PU CET PG 2018 Question Paper MSc HS Biochemistry

MSc(HS)(Biochemistry)
1. Which of the following contributes to spontaneously folding of the newly synthesized
protein to assume its native conformation;
A) Self assembly B) High salinity of the solution
C) Low density of Zinc D) High energy utilization
2. During cell division each chromosome is attached to its mitotic spindle by which of the
following structure;
A) Kinetochores B) Nuclear lipids C) Telomers D) Nuclear membrane
3. The intermediate filaments which provide the load bearing ability to cell is provided by
which of the following proteins;
A) Tubulin B) Flagellin C) Keratin D) Actin

4. In Urey’s experiment to demonstrate the chemical evolution of life which of the
following chemicals were refluxed and exposed to electric charge
A) H2O, O2, NH3 and H2 B) H2O, CH4, NH3 and H2
C) H2O, O2, NH3 and P D) H2O, CH4, NH3 and P

5. If Two solutions differ in pH by one unit, then they will differ in their hydrogen ion
concentration [H+] by a factor of:
A) 1 B) 7 C) 10 D) 14

6. What will be the pH of 0.1 M NaOH.
A) 14.0 B) 13.0 C) 8.0 D) 10.0

7. The highest level of structural hierarchy acquired by Ribonuclease and Myoglobin
protein is:
A) Ribonuclease and Myoglobin - Both Quarternary
B) Ribonuclease and Myoglobin – Both Tertiary
C) Ribonuclease – Tertiary and Myoglobin – Quarternary
D) Ribonuclease –Quarternary and Myoglobin –Tertiary

8. The peptidoglycan in bacterial envelope is an alternating polymer of
A) N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid linked by • 1->4 Glycosidic bonds
B) N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid linked by • 1->4 Glycosidic bonds
C) N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid linked by • 1->2 Glycosidic bonds
D) N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid linked by • 1->2 Glycosidic bonds

9. Which of the following protein is most abundant in nature;
A) Keratin B) Rubisco C) Collagen D) Albumin

10. The correct precursor for biological synthesis of nitric oxide is;
A) Leucine B) Lysine C) Arginine D) Proline

11. Which one of following enzyme is defective in Alkaptonuria, an inheritable disease in
Phenylalnine catabolizing pathway.
A) Phenylalanine decarboxylase B) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
C) Homogentistate dioxygenase D) Arginase

12. Which crucial enzyme in the slavage pathway of purine nucleotides result in a genetic
disorder called Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome;
A) Adenosine-guanosine phosphoribosyl transferase
B) Hyopxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase
C) Xanthosine-guanosine phosphoribosyl transferase
D) Hyopxanthine-guanosine phosphoribosyl transferase

13. Which one of the following products of pentose phosphate pathway is used for reductive
fatty acid synthesis;
A) NADH B) NADPH
C) FADH2 D) SH group of reduced glutathione

14. Chromosome walking is a technique used for;
A) Movement of chromosomes out from the cell
B) Moving a fragment of chromosome to another
C) Recombination between chromosomal DNA of two different species
D) Locating a gene using a set of clones from a DNA library

15. Two sequences showing significant similarity would mean that;
A) They are definitely involved in same pathways
B) They are definitely located in same cellular component
C) They are evolved from a common ancestor
D) They are definitely performing same function

16. A DNA sequence containing which one of the following would lead to formation of DNA
quadruplex structure ;
A) Very high proportions of guanosine residues
B) Very low proportions of guanosine residues
C) Very high proportions of adenosine residues
D) Very low proportions of adenosine residues

17. In prokaryotic cells the specific sequence located upstream of initiation codon where
16SrRNA ribosome can pair up is called.
A) Shine-Dalgarno sequence B) Marilyn Kozak sequence
C) Initiation sequence D) Recognition sequence

18. Which of the following statements about cellulose is false?
A) It is homopolymer of D-glucose units.
B) Glucose units are linked by • (1->4) glycosidic bonds
C) Cellulose is stabilized by intramolecular hydrogen bonds
D) Animals store cellulose in cells for energy purpose.

