UGC NET 2026 Information Bulletin

UGC-NET
University Grants Commission (UGC)

JUNE-2026

Information Online
Examination
Bulletin

National Testing Agency

Vision
The right candidates joining best institutions will give India her demographic
dividend.

Mission
To improve equity and quality in education by administering research based
valid, reliable, efficient, transparent, fair and international level
assessments. The best subject matter experts, psychometricians and IT
delivery and security professionals will ensure that the current gap in
existing assessment systems are properly identified and bridged.

Core Values
NTA will create a system which will promote teaching (by teachers),
learning (by students) and assessment (by parents and institutions). NTA
strongly believes in quality, efficiency, effectiveness, equity and security
of assessments. To practice these values, NTA will constantly engage with
its stakeholders, viz. students, parents, teachers, experts and partner
institutions.

TABLE OF CONTENTS
S. No. Description Page No.
Important Information, Dates at a Glance, Fee Structure &
A 3
Application Procedure
Chapter – 1. Introduction 8-10
1.1 About National Testing Agency (NTA) 9
1.2 About University Grants Commission (UGC) 9
1.3 University Grants Commission-National Eligibility Test (UGC-NET) 9-10
Chapter – 2. Examination Scheme 11-13
2 UGC-NET June 2026 12
2.1 Mode of Examination 12
2.2 Pattern of Examination 12
2.3 Subject and Syllabus of Test 12
2.4 Medium of Question Paper 12
2.5 Marking Scheme 13
Chapter – 3. Eligibility and Qualification 14-18
3 Eligibility Criteria for UGC-NET June 2026 15
3.1 Qualifying Examination 15-17
3.2 Instructions 17
3.3 Exemption (Eligibility for Assistant Professor) 17
3.4 Age Limit and Relaxation 18
Chapter – 4. Reservations 19-23
4 Reservations 20
Reservation Policy of the Government of India is applicable to UGC-
4.1 20
NET
Provisions relating to Persons with Disability (PwD)/ Persons with
4.2 20-23
Benchmark Disability (PwBD)
Chapter – 5. Registration and Application Process 24-32
5.1 Instructions for filling Online Application Form 25
5.2 Steps to be followed to apply online 25-26
5.3 Procedure for Filling Application Form 26-28
5.4 Check List for filling the Online Application Form 28
5.5 Important Points to Note 28-29
5.6 Provision of Government Id other than Aadhaar 29
5.7 Admit Card for UGC-NET June 2026 30
5.8 Conduct of Exam 30-32

5.9 Computer Based Test (CBT) Guidelines 32

Chapter – 6. Key Challenges and Result 32-35
6.1 Display of Provisional Answer Key(s) for Challenges 33
6.2 Display of Recorded Responses 33
6.3 Procedure and Criteria for declaration of result 33

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S. No. Description Page No.
Chapter – 7. Unfair Means Practices and Breach of Examination Rules 37-39
7.1 Unfair Means Practices and Breach of Examination Rules 38
7.2 Punishment for using unfair means practices 38
7.3 Cancellation of result 39
Chapter – 8. Miscellaneous 40-41
8.1 Grievance / Correspondence with NTA 41
8.2 NTA Weeding Out Rules 41
8.3 Legal Jurisdiction 41
Annexure 42-45
Certificate for person with specified disability covered under the
definition of Section 2 (s) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered under
Annexure – I 43
the definition of Section 2(r) of the said Act, i.e. persons having less
than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing.
Annexure – II Letter of undertaking for using own scribe (more than 40%) 44
Letter of Undertaking by the person with specified disability covered
under the definition of Section 2 (s) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not
Annexure – III 45
covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the said Act, i.e. persons
having less than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing
Appendix 46-98
Procedure for Online Payment of Fee and Helpline for Payment
Appendix- I 47-49
related Queries
Appendix- II List of UGC- NET Subjects and their Codes 50-52
Appendix- III List of Exam Cities for Centres of UGC-NET June 2026 53-58
Appendix- IV List of Subject at Post Graduation Level and their Codes 59
Appendix-V List of Post-Graduation Courses and their Codes 60
Appendix-VI List of States/ Union Territories and their Codes 61
Appendix-VII Procedure for Appearing in Computer Based Test (CBT) 62-64
Appendix-VIII Procedure to be adopted for compilation of NTA scores for Multi 65-69
Session Papers (Normalization procedure based on Percentile Score)
Procedure to be adopted for compilation of NTA scores for multi-
Appendix-IX session Papers (Normalization procedure based on Percentile and Equi 70-78
percentile method)
Appendix- X Gazette Notification for PwD/PwBD Candidate 79-81
Appendix- XI Registration Form Replica 82-99

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IMPORTANT INFORMATION AND DATES AT A GLANCE
Dates, Fee Details and Application Procedure
EVENTS TENTATIVE DATES
Online registration and submission of Application Form
29 April 2026 to 20 May 2026 (upto
(complete in all respects) through NTA Website:
11:50 P.M.)
https://ugcnet.nta.nic.in/
Last date for successful transaction of Examination fee
(through Credit Card/ Debit Card/Net Banking/UPI Payment 20 May 2026 (upto 11:50 P.M.)
Modes
Fee Payable for UGC-NET June 2026
(Pay fee using the Payment Gateway(s) integrated to the Online Application through Net Banking
Debit Card / Credit Card / UPI)
General/Unreserved Rs. 1150/-
Gen-EWS*/ OBC-NCL** Rs. 600/-
Scheduled Caste (SC) / Scheduled Tribes (ST) / Person with
Disability (PwD) / Persons with Benchmark Disability (PwBD) Rs. 325/-
Third gender
Applicable service/processing charges & GST over and above the Examination Fee, are to be Paid by the
candidate to the concerned Bank/ Payment Gateway Integrator. For details, Appendix -I may be
referred to.
22 May 2026 to 24 May 2026 (upto
Correction in the Particulars of Application Form online only
11:50 P.M.)
Intimation of Cities of exam centres By 10 June 2026
Downloading of Admit Card by the Candidate from NTA
By 15 June 2026
Website
Dates of Examination 22 June 2026 to 30 June 2026
180 minutes (03 hours)
Duration of Examination
No break between Paper 1 & Paper 2
Timing of Examination To be Intimated later
Exam Centre, Date and Shift As indicated on the Admit Card
Display of Recorded Responses and Provisional AnswerKeys
on the Website for inviting challenge(s) from Interested To be announced later on website
candidates.
Declaration of Result on NTA website To be Intimated later
https://www.nta.ac.in ,
Website(s)
https://ugcnet.nta.nic.in/
*As per the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated January 17, 2019 issued by the Ministry of Social Justice
and Empowerment and the OM No. 12-4/2019-U1 dated 17.01.2019 as well as the Letters No 35-2/2019-
dated 21.01.2019, 01.02.2019, 04.02.2019 and 15.02.2019 of MHRD Department of Higher Education
regarding implementation of reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWSs) for admission in Central
Educational Institutions.
**OBC (Other Backward Classes)-NCL (Non-Creamy Layer) as per the central list of Other Backward Classes
available on National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC- Government of India website
www.ncbc.nic.in).
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The candidates falling in this list may mention OBC in the Category Column.
State list OBC Candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List) must choose General / Unreserved.
a. Candidate must read carefully the Instructions (including how to fill up Application Form online) given in
the Information Bulletin available on the NTA Website. Candidates not complying with the Instructions
shall be summarily disqualified.
b. Candidate can apply for UGC-NET June 2026 through “Online” mode only. The Application Form
in any other mode will not be accepted.
c. Instructions for filling Online Application Form:
 Download Information Bulletin and Replica of Application Form. Read these carefully to ensure your
eligibility.
 MeriPehchaan-National Single Sign-On (NSSO) Platform
The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), Government of India, has
developed a National Single Sign-On (NSSO) platform titled "MeriPehchaan" in collaboration with
the National Informatics Centre (NIC), Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC),
and National e-Governance Division (NeGD). The platform was launched on 4th July 2022 to facilitate
seamless access to multiple Government services through a single set of login credentials.
MeriPehchaan enables users to authenticate themselves once and securely access various integrated
applications without the need for repeated sign-ins. The platform integrates multiple identity providers
such as JanParichay, DigiLocker, and e-Pramaan, thereby ensuring interoperability and a unified user
experience.
Users can register on the platform using basic details such as name, date of birth, and mobile number,
and may complete verification through eKYC using Aadhaar, PAN, Driving Licence or APAAR. The
platform supports advanced features such as multi-factor authentication, password-less login, and the
ability to manage multiple accounts linked to a single mobile number.
The NSSO framework significantly reduces the burden of maintaining multiple credentials, enhances
data security, and provides a standardized authentication mechanism for Government services. It also
benefits service providers by reducing the cost and complexity of developing independent
authentication systems.
MeriPehchaan thus serves as a secure, scalable, and citizen-centric digital identity solution,
contributing to the vision of Digital India by improving ease of access to Government-to-Citizen (G2C)
services.
Application form registration has been enabled though the single sign on service-Meri Pehchan
of Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, for the convenience of the applicants.
Dates mentioned above are tentative, and applicants will be informed in case there is any change
due to any reason.
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 Follow the steps given below to Apply Online:
Step-1: Apply for Online Registration using own Email Id and Mobile No.
Step-2: Fill in the Online Application Form and note down the system generated Application Number.
The candidate will have to upload his/her live photograph at the time of filling of the application
form and will also have to upload scanned images of: (i) a recent photograph (file size 10Kb-
200Kb) either in colour or black & white with 80% face (without mask) visible including ears
against white background; (ii) candidate’s signature (file size: 4kb-30kb)
Step-3: Pay fee using SBI/CANARA/ICICI/HDFC Bank/ Debit Card/Credit Card/UPI and keep
proof of fee paid.
 Download, save and print a copy of Confirmation Page of the Application Form (which would be
downloadable only after successful remittance of fee) for future reference.
 All the three Steps can be done together or at separate timings. The submission of Application of a
candidate could be considered as successful, and his/her candidature would be confirmed only on the
successful transaction/receipt of the prescribed application fee from him/her.
d. The Confirmation Page of the online Application Form will be generated only after successful payment
by the Candidate.
 In case the Confirmation Page is not generated after payment of fee, then the candidate should
approach the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway (in the helpline no. and email given in Appendix- I
of the Information Bulletin) for ensuring the successful payment or for obtaining the refund of
duplicate / multiple payments.
 However, if inspite of above action payment has not been successfully made it means that the
transaction has not been completed, and the amount not reflected in the NTA account. Such amount
will be refunded to concerned Credit/Debit Card/UPI within a reasonable time by the concern bank.
Therefore, such candidates have to pay the fee once again and ensure the fee status as successful.
e. Candidates shall ensure that the information entered by them in their respective online Application Form
is correct.
f. Information such as his/her name, contact details/address, category, PwD/PwBD status, educational
qualification details, date of birth, choice of exam, cities, etc, provided by the candidate in the online
application form will be treated as final. Any request for change in such particulars after the closure of
correction period will not be considered by NTA.
Following the completion of examination process, corrections in the details specified in the certificate may
be considered only under special circumstances. This is contingent upon the submission of the necessary
documentation and approval by the competent authority.

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g. NTA does not edit /modify/alter any information entered by the candidates under any
circumstances. Any request for change in information after submission of Application Form will not
be entertained. Therefore, candidates are advised to exercise utmost caution for filling up correct
details in the Application Form.
h. NTA disclaims any liability that may arise to a candidate(s) due to incorrect information provided by
him/her in his/her online Application Form.
i. Candidates must ensure that their email address and mobile number to be registered in their online
Application Form are their own, as relevant/important information/ communication will be sent by NTA
through e-mail on the registered e-mail address and / or through SMS on registered mobile number only.
NTA shall not be responsible for any non-communication / miscommunication with a candidate in the
email address or mobile number given by him/her other than his/her own. Candidates are advised to visit
the NTA Website and check their e-mails regularly for latest updates.
j. Candidates shall appear at their own cost at the Examination Centre on the Date, Shift and time indicated
on their Admit Cards issued by the NTA in due course through its Website.
Notes:
i. The final submission of Online Application Form will remain incomplete if Step-2 and step-3 are
not completed. Such forms will stand rejected and no correspondence on this account will be
entertained.
ii. No request for refund of fee once remitted by the candidate will be entertained by NTA under any
circumstances.
iii. NTA intends to provide an additional facility through the UMANG and DigiLocker platforms to
enable candidates to download examination-related documents such as the Score Card and other
relevant records. Detailed instructions regarding this facility will be issued in subsequent phases.
Candidates are advised to visit the NTA website and check their registered e-mails regularly for
updates.
iv. The entire application process for UGC-NET June 2026 is online, including uploading of live
photographs and scanned images, payment of fees, and printing of confirmation page, admit card,
etc. Therefore, candidates are not required to send/submit any document(s) including confirmation
page to NTA through Post/ Fax/WhatsApp/Email/by Hand.
v. Usage of Data and Information: NTA/Government of India can use the data provided by the End
Users (test taker in this case) for internal purpose(s), including training, research and development,
analysis, and other permissible purpose(s). This data can be shared by the UGC/NTA with Higher
Educational Institutions (HEIs) for admission to Ph.D. programmes and with Public Sector
Undertakings (PSUs) & other organizations for their recruitment processes.

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Notes:
1. In case it is found at any time in future that the Candidate has used / uploaded the photograph and
signature of someone else in his/ her Application Form / Admit Card or he/she has tampered his/her
Admit Card / result, these acts of the candidate shall be treated as Unfair Means (UFM) Practices on
his/her part and he/she shall be proceeded with the actions as contemplated under the provisions of the
Unfair Means Practices given in Information Bulletin.
2. For capturing Live Photograph, candidates should switch on their camera or connect their webcam to
the device used for filling the Application Form. If your device does not support a webcam, QR code
on the right can be scanned by the candidate using a mobile device/tablet etc. Candidates should ensure
there is a light-colored background with proper lighting, and 80% face visibility (including ears,
without a mask).

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University Grants Commission - National Eligibility
Test June 2026

CHAPTER-1
[INTRODUCTION]

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1.1 About National Testing Agency (NTA)
The Ministry of Education (MoE), Government of India (GOI) has established the National Testing
Agency (NTA) as an independent, autonomous, and self-sustained premier testing organization under the
Societies Registration Act (1860) for conducting efficient, transparent and international standards tests in
order to assess the competency of candidates for admissions to premier higher education institutions.
The NTA has been entrusted by the University Grants Commission (UGC) with the task of conducting
UGC-NET which is a test to determine the eligibility of Indian nationals for ‘award of Junior Research
Fellowship and appointment as Assistant Professor’, ‘appointment as Assistant Professor and
admission to Ph.D.’ and ‘admission to Ph.D. only’ in Indian universities and colleges.

1.2 About University Grants Commission (UGC)
The University Grants Commission (UGC) is a Statutory Body of Government of India, Ministry of
Education, Department of Higher Education, constituted under the University Grants Commission Act,
1956 (3 of 1956), vested with two responsibilities: that of providing funds and that of coordination,
determination and maintenance of standards in institutions of higher education. The UGC`s mandate
includes:
 Promoting and coordinating university education.
 Determining and maintaining standards of teaching, examination and research in universities.
 Framing regulations on minimum standards of education.
 Monitoring developments in the field of collegiate and university education; disbursing grants to the
universities and colleges.
 Serving as a vital link between the Union and state governments and institutions of higher learning.
 Advising the Central and State governments on the measures necessary for improvement of university
education.

