Assam JLEE 2023 Question Paper Electrical Engineering

Section – Mathematics

1. lim(1 + 3𝑥)1/𝑥
𝑛→0
A) e B) e3
1
C) 3-3 D) 𝑒

𝑑𝑦 ∏
2. If y = log (tanx) then 𝑑𝑥 at x = 4
√3
A) 6 B) 2
C) 2 D) 0
1
3. If f(x) = x sin𝑥 for x ≠ 0, f(0) = 0 then at x = 0 , f(x) is
A) Continuous B) Discontinuous
C) Not determined D) Discontinuity

4. The tangent to the hyperbola 4x2 – 5y2 = 16 at the point (3, -2) is
A) 6x – 5y = 28 B) 6x + 5y = 8
C) 5y – 6x = 28 D) 5x + 6y = 4

5. If (1,2) (K,-1) are conjugate points with respect to the ellipse 2x2 + 3y2 = 6 then K is
A) 2 B) 4
C) 6 D) 8

6. Axis of the parabola x2 – 3y – 6x + 6 = 0 is
A) x = -3 B) y = -1
C) x = 3 D) y= 1

7. If A is orthogonal matrix then |A| =
A) 1 B) -1
C) ±1 D) 0

8. Class marks are given 9, 16, 23, 30, 37, 44; then the 4th class limits are
A) 23-30 B) 26.5-33.5
C) 26.5-33 D) 26-33.5
∏/2
9. ∫0 𝑠𝑖𝑛4 𝑥𝑑𝑥 =
3∏ 3
A) 16 B) 16
∏ 1
C) 16 D) 16

10. √2𝑥 + 1 + √𝑥 + 5 = 6 then x =
A) ± 4 B) 4
C) – 4 D) ± 5

11. If ω is complex cube root of unity, them (1 – ω + ω2)6 + (1 – ω + ω)6 =
A) 16 B) 32
C) 64 D) 128

12. 1 + tan75° + tan15° =
A) 5 B) 4
C) 3 D) 2

13. The solution of (x2 + y2)dx = 2xydy
A) c(x2 – y2) = x B) c(x2 + y2) = x
C) c(x2 – y2) = y D) c(x2 + y2) = y

14. The number of distinct solutions in R of the equation |x - |2x + 1|| = 3 is
A) 0 B) 1
C) 2 D) 4
3+5𝑖
15. The modulus of the complex number 1−2𝑖 is
A) √5 B) 5
34
C) √ 5 D) √2

16. tan18° + tan42° + √3 tan18° tan42° =
1
A) 0 B)
√3
C) √3 D) 3

17. Cos1° , Cos2° , Cos3° … Cos179° =
A) 3 B) 2
C) 1 D) 0

18. If 8 and 2 are roots of the equation x2 + ax + p = 0 and 3, 3 are the roots of the equation x2 + qx + b = 0,
then the roots of the equation x2 + ax + b = 0 are
A) 1, 0 B) 9, 1
C) -8, -2 D) 1, -1
2
19. In the expansion (√𝑥 - 𝑥 ) 18, the term independent of x is
A) 18C6 26 B) 18C4 25
C) 18C6 36 D) 18C5 26

20. One side of a rectangular field is 5 m and one of its diagonals is 13 m. The area of the field is
A) 50 m2 B) 60 m2
C) 70 m2 D) 90 m2
1
21. The length of a room is 12 times its breadth, the cost of carpeting the room at Rs. 18 per m2 is Rs. 972,
the dimensions of the room are
A) 9m, 6m B) 15m, 16m
C) 20m, 30m D) 21m, 15m

22. The roots of 12x2 + kx + 5 = 0 are in the ratio 3:2 then K =
A) ± 5 B) ± √10
C) ± 5√10 D) ± 2√10

23. The area bounded by the parabola y = 2x – x2 and X – axis is

4 1
A) 3 B) 3
C) 2 D) 4

24. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio 5 : 12 : 13 and its perimeter is 300 m. Its area is
A) 3000 sqm B) 3127 sqm
C) 3225 sqm D) 3750 sqm

25. The sides of two cubes are in the ratio 3 : 1 then the ratio of their total surface
A) 3 : 1 B) 8 : 1
C) 9 : 1 D) 12 : 1

26. The co-efficient of x15 in the product of (x-1)(x-2)(x-3)…(x-16) is
A) 16! B) 136
C) -136 D) -16!
2𝑎 + 𝑏 𝑎 − 2𝑏 4 −3
27. If the matrices and are equal, then the values of a, b, c, d are in
5𝑐 − 𝑑 4𝑐 + 3𝑑 11 24
A) A.P. B) G.P.
C) H.P. D) A.P. and G.P.

