88. Which one of the following techniques is used to study the RNA?

(A) Northern blotting
(B) In situ hybridization
(C) Southern blotting
(D) Western blotting

89. A researcher would like to purify specific cell populations based on phenotypes
detected by flow cytometry. Which one of the following methods would be best suited
for the purpose?

(A) Immunofluorescence microscopy
(B) Fluorescence in situ hybridization
(C) Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay
(D) Fluorescence activated cell sorting

Page 16

90. What statistical test is used for analysing categorical data from inheritance studies?

(A) Standard deviation
(B) Coefficient variation
(C) Chi-square test
(D) t-Test

91. Who is regarded as the father of biostatistics?

(A) Fischer
(B) Karl pearson
(C) Francis Galton
(D) Francis Bacon

92. A bag contains 10 black and 20 white balls, a ball is drawn at random. What is the
probability that it is black?

(A) 1/2
(B) 1/3
(C) 0
(D) 3

93. Which of the following is a neurotransmitter and a modulator of pain perception by
altering cellular signaling pathway?

(A) Neurotensin
(B) Eukephalin
(C) Serotonin
(D) Substance P

94. Which one of the following converts polypeptide to amino acids?

(A) Erepsin
(B) Steapsin
(C) Pepsin
(D) Enterokinase

95. Which one of the following stimulates melanocytes to produce melanin?

(A) Adrenocorticotropic hormone
(B) β-lipotropin
(C) α-melanocyte-stimulating hormone
(D) β-endotropin

Page 17

96. Which one of the following hormones is responsible for the regulation of iron
recycling and iron balance?

(A) Cobalophilin
(B) Hephaestin
(C) Hepcidin
(D) Na+-cotransporter

97. Which of the following plays a central role in the coagulation cascade at the point of
convergence of the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways?

(A) Albumin
(B) Stuart-Prower factor
(C) Antihemophilic factor
(D) Hageman factor

98. Which of the following is responsible for allowing you to feel pleasure, satisfaction
and motivation?

(A) Epinephrine
(B) Acetylcholine
(C) Dopamine
(D) Norepinephrine

99. A molecule capable of eliciting an immune response by an organism’s immune
system is called

(A) Carrier
(B) Antigen
(C) Hapten
(D) Immunogen

100. A lipid mediator that plays a pivotal role in acute and chronic inflammation and
allergic diseases is

(A) Thromboxane
(B) Leukotriene
(C) TGFβ
(D) Chondroitin

101. …………. brings changes on bacterial surface by making it more gram positive

(A) Phagocytosis
(B) Release of antibodies like IgG
(C) Antibody mediated agglutination
(D) Anti-microbial peptides

Page 18

102. …………. induces cell death to eliminate viruses and tumor cells

(A) Interferon lamda
(B) Peroxynitrite
(C) Lysozyme
(D) Granzyme

103. The phagocytes were discovered by

(A) Edward Jenner
(B) Elie Metchnikoff
(C) Louis Pasteur
(D) Robert Koch

104. Which one is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter for the central nervous system?

(A) Serotonin
(B) GABA
(C) Dopamine
(D) IL 8

105. An association between two organisms in which one benefits and the other derives
neither benefit nor harm is

(A) Parasitism
(B) Mutualism
(C) Competition
(D) Commensalism

106. A state characterised by low metabolic process in animals during summer is

(A) Aestivation
(B) Concealment
(C) Mimicry
(D) Hibernation

107. Re-establishment in a devastated forest over a long time proceeds in the order

(A) Grasses → herbs and shrubs → woody trees
(B) Herbs and shrubs → grasses → woody trees
(C) Herbs and shrubs → woody trees → grasses
(D) Grasses → woody trees → herbs and shrubs

Page 19

108. Lower trophic level in a biological network affects the community structure of a
higher trophic level by means of

(A) Bottom-up control
(B) Eutrophication
(C) Top-down control
(D) Trophic pyramid

109. Place of a living organism in the biotic environment and its relation to food and
enemies is called

(A) Niche
(B) Biotas
(C) Trophic level
(D) Habitat

110. Which of the following describes the situation in which co-occurring species share
parts of their niche space with each other?