1.3 University Grants Commission – National Eligibility Test (UGC-NET)
(a) UGC-NET is a test to determine the eligibility of Indian nationals for ‘award of Junior Research
Fellowship and appointment as Assistant Professor’, ‘appointment as Assistant Professor and
admission to Ph.D.’ and ‘admission to Ph.D. only’ in Indian universities and colleges.
 The candidates qualifying under the ‘appointment as Assistant Professor and admission to Ph.D.’
category will be eligible for appointment as Assistant Professor and admission to Ph.D. but not
for the award of JRF.
 The candidates qualifying under the ‘admission to Ph.D. only’ category will be eligible for
admission to Ph.D. only but not for the award of JRF and/or appointment as Assistant Professor.

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 The eligibility will be determined in the following manner:
Eligible for
Qualified for
JRF Assistant Professor Ph.D. admission
Category-1: Award of JRF and
Yes Yes Yes
appointment as Assistant Professor
Category-2: Appointment as Assistant
No Yes Yes
Professor and admission to Ph.D.
Category-3: Admission to Ph.D. only No No Yes

 The JRF-qualified candidates are admitted into the Ph.D. programme based on an interview as
per the UGC (Minimum Standards and Procedures for Award of Ph.D. Degree) Regulations,
2022.
 UGC-NET under category-2 & category-3 can be used as an entrance test for Ph.D. admission
in place of entrance tests conducted by the different universities/HEIs for admission to Ph.D.
 For candidates qualified under the category-2 and category-3, the marks obtained in the NET
will have 70% weightage and 30% weightage will be based on the performance in the
interview/viva voce conducted by the University/HEI concerned. The Ph.D. admission will be
based on the combined merit of NET marks and the marks obtained in the interview/viva voce.
 For admission to Ph.D., the marks obtained in the NET by the candidates in category-2 and
category-3 will be valid for a period of one year from the date of declaration of the result of
UGC-NET.
 The number of candidates who will be qualified for ‘admission to the Ph.D. only’ will be decided
by the results committee.
 The result of NET will be declared in percentile along with the marks/normalized marks (in case
of multiple shifts) obtained by a candidate to utilize the marks for admission to Ph.D. In case the
test for a subject(s) is conducted in two or multiple shifts, the marks will be normalized by using
the Equi-percentile method (as per Appendix-IX), and the result will be declared in percentile
along with normalized marks.
(b) The selection of candidates for the following Fellowships will be made through the Ministry of
Social Justice and Empowerment:
 National Fellowship for Scheduled Caste Students (NFSC)
 National Fellowship for Other Backward Classes (NFOBC)
 National Fellowship for Persons with Disabilities (NFPwD)
(c) The data of UGC-NET candidates can be shared by the UGC/NTA with Higher Educational
Institutions (HEIs) for admission to Ph.D. programmes and with Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs)
& other organizations for their recruitment processes.

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Chapter-2
[Examination Scheme]

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2. UGC-NET June 2026
The UGC-NET June 2026 will be conducted in Computer Based Test (CBT) mode as per the time
schedule specified in the Information at a glance, in the Subjects given at (refer to Appendix-II) in
selected Cities spread across the Country (refer to Appendix-III).

2.1 Mode of Examination
The Examination shall be conducted in Computer Based Test (CBT) mode only.

2.2 Pattern of Examination
The Test paper will consist of two sections, both the sections will consist of objective type, multiple-choice
questions. There will be no break between the papers.

Number of
Part Marks MCQ Total duration
Questions
The questions in Part – I intends to assess the
teaching/ research aptitude of the candidate.
03 hours (180
It will primarily be designed to test reasoning
I 100 50 minutes) without
ability, reading comprehension, divergent
any break.
thinking and general awareness of the
All the questions
Candidate.
are compulsory.
This is based on the subject selected by the
II 200 100
candidate and will assess domain knowledge.

2.3 Subject and Syllabus of Test
The List of Subjects and their Codes for UGC-NET June 2026 are given at Appendix -II.
Syllabus for all NET Subjects can be downloaded from the UGC website:
https://www.ugcnetonline.in/syllabus-new.php. The National Testing Agency will not provide the copy
of syllabus to any candidate.

2.4 Medium of Question Paper
(i) The medium of Question Paper shall be in English & Hindi only, except language papers.
(ii) Option for medium of Question Paper should be carefully chosen by the Candidate, while filling the
Application Form online. The option once exercised cannot be changed.
(iii)Candidates are required to answer in the medium as per option exercised in the Application Form.
(iv) In case of any ambiguity in translation/construction of a question in the exam, its English version
shall be treated as final and the decision of NTA shall be final in this regard.

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2.5 Marking Scheme
1. To answer a question, the candidate needs to choose one option as the correct option.
2. Each question carries 02 (two) marks.
3. For each correct response, the candidate will get 02 (two) marks.
4. There is no negative marking for incorrect response.
5. No marks will be given for questions un-answered/un-attempted/marked for Review.
6. While every effort will be made to ensure that each question has one unique answer, in case, it is
found that a question has more than one option, it will be dealt with in following manner:
a) If more than one option is found to be correct, then Two marks (+2) will be awarded to only those
who have marked any of the correct options.
b) If all options are found to be correct, then Two marks (+2) will be awarded to all those who have
attempted the question.
c) If none of the options is found correct or a Question is found to be wrong or a Question is dropped,
then two marks (+2) will be awarded to only to those candidates who have attempted the question.
The reason could be due to human error or technical error. Since there is no negative marking,
candidate needs to choose one most appropriate option as correct answer.

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CHAPTER-3
[Eligibility and Qualification]

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3. Eligibility Criteria for UGC-NET June 2026
3.1 Qualifying Examination:
(a) General/Unreserved/General-EWS candidates who have secured at least 55% marks (without rounding
off) in Master’s Degree or equivalent examination from universities/institutions recognized by UGC
(available on the website: www.ugc.ac.in in Humanities and Social Science (including languages),
Computer Science and Applications, Electronic Science etc. are eligible for this Test. List of subjects
at Post Graduation level is attached as Appendix -V. The Other Backward Classes (OBC) belonging
to Non-Creamy Layer/Scheduled Caste (SC)/Scheduled Tribe (ST)/Persons with Disability (PwD) /
Persons with Benchmark Disability (PwBD)/Third gender category candidates who have secured at
least 50% marks (without rounding off) in Master’s degree or equivalent examination are eligible for
this Test.
(b) Candidates who are pursuing their Master’s degree or equivalent course or candidates who have
appeared for their qualifying Master’s degree (final year) examination and whose result is still awaited
or candidates whose qualifying examinations have been delayed may also apply for this test. However,
such candidates will be admitted provisionally and shall be considered eligible for award of
JRF/eligibility for Assistant Professor only after they have passed their Master’s Degree or equivalent
examination with at least 55% marks (50% marks in case of OBC-NCL/ SC / ST / PwD/PwBD / Third
gender category candidates). Such candidates must complete their Master’s degree or equivalent
examination within two years from the date of NET result with required percentage of marks, failing
which they shall be treated as disqualified.
However, those candidates who qualify for ‘Admission to Ph.D. Only’ must complete their Master’s
degree or equivalent examination within one year from the date of NET result with required percentage
of marks, failing which they shall be treated as disqualified.
(c) Candidates belonging to the Third gender category are eligible to draw the same relaxation in fee, age
and Eligibility Criteria for NET (i.e. JRF and Assistant Professor) as are available to
SC/ST/PwD/PwBD categories. The subject-wise qualifying cut-offs for this category would be the
lowest among those for SC / ST / PwD/PwBD / OBC–NCL / General-EWS categories in the
corresponding subject.
(d) The Ph.D. degree holders whose Master’s level examination have been completed by 19 September
1991 (irrespective of date of declaration of result) shall be eligible for a relaxation of 5% in aggregate
marks (i.e. from 55% to 50%) for appearing in NET. The list of Post-Graduation courses and their
codes is given at Appendix-V.

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(e) Candidates are advised to appear in the subject of their Post-Graduation only. The candidates whose
Post Graduation subject is not covered in the list of NET subjects attached as Appendix-II, may appear
in a related subject.
(f) The candidates having passed a 4-year/8-semester bachelor’s degree programme should have a
minimum of 75% marks in aggregate or its equivalent grade on a point scale wherever the grading
system is followed. A relaxation of 5% marks or its equivalent grade may be allowed for those
belonging to SC/ST/OBC (non-creamy layer)/Differently-Abled, Economically Weaker Section
(EWS) and other categories of candidates as per the decision of the Commission from time to time
(refer to University Grants Commission (Minimum Standards and Procedures for Award of Ph.D.
Degree) Regulations, 2022 https://www.ugc.gov.in/pdfnews/0909572_Minimum-Standards-and-
Procedure-for-Award-of-PhD-Degree.pdf)
The candidates qualifying in the NET, based on a four-year undergraduate degree, will be eligible for
the award of the Junior Research Fellowship (JRF) and for admission to the Ph.D.
The candidates qualifying in the NET, based on a four-year undergraduate degree, will not be eligible
for appointment as Assistant Professor.
(g) The candidates who are pursuing Four Year/8 Semester Bachelor’s Degree Programme and are in their
last semester/year may also apply for the test. However, such candidates will be admitted provisionally
and shall be considered eligible for the award of JRF/admission to Ph.D. only after fulfilling the
requirements contained in the University Grants Commission (Minimum Standards and Procedures
for Award of Ph.D. Degree) Regulations, 2022 within two years (if qualified for award of JRF)/within
one year (if qualified for admission to Ph.D. only) from the date of declaration of the NET result,
failing which they shall be treated as disqualified.
(h) The candidates with a Four-Year Bachelor’s Degree Programme are allowed to appear in a subject (the
List of Subjects and their Codes for UGC-NET June 2026 are given at Appendix-II) in which they
want to pursue a Ph.D. irrespective of the discipline in which they have obtained the four-year
bachelor’s degree.
(i) Candidates are neither required to send any certificates/documents in support of their eligibility nor
printout of their Application Form or Confirmation Page to NTA. However, the candidates, in their
own interest, must ensure themselves about their eligibility for the test. In the event of any ineligibility
being detected by the UGC/NTA at any stage, their candidature will be cancelled, and they shall be
liable for legal action. NTA does not verify the information provided by the candidates during online
registration and hence candidature will be purely provisional subject to the fulfillment of eligibility
criteria.

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(j) Candidates holding a foreign qualification are advised, in their own interest, to obtain equivalence of
their qualification from the University Grants Commission (UGC).
Attention is invited to the University Grants Commission (Recognition and Grant of Equivalence to
Qualifications Obtained from Foreign Educational Institutions) Regulations, 2025 published in the
Gazette of India on 04th April, 2025. For more clarification candidates are requested contact NET
Bureau.
The Candidates with Post-Graduate diploma awarded by an Indian Institute should in their own
interest, ascertain the equivalence of their diploma with Master’s degree of recognized Indian
Universities from Association of Indian Universities (AIU).
3.2 Instructions
(i) The eligibility in NET will depend on the performance of the candidate in both the sections of UGC-
NET in aggregate. However, the candidates qualifying exclusively for ‘Assistant Professor and
admission to Ph.D.’ or for ‘admission to Ph.D. only’ will not be considered for the award of JRF.
Candidates appearing in UGC-NET should thoughtfully select the various options available in the
Application Form.
Candidates who qualify the Test for eligibility for Assistant Professor will be governed by the rules
and regulations for recruitment of Assistant Professor of the concerned Universities / Colleges/ State
governments, as the case may be.
(ii) The candidates who qualify for the award of JRF are eligible to pursue research in the subject of their
post-graduation or in a related subject and are also eligible for Assistant Professor. The universities,
institutions, IITs and other national organizations may select the JRF awardees for full time research
work in accordance with the procedure prescribed by them.
(iii) Junior Research Fellowship: Candidates qualifying for the award of JRF will be eligible to receive

fellowship of UGC under various schemes, subject to their finding placement in
universities/IITs/Institutions. The validity period of the offer will be three years w.e.f. the date of
issue of JRF Award Letter. However, for those candidates who have already joined Ph.D., the date of
commencement of Fellowship shall be from the date of declaration of NET result or date of their
joining, whichever is later.
(iv) The National Fellowship for Scheduled Caste Students (NFSC) and National Fellowship for Other
Backward Classes (NFOBC) shall be governed by the guidelines available on the official websites of
the concerned Ministries.
3.3 Exemption (Eligibility for Assistant Professor)
(i) NET/SET/SLET shall remain the minimum eligibility condition for recruitment and appointment of
Assistant Professors in Universities/Colleges/ Institutions. In this regard, exemption from
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NET/SET/SLET will be governed by UGC regulations and amendments notified in the Gazette of
India from time to time.
(ii) The candidates who have passed the UGC/CSIR/ JRF examination prior to 1989 are also exempted
from appearing in NET.
(iii) For SET Candidates: The candidates who have cleared the States Eligibility Test (SET) accredited by

UGC for Assistant Professor held prior to 01st June 2002, are exempted from appearing in NET, and
are eligible to apply for Assistant Professor anywhere in India. For SET held from 1st June 2002
onwards, the qualified candidates are eligible to apply for the post of Assistant Professor only in the
universities/colleges situated in the State from where they have cleared their SET.
3.4 Age Limit and Relaxation
(i) JRF: Not more than 30 years as on 01st day of the month in which the examination is concluded
i.e. 01.06.2026.
a) A relaxation of upto 5 years is provided to the candidates belonging to OBC-NCL (as per the
Central list of OBC available on website: www.ncbc.nic.in) /SC/ST/PwD/PwBD/Third gender
categories and to women applicants.
b) Relaxation will also be provided to the candidates with research experience, limited to the period
spent on research in the relevant / related subject of post-graduation degree, subject to a
maximum of 5 years, on production of a certificate from appropriate authority, which should be
a recognized Indian university / Institute of National Importance / foreign university which is
duly approved / recognized / accredited in its own Country / Public Sector Undertaking of
Government of India / State Government in India. The research should not have been carried out
towards completion of graduation or post-graduation degree(s).
c) Three years’ relaxation in age will be permissible to the candidates with L.L.M. degree. A
relaxation of upto 5 years is provided to the candidates who have served in the armed forces
subject to the length of service in the armed forces upto the first day of the month in which the
concerned UGC-NET is, conducted, i.e., 01.06.2026. Total age relaxation on the above ground(s)
shall not exceed five years under any circumstances.
(ii) Assistant Professor: There is no upper age limit in applying for UGC-NET for Assistant Professor.
(iii) Admission to PhD: There is no upper age limit in applying for UGC-NET for Admission to PhD.

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CHAPTER-4
[RESERVATIONS]

~ 19 ~

4. Reservations
4.1 Reservation Policy of the Government of India is applicable to UGC-NET According to this, in the
Central Universities and Institutions which are deemed to be Universities, the reservation of seats
shall be as follows:
i. 15% of the seats for Scheduled Caste (SC) candidates.
ii. 7.5% of seats Scheduled Tribe (ST) candidates.
iii. 27% of the seats for Other Backward Classes (OBC) Non-Creamy Layer (NCL) candidates as per the
Central List*
iv. 10% of the seats for General-Economically Weaker Sections (General- EWS) candidates.
v. 05% of the seats in the above-mentioned categories for Persons with Benchmark Disability
(PwBD) with 40% or more disability.
Notes:
1. The benefit of reservation for admission to Central Educational Institutions (CEIs) shall be given only to those classes/castes/tribes which
are in the respective CentralList published by the Government of India from time to time.

2. Other Backward Classes - Non-Creamy Layer (OBC–NCL) are as per the Central listof Other Backward Classes available on National
Commission for Backward Classes(NCBC), Government of India website www.ncbc.nic.in Thus, the candidates falling inthis list may mention
OBC in the Category Column. State list OBC Candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List) must not choose OBC-NCL.