19. The major buffer system of mammalian blood and other extracellular fluids is
A) Carbonic acid-bicarbonate conjugate pair
B) Phosphoric acid- phosphate conjugate pair
C) Gluconic acid –gluconate conjugate pair
D) Pyruvic acid-pyruvate conjugate pair

20. The diagnostic test for Plamodium vivax using ELISA kit was developed, but
unfortunately the same kit tested positive even in patients with Plamodium falciparum,
the best possible explanation for this could be;
A) ELISA Kit substrate was inappropriate
B) The control reaction in the kit was not included
C) The antibody used in the kit recognized structurally similar epitopes
D) Discrimination between two of these species not possible by ELISA

21. Which of the following hormones has not been implicated directly in maintaining Ca 2+?
homeostasis.
A) Parathyroid hormone B) Cholecalciferol
C) Calcitonin D) Calmodulin

22. Which one of the following best describes the characteristic of a competitive and non-
competitive inhibitors, respectively;
A) Increase in Km without change in Vmax for former and decrease of Vmax for later
B) Decrease in Km without change in Vmax for former and increase of Vmax for later
C) Increase in Km with increase in Vmax for former and decrease in Km & Vmax for
later
D) Vmax increases tremendously for former and increase of Vmax and Km for later

23. The pure • • D Glucose solution in a test-tube was tested for optical rotation of [• ]20D
0
=+112 .2 , but after some time it exhibited value of [• ]20D = +52 .70 , this
phenomenon is known as
A) Isomerization B) Anomerization C) Epimerzation D) Mutarotation

24. The specific oxidation of alcohol group of glucose at 6th position of carbon would yield
which of the following products;
A) Lactones B) Uronic acids C) Glucosides D) Gulonic acids

25. Consider the following peptide being subjected to trypsin digestion, how many fragments
of this peptide will be generated. Asp-Val-Arg-Leu-Ser-Ala-Met-Arg-Pro-His-Arg
A) It will not be cleaved B) Four fragments
C) Three fragments D) Two fragments

26. Collagen was isolated from wing muscle of a bird and subjected to heat at 390C. All of
the following statements are true for it at this condition, except;.
A) It will lose its secondary structure
B) It will be gelatinous in form now
C) It will not lose any of its characteristics at this temperature
D) It will not lose its primary structure at this temperature

27. In the ranking list of biological phosphate compounds by standard free energies of
hydrolysis, all of the following compounds listed as high energy compounds, except;
A) Phosphoenolpyruvate B) Phosphocreatinine
C) 1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate D) Glycerol phosphate

28. The macromolecules listed below mediate cell-cell interactions and adhesion function
except.
A) Integrins B) Cadherins C) Selectins D) Chitin

29. All of the following are amphipathic lipid aggregates that can be generated in presence of
an aqueous phase;
A) Micelle B) Monolayer C) Bilayer D) Liposome

30. The sphingolipids at cell surfaces are sites for biological recognition, one of the known
biological function is determining human blood groups (O,A,B), which of the following
molecules attached to shingolipids play this role;
A) Sphingosine moieties in ceramide
B) Fatty acids in ceramide
C) Oligosaccharide head groups attached to ceramide
D) Protein moiety attached to oligosaccharide groups

31. The steroid nucleus consists of four fused rings, these are;
A) All four with six carbons
B) Three with six carbons and one with five
C) Two with six carbons and two with five
D) One with six carbons and three with five

32. The two-dimensional gel electrophoresis permits the resolution of complex proteins
A) First by Isoelectric focusing followed by SDS-PAGE
B) First by Isoelectric focussing followed by Thin layer chromatography
C) First by SDS-PAGE followed by Isoelectric focusing
D) First by Thin layer chromatograhy followed by Isoelectric focussing

33. The inflammatory response against extracellular bacterial infections is characterized by
all of the following, except;
A) Complement system activation B) Degranulation of histamine releasing cells
C) Phagocytosis by macrophages D) Dimerization of Ig E antibodies