(A) Niche differentiation
(B) Niche complementarity
(C) Niche overlap
(D) Amount of limiting resource is greater than the number of species

111. Modern fauna diversification occurred during

(A) Cenozoic
(B) Cretaceous
(C) Paleozoic
(D) Quaternary

112. The environmental agreement on the control of transboundary movement of
hazardous wastes and their disposal is

(A) Basel convention
(B) Cartagena protocol
(C) Kyoto protocol
(D) Stockholm convention

113. The key protected animal present in Jaldapara National Park, West Bengal is

(A) Indian Rhinoceros
(B) Hangul
(C) Feral Horse
(D) Asiatic Lion

Page 20

114. Which one of the following is a critically endangered species?

(A) White bellied Heron
(B) Ganges river dolphin
(C) Gaur
(D) Clouded leopard

115. Who said “Earth’s geology and natural history have been shaped by periods of
catastrophic extinction and new creations”?

(A) Wallace
(B) Lyell
(C) Lamark
(D) Cuvier

116. The change in frequency of an existing gene variant in the population due to random
chance is called

(A) Mutation
(B) Random mating
(C) Genetic drift
(D) Natural selection

117. Aposematism in animals is

(A) Acquiring food
(B) Avoiding predation
(C) Territory defence
(D) Thermoregulation

118. ……………refers to the same or similar characters or phenotypes produced by
species from independent lineages under similar selective pressures

(A) Adaptive convergence
(B) Parallel evolution
(C) Adaptive radiation
(D) Co-adaptation

119. Individual behavior where fitness of other increases at the expense of self

(A) Agonistic behavior
(B) Hierarchical behavior
(C) Altruistic behavior
(D) Cooperative behavior

Page 21

120. The food of Barn swallow bird mainly includes

(A) Fruits
(B) Insects
(C) Nectar
(D) Seeds

121. Which rule/effect states that body form or shape is linear in warm climates and more
rounded and compact in cold climates?

(A) Allen’s rule
(B) Bergmann’s rule
(C) Allee effect
(D) Hamilton’s rule

122. A specific type of natural selection that actively selects against the intermediate in a
population, favoring both extremes of the spectrum is called

(A) Neutral selection
(B) Disruptive selection
(C) Directional selection
(D) Stabilizing selection

123. Maximum number of animal species belong to

(A) Mammalia
(B) Aves
(C) Pisces
(D) Arthropoda

124. The web of the spider is made up of

(A) Carbohydrate polymers
(B) Proteins
(C) Lipids
(D) Polysaccharides

125. Which of the following is an example of bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic
animal?

(A) Cnidarians
(B) Sponges
(C) Ctenophores
(D) Round worms

Page 22

126. A characteristic feature unique to the members of phylum Coelenterata is the
presence of

(A) Nematocysts
(B) Flame cells
(C) Hermaphroditism
(D) Polymorphism

127. Cnidarians, which exhibit only the polyp body form are

(A) Cubozoa
(B) Scyphozoa
(C) Anthozoa
(D) Hydrozoa

128. The group of molluscs, which possess eyes similar to vertebrates is

(A) Bivalvia
(B) Gastropoda
(C) Cephalopoda
(D) Pelecypoda

129. Excretion is performed by ………….. in flatworms

(A) Protonephridia
(B) Flame cells
(C) Green cells
(D) Malpighian tubules

130. Phylum Annelida is NOT characterised by

(A) Segmentation
(B) Closed circulatory system
(C) Pseudocoelom
(D) Ventral nerve cord

131. Prawns and butterflies belong to the same phylum because of the presence of

(A) Bilateral symmetry
(B) Jointed legs
(C) Antennae
(D) Segmented body

Page 23

132. Which is not an example of one sided symbiotic relationship?

(A) Cattle egret and cattle
(B) A hermit crab and an empty seashells
(C) A spider on a tree
(D) Tapeworm in host’s stomach

133. The notochord is a ……………. structure in vertebrate embryos that lies under the
……………, and is flanked by …………..

(A) Mesodermal, neural tube, somites
(B) Endodermal, mesoderm, the gut
(C) Ectodermal, neural tube, mesoderm
(D) Mesodermal, ectoderm, endoderm