3. Economically Weaker Section (EWS) - This provision would be regulated as per theOM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated January 17, 2019 issued
by the Ministry of SocialJustice and Empowerment and the OM No. 12-4/2019-U1 dated 17.01.2019 as well as the Letters No 35-2/2019-T.S.I
dated 21.01.2019, 01.02.2019, 04.02.2019 and 15.02.2019 of MHRD Department of Higher Education regarding implementation of reservation
for Economically Weaker Section (EWS) for admission in Central Educational Institutions (CEIs).

4.2 Provisions relating to Persons with Disability (PwD)/ Persons with Benchmark Disability (PwBD):
4.2.1 The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016:
The Gazette of India, Extraordinary Part-II Section 1, Ministry of Law and Justice (Legislative
Department) New Delhi dated 28 December 2016 on “The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act,
2016. The relevant paragraphs of the above Gazette Notification from chapter 1 for consideration are
as under:
Para 2 (r) “person with benchmark disability” means a person with not less than forty percent of a
specified disability where specified disability has not been defined in measurable terms and includes a
person with disability where specified disability has been defined in measurable terms, as certified by
the certifying authority;
Para 2 (s) “person with disability” means a person with long term physical, mental, intellectual or
sensory impairment which, in interaction with barriers, hinders his full and effective participation in
society equally with others;
Para 2 (zc) “specified disability” means the disabilities as specified in the Schedule; (Appendix -
X)(https://cdnbbsr.s3waas.gov.in/s3e58aea67b01fa747687f038dfde066f6/uploads/2023/10/20231016
1053958942.pdf )
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4.2.2 Office Memorandum dated 29 August 2018:
Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment, Govt. of India, Office Memorandum No. F. No. 34-
02/2015-DD-III dated 29 August 2018 for conducting written examination for persons with specified
disabilities covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the RPwD Act, 2016. The relevant paragraphs
of the above Office Memorandum for consideration are as under: -
Para IV. The facility of Scribe/Reader/Lab Assistant should be allowed to any person with benchmark
disability as defined under section 2(r) of the RPwD Act, 2016 and has limitation in writing including
that of speed if so desired by him/her.
In case of persons with benchmark disabilities in the category of blindness, locomotor disability (both
arms affected-BA) and cerebral palsy, the facility of scribe/reader/lab assistant shall be given, if so
desired by the person.
In case of other category of persons with benchmark disabilities, the provision of scribe/reader/lab
assistant can be allowed on production of a certificate to the effect that person concerned has physical
limitation to write, and scribe is essential to write examination on his behalf, from the Chief Medical
Officer/Civil Surgeon/Medical Superintendent of a Government health care institution as per proforma
at Annexure-I.
In case the candidate is allowed to bring his own scribe, the qualification of the scribe should be one
step below the qualification of the candidate taking examination. The person opting for own scribe
should submit details of the own scribe as per proforma at Annexure-II.
4.2.3 Office Memorandum dated 10 August 2022:
Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment, Govt. of India, Office Memorandum No F. No. 29- 6/2019-
DD-III dated 10 August 2022 for conducting written examination for persons with specified disabilities
covered under the definition of Section 2(s) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered under the definition
of Section 2(r) of the said Act, i.e. person having less than 40% disability and having difficulty in
writing. The relevant paragraphs of the above Office Memorandum for consideration are as under: -
Para 3 (b). The facility of scribe and/or compensatory time shall be granted solely to those having
difficulty in writing subject to production of a certificate to the effect that person concerned has
limitation to write and that scribe is essential to write examination on his/her behalf from the competent
medical authority of a Government healthcare institution as per proforma at Annexure- III.
Para 3 (c). The medical authority for the purpose of certification as mentioned above should be a multi-
member authority comprising the following: -
i. Chief Medical officer/Civil Surgeon /Chief District Medical Officer, Chairperson
ii. Orthopaedic/PMR specialist
iii. Neurologist, if available*

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iv. Clinical Psychologist/Rehabilitation Psychologist/ Psychiatrist/Special Educator
v. Occupational therapist, if available*
vi. Any other expert based on the condition of the candidate as may be nominated by the
Chairperson.
(* the Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Chief District Medical Officer may make full efforts for
inclusion of neurologists, occupational therapist from the nearest District or the Medical
College/Institute, if the same is not available in the District)”
The candidate should fill up the details of scribe as per undertaking proforma at Annexure-IV.
4.2.4 Scribe and Compensatory Time
1. The candidate should have the discretion of opting for his own scribe / reader / lab assistant or request
the Examination Body for the same. The examining body may also identify the scribe / reader / lab
assistant to make panels at the District / Division / State level as per the requirements of the
examination. In such instances the candidates should be allowed to meet the scribe two days before
the examinations so that the candidates get a chance to check and verify whether the scribe is suitable
or not.
2. Compensatory time and the same should not be less than 20 minutes per hour of examination for
persons who are allowed use of scribe / reader / lab assistant. All the candidates with benchmark
disabilities who are eligible for availing the facility of scribe in terms of guidelines vide para IV of
Para 2.2.2 above may be allowed additional time of minimum of one hour for examination of 3 hours
duration whether they use the facility of scribe or not. In case the duration of the examination is less
than an hour, then the duration of additional time should be allowed on pro-rata basis. Additional
time should not be less than 5 minutes and should be in the multiple of 5”.
Note-Both the guidelines i.e. dated 29 August 2018 (for PwBDs) and dated 10 August 2022 (for
PwDs) have other important aspects such as allowing use of assistive devices, proper seating
arrangement, accessibility of examination centres etc. which will be followed.
The scribe will help the Candidate in reading the questions and / or keying in the answers as per the
directions of the Candidate. A scribe will NEITHER explain the questions NOR suggest any solution
to the Candidate.
It is to be noted that the Scribe will be provided by the National Testing Agency (NTA), if requested
by the Candidate.
If it is found at any stage that a candidate has availed the services of a scribe and/or availed the
compensatory time but does not possess the extent of disability that warrants the use of a scribe
and/or grant of compensatory time, the candidate will be excluded from the process of evaluation,
ranking.

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Note-1: The NTA does not guarantee any change in the category or sub-category (PwD/PwBD
status) after the submission of the Online Application Form, and in any case, no change will be
entertained by NTA after the declaration of NTA Result for UGC-NET June 2026. Therefore, the
candidates are advised to fill in the category/sub-category column very carefully.
Note-2: The extent of “specified disability” in a person shall be assessed in accordance with the
“Guidelines for the purpose of assessing the extent of specified disability in a person included under
the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016.
Note-3: Candidates must note that the benefit of reservation will be given to them subject to
verification of documents. If it is discovered at any stage that a candidate has used a
false/fake/incorrect document or has furnished false, incorrect or incomplete information, in order to
avail the benefit of reservation, then such a candidate shall be excluded from all examination process.

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Chapter-5
[REGISTRATION AND APPLICATION
PROCESS]

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5.1 Instructions for filling Online Application Form
Candidates have to apply for UGC-NET June 2026 “Online” ONLY by accessing the website:
https://ugcnet.nta.nic.in/. The Application Form other than online mode would not be accepted in any case.
Only one application is to be submitted by a candidate. More than one application i.e. multiple
Application Forms for same subject submitted by a candidate will be rejected.
It is suggested that the candidate should keep the following ready before starting the filling of the
Application Form:
Before beginning the process of filling the Online Application Form, read Information Bulletin carefully, keep
ready required documents and follow the following instructions:
 Copy of Board/ University Certificate for Candidate’s Name, Mother’s Name, Father’s Name and Date
of Birth.
 Type of Identification-Bank A/c passbook with photograph/ Passport Number/Ration Card/ Aadhaar Card
Number/Voter ID Card Number/ Other Govt ID
 Qualifying Degree Certificate or last semester marks sheet
 Your Mailing Address as well as Permanent Address with Pin Code (ReferAppendix-VI for State Code)
 Four cities for Centres of your choice (Refer Appendix-III for Codes)
 Code of UGC-NET Subject (Refer Appendix-II for Code)
 Code of subject at Post Graduation level (Refer Appendix-IV for Code)
 Code of Post-Graduation Course (Refer Appendix-V for Code)
 Category Certificate, if applicable
 Economically Weaker Section (EWS) Certificate, if applicable
 Person with Disability (PwD) / Persons with Benchmark Disability (PwBD) Certificate, if applicable
 e-mail address and Mobile Number of candidate.
 Scanned images in JPG/JPEG format only:

Information Bulletin should be downloaded and read carefully by the candidate to ensure about his/her
eligibility and acquaint themselves with requirements for submission of Online Application Form. In order
to avoid correction in the particulars in later stage, the candidate should exercise utmost caution while
filling up correct details.
5.2 Steps to be followed to apply online:
Step-1: Apply for Online Registration using own Email Id and Mobile No.
Step-2: Fill in the Online Application Form and note down the system generated Application Number.
The candidate will have to upload his/her live photograph at the time of filling of the application form and
will also have to upload scanned images of: (i) the recent photograph (file size 10Kb-200Kb) either in
colour or black & white with 80% face (without mask) visible including ears against white background;
(ii) candidate’s signature (file size: 10kb-50kb) and Pwd/PwBD Disability Certificate/UDID with both
side in same pdf (file size: 50kb-300kb).
Step-3: Pay fee using SBI/ CANARA/ ICICI/ HDFC Bank/Debit Card/Credit Card/UPI and keep
proof of fee paid.

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All the 3 Steps can be done together or at separate timings. The submission of Application of a candidate
could be considered as successful and his/her candidature would be confirmed only on the successful
transaction/receipt of the prescribed application fee from him/her.

Note:
(i) The final submission of Online Application Form will remain incomplete if Step-2 and Step-3 are not
completed, such Application Forms will stand rejected and no correspondence on this account will be
entertained.
(ii) No request for refund of fee once remitted by the candidate will be entertained.
(iii) The entire application process of UGC-NET June 2026 is online, including uploading of live photographs
and scanned images, Payment of Fees and Printing of Confirmation page. Therefore, candidates are not
required to send/submit any document(s) including Confirmation page to NTA through Post/Fax/By
Hand/E-mail.
(iv) Candidates are advised to keep visiting the NTA’s website regularly for latest updates and to check their
e-mails.
(v) The NTA can make use of the data generated for the purpose of research and analysis.
(vi) All the candidates who have submitted the online application and paid the Examination fee till last date
will be allowed to appear in UGC-NET June 2026 and their Admit Cards will be uploaded on the website
as per schedule.
(vii) NTA does not verify the information filled by the candidates in the Application Form nor verifies any
certificate of category/educational qualification for deciding the eligibility of candidates.
(viii) The certificates of educational qualification and category (if applied under reserved category) will be
verified by the concerned institution. The candidates are, therefore, advised to ensure their eligibility and
the category (if applying under reserved category).
(ix) The NTA will, in no way, be responsible for any wrong/incorrect information furnished by the candidate(s)
in his/her Online Application Form. The letter/emails/WhatsApp Message/Public Grievance in this regard
will not be entertained by the NTA.
5.3 Procedure for Filling Application Form
Part I: Registration Page
Fill in the basic information and note down the system generated Application No.
(i) Candidate’s Name/ Mother’s Name/ Father’s Name as given in the Class X certificate or equivalent
Board/ University Certificate in capital letters.
(ii) Date of Birth in DD/MM/YYYY format as recorded in Class X certificate or equivalent
Board/ University certificate.
(iii) Mobile Number and e-mail Address - Candidates must provide their own MobileNumber and e-
mail address.
Note: Only one registered e-mail address and one Mobile Number are valid for correspondence.

Part II: Fill in the complete Application Form
(i) Other Backward Classes (OBC)-Non-Creamy Layer as per the Central List of Other Backward
Classes available on National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), Government of India
website (www.ncbc.nic.in). Thus, the candidates falling in this list may mention OBC in the
Category Column. State list OBC Candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List) must choose
General.
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(ii) Economically Weaker Section (EWS) - As per the OM No. 20013/01/2019-BC-II dated January 17,
2019 issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and the OM No. 12-4/2019-U1
dated 17.01.2019 as well as the Letters No 35-2/2019-T.S.I dated 21.01.2019, 01.02.2019,
04.02.2019 and 15.02.2019 of MHRD Department of Higher Education (which is now known as
Ministry of Education) regarding implementation of reservation for Economically Weaker Section
(EWS) for admission in Central Educational Institutions .
(iii)Provide a complete postal address with PIN Code (Correspondence Address as well as Permanent
Address) for further correspondence. PIN code of Correspondence Address should be given in the
space provided for this purpose.
Note: The NTA shall not be responsible for any delay/loss in postal transit or for an incorrect
Correspondence address given by the Applicant on the Application Form.
Choice of Cities for Examination Centres:
 The City of Examination Centres where the test shall be conducted are given at Appendix-III. It is
mandatory for candidates to select four cities of their choice while filling the Online Application
Form of UGC-NET June 2026. Effort will be made to allot Centre of Examination to the candidates
in order of the city choice opted by them in their Application Form. However, due to administrative
reasons, a different city may also be allotted.
Part III: Uploading of Live Photographs and Scanned Images
I. Candidate’s Photograph to be uploaded.
 The candidate will have to upload his/her live photograph at the time of filling of the application
form and will also have to upload scanned images.
 Photograph should not be done with a cap or goggles. The photograph should cover 80% of the
face (without mask) visible including ears against white background.
 Spectacles are allowed if being used regularly.
 Polaroid and Computer-generated photos are not acceptable.
 Applications not complying with these instructions or with unclear photographs are liable to be
rejected.
 Candidates may please note that if it is found that photograph uploaded is fabricated i.e. de- shaped
or seems to be hand-made or computer made, the form of the candidate will be rejected and the
same would be considered as using unfair means and the candidate would be dealt with
accordingly.
 Application without photograph shall be rejected. The photograph need not be attested.
Candidates are advised to take 6 to 8 passport size-colored photographs with a white background.

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Note: Passport size photograph is to be used for uploading on Online Application Form and also
for pasting on Attendance Sheet at the Examination centre. The candidate should scan his/her
passport size photograph for uploading. File size must be between (10 kb to 200 kb).
II. Candidate’s Signature to be uploaded
 The candidates are required to upload the full signature in running handwriting in the appropriate
box given in the Online Application Form. Writing full name in the Box in Capital letters would
not be accepted as signature and the Application Form would be rejected. Further, unsigned
Online Application Forms will also be rejected.
 The candidate should put his full signature on white paper with Blue/Black Ink pen and scan for
uploading. File size must be between (10 kb to 50 kb).
Note: Candidate must ensure that the uploaded scanned images are clear and proper
III. Uploading of copy of Pwd/PwBD Disability Certificate/UDID with both side in single pdf.
 Candidates are required to upload their Pwd/PwBD Disability Certificate/UDID with both side in
same pdf (file size: 50kb – 300kb).
5.4 Check List for filling the Online Application Form
The candidates are advised to ensure the following points before filling the Online Application Forms:
I. Whether they fulfil the eligibility conditions for the Test as prescribed under the heading
‘Conditions of Eligibility’.
II. That they have filled their gender and category viz General/OBC (Non-Creamy Layer)/SC/
ST/Gen-EWS/ Male/Female/Third gender, in the relevant column correctly.
III. That they have filled their Subject and City of Examination in the relevant column correctly.
IV. That the Person with Disability (PwD) / Persons with Benchmark Disability (PwBD) candidate
has filled the relevant column in the Online Application Form. Only PwD/PwBD candidates have
to fill this column, and the others have to leave it blank.
V. Whether they have kept a Printout of Application Form (confirmation page) for their own
record for future references.
5.5 Important Points to Note
i. The Candidates should fill their complete postal address with PIN Code for further
correspondence.
ii. The Candidate must ensure that e-mail address and Mobile Number provided in the Online
Application Form are their own (which cannot be changed later).
iii. The Candidate should not give the postal address, Mobile Number or e-mail ID of Coaching
Centre in the Online Application Form.