34. The acetyl coA present in mitochondria is impermeable to inner mitochondrial
membrane, for fatty acid synthesis it is shuttled to cytosol as which form of
biomeolecule;
A) Malonyl CoA B) Malate C) Oxaloacetate D) Citrate

35. One of the following functions as gratuitous inducer of lac operon;
A) Galactose B) Isopropyl thiogalactoside
C) X-Gal D) Isopentyl pyrophosphate

36. The nucleic acid molecules can be separated on the basis of their buoyant density. In
order to set up density gradient, all of the following except one, can be used.
A) Cesium chloride B) Sucrose C) Cesium sulfate D) Cellulose

37. Which of the following statements is true about T cells;
A) T cells recognize antigen presented by class I MHC molecules only
B) T cells recognize antigen presented by class II MHC molecules only
C) T cells recognize antigen presented by non MHC molecules only
D) T cells recognize antigen presented by both class I or class II MHC

38. The human being with blood group AB type will have which type of antibodies
A) Anti-A B) Anti-B C) Anti-A and Anti-B D) No antibodies

39. The radioisotopes commonly used in laboratory practices emitting • • radiation are listed
below, except;
A) 125I B) 32P C) 35S D) 3H

40. The term used to denote the transfer of tissue between genetically different members of
same species is termed as
A) Autograft B) Allograft C) Isograft D) Xenograft

41. Which of the tester strain was used by Bruce Ames to develop Ames test for observing
mutagenesis of a compound?
A) Histidine negative (His - ) strain of Salmonella typhimurium
B) Alanine (ala - ) strain of Salmonella typhimurium
C) Glycine (gly - ) strain of Salmonella typhimurium
D) Cysteine negative (cys - ) strain of Salmonella typhimurium

42. RecBCD protein is an important protein during the recombination event, upon binding to
the free end of the DNA, it brings about which of the following activities.
A) Both Helicase and nuclease activities B) Both Helicase and polymerization activity
C) Both Helicase and ligase e acrivity D) Both Nuclease and ligase activity

43. Shown here is the structure of methyl adenine, As per IUPAC nomenclature it will be
represented as

A) N6 -Methyl Adenine B) N-6 Methyl Adenine
C) 6- N Methyl Adenine D) Methyl –6N adenine

44. During the ion channel activity, efflux of potassium from cell will produce which of the
following effect;
A) Depolarization
B) No net change in ionic potential
C) Hyperpolarization
D) Alternative depolarization and depolarization

45. The extracellular protein ligands that interact with integrins possess which of the
following sequence.
A) KDE B) RGDK C) KDEL D) RGD

46. Syndecan is an examples of which of the following;
A) Polyglalactans B) Proteoglycans
C) Glycolipids D) Homogenous Lipoproteins

47. In protein molecules post-translational modifications can be monitored by all of the
following techniques, except;
A) Mass-spectrometry B) SDS-PAGE
C) Restriction Digestion D) Peptide mapping

48. During the aminotrasnferase reactions which of the following function as the prosthetic
group;
A) Zinc B) Pyridoxal Phosphate
+
C) NAD D) Tetrahydrofolate

49. As the contents from stomach with acidic pH enter the small intestine, which one of the
following hormones helps to secrete biocarbonte from pancreas to neutralize the HCL of
stomach?
A) Secretine B) Insulin C) Glucagone D) Gastrin

50. Several of the pancreatic proteolytic enzymes do not cause self destruction of the
pancreas due to which of the following process;
A) Acidic pH optima of proteolytic enzymes and production of pancreatic trypsin
inhibitor
B) Alkaline pH optima of proteolytic enzymes and production of pancreatic trypsin
inhibitor
C) Zymogen synthesis of proteolytic enzymes and production of pancreatic trypsin
inhibitor
D) Maintenance of isotonicity and and production of pancreatic trypsin inhibitor

51. Which one of the mammalian enzyme can use both the NAD+ and NADP+ as the
acceptors of reducing equivalents;
A) Glyceraldehyde dehydrogenase B) Glutamate Dehydrogenase
C) Glutaminase D) Succinate dehydrogenase