134. Centrum, pre and post-zygapophysis and transverse process are parts of

(A) Skull of frog
(B) Vertebrae of frog
(C) Sternum of frog
(D) Pectoral girdle of frog

135. Petromyzon is a connecting link between

(A) Balanoglossus and Amphioxus
(B) Amphioxus and cyclostomata
(C) Cyclostoma and pisces
(D) Pisces and amphibians

136. Ancestors of Cyclostomes are

(A) Myxinoides
(B) Arthropods
(C) Ostracoderms
(D) Urochordates

137. Spinal deformities in farmed fish occur due to the deficiency of

(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin C
(C) Vitamin B
(D) Vitamin D

Page 24

138. Which of the following is NOT a micronutrient?

(A) Mn
(B) Cu
(C) Mg
(D) Bo

139. The method of rearing Daphnia in a culture medium made up of soil, manure and
water is known as

(A) Autotrophic
(B) Detrital
(C) Xenic
(D) Axenic

140. In India, the peak breeding season of common carp is

(A) Summer
(B) Winter
(C) Monsoon
(D) None of the above

141. Free swimming larvae of ………….. feed on mucous of their parents

(A) Angel
(B) Severum
(C) Goldfish
(D) Discus

142. Adults of Lates calcarifer migrate towards …………… for spawning

(A) River
(B) Estuary
(C) Sea
(D) Origin of river

143. Paddle wheel aerator is an example of …………… type of aerator

(A) Diffuser
(B) Gravity
(C) Surface
(D) Turbine

Page 25

144. Polyculture of fishes was first developed in

(A) India
(B) China
(C) Thailand
(D) Taiwan

145. Aphids-small, sap-sucking insects - show

(A) Ovipary
(B) Vivipary
(C) Paedogenesis
(D) Parthenogenesis

146. Which of the following insects is an efficient pollinator?

(A) Apis cerana
(B) Syrphus sp.
(C) Bumble bee
(D) Hawk moth

147. Which of the following pests is believed to be migrated from India?

(A) Rhizopertha dominica
(B) Callosobrochus chinensis
(C) Tribolium castaneum
(D) Sitophilus oryzae

148. Wing is the lateral extension of

(A) Integument
(B) Cuticle
(C) Basement membrane
(D) Epidermis

149. Wota trap is used for

(A) Stored grain pests
(B) Groundnut leaf miner
(C) Coffee berry borer
(D) Mosquito and flies

Page 26

150. Pollination by beetles is known as

(A) Melittophily
(B) Myophily
(C) Cantharophily
(D) Myrmecophily

Page 27

FINAL ANSWER KEY
Subject Name: ZOOLOGY
SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key
1 D 31 C 61 D 91 C 121 A
2 D 32 C 62 A 92 B 122 B
3 A 33 C 63 B 93 D 123 D
4 C 34 A 64 C 94 A 124 B
5 D 35 C 65 C 95 B 125 D
6 D 36 D 66 A 96 C 126 A
7 B 37 A 67 A 97 B 127 C
8 D 38 C 68 C 98 C 128 C
9 A 39 B 69 B 99 D 129 B
10 B 40 C 70 B 100 B 130 C
11 A 41 B 71 B 101 D 131 B
12 A 42 B 72 A 102 D 132 D
13 C 43 C 73 A 103 B 133 A
14 B 44 C 74 B 104 B 134 B
15 C 45 A 75 A 105 D 135 B
16 A 46 A 76 D 106 A 136 C
17 D 47 C 77 D 107 A 137 B
18 A 48 C 78 B 108 A 138 C
19 A 49 C 79 C 109 A 139 B
20 D 50 A 80 B 110 C 140 B
21 B 51 D 81 D 111 C 141 D
22 A 52 A 82 D 112 A 142 C
23 D 53 B 83 A 113 A 143 C
24 C 54 D 84 B 114 A 144 B
25 B 55 D 85 A 115 D 145 B
26 A 56 B 86 B 116 C 146 C
27 A 57 D 87 C 117 B 147 D
28 B 58 A 88 A 118 A 148 A
29 D 59 C 89 D 119 C 149 B
30 D 60 B 90 C 120 B 150 C

Document Details

Board / OrgCochin University
ExamCUSAT Common Admission Test
TypeQuestion Paper
Pages27
Updated09 Jun 2026

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