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iv. In order to appear in UGC-NET June 2026, the candidates are required to apply ‘online’. The
Application Form other than online mode shall not be accepted. No change will be accepted
through offline mode i.e. through fax/application including e-mail etc.
v. Online submission of application may be done by accessing the NTA official website:
ugcnet.nta.nic.in.
vi. Online Application Form cannot be withdrawn once it is submitted successfully.
vii. Application Form of candidates who do not fulfil the eligibility criteria shall be rejected.
viii. A candidate is allowed to submit only one Application Form. If a candidate submits more than
one Application Form, the candidature is likely to be cancelled.
ix. Request for change in any particular in the Application Form shall not be entertained after
closing of the correction window.
Note: A chance will be given to the candidates to correct/modify/edit some of the particular(s)
of the Application Form online only, after submission of Application Form. Candidates are
advised to keep visiting the NTA website regularly for any updates.
x. The City of Examination Centres where the test shall be conducted are given in the Information
Bulletin. The Cities indicated for the entrance Examination should be carefully chosen by the
candidate, as no change will be allowed once application is submitted.
xi. Selection of a candidate in the test is provisional, subject to being found otherwise eligible for
admission.
xii. In case a candidate is found providing incorrect information or the identity is proved to be false
at any time in the future, the candidate shall face penal action as per the law.
xiii. The Candidates are not required to send/ submit the confirmation page of Online Application
Form to the NTA. However, he/she is advised to retain the following documents with them as
reference for future correspondence:
 At least four printouts of the Confirmation Page of Online Application Form.
 Proof of fee paid.
 Photographs (same as uploaded on the Online Application Form)-6 to 8 passport size
photographs need to be kept aside.
 The name on the photo identification must match with the name as shown on the Admit Card.
If the name has been changed due to events such as marriage, candidate must show the
relevant document at the time of exam. Marriage Certificate / Divorce / Decree / Legal Name
Change Document.
5.6 Provision of Government ID other than Aadhaar
 The Aadhaar number is only one of the types of identification and is not mandatory. Candidates
may also enter Passport number, PAN Card, Driving Licence or any other valid Government
identity number.

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5.7 Admit Card for UGC-NET June 2026
1) The Admit Card would be issued provisionally to the candidates of UGC-NET June 2026, subject to
fulfilment of eligibility criteria.
2) The candidate has to download the Admit Card from the NTA website and appear for the Examination
at the given Centre on date, shift, time and discipline as indicated in his/her Admit Card.
3) No candidate will be allowed to appear at the examination centre, on Date and Timings other than that
allotted to them in their Admit card.
4) In case a candidate is unable to download Admit Card from the website, he/she may approach the Help
Line of NTA between 09:30 am to 5:30 pm or write to NTA at: [email protected].
5) The candidates are advised to read the Instructions Given in the Admit Card carefully in advance of
the exam day and follow them during the conduct of the examination.
6) In case of any discrepancy in the particulars of the candidate or his/her photograph and signatures
shown in the Admit Card and Confirmation Page, the candidate may immediately approach the Help
Line between 09:30 am to 5:30 pm. In such cases, candidates would appear in the Examination with
the already downloaded Admit Card.
Note:
a. Candidate may please note that Admit Cards will not be sent by post or through email.
b. In no case, the duplicate Admit Card for UGC-NET June 2026 would be issued at the
Examination Centre(s).
c. Candidate must not mutilate the Admit Card or change any entry made therein.
d. Candidates are advised to preserve their Admit Cards in good condition for future
reference.
e. No Admit Card shall be issued to the candidates whose Applications are found to be
incomplete for any reasons (including indistinct/doubtful photographs/unsigned
Applications) or who do not fulfil the eligibility criteria for the examination.
f. Issue of Admit Cards, however, shall not necessarily mean acceptance of eligibility which
shall be further scrutinized at subsequent stages of admission process.

5.8 Conduct of Exam
Candidates are advised to go through the instructions given on the Admit Card carefully before going for
the Examination.
5.8.1 Documents to be brought to the Examination Centre
 Candidates must bring the following documents to the Test Centre
 Printed copy of Admit Card downloaded from NTA website.
 One passport size photograph (same as uploaded on the Online Application Form) for pasting on the
specific space in the Attendance Sheet at Centre during the Examination. Any one of the authorized
photo IDs (must be original, valid and non-expired)-PAN card/ Driving License/Passport/ Aadhaar
Card (With photograph)/ Aadhaar). The name on the photo identification must match the name as
shown on the Admit Card.
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If the name has been changed due to events such as marriage, candidate must show the
relevant document at the time of exam. Marriage Certificate/ Divorce/ Decree/ Legal Name
Change Document.
 PwD/PwBD certificate issued by the Competent Authority, if claiming the relaxation under
PwD/PwBD category.
5.8.2 Reporting Time and other Important Instructions
 The candidates shall report at the Examination Centre two hours before the commencement of the
examination so as to complete the frisking and registration formalities well before time. The
registration desk will be closed 30 minutes prior to the examination.
 Candidates shall not be permitted to enter in the Examination Centre as per stipulated time mention
in the admit card.
 Candidates are also advised to report at the Examination Hall/Room in the Examination as per
stipulated time mention in the admit card.
 The candidates are advised to read the instructions on the Admit Card carefully and follow them
during the conduct of the examination.
 Candidates should take their seat immediately after opening of the Examination Hall. If the
candidates do not report in time due to any reason i.e. traffic jam, train/bus delay etc., they are likely
to miss some of the general instructions to be announced in the Examination Rooms/Halls. The NTA
shall not be responsible for any delay.
 The candidate must show, on demand, the Admit Card downloaded/printed from the NTA website
for admission in the examination room/hall. The Test Centre Staff on duty is authorized to verify the
identity of candidates and may take steps to verify and confirm the identify credentials. Candidates
are requested to extend their full cooperation. A candidate who does not possess the valid Admit
Card shall not be permitted for the examination under any circumstances by the Centre
Superintendent.
 A seat indicating Roll Number will be allotted to each candidate. Candidates should find and sit on
their allocated seat only. In case of a candidate who changes room/hall or the seat on his/her own
other than the one allotted, candidature shall be cancelled, and no plea would be accepted for it.
 The candidate should ensure that the question paper available on the computer is as per his/her opted
subject indicated in the Admit Card. In case, the subject of question paper is other than his/her opted
subject, the same may be brought to the notice of the Invigilator concerned.
 Candidate may approach the Centre Superintendent/Invigilator in the room for any technical
assistance, first aid emergency or any other information during the course of examination.
 For any queries or issues regarding the Computer Based Test, the candidates may contact on Helpline

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Numbers (011-40759000) available on UGC-NET website.
 For those who are unable to appear on the scheduled date of test for any reason, re-test shall not be
held by the NTA under any circumstances.

5.9 Computer Based Test (CBT) Guidelines
The CBT Guidelines are provided in Appendix-VII. Please read them carefully and practice the same with
Mock Test through: https://www.nta.ac.in/Quiz.

~ 32 ~

Chapter-6
[KEY CHALLENGES AND RESULT]

~ 33 ~

6.1 Display of Provisional Answer Key(s) for Challenges
 NTA will display Provisional Answer Key(s) & Question Paper attempted by the candidates on the
NTA's website https://ugcnet.nta.nic.in/. Exact date shall be displayed on the NTA’s website for the
same after the commencement of the examination. The Provisional Answer Key(s) are likely to be
displayed for two to three days.
 The Candidates will be required to pay online an amount of Rs. 200/- (Rupees Two Hundred
Only) per answer key challenged, as processing fee. Non-Refundable.
 Only paid challenges made during the stipulated time through the key challenge link will be
considered. Challenges without justification/evidence/after stipulated time period and those filed on
any other medium other than the prescribed link will not be considered.
 The NTA decision on the challenges shall be final and no further communication will be entertained.
NTA will not inform the Candidates individually about the outcome of the challenges made.
 The subject experts will examine all the challenges received and then a final answer key will be
displayed and declared.
 The result will be compiled based on the final answer key declared. No grievance with regard to
answer key(s) after the declaration of result/NTA Score of UGC-NET June 2026 will be
entertained.

6.2 Display of Recorded Responses
 The NTA will display the Question Paper and attempted recorded responses by the candidates on the
NTA website ugcnet.nta.nic.in prior to declaration of result. The Question paper attempted and
recorded responses are likely to be displayed for two to three days. Candidates are advised to download
the response sheet for the future. No copy of the response sheet will be provided by NTA after the
declaration of results under the RTI Act.

6.3 Procedure and Criteria for declaration of result
1) The following steps will be followed for the preparation of Result
Step I: The number of candidates to be qualified for eligibility for Assistant Professor shall be equal
to 6% of the candidates appeared in NET (in both the papers) on the basis of their Master’s Degree or
equivalent examination.
Step II: The total slots shall be allocated to different categories as per the reservation policy of
Government of India.
Step III: In order to be considered, the candidate must have appeared in both the papers and secured
at least 40% aggregate marks in both the papers taken together for General (Unreserved) / General-

~ 34 ~

EWS category candidates and at least 35% aggregate marks in both the papers taken together for all
candidates belonging to the reserved categories (viz., SC, ST, OBC (belonging to Non- Creamy Layer),
PwD/PwBD and Third gender).
Step IV: The number of candidates to be declared qualified in any subject for a particular category is
derived as per the methodology illustrated below:
Example: Number of candidates* belonging to SC category who
Number of candidates to be secure at least 35% aggregate marks in both the
declared qualified for Eligibility papers taken together in ‘Economics’ (x) Total slots
for Assistant Professor in the derived for SC category as per Step II (÷) Total
subject ‘Economics’ for the number of candidates* belonging to SC category over
Scheduled Caste (SC) category all subjects who secure at least 35% aggregate marks
in both the papers taken together.
The aggregate percentage of the two papers corresponding to the number of slots arrived at, shall
determine the qualifying cut-off for Eligibility for Assistant Professor ‘in ‘Economics’ for the SC
category. Similar yardstick shall be employed for deriving the subject-wise qualifying cut- offs for all
categories.
Step V: The total number of slots available for awarding JRF is allocated among different categories
as per the reservation policy of Government of India.
It may be noted that, notwithstanding the above, the qualifying criteria as decided by UGC is
final and binding. Result of the examination shall be hosted on NTA website;
https://ugcnet.nta.nic.in/. The candidates will not be individually intimated about their result.
*Appearing on the basis of their master’s degree or equivalent examination.

2) Normalization procedure (Appendix – VIII & IX whichever is applicable):
a) For multi-shift papers, raw marks obtained by the candidates in different shifts/sessions will be
converted to NTA Score (percentile).
b) The detailed procedure on NTA Score being adopted is available on NTA website under
Normalization procedure based on Percentile Score.
c) In case a subject test is conducted in multi-shifts, NTA Score will be calculated corresponding to
the raw marks obtained by a candidate. The calculated NTA Score for the Raw Marks for all the
shifts/sessions will be merged for further processing for deciding the allocation.
d) In the events of the percentiles for the multi-shifts being dissimilar / unequal, the lowest will be
the eligibility cut-off for that category for all candidates (i.e. all shifts).
For Example: In the examination held in two shifts, if the 40% marks correspond to a Percentile
score of 78 in Shift 1 and 79 in Shift 2, then all those equal to or above 78 percentiles (Percentile

~ 35 ~

score of 100 to 78) in both shifts will become eligible in General Category. Similar methods will
be adopted for the other categories to determine eligibility cut-offs. In case the examination is held
in a greater number of shifts the same principle shall apply.
3) Re-Evaluation/Re-Checking of result
 There shall be no re-evaluation/re-checking of the result. No correspondence in this regard shall
be entertained.

~ 36 ~

Chapter 7
[UNFAIR MEANS PRACTICES AND
BREACH OF EXAMINATION RULES]

~ 37 ~

7.1 Unfair Means Practices and Breach of Examination Rules
Definition
 Unfair Means Practice is an activity that allows a candidate to gain an unfair advantage over other
candidates. It includes, but is not limited to:
a) Being in possession of any item or article which has been prohibited or can be used for Unfair Practices
including any stationery item, communication device, accessories, eatable items, ornaments or any
other material or information relevant or not relevant to the Examination in the paper concerned.
b) Using someone to write Examination (impersonation) or preparing material for copying;
c) Breaching Examination rules or any direction issued by NTA in connection with UGC-NET
Examination.
d) Assisting other candidates to engage in malpractices, giving or receiving assistance directly or
indirectly of any kind or attempting to do so.
e) Writing questions or answers on any material given by the Centre Superintendent for writing answers.
f) Contacting or communicating or trying to do so with any person, other than the Examination Staff,
during the Examination time in the Examination Centre.
g) Threatening any of the officials connected with the conduct of the Examination or threatening any of
the candidates.
h) Using or attempting to use any other undesirable method or means in connection with the examination.
i) Manipulation and fabrication of online documents viz. Admit Card, Self-Declaration, etc.
j) Forceful entry in /exit from Examination Centre/Hall.
k) Use or attempted use of any electronic device after entering the Examination Centre.
l) Affixing/uploading of wrong/morphed photographs/signatures on the Application Form/Admit
Card/Proforma.
m) Creating obstacles in smooth and fair conduct of examination.
n) Any other malpractices declared as Unfair Means by the NTA.

Disclaimer-The decision of NTA shall be final and binding for declaration of any person /
candidate guilty of foregoing or such offence as shall be classified as Unfair Means Case (UMC).

7.2 Punishment for using unfair means practices
 If a candidate indulges in any of the above or similar practices during the course of, before, or after
the examination, he/she shall be deemed to have used unfair practices and thus shall be booked under
the UNFAIR MEANS (UFM) case. The candidate would be debarred for upto 3 years from all NTA
exams in the future and shall also be liable for criminal action and /or any other action as deemed fit.

~ 38 ~

7.3 Cancellation of result
 The result of UGC-NET June 2026 of the candidate(s) who indulges in Unfair means Practices will
be cancelled and will not be declared. Similarly, the result of those candidates who appear from the
Centre other than the one allotted to them or allow another candidate/person to write the exam on
his/her behalf will be cancelled. No plea will be entertained in this regard.

~ 39 ~

Chapter 8
[Miscellaneous]

~ 40 ~

8.1 Grievance / Correspondence with NTA
 All grievances or correspondence related to the examination should be addressed to [email protected]
The communication should not be anonymous and must contain the name, Registration/Application
Number, postal address, and valid contact number of the sender. The grievance or correspondence
should strictly pertain to matters related to the examination or the examination centre. Communication
shall not be entertained from individuals claiming to be representatives, associates, or officials of the
applicant/candidate.
The following information shall not be revealed by phone or email:
i. Internal documentation or status.
ii. Internal decision-making process of NTA, including any claim or counterclaim thereof.
iii. Dates and venue of internal meetings, or the names of staff/officers dealing with the matter.
iv. Any other information which, in the opinion of NTA, cannot be disclosed.

8.2 NTA Weeding Out Rules
 The record of UGC-NET June 2026 will be preserved upto 90 days from the date of declaration of
result.

8.3 Legal Jurisdiction
 All disputes pertaining to the conduct of UGC-NET June 2026. Examinations including Results shall
fall within the jurisdiction of Delhi/New Delhi only. Further, any legal issues arising out of the
Examination shall be entertained only when raised within 30 days from the declaration of result.
 The Director (Administration) of the NTA shall be the official by whose designation the NTA may sue
or be sued.