28. The number of 5 digit numbers that can be formed using 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 digits which are divisible by 25
without repetition is
A) 24 B) 64
C) 48 D) 84

29. The number of positive divisors of 25.36.73 is
A) 144 B) 168
C) 169 D) 167

30. (2 + √3)7 + (2 - √3)7 =
A) 10080 B) 10082
C) 10086 C) 10084

Section – Basic of Computer Science

31. Which of the following values is the correct value of this hexadecimal code ABCDEF?
A) 11259375 B) 11259379
C) 11259372 D) 11259371

32. Which of the following is not an operating system?
A) Windows B) Linux
C) Ms-DOS D) Oracle

33. What else is a command interpreter called?
A) Prompt B) Kernel
C) Command D) Shell

34. Internet Works on
A) Circuit switching
B) Packet switching
C) Both packet switching and circuit switching
D) Data switching

35. Which of the following can be looked at using the find tab?
A) Format B) Characters
C) Symbol D) All of the above

36. A process is a
A) Single thread of execution B) Task
C) Program in the execution D) Program in the memory

37. What is smallest unit of the information
A) A nibble B) A byte
C) A block D) A bit

38. What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 10111
A) 23 B) 21
C) 43 D) 25

39. The size of an IP address in IPv6 is
A) 32 bits B) 256 bits
C) 128 bits D) 64 bits

40. Which of the following alignment cannot be placed where the tab stops?
A) Decimal Alignment
B) Bar Alignment
C) Center Alignment
D) Justify Alignment

Section – Engineering Graphics

41. As per BIS the standard A0 size sheet area is approximately equal to _____________square meter.
A) 5 B) 1
C) 2 D) 4

42. The following labels are drawn with different scales as given below
Label Scale
L1 1:25
L2 2:1
L3 1:1
L4 5:1
Choose the correct Answer
A) L1 and L2 are enlarging scales and L3 is -full scale
B) L2 and L4 are reducing scales; L1 is enlarging scales and L3 is full scale
C) L2 and L4 are enlarging scales; L1 is reducing scales and L3 is full scale
D) L3 is full scale and L1, L2, L4 are reducing scales

43. For the figure shown below identify the correct reason for incorrect representation of dimensions.

Reasons:
I) Dimension 27 and 50 not written according to aligned system.
II) Dimensions lines are placed inside the view
III) Dimensions lines used as extension
Choose the correct choice.
A) Only I) and II) are correct statements
B) All three reasons are correct statements
C) Only II) and III) are correct statements
D) Only I) is correct statement

44. Identify the type of line
G
A) Dashed thin narrow line
B) Dashed thick narrow line
C) Continues thin line
D) Chain thin long-dashed dotted line

45. Consider the R.F of a map is 1: 4000, the actual length of the object is 500 m, and then the length to be
drawn in cm is
A) 125 B) 12.5
C) 200 D) 20

46. For the plane scale shown in the figure below, what is the value of X in meters?

A) 3.7 B) 3.6
C) 5.7 D) 5.6

47. Four curves are represented by C1, C2, C3, C4 whose eccentricity ratios are %, Yh, 1, 5/3 respectively.
Choose the correct statements
A) C1 and C2 curves are Ellipse and C3 and C4 are parabola
B) C3 is parabola; C4 is Hyperbola and C1 and C2 curves are ellipse
C) C3 curve is parabola, C4 curve is Hyperbola, Ci is circle and C2 ellipse
D) Cl and C2 curves are Ellipse and C3 and C4 are Hyperbola

48. The distance between fixed point and vertex is VF and the distance from vertex to the fixed line is VD. If
VD is greater than VF then the curve generated is
A) Parabola B) Hyperbola
C) Ellipse D) Data is insufficient to name the curve

49. When a line PQ is inclined to HP and parallel to VP and the line is in the first quadrant, which of the
following statements is true.
I) No vertical traces to the line PQ
II) Line in the front view is true length
III) Line in the top view is true length
A) All three statements are correct B) Only (iii) is correct
C) Only (i) and (ii) are correct D) Only (ii) is correct

50. In orthographic projection, each projection view represents how many dimensions of an object?
A) 1 B) 2
C) 3 D) 4

Section – Electrical Engineering

51. Which one of the following materials cannot be used for permanent magnets?
A) Carbon-steel B) Alnico
C) Barium Ferrite D) Iron-Cobalt alloy

52. Which one of the following materials has the highest dielectric strength?
A) Polystyrene B) Marble
C) Cotton D) Transformer oil

53. A DC shunt generator is supplying a load of 15 kW at 200 V. The armature and shunt field resistances are
0.1 2 and 100 2 respectively. The induced e.m.f of the generator is
A) 192.3 V B) 207.7 V
C) 210 V D) 187 V

54. For doubling the torque developed by a D.C. Series motor, its armature current has to be increased by
A) 100% B) 200%
C) 50% D) 41.4%