~ 41 ~

Annexure

~ 42 ~

Annexure-I
(Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment, Govt. of India F. No. 29-6/2019-DD-III dated 10 August 2022)

Certificate for person with specified disability covered under the definition of Section 2 (s) of the RPwD Act, 2016
but not covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the said Act, i.e. persons having less than 40% disability and
having difficulty in writing.

This is to certify that, we have examined Mr/Ms/Mrs …………. (Name of the candidate), S/o /D/o ……………………, a

resident of ……………… (Vill/PO/ PS/ District/ State), aged …………….. years, a person with ……………………. (nature

of disability/condition), and to state that he/ she has limitation which hampers his/her writing capability owing to his/her

above condition. He/she requires support of scribe for writing the examination.

2. The above candidate uses aids and assistive device such as prosthetics & orthotics, hearing aid (name to be specified)
which is /are essential for the candidate to appear at the examination with the assistance of scribe.

3. This certificate is issued only for the purpose of appearing in written examinations conducted by recruitment agencies as
well as academic institutions and is valid upto __________ (it is valid for maximum period of six months or less as may be
certified by the medical authority).

Signature of medical authority

(Signature & Name) (Signature & Name) (Signature & Name) (Signature & Name) (Signature & Name)
Clinical Psychologist/
Other Expert, as
Orthopaedic / PMR Rehabilitation Neurologist (if Occupational therapist
nominated by the
specialist Psychologist/Psychiatrist / available) (if available)
Chairperson (if any)
Special Educator

(Signature & Name)

Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Chief District Medical Officer………Chairperson

Name of Government Hospital/Health Care Centre with Seal

Place:

Date:

~ 43 ~

Annexure-II

LETTER OF UNDERTAKING FOR USING OWN SCRIBE
(More Then 40%)

I __________________________, a candidate with_______________________ (name of the disability)
appearing for the ___________________________ (name of the examination) bearing Application No.
__________________at_____________________ (name of the centre) in the district __________,
______________________________ (name of the State). My qualification is
___________________________.

I do hereby state that_________________________________ (name of the scribe) will provide the service of
scribe/reader/lab assistant for the undersigned for taking the aforesaid examination.

I do hereby undertake that his qualification is _________________________________. In case, subsequently,
it is found that his qualification is not as declared by the undersigned and is beyond my qualification, I shall
forfeit my right to the admission and claims relating thereto.

(Signature of the candidate with disability)

Place:
Date:
Photograph of Scribe

(Self-Attested Photograph)

Name of Scribe ID of the Scribe ID Number

~ 44 ~

Annexure-III
(Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment,
Govt. of India
F. No. 29-6/2019-DD-III dated 10 August 2022)

Letter of Undertaking by the person with specified disability covered under the definition of Section 2 (s)
of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the said Act, i.e. persons having
less than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing.

I ____________________, a candidate with __________________ (nature of disability/condition) appearing
for the ______________________(name of the examination) bearing Roll No.
___________________________ at _______________________ (name of the centre) in the district
____________________, ____________________________ (name of the State). My educational
qualification is _____________________.

I do hereby state that __________________________ (name of the scribe) will provide the service of scribe
for the undersigned for taking the aforementioned examination.

I do hereby undertake that his qualification is ______________________. In case, subsequently it is found
that his qualification is not as declared by the undersigned and is beyond my qualification. I shall forfeit my
right to the post or certificate/diploma/degree and claims relating thereto.

(Signature of the candidate)

(counter signature by the parent/guardian, if the candidate is minor)

Place:
Date:

~ 45 ~

Appendices

~ 46 ~

Appendix-I

Procedure for Online Payment of Fee and Helpline for Payment related Queries

1. Processing Charges and Goods and Service Taxes (GST) and Procedure for Payment of Fee Mode
of Payment of Fee/ Service Provider and Service/Processing charges & GST
S. Mode of STATE BANK OF
CANARA BANK ICICI BANK HDFC BANK UBI
No Payment INDIA
Other
Banks HDFC,
SBI Rs.5.00+GST (Including Rs.13 + GST ICICI NIL Charge NIL Charge ICICI, SBI, NIL
Net Canara AXIS
Bank) HDFC or
1 Banking
Other Banks
HDFC,
Other ICICI, Other Rest All
Rs 5.00+GST Rs.17 + GST 4.00 + GST NIL Charge NIL
Banks SBI, Banks Banks
AXIS
Transacti Transaction
0.40% +
on up to Transact up to Rs 0% NIL
GST
Visa / Rs.2000/- ion upto 2000/- Visa /
0%
Master Transacti Rs. Master
0.85% +
on above ICICI or 2000/- NIL
Debit GST HDFC or
2 Nil Rs.2000/- Other
Cards Other Banks Transaction
Banks Transact
above Rs 0%
ion 2000/-
0.5 % +
Rupay NIL Charge above Rupay NIL
GST
Rs.2000
/-
0.80% + GST 0.40%of
Domestic (Minimum Rs Domestic Transaction Domestic
11/-) value
Credit
3 3.50% of Fee+ Domestic 1.10% + GST Nil Charge Domestic NIL
Cards 2.35%of
Internation GST Internatio
Transaction International
al (Minimum Rs nal
value
11/-)
Transaction upto
Rs
2000/-
Unified
ICICI or 0%
Payment
4 NIL Charge NIL Charge Other Transaction Nil Charge NIL
Interfac
Banks above Rs
e (UPI)
2000/-

0.5 % + GST

Prescribed Examination Fee (please see the Information at a Glance) can be paid through any
Bank/Payment Gateway in any Payment Mode [service/processing charges per transaction & GST
applicable are to be paid by the candidate, except for payment made through debit card
(Visa/Master):

2. Helplines:
(a) If Paying through State Bank of India (SBI):
Level Name Email ID Contact Number
1 Helpdesk3 [email protected] 011-26391804
2 Customer Care Customer Care Customer Care
3 Through SMS Through SMS Through SMS

~ 47 ~

(b) If paying through Canara Bank:
Level Name Email ID
HelpDesk [email protected]; [email protected]; [email protected];
1 [email protected];
Complaint Management [email protected] [email protected]; [email protected];
2
Services [email protected]
[email protected] [email protected]; [email protected];
3 Customer Care
[email protected]
4 Through SMS ---

(c) If Paying through HDFC Bank:
Level Name Email ID Contact Number
1. PG Service [email protected] -
2. Pradeep Yadav [email protected] 9625622301
3. Vivek Chandra [email protected] 7838748226

(d) If Paying through ICICI Bank:
Level Name Email ID Contact Number
Customer support Helpline number
1. (9AM to 6PM)
[email protected] 18602332332

(e) If paying through Union Bank of India:
Level Name Email ID
1 [email protected]
Customer Care
2 [email protected]

(f) NTA Helpdesk Contact details (in case the payment related issues are not resolved through the
above-mentioned Helplines of the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway Integrator)
Email: [email protected].
Phone No.: 011-40759000

3. Procedure to raise payment related Grievance:
After (successful completion of all the Steps, Confirmation Page of the Application Form, should be
downloaded and a printout of the same may be retained for future reference. The Confirmation Page of
the online Application Form could be generated only after successful payment by the Candidate.
In case the Confirmation Page is not generated after payment of prescribed Fee, then the candidate should
approach the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway integrator (in the helpline number and email given in
APPENDIX-I of the Information Bulletin), for ensuring the successful payment. Inspite of above, if
successful transaction is not reflected on the Portal, the candidate may contact NTA Helpline. If the
payment issue is still not resolved, the candidate may pay second time.

~ 48 ~

However, any duplicate payment received from the candidate by NTA in course of said transactions will
be refunded through the same payment mode through which the duplicate payment is received, after fee
reconciliation by NTA.

4. Information to be provided by the Candidate while raising any payment related query/grievance
through QRS/email/Helplines: -
a. Name of the Bank and /or payment Gateway.
b. Date and time of the transaction
c. Transaction Number
d. Bank Reference Number
e. Proof of transaction
f. Screenshot from the payment portal (in case of payment failure)

~ 49 ~

Appendix-II
List of UGC- NET Subjects and their Codes

Note: Syllabi for all NET Subjects can be downloaded from the UGC website:
https://www.ugcnetonline.in/syllabus-new.php National Testing Agency will not send the syllabus to
individual candidates.
Subject
S. No. Subject
Code
1 Adult Education/ Continuing Education/ Andragogy/ Non-Formal Education. 46
2 Anthropology 07
3 Arab Culture and Islamic Studies 49
4 Arabic 29
5 Archaeology 67
6 Assamese 36
7 Bengali 19
8 Bodo 94
9 Buddhist, Jaina, Gandhian and Peace Studies 60
10 Chinese 32
11 Commerce 08
12 Comparative Literature 72
13 Comparative Study of Religions 62
14 Computer Science and Applications 87
15 Criminology 68
16 Defence and Strategic Studies 11
17 Dogri 33
Economics / Rural Economics /Co-operation / Demography / Development
Planning/Development Studies / Econometrics/ Applied Economics / Development
18 01
Economics / Business Economics
19 Education 09
20 Electronic Science 88
21 English 30
22 Environmental Sciences 89
23 Folk Literature 71
24 Forensic Science 82
25 French (French Version) 39
26 Geography 80
27 German 44
28 Gujarati 37
29 Hindi 20
30 Hindu Studies 102
31 History 06

~ 50 ~

Subject
S. No. Subject
Code
32 Home Science 12
33 Human Rights and Duties 92
34 Indian Culture 50
35 Indian Knowledge System 103
36 Japanese 45
37 Kannada 21
38 Kashmiri 84
39 Konkani 85
Labour Welfare / Personnel Management / Industrial Relations/ Labour and Social
40 55
Welfare / Human Resource Management
41 Law 58
42 Library and Information Science 59
43 Linguistics 31

Maithili 18
44
45 Malayalam 22
Management (including Business Admn. Mgt./Marketing / Marketing Mgt. /
46 Industrial Relations and Personnel Mgt. / Personnel Mgt. / Financial Mgt. /Co-
17
operative Management)
47 Manipuri 35
48 Marathi 38
49 Mass Communication and Journalism 63
50 Museology & Conservation 66
51 Music 16
52 Nepali 34
53 Oriya 23
54 Pali 83
55 Performing Art - Dance/Drama/Theatre 65
56 Persian 42
57 Philosophy 03

Physical Education 47
58
59 Political Science 02
Politics including International Relations/International Studies including Defence /
60 Strategic Studies, West Asian Studies, Southeast Asian Studies, African Studies, South
90
Asian Studies, Soviet Studies, American Studies.
61 Population Studies 15
62 Prakrit 91
63 Psychology 04
64 Public Administration 14

~ 51 ~

Subject
S. No. Subject
Code
65 Punjabi 24
66 Rajasthani 43

Russian 41
67
68 Sanskrit 25
Sanskrit traditional subjects (including Jyotisha/Sidhanta Jyotish/ Navya Vyakarna/
69 Vyakarna/ Mimansa/ Navya Nyaya/ Sankhya Yoga/ Tulanatmaka Darsan/ Shukla
73
Yajurveda/ Madhav Vedant/ Dharmasasta/ Sahitya/ Puranotihasa /Agama).
70 Santali 95
71 Sindhi 101
72 Social Medicine & Community Health 81
73 Social Work 10
74 Sociology 05
75 Spanish 40
76 Tamil 26
77 Telugu 27
78 Tourism Administration and Management. 93
79 Tribal and Regional Language/Literature 70
80 Urdu 28
Visual Art (including Drawing & Painting/Sculpture Graphics/Applied Art/History of
81 79
Art)
82 Women Studies 74
83 Yoga 100
84 Disaster Management 104
85 Ayurveda Biology 105
86 Forestry 106
87 Statistics 107

The candidates with Master’s Degree in Geography (with specialization in Population Studies) or
Mathematics/ Statistics are also eligible to appear in the subject “Population Studies” (Code 015).

‘**’The candidates with Master’s Degree in Humanities (including languages) and Social Sciences are eligible
to appear in subject “Women Studies” (Code 074).

Note: General Paper on Teaching and Research Aptitude (Paper-I) is compulsory for all.

~ 52 ~

Appendix-III
List of Exam Cities for Centres of UGC-NET June 2026
Examination will be held at the following cities, provided there are sufficient numbers of candidates in the city.
S. No. State City Code City
1 Andaman & Nicobar Islands (UT) AN01 Port Blair
2 Andhra Pradesh AP01 Anantapur
3 Andhra Pradesh AP06 Eluru
4 Andhra Pradesh AP07 Guntur
5 Andhra Pradesh AP08 Kadapa (YSR Kadapa)
6 Andhra Pradesh AP09 Kakinada
7 Andhra Pradesh AP10 Kurnool
8 Andhra Pradesh AP11 Nellore
9 Andhra Pradesh AP12 Ongole
10 Andhra Pradesh AP13 Rajahmundry
11 Andhra Pradesh AP14 Srikakulam
12 Andhra Pradesh AP16 Tirupathi
13 Andhra Pradesh AP17 Vijayawada
14 Andhra Pradesh AP18 Visakhapatnam
15 Andhra Pradesh AP19 Vizianagaram
16 Andhra Pradesh AP20 Narasaraopet
17 Andhra Pradesh AP29 Nandyal
18 Arunachal Pradesh AL01 Itanagar/Naharlagun/Papum Pare
19 Assam AM02 Guwahati
20 Assam AM03 Jorhat
21 Assam AM04 Silchar
22 Assam AM05 Tezpur
23 Assam AM01 Dibrugarh
24 Bihar BR01 Aurangabad (Bihar)
25 Bihar BR02 Bhagalpur
26 Bihar BR04 Darbhanga
27 Bihar BR05 Gaya
28 Bihar BR06 Muzaffarpur
29 Bihar BR07 Patna
30 Bihar BR08 Purnea
31 Bihar BR09 Arrah
32 Chandigarh (UT) CH01 Chandigarh/Panchkula
33 Chhattisgarh CG03 Raipur
34 Chhattisgarh CG08 Jagdalpur
35 Chhattisgarh CG01 Bhilai Nagar (Durg)
36 Chhattisgarh CG04 Ambikapur
37 Daman & Diu (UT) DD02 Diu
38 Dadra & Nagar Haveli (UT) DN01 Silvassa
39 Delhi (NCT) DL01 Delhi/New Delhi
40 Goa GO01 Madgaon/Panaji/Mapusa
41 Gujarat GJ01 Ahmedabad
42 Gujarat GJ02 Anand
43 Gujarat GJ06 Jamnagar
44 Gujarat GJ07 Junagadh
45 Gujarat GJ10 Rajkot
46 Gujarat GJ11 Surat

~ 53 ~

S. No. State City Code City
47 Gujarat GJ12 Vadodara
48 Gujarat GJ08 Mehsana
49 Gujarat GJ23 Gandhinagar
50 Gujarat GJ17 Bhuj
51 Gujarat GJ13 Vapi
52 Gujarat GJ35 Bardoli
53 Gujarat GJ27 Modasa
54 Haryana HR01 Ambala
55 Haryana HR04 Gurugram
56 Haryana HR03 Faridabad
57 Haryana HR07 Kurukshetra
58 Himachal Pradesh HP03 Hamirpur (Himachal Pradesh)
59 Himachal Pradesh HP06 Shimla
60 Himachal Pradesh HP08 Mandi
61 Himachal Pradesh HP09 Una
62 Himachal Pradesh HP10 Kullu
63 Himachal Pradesh HP01 Bilaspur (Himachal Pradesh)
64 Himachal Pradesh HP04 Kangra
65 Jammu & Kashmir JK02 Jammu
66 Jammu & Kashmir JK04 Srinagar (J&K)
67 Jammu & Kashmir JK06 Pulwama
68 Jammu & Kashmir JK03 Sambha
69 Jammu & Kashmir JK01 Baramulla
70 Jammu & Kashmir JK07 Budgam
71 Jharkhand JH01 Bokaro Steel City
72 Jharkhand JH02 Dhanbad
73 Jharkhand JH03 Jamshedpur
74 Jharkhand JH04 Ranchi
75 Jharkhand JH05 Hazaribagh
76 Jharkhand JH06 Ramgarh
77 Karnataka KK03 Ballari (Bellary)
78 Karnataka KK02 Belagavi (Belgaum)
79 Karnataka KK20 Bengaluru
80 Karnataka KK06 Davanagere
81 Karnataka KK08 Kalaburagi (Gulbarga)
82 Karnataka KK09 Hassan
83 Karnataka KK10 Dharwad
84 Karnataka KK12 Mangaluru (Mangalore)
85 Karnataka KK14 Mysuru (Mysore)
86 Karnataka KK15 Shivamogga (Shimoga)
87 Karnataka KK23 Chikkamagaluru
88 Karnataka KK27 Hubballi (Hubli)
89 Karnataka KK17 Udupi
90 Kerala KL07 Kannur
91 Kerala KL09 Kollam
92 Kerala KL11 Kottayam
93 Kerala KL12 Kozhikode
94 Kerala KL13 Malappuram
95 Kerala KL15 Palakkad
96 Kerala KL16 Pathanamthitta

~ 54 ~

S. No. State City Code City
97 Kerala KL17 Thiruvananthapuram
98 Kerala KL18 Thrissur
99 Kerala KL19 Wayanad
100 Kerala KL01 Alappuzha
101 Kerala KL04 Ernakulam
102 Lakshadweep (UT) LD01 Kavaratti
103 Leh & Ladakh (UT) LL01 Leh
104 Leh & Ladakh (UT) LL02 Kargil
105 Madhya Pradesh MP01 Balaghat
106 Madhya Pradesh MP03 Bhopal
107 Madhya Pradesh MP06 Gwalior
108 Madhya Pradesh MP07 Indore
109 Madhya Pradesh MP08 Jabalpur
110 Madhya Pradesh MP12 Sagar
111 Madhya Pradesh MP13 Satna
112 Madhya Pradesh MP15 Ujjain
113 Maharashtra MR01 Ahilyanagar/Ahmednagar
114 Maharashtra MR02 Akola
115 Maharashtra MR03 Amravati
116 Maharashtra MR04 Chhatrapati Sambhaji Nagar
117 Maharashtra MR09 Chandrapur
118 Maharashtra MR10 Dhule
119 Maharashtra MR13 Jalgaon
120 Maharashtra MR14 Kolhapur
121 Maharashtra MR15 Latur
122 Maharashtra MR17 Nagpur
123 Maharashtra MR18 Nanded
124 Maharashtra MR19 Nashik
125 Maharashtra MR22 Pune
126 Maharashtra MR25 Sangli
127 Maharashtra MR26 Satara
128 Maharashtra MR27 Solapur
129 Maharashtra MR28 Thane
130 Maharashtra MR29 Wardha
131 Maharashtra MR30 Beed
132 Maharashtra MR31 Bhandara
133 Maharashtra MR32 Buldhana
134 Maharashtra MR24 Ratnagiri
135 Maharashtra MR38 Parbhani
136 Maharashtra MR40 Gadchiroli
137 Maharashtra MR42 Jalna
138 Maharashtra MR47 Mumbai/Navi Mumbai
139 Manipur MN01 Imphal
140 Manipur MN03 Churachandpur
141 Meghalaya MG01 Shillong
142 Meghalaya MG04 Tura
143 Mizoram MZ01 Aizawl
144 Nagaland NL01 Dimapur
145 Nagaland NL02 Kohima
146 Odisha OR02 Balasore (Baleswar)

~ 55 ~

S. No. State City Code City
147 Odisha OR03 Berhampur-Ganjam
148 Odisha OR04 Bhubaneswar
149 Odisha OR05 Cuttack
150 Odisha OR06 Dhenkanal
151 Odisha OR18 Bhawanipatna
152 Odisha OR09 Sambalpur
153 Odisha OR10 Angul
154 Odisha OR11 Bhadrak
155 Odisha OR12 Baripada /Mayurbanj
156 Odisha OR13 Jajpur
157 Odisha OR08 Rourkela
158 Odisha OR15 Kendujhar (Keonjhar)
159 Odisha OR16 Puri
160 Odisha OR17 Jagatsinghpur
161 Odisha OR19 Jeypore (Odisha)
162 Odisha OR20 Balangir
163 Odisha OR21 Baragarh
164 Odisha OR24 Paralakhemundi
165 Odisha OR32 Nayagarh
166 Odisha OR26 Rayagada
167 Odisha OR22 Jharsuguda
168 Odisha OR14 Kendrapara
169 Odisha OR23 Malkangiri
170 Odisha OR31 Sonepur
171 Puducherry (UT) PO01 Puducherry
172 Punjab PB12 Chandigarh/Sahibzada Ajit Singh Nagar/Mohali
173 Punjab PB01 Amritsar
174 Punjab PB02 Bathinda
175 Punjab PB04 Jalandhar/Phagwara
176 Punjab PB05 Ludhiana
177 Punjab PB07 Pathankot
178 Punjab PB08 Patiala/Fatehgarh Sahib
179 Punjab PB20 Moga
180 Rajasthan RJ01 Ajmer
181 Rajasthan RJ02 Alwar
182 Rajasthan RJ05 Bikaner
183 Rajasthan RJ06 Jaipur
184 Rajasthan RJ07 Jodhpur
185 Rajasthan RJ08 Kota
186 Rajasthan RJ09 Sikar
187 Rajasthan RJ10 Sriganganagar
188 Rajasthan RJ11 Udaipur
189 Rajasthan RJ12 Bhilwara
190 Rajasthan RJ16 Bharatpur
191 Rajasthan RJ17 Dausa
192 Rajasthan RJ23 Hanumangarh
193 Sikkim SM01 Gangtok
194 Tamil Nadu TN01 Chennai
195 Tamil Nadu TN02 Coimbatore
196 Tamil Nadu TN03 Cuddalore

~ 56 ~

S. No. State City Code City
197 Tamil Nadu TN05 Kanchipuram
198 Tamil Nadu TN06 Nagercoil (Kanyakumari)
199 Tamil Nadu TN08 Madurai
200 Tamil Nadu TN10 Namakkal
201 Tamil Nadu TN11 Salem
202 Tamil Nadu TN12 Thanjavur
203 Tamil Nadu TN13 Thoothukudi
204 Tamil Nadu TN14 Tiruchirappalli
205 Tamil Nadu TN15 Tirunelveli
206 Tamil Nadu TN18 Vellore
207 Tamil Nadu TN20 Virudhunagar
208 Tamil Nadu TN21 Krishnagiri
209 Tamil Nadu TN22 Tirupur
210 Tamil Nadu TN23 Viluppuram
211 Tamil Nadu TN26 Dharmapuri
212 Tamil Nadu TN27 Dindigul
213 Tamil Nadu TN28 Erode
214 Tamil Nadu TN29 Karur
215 Tamil Nadu TN31 Pudukkottai
216 Tamil Nadu TN32 Ramanathapuram
217 Tamil Nadu TN34 Tiruvallur
218 Tamil Nadu TN35 Tiruvannamalai
219 Telangana TL02 Karimnagar
220 Telangana TL03 Khammam
221 Telangana TL04 Mahabubnagar
222 Telangana TL05 Nalgonda
223 Telangana TL07 Warangal
224 Telangana TL08 Nizamabad
225 Telangana TL11 Siddipet
226 Telangana TL17 Kothagudem
227 Telangana TL01 Hyderabad
228 Tripura TA01 Agartala
229 Uttar Pradesh UP01 Agra
230 Uttar Pradesh UP02 Aligarh
231 Uttar Pradesh UP03 Prayagraj
232 Uttar Pradesh UP04 Bareilly
233 Uttar Pradesh UP07 Ghaziabad
234 Uttar Pradesh UP08 Gorakhpur
235 Uttar Pradesh UP09 Noida/Greater Noida
236 Uttar Pradesh UP10 Jhansi
237 Uttar Pradesh UP11 Kanpur
238 Uttar Pradesh UP12 Lucknow
239 Uttar Pradesh UP13 Mathura
240 Uttar Pradesh UP14 Meerut
241 Uttar Pradesh UP15 Moradabad
242 Uttar Pradesh UP16 Muzaffarnagar
243 Uttar Pradesh UP18 Varanasi
244 Uttar Pradesh UP19 Azamgarh
245 Uttar Pradesh UP20 Ballia
246 Uttar Pradesh UP06 Ayodhya

~ 57 ~

S. No. State City Code City
247 Uttar Pradesh UP22 Firozabad
248 Uttar Pradesh UP23 Ghazipur
249 Uttar Pradesh UP29 Bulandshahr
250 Uttar Pradesh UP35 Mau
251 Uttar Pradesh UP37 Rai Bareilly
252 Uttar Pradesh UP38 Saharanpur
253 Uttar Pradesh UP41 Chandauli
254 Uttar Pradesh UP43 Pratapgarh
255 Uttarakhand UK01 Dehradun
256 Uttarakhand UK02 Haldwani
257 Uttarakhand UK06 Roorkee
258 Uttarakhand UK08 Pauri Garhwal
259 Uttarakhand UK09 Almora
260 West Bengal WB01 Asansol
261 West Bengal WB02 Burdwan (Bardhaman)
262 West Bengal WB04 Durgapur
263 West Bengal WB06 Hooghly
264 West Bengal WB07 Howrah
265 West Bengal WB08 Kalyani
266 West Bengal WB10 Kolkata
267 West Bengal WB11 Siliguri
268 West Bengal WB13 Paschim Medinipur
269 West Bengal WB14 Purba Medinipur
270 West Bengal WB16 Bankura
271 West Bengal WB22 Suri

(Disclaimer: NTA has reserves the right to change the centre and city at any time, subject to
availability.)

~ 58 ~

Appendix-IV
List of Subjects at Post Graduation level and their codes

List of Subject at Post Graduation Level and their Codes

~ 59 ~

Appendix-V
List of Post-Graduation Courses and their Codes

Post Graduation Courses Code
Master of Ayurvedacharya (Ayurvedacharya) 01
Master of Acharya (Acharya) 02
Master of Law (LLM) 03
Master of Architecture (M. Arch.) 04
Master of Commerce (M.Com) 05
Master of Dance (M. Dance) 06
Master of Education (M.Ed.) 07
Master of Library Science (M. Lib. Sc.) 08
Master of Literature (M.Litt.) 09
Master of Music (M.Mus) 10
Master of Pharmacy (M.Pharm.) 11
Master of Business Administration (MBA) 12
Master of Computer Applications (MCA) 13
Master of Financial Management (M.F.M.) 14
Master of Human Resource Development (M.H.R.D.) 15
Master of International Business (M.LB) 16
Master of Marketing Management (M. Mkt. M.) 17
Master of Optometry (M. Optom.) 18
Master of Hospital Administration (MHA) 19
Master of Journalism and Mass Communication (MJMC) 20
Master of Mass Communication (MMC) 21
Master of Occupational Therapy (MOT) 22
Master of Public Health (MPH) 23
Master of Social Work (MSW) 24
Master of Planning (M. Plan) 25
Master of Science (M.Sc.) 26
Master of Statistics (M. Stat.) 27
Master of Technology (M.Tech.) 28
Master of Veterinary Science (M.V.Sc.) 29
Master of Arts (MA) 30
Master of Foreign Trade (M.E.T.) 31
Master of Physical Education (M.P.Ed.) 32
Master of Tourism Management (MTM) 33
Master of Physical Education and Sports Sciences (MPES) 34
CA/CS/ ICWA 35
Other 36

~ 60 ~

Appendix-VI
List of States/ Union Territories and their Codes

~ 61 ~

Appendix-VII
Procedure for Appearing in Computer Based Test (CBT)
(a) A computer terminal (node) indicated Roll Number will be allocated to each candidate. Candidates should
find and sit on their allocated computers only. Any candidate found to have changed room/hall or the
computer on their own rather than the one allotted would be liable to cancellation of candidature and no
plea in this regard would be entertained.
(b) The computer terminal allotted to the candidate will display a Welcome login screen, Candidate’s
photograph and subject opted by the candidate. For login, the candidate will have to enter login-ID and
password.
(c) After logging in, the candidate shall be able to see the detailed instructions for the examination.
Candidates are advised to go through the instructions carefully regarding the type of questions and
Marking Scheme. At the designated time of the start of the examination, the candidates will be able to
proceed and see the questions on the computer screen.
The keyboard attached to the computer, if any, will be disabled during the entire duration of the
examination. Depending on the type of question, the answers to questions can either be entered by
clicking on the virtual on-screen keyboard (numeric or otherwise) using the computer mouse or by
clicking the chosen option(s) using the computer mouse.
Candidates will have the option to change/modify answers already entered anytime during the
entire duration of the examination.
In case the computer/mouse allotted to any candidate malfunctions anytime during the test, the candidate
will be immediately allotted to another computer system and the time lost due to this will be adjusted in
the server so as to give the candidate the full allotted time.
(d) The on-screen computer clock counter of every candidate will be set at the server. The countdown timer
in the top right side of computer screen will display the time remaining (in minutes) available for the
candidate to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself.
Candidate will not be required to end or submit the examination.
(e) The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each question using one
of the following text/color codes/symbols.
You have not visited the question yet.
You have not answered the question.
You have answered the question.
You have NOT answered the question but have marked the question for review.
The question(s) “answered and marked for Review” will be considered for evaluation.