55. In a digital frequency meter, the Schmitt trigger is used for
A) Converting sinusoidal waveforms into rectangular pulses
B) Scaling of sinusoidal waveforms
C) Providing time base
D) Triggering a start pulse

56. Power electronics essentially deals with control of a.c. power at
A) Frequencies above 20 kHz B) Frequencies above 1000 kHz
C) 50 Hz frequency D) Frequencies less than 10 Hz

57. A 0-10 mA PMMC ammeter reads 4mA in a circuit. Its bottom control-Spring snaps suddenly. The meter
will now read nearly
A) 10 mA B) 8 mA
C) 2 mA D) zero

58. The type of DC generator used for arc welding purposes is
A) series generator B) shunt generator
C) differentially compounded generator D) separately excited generator

59. A star-connected synchronous generator has synchronous impedance of (0+j5.0) Ω. It delivers a zero-pf
leading current of 20 A at 400 V. Its excitation emf is
A) 400 + j √3 ×100 B) 400 - 𝑗√3 ×100
C) 400 - √3 ×100 D) 400 + √3 ×100

60. Two DC generators having equal open-circuit emfs but slightly different load characteristics are operating
in parallel, then
A) The machine will share load equally
B) The machine with more drooping characteristic will supply more load
C) The machine with more drooping characteristic will supply less load

D) None of above

61. The inductance for the impedance 12+130 ohms at 60Hz frequency is
A) 44.209 mH B) 45.9 mH
C) 73.53 mH D) 79.58 mH

62. A 24 V battery of internal resistance r = 4 ohm is connected to a variable. resistance R. The rate of heat
dissipated in the resistor R is maximum when the current drawn from the battery is I. The current drawn
from the battery will be (1/2) when R is equal to
Α) 12 Ω Β) 40 Ω
C) 16 Ω D) 20 Ω

63. The equivalent capacitance seen between terminals a and b of the circuit shown below is

A) 30 µF B) 4 µF
C) 20 µF D) 10 µF

64. Capacitive transducer is used for
A) Static measurement B) Dynamic measurement
C) Transient measurement D) Both static and dynamic

65. Which process explains the energy extraction from a sea wave?
A) using the kinetic energy of the waves to produce electricity
B) using the thermal energy of the waves to produce electricity
C) using chemical energy of the waves to generate electricity
D) using electrical energy of the waves to generate electricity

66. The major heat loss in a steam power station occurs in
A) Air preheater B) Condenser
C) Economizer D) Super heater

67. A generating station has a connected load of 43MW and a maximum demand of 20 MW; the units
generated being 61.5 × 106 per annum. The demand factor is
A) 0.465 B) 0.855
C) 0.225 D) 1.265

68. Plug setting of a relay can be changed by changing
A) Air gap B) Back up stop
C) Number of ampere turns D) All of these

69. A low frequency induction furnace has a secondary voltage of 15 V and takes 500 KW at 0.6 power factor
when the hearth is full. If the secondary voltage is maintained at 15 V. Assume the resistance of the

secondary circuit to be thereby doubled and the reactance to remain the same. The power absorbed when
the hearth is half full is
A) 385 KW B) 785 KW
C) 483 KW D) 620 KW

70. A factory has an average demand of 50 kW and an annual load factor of 0.5. The power factor is 0.75
lagging. The tariff is Rs. 100 per kVA of maximum demand per annum plus 5 paise per kWh. If loss free
capacitors costing Rs. 600 per kVAR are to be utilised, find the value of power factor at which maximum
saving will result. The interest and depreciation together amount to 10%.
A) 0.6 lag B) 0.65 lag
C) 0.7 lag D) 0.8 lag

71. With the increase in the values of voltage and power factor, the cost of transmission line conductor
A) decreases B) increases
C) is unaffected D) increases exponentially

72. The arc voltage in a circuit breaker
A) is in phase with arc current B) lags arc current by 90°
C) leads arc current by 90° D) lags arc current by 180°

73. An alternator is supplying a load of 300 kW at a power factor of 0.6 lagging. If the power factor is raised
to unity how many more kilo watts can alternator supply for the same kVA loading?
A) 100 KW B) 200 KW
C) 150 KW D) 250 KW

74. In the circuit shown in Figure below. if I1 = 1.5 A then I2 will be

A) 0.5 A B) 1.5 A
C) 2.5 A D) 3A

75. The voltages of a balanced 3𝜙 system are given as VRN 20, VYN +120° and VBN <-120°, then the phase
sequence of the system is
A) RYB B) RBY
C) YBR D) BRY

76. Which of the following is the electrolyte used in a lead-acid battery?
A) Nitric acid B) Sulphuric acid
C) Lead-acid D) Hydrochloric acid