~ 62 ~

The question(s) “Answered and Marked for Review” status for a question indicates that candidate would
like to have a relook at that question again. A candidate has the option of answering a question and
simultaneously placing it under “Marked for Review”, these answers will be considered for evaluation.
However, if a candidate has simply put “Marked for Review” for a question without answering it, the
corresponding question ‘Marked for Review’ without an answer will not be considered for evaluation. It
may be noted that a candidate can return to any “Marked for Review” question any time during the
examination by clicking on the corresponding question number icon displayed on the Question Palette of
the corresponding section.
(f) Candidate can click on an arrow/symbol which appears to the left of question palette to collapse the
question palette thereby maximizing the question viewing window. To view the question palette again,
candidate can click on arrow/symbol which appears on the right side of question window.
(g) Candidate can click to navigate to the bottom and to navigate to the top of the question area, without
scrolling. Using the computer mouse the candidate can scroll up and down the question viewing area for
viewing the entire question.
(h) Blank Sheets for doing rough work/calculations shall be provided to the candidates. The Blanks Sheets
would have a Header page for the candidates to write down his/her Name and Roll Number. All
calculations/writing work are to be done only in the Blank Sheets provided at the Centre in the
Examination Room/Hall and on completion of the test, candidates must hand over the rough sheets to the
invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
(i) Navigating to a Question
To navigate between questions within a Paper, candidate needs to do the following:
(i) Click on the question number in the Question Palette at the right of the screen to go to that numbered
question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save the answer to the currently displayed
question.
(ii) Click on “Save & Next” to save the answer to any question. Clicking on “Save & Next” will save the
answer for the current question and the next question will be displayed on the candidate’s computer
screen.
(iii)Click on “Mark for Review & Next” to mark a question for review (without answering it) and proceed
to the next question.
(j) Answering a Question
To navigate between questions within a Paper, candidate needs to do the following:
(i) Procedure for answering a multiple-choice type of question:
a. To select the option(s), click on the corresponding button(s) of the option(s).
b. To deselect the chosen answer, click on the button of the chosen option again or click on the
~ 63 ~

“Clear Response” button.
c. To save the answer, the candidate MUST click on the “Save & Next” button.
d. To mark the question for review (without answering it), click on the “Mark for Review & Next”
button.
(ii) Navigating through sections:
a. Sections on the question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions in a section
can be viewed by clicking on the section name. The section in which the candidate is currently
viewing will be highlighted.
b. After clicking the “Save & Next” button on the last question for a section, candidate will
automatically be taken to the first question of the next section.
c. Candidate can shuffle between sections and questions within sections any time during the
examination as per the convenience only during the time stipulated.
d. Candidate can view the corresponding section summary as part of the legend that appears in
every section above the question palette.
(iii)Procedure for answering questions that require inputs from on-screen virtual keyboard
(numeric or otherwise):
a. Candidate will have to use the on-screen virtual keyboard (that would be displayed just below
the question statement of these types of questions) and the attached computer mouse to enter
his/her answer in the space provided for answer.
b. The answer can be changed, if required, anytime during the test. To save the answer, the
candidate MUST click on the “Save & Next “button.
c. To mark the question for review (without answering it), click on the “Mark for Review & Next”
button.
The candidate will have the option to change previously saved answers to any question,
anytime during the entire duration of the test. To change the answer to a question that has
already been answered, first select the corresponding question from the Question Palette,
then click on “Clear Response” to clear the previously entered answer and subsequently
follow the procedure for answering that type of question.
(iv) Rough Work:
All calculations/writing work is to be done only in the rough sheet provided at the Centre in the
examination Room/Hall and on completion of the test candidates must hand over the rough sheets to
the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.

~ 64 ~

Appendix-VIII
National Testing Agency (NTA)
Procedure to be adopted for compilation of NTA scores for Multi Session Papers
(Normalization procedure based on Percentile Score)

NTA may conduct examinations on multiple dates, generally in two sessions per day. The candidates will be
given different sets of questions per session, and it is quite possible that in spite of all efforts of maintaining
equivalence among various question papers, the difficulty level of these question papers administered in
different sessions may not be exactly the same. Some of the candidates may end up attempting a relatively
tougher set of questions when compared to other sets. The candidates who attempt the comparatively tougher
Examination are likely to get lower marks as compared to those who attempt the easier one. In order to
overcome such a situation, “Normalization procedure based on Percentile Score” will be used for ensuring
that candidates are neither benefitted nor disadvantaged due to the difficulty level of the examination. With
the objective of ensuring that a candidate’s true merit is identified, and that a level playing field is created in
the above context, the Normalization Procedure, set out below shall be adopted, for compiling the NTA scores
for multi session papers.
The process of Normalization is an established practice for comparing candidate scores across multi
session papers and is similar to those being adopted in other large educational selection tests conducted
in India. For normalization across sections, NTA shall use the percentile equivalence.
Percentile Scores: Percentile scores are scores based on the relative performance of all those who appear for
the examination. Basically, the marks obtained are transformed into a scale ranging from 100 to 0 for each
session of examinees.
The Percentile Score indicates the percentage of candidates that have scored EQUAL TO OR BELOW
(same or lower raw scores) that particular Percentile in that examination. Therefore, the topper (highest
score) of each session will get the same Percentile of 100 which is desirable. The marks obtained in
between the highest and lowest scores are also converted to appropriate Percentiles.
The Percentile score will be the Normalized Score for the Examination (instead of the raw marks of the
candidate) and shall be used for preparation of the merit lists.
The Percentile Scores will be calculated up to 7 decimal places to avoid bunching effect and reduce ties.
The Percentile score of a Candidate is calculated as follows:
100 X Number of candidates appeared in the ‘Session’ with raw score EQUAL TO OR LESS than the candidate.
Total number of the candidates appeared in the ‘Session’

~ 65 ~

Note: The Percentile of the Total shall NOT be an aggregate or average of the Percentile of individual subject.
Percentile score is not the same as percentage of marks obtained.
Example: Suppose a test was held in 4 sessions of examinees as per details given below: -

(Allocation of Days and shifts were done randomly)
(a) Distribution of candidates were as follows:
Session-1: Day-1 Shift-1, Session-2: Day-1 Shift-2, Session-3: Day-2 Shift-1 and Session-4: Day-2
Shift-2

No of Candidates Marks
Session Day/Shift
Absent Appeared Total Highest Lowest
Session – 1 Day – 1, Shift – 1 3974 28012 31986 335 -39
Session – 2 Day – 1, Shift – 2 6189 32541 38730 346 -38
Session – 3 Day – 2, Shift – 1 6036 41326 47362 331 -49
Session – 4 Day – 2, Shift – 2 9074 40603 49677 332 -44
Total (Session – 1 to Session – 4) 25273 142482 167755 346 -49
In this method of scoring the HIGHEST RAW SCORE in each paper (irrespective of the raw scores) will
be the 100 Percentile indicating that 100% of candidates have scores equal to or lesser than the highest
scorer/ topper for that session.
Highest Raw Score and Percentile Score: All the highest raw scores will have normalized Percentile
Score of 100 for their respective session.
Candidates who
Total Highest scored EQUAL
Session Candidates Raw OR LESS THAN Percentile Score Remarks
Appeared Score Highest Raw
Score
100.0000000
Session-1 28012 335 28012
[(28012/28012) *100] i.e. all the highest
100.0000000 raw scores would be
Session -2 32541 346 32541
[(32541/32541) *100] normalized to 100
100.0000000 Percentile Score for
Session -3 41326 331 41326
[(41326/41326) *100] their respective
100.0000000 session.
Session -4 40603 332 40603
[(40603/40603) *100]

~ 66 ~

Lowest Raw Score and Percentile Score: Percentile Score of all the lowest raw scores will depend on
the total number of candidates who have taken the Examination for their respective session.
Candidates who
Total Lowest
scored EQUAL OR
Session Candidates Raw Percentile Score Remarks
LESS THAN Lowest
Appeared Score
Raw Score
0.0035699 i.e. Percentile Score of
Session -1 28012 -39 1
[(1/28012) *100] all the lowest raw
0.0030730 scores are different i.e.
Session -2 32541 -38 1
[(1/32541) *100] Percentile Score depend
0.0024198 on the total number of
Session -3 41326 -49 1
[(1/41326) *100] candidates who have
taken the Examination
0.0024629
Session -4 40603 -44 1 for their respective
[(1/40603) *100]
session.

The following is a further explanation of the interpretation of the raw scores and Percentile Score
in Session-3 (Day-2 and Shift-1) with 41326 candidates who have taken the examination.
No of Raw
Candidate Percentile Score Remark
Candidates Score
Indicates that amongst those appeared, 100% have
100.0000000 scored either EQUAL TO OR LESS THAN the
A [(41326/41326) 1 331 candidate A (331 raw score).
*100] It also indicates that no candidate has scored more
than the candidate A (331 raw score).
Indicates that amongst those appeared,
90.1224411 90.1224411% have scored either EQUAL TO OR
B [(37244/41326) 77 121 LESS THAN the candidate B (121 raw score).
*100] It also indicates that remaining candidates have
scored more than candidate B (121 raw score).
50.4549194 Indicates that amongst those appeared,
C [(20851/41326) 381 41 50.4549194% have scored either EQUAL TO OR
*100] LESS THAN the candidate C (41 raw score).

~ 67 ~

It also indicates that remaining those appeared
have scored more than candidate C (41 raw score).
Indicates that amongst those appeared,
31.7040120 31.7040120% have scored either EQUAL TO OR
D [(13102/41326) 789 25 LESS THAN the candidate D (25 raw score)
*100] It also indicates that remaining candidates have
scored more than candidate D (25 raw score).
Indicates that amongst those appeared,
1.1034216% have scored either EQUAL TO OR
1.1034216
E 100 -15 LESS THAN the candidate E (-15 raw score)
[(456/41326) *100]
It also indicates that remaining candidates have
scored more than candidate E (-15 raw score)

STEP-BY-STEP PROCEDURE FOR NORMALIZATION AND PREPARATION OF RESULT:
Step-1: Distribution of Examinees in two shifts:
Candidates have to be distributed into two sessions randomly so that each session has approximately equal
number of candidates. These two sessions would be as follows:
Session-1: Day-1 Shift-1, Session-2: Day-1 Shift-2
In the event of more number of days or less number of shifts, the candidates will be divided accordingly.
This will ensure that there is no bias in the distribution of candidates who shall take the examination.
Further, with a large population of examinees spread over the entire country the possibility of such bias
becomes remote.
Step-2: Preparation of Results for each Session:
The Examination results for each session would be prepared in the form of
 Raw Scores
 Percentiles Scores of Total raw scores.
The Percentiles would be calculated for each candidate in the Session as follows:
Let TP1 be the Percentile Scores of Total Raw Score of that candidate.
No. of candidates appeared from the session with raw score
Total Percentile
100 X EQUAL TO OR LESS than T1 score
(TP1):
Total No. of candidates appeared in the session

Step-3: Compilation of NTA score and Preparation of Result:

~ 68 ~

The Percentile scores for the Total Raw Score for all the sessions (Session-1: Day – 1 Shift – 1, Session-
2: Day – 1 Shift – 2) as calculated in Step-2 above would be merged and shall be called the NTA
scores which will then be used for compilation of result and further processing for deciding the
allocation.
In the events of the percentiles for the multi-shifts being dissimilar / unequal, the lowest will be the
eligibility cut-off for that category for all candidates (i.e. all shifts).
For Example: In the Examination held in two shifts, if the 40% marks correspond to a Percentile score of
78 in Shift 1 and 79 in Shift 2, then all those equal to or above 78 percentiles (Percentile score of 100 to
78) in both shifts will become eligible in General Category. Similar method will be adopted for the other
categories to determine eligibility cut-offs. In case the Examination is held in more number of shifts the
same principle shall apply.

~ 69 ~

Appendix-IX
Procedure to be adopted for compilation of NTA scores for multi-session Papers
(Normalization procedure based on Percentile and Equi percentile method)

Need for Normalization
For several subjects, the UGC-NET June 2026 may be conducted in different shifts. Since the question papers for any
subject in different shifts are different and it is quite possible that despite all the best possible efforts of maintaining
equivalence among various question papers, the difficulty level of these question papers administered in different
sessions may not be the same or similar. Some of the candidates might have ended up attempting a relatively tougher
set of questions when compared to other sets. The candidates who attempted the comparatively tougher examination are
likely to get lower marks as compared to those who attempted the easier one; the scores of the students across shifts are
not directly comparable. There is a need for normalizing the marks across shifts to make them amenable to such
comparisons.

A Committee headed by a Senior Professor from the Indian Statistical Institution Delhi and comprising of Senior
Professors from the Indian Institute of Technology Delhi and the University of Delhi had detailed deliberations to arrive
at the methodology.

As per Information Bulletin of UGC-NET June 2026 the raw score of each candidate in each subject will be normalized
using the Equi-percentile method. This is done separately for each subject for which the examination is held in multiple
shifts.
For each subject for which the examination is held in multiple shifts, the raw score for each candidate appearing for the
subject will be converted into NTA Score (Percentile Score & Normalized Score) in the following three steps.

Step 1: Convert Raw Scores into Percentile Scores.
The percentiles are calculated separately for each shift.
Record the number of candidates who have appeared in a shift. Denote this number by N.
Sort all the candidates in one shift in decreasing order of their marks.
Note the raw marks for each candidate. Suppose this is denoted by T. Count the number of
candidates in that shift whose raw scores are less than or equal to T. Denote this number by m.
The percentile score for this candidate is then calculated as:
𝑚
P= ∗ 100
𝑁

Illustration:
Suppose that the examination in a certain subject is held in two different shifts, S1 and S2, say.
Consider six candidates A, B, C, D, E, and F out of which A, B, and C are from shift S1 and the
other three are from shift S2.
Let the raw marks of the six candidates be 𝑥𝐴, 𝑥𝐵, 𝑥𝐶 (shift S1 marks) and 𝑦𝐷, , 𝑦𝐹 (shift S2 marks).

~ 70 ~

For candidates A, B, and C, the percentiles are calculated using the total marks obtained by
candidates appearing in shift S1 (in the same subject) as explained above.
Similarly, for candidates D, E, and F, the percentiles are calculated using the total marks
obtained by candidates appearing in shift S2 (in the same subject) as explained above.
Let the respective percentiles be denoted by PA, PB, PC, PD, PE, and PF.
The above data is summarized in the following table. The terms in red colour indicate that these are
the output of this step.
Shift S1 Shift S2
Candidate Raw score Percentile Candidate Raw score Percentile
A XA PA D YD PD
B XB PB E YE PE
C XC PC F YF PF

Since the calculation for percentiles in any shift depends only on the data from that shift alone, there
is a separate table for each shift.
Step 2: Pull the percentiles to the marks scale for each session to get aNormalized Score.
The data across all sessions tabulated at the end of step 1 is collated into a single table.
The columns for the shift-wise raw score should be kept separate.
All the records are then sorted in decreasing order of the percentiles.
Illustration (Continued):
In the illustrative example given above, suppose that the percentiles ofthe six candidates
satisfy
PE>PA>PC =PF>PB>PD
Then the collated table would look as given below:
Candidate Percentile RawscoreS1 RawScoreS2
E PE – YD
A PA XA –
C&F PC=PF XB YE
B PB XC –
D PD – YF

Candidate C from shift S1 and candidate F from shift S2 have the same percentile. The
relevant entries under “Raw Score S1” and “Raw Score S2” are the actual raw scores 𝑥𝐶 and
𝑦F respectively. This has the obvious interpretation that marks 𝑥𝐶 of shift S1 are equivalent to
marks 𝑦𝐹 of shift S2.
Candidates A and B, appearing in shift S1, have a blank entry in column “Raw Score S2”, as there
is no corresponding candidate having exactly the same percentile from shift S2. Similarly,
Candidates D and E, appearing in shift S2, have a blank entry in column “Raw Score S1”, as
there is no corresponding candidate having exactly the same percentile from shift S1.

~ 71 ~

 In the remaining part of this Step 2, the blank entries in the two “Raw Score” columns are filled
up using linear interpolation.
 Consider a record (row) whose entry in the column “Raw Score S1” is blank. The blank will
be replaced by the interpolated score X which is calculated as:

Where:
P is the corresponding entry in t h e “Percentile” column
x1 is the first non-blank entry BELOW X. i.e., x1<X and there is no other non-blank
entry in the column between x1 and X.
x2 is the first non-blank entry ABOVE X. i.e., x2> X and there is no other non-blank
entry in the column between x2 and X.
p1 is the entry in the “Percentile” column corresponding to x1 from the column “Raw Score S1”.
p2 is the entry in the “Percentile” column corresponding to x2 from the column “Raw Score S1”.
Note that there may be several blank entries between x1 and x2.
All the blank entries in column “Raw Score S1” can now be replaced by the interpolated values.
The blank entries in column “Raw Score S2” are also replaced using a similar procedure.