77. When a pentavalent impurity is added to a pure semiconductor, it becomes
A) an insulator

B) an intrinsic semiconductor
C) p-type semiconductor
D) n-type semiconductor

78. Which of the following conductor is needed to use with shortest span?
A) ACSR Conductors B) All Aluminium Conductors
C) Hard Drawn Copper Conductors D) Cadmium Copper Conductors

79. A fuse wire of circular cross-section has a radius of 0.8mm. The wire blows off at a current of 8A. The
radius of the wire that will blow off at a current of 1 A is
A) 0.64mm B) 1 mm
C) 0.1 mm D) 0.2 mm

80. The minimum oil circuit breaker has less volume of oil because:
A) There is insulation between contacts
B) The oil between the breaker contacts has greater strength
C) Solid insulation is provided for insulating the contacts from earth
D) Both (A) and (B)

81. The function of steel wire in the ACSR conductors is to:
A) Compensate for Skin Effect
B) Provide additional mechanical strength
C) Carry large currents
D) To Reduce Inductance

82. Given v(t) = 120 cos (377t + 45°) V and i(t) = 10 cos (377t- 10°) A. The instantaneous power in watts is
A) 600 cos (754t + 35°) B) 344.2 + 600 sin (754t + 35°)
C) 600 sin (754t + 35°) D) 344.2 + 600 cos (754t + 35°)

83. What is a solar collector?
A) A system to collect heat by absorbing sunlight
B) A system to collect rainwater using sunlight
C) A system to collect electricity by using sunlight
D) A device to reflect sunlight back. 63. What is a solar collector?

84. Energy produced due to gravitational force of attraction between earth and moon or sun and earth is
A) Micro-hydel Energy B) Fusion Energy
C) Tidal Energy D) Geothermal Energy

85. What does section 44 Indian Electricity Rules refer to?
A) Penalty for interference with meters
B) Penalty for illegal transmission or use of energy
C) Penalty for maliciously wasting energy
D) Theft of energy

86. Which of the following is the main field of application of pin type insulator?
A) EHV transmission system
B) Transmission and distribution system
C) Transmission system

D) 1 net of energy

87. The device that exhibits negative resistance region is
A) Diac B) Triac
C) Transistor D) UJT

88. Torque / Weight ratio of moving part of an instrument indicates
A) Selectivity B) Accuracy
C) Fidelity D) Sensitivity

89. The Kelvin's double bridge is used for measuring low resistances because
A) It takes into account the contact resistance
B) It accounts thermo emfs
C) It eliminates the errors due to contact and lead resistances
D) It will not require any current for measurement

90. Which of the following statements about a three-phase squirrel-cage induction motor is false?
A) It has no external electrical connections to its rotor
B) A three-phase supply is connected to its stator
C) A magnetic flux which alternates is produced
D) It is cheap, robust and requires little or no skilled maintenance

91. The full-load efficiency of a transformer at 0.85 p.f. lag is 97 percent. Its efficiency at full load 0.85 power
factor lead will be
A) 99% B) 96%
C) 97% D) 98%

92. A 3-phase, 4-pole, 400V, 50Hz squirrel cage induction motor is operating at a slip of 0.02. The speed of
the rotor flux in mechanical rad/sec, sensed by a stationary observer, is closest to
A) 1500 B) 157
C) 1470 D) 154

93. Which of the following soldering method is simple, inexpensive and widely used for soft soldering work?
A) Machine soldering B) Soldering with a soldering iron
C) Dip soldering D) Temperature controlled soldering

94. AQ meter is best suited for measurement of
A) Quality factor of a capacitance
B) Distributed capacitance of a coil
C) Quality factor of piezoelectric sensor
D) Turns ratio of transformer

95. To the y-input of a CRO a signal defined by 10 sin 100t is applied. To the x-input the signal 10 cos 100t is
fed. The gain for both x-channel and y-channel is the same. The screen shows.
A) sinusoidal B) a straight line
C) an ellipse D) a circle

96. The resistance between the opposite faces of 1 metre-cube is found to be 1 2. If its length is increased
to 2 metres, its volume remaining unchanged, then resistance between the opposite faces of its length is
Α) 2Ω Β) 4 Ω
C) 8 Ω D) 1 Ω

97. The current in the circuit of Figure below is

A) 5 A B) 10 A
C) 15 A D) 50A

98. R.M.S. value and mean value are same in case of
A) Sinusoidal wave B) triangular wave
C) full wave rectified sine wave D) square wave

99. A power supply A delivers 10 V de with a ripple of 0.5 V r.m.s. while the power supply B delivers 25 V de
with a ripple of 1 mV r.m.s, the power supply C delivers 15 V de with a ripple of 10 mV r.m.s, the power
supply D delivers 20 V de with a ripple of 100 mV r.m.s. Which is better power supply?
A) power supply A B) power supply B
C) power supply C D) power supply D

100. A zener diode is used as
A) an amplifier B) multivibrator
C) a rectifier D) a voltage regulator