Illustration (Continued):
The table in the illustrative example would look like the following, where the entries in red
indicate the additional output at the end of this step.
Candidate Percentile Raw Score S1 Raw Score S2
E PE XE 𝑦𝐸
A PA XA YA
C&F PC=PF XC 𝑦𝐹
B PB XB YB
D PD XD 𝑦𝐷

Step3: Calculation of the Normalized Score
Now for each subject, there is a score assigned to each percentile value for each session. The
Normalized score, Z, corresponding to a percentile value P, is calculated as:

Where 𝑢𝐴, 𝑢𝐵, … … 𝑢𝑡 denote the raw scores corresponding to the percentile P in each of t he different
sessions

~ 72 ~

Illustration (Continued):
The final table in the illustrative example would be as follows:
Candidate Percentile Raw ScoreS1 Raw ScoreS2 Normalized Score
E PE XE 𝑦𝐸 (XE + 𝑦𝐸)/2
A PA XA YA (𝑥𝐴 +YA)/2
C&F PC=PF XC 𝑦𝐹 (𝑥𝐶 + 𝑦𝐹)/2
B PB XB YB (𝑥𝐵 +YB)/2
D PD XD 𝑦𝐷 (XD + 𝑦𝐷)/2

Step-by-Step Procedure for Converting from Raw Score to Normalized Score: -

Example: Suppose a test was held in 4 phases of examinees as per details given below:
(Allocation of Days and shifts were done randomly)
No of Candidates Raw Score
Session Day Shift
Absent Appeared Total Highest Lowest
Session-1 Day-1 Shift-1 3974 28012 31986 200 -40
Session-2 Day-1 Shift-2 6189 32541 38730 194 -36
Session-3 Day-2 Shift-1 6036 41326 47362 188 -36
Session-4 Day-2 Shift-2 9074 40603 49677 200 -40
Total (Session-1 to Session-4) 25273 142482 167755 200 -40

Highest Raw Score and Percentile Score: -
Total Candidates who scored
Highest Raw
Session Candidates Equal or Less Than Percentile Score Remarks
Score
Appeared Highest Raw Score
100.0000000
Session-1 28012 200 28012 i.e., All the
[(28012/28012) *100]
100.0000000 highest raw scores
Session-2 32541 194 32541 would be
[(32541/32541) *100]
normalized to 100
100.0000000
Session-3 41326 188 41326 Percentile Score
[(41326/41326) *100] for their
100.0000000 respective session.
Session-4 40603 200 40603
[(40603/40603) *100]

Lowest Score and Percentile Score: -
Total Candidates Who Scored
LowestRaw
Session Candidates Equal or Less Than PercentileScore Remarks
Score
Appeared Highest RawScore
0.0035699 i.e., the Percentile Score
Session-1 28012 -40 1 of all the lowest raw
[(1/28012) *100]
0.0030730 scores are different i.e.,
Session-2 32541 -36 1 Percentile Score depends
[(1/32541) *100]
on the total number of
0.0024198 candidates who have
Session-3 41326 -36 1
[(1/41326) *100] taken the examination
0.0024629 for their respective
Session-4 40603 -40 1 session.
[(1/40603) *100]
~ 73 ~

Step1: Convert Raw Score into Percentile Score
The percentile score for this candidate is then calculated as:

Candidate Raw Score S1 Percentile Score Candidate Raw Score S2 Percentile Score
A20020720 200 100 B20123935 194 100
A20411664 192 99.969144 B20012622 192 99.9990405
A20018569 190 99.831255 B20656224 100 96.9671093
A20339879 184 99.732901 B20410215 42 69.2904047
A20074407 180 99.432054 B20236444 26 67.7672549
A20751862 88 88.654575 B20128586 14 46.3751151
A20922992 48 74.137715 B20001667 4 27.0887703
A21004667 40 69.290405 B20042147 2 23.9100399
A21141123 22 52.135343 B20051256 0 12.225608
A25465232 8 30.675846 B20481968 -2 11.6211621
A26545946 6 27.584445 B20091701 -12 10.4982563
A25656543 2 24.886459 B20549576 -14 10.3947421
A26625216 1 22.351432 B20098269 -30 10.2430506
A26174451 0 19.997686 B20071356 -36 0.053034
A25463225 -1 15.23523
A26598636 -6 11.104361
A26596462 -40 0.053034

Candidate Raw Score S3 Percentile Score Candidate Raw Score S4 Percentile Score
C20150694 188 100 D20479616 200 100
C20087997 186 99.969144 D20040337 194 99.9990405
C20121991 184 99.831255 D20467385 98 88.6545749
C20058572 180 99.732901 D20398094 44 68.9660903
C20060310 172 99.432054 D20428934 40 49.5097099
C20008597 56 78.338974 D20032939 32 46.3751151
C20430859 36 69.00182 D20690279 30 27.0887703
C20518247 20 52.135343 D20840699 28 23.9100399
C20045510 14 38.091932 D20084751 26 20.8800276
C20860609 9 30.675846 D21237483 24 12.1887008
C20861476 5 27.584445 D21077463 1 11.5349248
C20512680 3 24.886459 D20348188 -2 11.0243302
C20069270 2 22.351432 D25463225 -40 0.053034
C20355550 0 12.188701
C20549576 -3 11.23523
C26598636 -22 0.0539983
C26596462 -36 0.053034

~ 74 ~

Step 2: Pull Back the percentiles to the scale of the marks for each session to get Normalized marks.
Candidate Percentile Raw Raw Raw Raw
Score Score S1 Score S2 Score S3 Score S4
A20020720=B20123935=C20150694=D204
100 200 194 188 200
79616
B20012622=D20040337 99.99904053 - 192 - 194
A20411664=C20087997 99.9691438 192 - 186 -
A20018569=C20121991 99.8312554 190 - 184 -
A20339879=C20058572 99.7329013 184 - 180 -
A20074407=C20060310 99.4320538 180 - 172 -
B20656224 96.9671093 - 100 - -
A20751862=D20467385 88.6545749 88 - - 98
C20008597 78.3389742 - - 56 -
A20922992 74.1377149 48 - - -
A21004667=B20410215 69.2904047 40 42 -
C20430859 69.0018201 - - 36 -
D20398094 68.9660903 - - - 44
B20236444 67.7672549 - 26 - -
A21141123=C20518247 52.1353428 22 - 20 -
D20428934 49.50970986 - - - 40
B20128586=D20032939 46.37511514 - 14 - 32
C20045510 38.0919321 - - 14 -
A25465232=C20860609 30.6758464 8 - 9 -
A26545946=C20861476 27.5844446 6 - 5 -
B20001667=D20690279 27.08877034 - 4 - 30
A25656543=C20512680 24.886459 2 - 3 -
B20042147=D20840699 23.91003991 - 2 - 28
A26625216=C20069270 22.3514324 1 - 2 -
D20084751 20.88002763 - - - 26
A26174451 19.9976858 0 - - -
A25463225 15.23523 -1 - - -
B20051256 12.225608 - 0 - -
C20355550=D21237483 12.1887008 - - 0 24
B20481968 11.62116211 - -2 - -
D21077463 11.53492478 - - - 1
C20549576 11.23523 - - -3 -
A26598636 11.1043613 -6 - - -
D20348188 11.0243302 - - - -2
B20091701 10.49825625 - -12 - -
B20549576 10.39474209 - -14 - -
B20098269 10.2430506 - -30 - -
C26598636 0.0539983 - - -22 -
A26596462=B20071356=C26596462=D254
0.053034 40 -36 -36 -40
63225

~ 75 ~

In the remaining part of Step 2, the blank entries in the Raw Score Columns are filled up.
Candidate Percentile Score Raw Score S1 Raw Score S2 Raw Score S3 Raw Score S4
A20020720=B20123935=C20150694=
100 200 194 188 200
D20479616
B20012622=D20040337 99.9990405 199.7512409 192 187.93781 194
A20411664=C20087997 99.9691438 192 171.96504 186 171.96504
A20018569=C20121991 99.8312554 190 167.63275 184 167.63275
A20339879=C20058572 99.7329013 184 164.54257 180 164.54257
A20074407=C20060310 99.4320538 180 155.09028 172 155.09028
B20656224 96.9671093 158.958447 100 158.4442 101.91063
A20751862=D20467385 88.6545749 88 82.580043 112.72997 98
C20008597 78.3389742 56.7810489 60.96241 56 69.707196
A20922992 74.1377149 48 52.158146 47.207694 58.184318
A21004667=B20410215 69.2904047 40 42 36.629757 44.889504
C20430859 69.0018201 39.6972017 38.968549 36 44.097997
D20398094 68.9660903 39.6597121 38.593224 35.966106 44
B20236444 67.7672549 38.4018305 26 34.828858 43.753534
A21141123=C20518247 52.1353428 22 17.231221 20 40.539799
D20428934 49.5097099 20.1081761 15.758363 18.878207 40
B20128586=D20032939 46.3751151 17.8496346 14 17.538962 32
C20045510 38.0919321 11.8814266 9.7051566 14 31.141031
A25465232=C20860609 30.6758464 8 5.8599046 9 30.371981
A26545946=C20861476 27.5844446 6 4.2570079 5 30.051402
B20001667=D20690279 27.0887703 5.2651195 4 4.6325597 30
A25656543=C20512680 24.886459 2 2.6143453 3 28.614345
B20042147=D20840699 23.9100399 1.6148289 2 2.6148289 28
A26625216=C20069270 22.3514324 1 1.7332164 2 26.97122
D20084751 20.8800276 0.374867 1.4813591 1.7104312 26
A26174451 19.9976858 0 1.3303305 1.5367886 25.79696
A25463225 15.23523 -1 0.5151508 0.5995493 24.70105
B20051256 12.225608 -4.6428439 0 0.0072632 24.008493
C20355550=D21237483 12.1887008 -4.6875164 -0.122119 0 24
B20481968 11.6211621 -5.3744647 -2 -1.785703 4.0338503
D21077463 11.5349248 -5.4788463 -2.767984 -2.057041 1
C20549576 11.23523 -5.8415966 -5.436905 -3 -0.760858
A26598636 11.1043613 -6 -6.602352 -3.222382 -1.529777
D20348188 11.0243302 -6.24622 -7.315066 -3.358377 -2
B20091701 10.4982563 -7.8647146 -12 -4.252322 -3.822101
B20549576 10.3947421 -8.1831815 -14 -4.428221 -4.180631
B20098269 10.2430506 -8.6498685 -30 -4.685987 -4.706027
C26598636 0.0539983 -39.9970333 -35.99943 -22 -39.99666
A26596462=B20071356=C26596462=
0.053034 -40 -36 -36 -40
D25463225

~ 76 ~

Step 3: Calculation of Normalized Score: Now for each subject there is a score assigned to each
percentile value for each session. The Normalized score, Z, corresponding to a percentile value P,
is calculated as Z= Average of (𝑢𝐴, 𝑢𝐶,………..𝑢𝑡)= 𝑢𝐴 + 𝑢𝐵 + 𝑢𝐶 +,…..+ 𝑢𝑡/ t
Where 𝑢𝐴, 𝑢𝐶,………..𝑢𝑡 denote the raw scores corresponding to the percentile P in each of the different
sessions
Normalized
Candidate Percentile Score Raw Score S1 Raw Score S2 Raw Score S3 Raw Score S4
Marks
A20020720=B20123935=C20
100 200 194 188 200 195.5
150694=D20479616
B20012622=D20040337 99.999041 199.7512409 192 187.9378 194 193.4223
A20411664=C20087997 99.969144 192 171.965 186 171.965 180.4825
A20018569=C20121991 99.831255 190 167.6327 184 167.6327 177.3164
A20339879=C20058572 99.732901 184 164.5426 180 164.5426 173.2713
A20074407=C20060310 99.432054 180 155.0903 172 155.0903 165.5451
B20656224 96.967109 158.958447 100 158.4442 101.9106 129.8283
A20751862=D20467385 88.654575 88 82.58004 112.73 98 95.3275
C20008597 78.338974 56.7810489 60.96241 56 69.7072 60.86266
A20922992 74.137715 48 52.15815 47.20769 58.18432 51.38754
A21004667=B20410215 69.290405 40 42 36.62976 44.8895 40.87982
C20430859 69.00182 39.6972017 38.96855 36 44.098 39.69094
D20398094 68.96609 39.6597121 38.59322 35.96611 44 39.55476
B20236444 67.767255 38.4018305 26 34.82886 43.75353 35.74606
A21141123=C20518247 52.135343 22 17.23122 20 40.5398 24.94276
D20428934 49.50971 20.1081761 15.75836 18.87821 40 23.68619
B20128586=D20032939 46.375115 17.8496346 14 17.53896 32 20.34715
C20045510 38.091932 11.8814266 9.705157 14 31.14103 16.6819
A25465232=C20860609 30.675846 8 5.859905 9 30.37198 13.30797
A26545946=C20861476 27.584445 6 4.257008 5 30.0514 11.3271
B20001667=D20690279 27.08877 5.2651195 4 4.63256 30 10.97442
A25656543=C20512680 24.886459 2 2.614345 3 28.61435 9.057173
B20042147=D20840699 23.91004 1.6148289 2 2.614829 28 8.557414
A26625216=C20069270 22.351432 1 1.733216 2 26.97122 7.926109
D20084751 20.880028 0.374867 1.481359 1.710431 26 7.391664
A26174451 19.997686 0 1.330331 1.536789 25.79696 7.16602
A25463225 15.23523 -1 0.515151 0.599549 24.70105 6.203938
B20051256 12.225608 -4.6428439 0 0.007263 24.00849 4.843228
C20355550=D21237483 12.188701 -4.6875164 -0.12212 0 24 4.797591
B20481968 11.621162 -5.3744647 -2 -1.7857 4.03385 -1.28158
D21077463 11.534925 -5.4788463 -2.76798 -2.05704 1 -2.32597
C20549576 11.23523 -5.8415966 -5.43691 -3 -0.76086 -3.75984
A26598636 11.104361 -6 -6.60235 -3.22238 -1.52978 -4.33863
D20348188 11.02433 -6.24622 -7.31507 -3.35838 -2 -4.72992
B20091701 10.498256 -7.8647146 -12 -4.25232 -3.8221 -6.98478
B20549576 10.394742 -8.1831815 -14 -4.42822 -4.18063 -7.69801
B20098269 10.243051 -8.6498685 -30 -4.68599 -4.70603 -12.0105
C26598636 0.0539983 -39.9970333 -35.9994 -22 -39.9967 -34.4983
A26596462=B20071356=C26
0.053034 -40 -36 -36 -40 -38
596462=D25463225

~ 77 ~

The above method is based on the work: “Normalization of marks in multi-session
examinations”, Abhay G. Bhatt et al, CURRENT SCIENCE, Vol. 118, No. 1, 10 January
2020
Note: The NTA is planning to do the UGC-NET June 2026 examination in a single shift for each
language/subject/General Test, so that the need for Normalization will not exist. However, under unavoidable
circumstances, if any subject is conducted in multi-shifts, then normalization will be done. The performance
of every candidate will be evaluated using the equi-percentile method wherein normalized marks of each
candidate will be calculated using the percentiles of each group of students in a given shift across multiple
days for the same subject.

~ 78 ~

Appendix-X
Gazette Notification for PwD Candidate

~ 79 ~

~ 80 ~

~ 81 ~

Appendix-XI
REPLICA OF APPLICATION FORM

~ 81 ~

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~ 82 ~

~ 83 ~

~ 84 ~

~ 85 ~

~ 86 ~

~ 87 ~

~ 88 ~

~ 89 ~

~ 90 ~

~ 91 ~

~ 92 ~

~ 93 ~

~ 94 ~

~ 95 ~

~ 96 ~

~ 97 ~

Information Bulletin

Address for Correspondence:
First Floor, NSIC-MDBP Building Okhla
Industrial Estate, New Delhi–110020

[email protected]

011-40759000 (Helpdesk)

ugcnet.nta.nic.in; www.nta.ac.in