52. Maple syrup urine disease, leading to characteristic smell in urine is due to defect in
which of the following pathways;
A) Defect in the catabolism of branched chain amino acid
B) Defect in anabolism of branched chain amino acid
C) Defect in catabolism of aromatic amino acid
D) Defect in anabolism of aromatic amino acid

53. The pathway linking citric acid cycle and urea cycle is called as;
A) Malate- Arginosuccinate Shunt B) Malate-Aspartate shunt
C) Aspartate –Arginosuccinate shunt D) Aspartate- Fumarate shunt

54. Which one of the following agent is a known uncoupler of phosphorylation from electron
transfer process during ATP synthesis.
A) Valinomycin B) Rotenone C) Cyanide D) Antimycin A

55. The reverse phase chromatography column will have which of the following groups;
A) Immobilized hydrophobic groups B) Immobilized hydrophilic groups
C) Immobilized anionic groups D) Immobilized cationic groups

56. Proline is a unique amino acid because of following properties, except;
A) It is a basic amino acid
B) Its α-amino group is present as imino group
C) Its side chain has hydrophobic character
D) It does not relatively fit into α-helical secondary structure

57. All the listed techniques represent various types of immunoassays, except;
A) Ouchterlony double diffusion B) Mancini radial diffusion
C) Rocket electrophoresis D) Native electrophoresis

58. The Eukaryotic mRNA are capped at 5’end having unusual linkage. This linkage
isrepresented as;
A) 7-methyl guanosine joined to 5’ end through 5’ 5’- diphosphate linkage
B) 7-methyl guanosine joined to 5’ end through 5’ 5’- triphosphate linkage
C) 7-methyl guanosine joined to 3’ end through 3’ 5’- triphosphate linkage
D) 7-methyl guanosine joined to 3’ end through 3’ 5’ - diphosphate linkage

59. The density gradient centrifugation for sedimentation and separation of molecules is of
following two types;
A) Zonal and Isopycnic
B) Zonal and Isothermal
C) Regional and Isopycnic
D) Regional and Isothermal

60. F1Fo ATP Synthase is an important enzyme for ATP synthesis, as complex these function
as;
A) Fo rotary motor complex that contains proton translocation channel, the F1 catalytic
complex that synthesizes ATP
B) F1 rotary motor complex that contains proton translocation channel, the Fo catalytic
complex that synthesizes ATP
C) Fo rotary motor complex that contains proton translocation channel, the F1 catalytic
complex that hydrolyzes ATP
D) F1 rotary motor complex that contains proton translocation channel, the F o catalytic
complex that hydrolyzes ATP

61. Following set of enzymes are required for nick translational activity in DNA;
A) 5’ 3’ Polymerase and 3’ 5’exonuclease

B) 5’ 3’ Polymerase and 5’ 3’exonuclease
C) 3’ 5’ Polymerase and 5’ 3’exonuclease
D) 3’ 5’ Polymerase and 3’ 5’exonuclease

62. The splice junction is best defined by which one of the following;
A) At junction, introns have GU at 5’ end and AG at 3’end
B) At junction, exons have UG at 5’ end and AG at 3’end
C) At junction, introns have AG at 5’ end and UG at 3’end
D) At junction, exons have GU at 5’ end and AG at 3’end

63. The dye used to mark the tracker front of polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis for protein
molecules is;
A) Coomassie brilliant Blue R250 B) Bromophenol blue
C) Amido black D) Ethidium bromide

64. In a DNA molecule is represented by the following sequence,
5’-CGGCATATA-3’
3’-GCCGTATAT-5
the upper fragment serves as coding strand and the lower fragment as non-coding strand,
then what would be the correct sequence of RNA;
A) CGGCAUAUA B) AUAUAGCCG C) UAUAUGCCG D) GCCGUAUAU

65. The genetic code degeneracy is largely contributed by which of the following:
A) Due to variable 2nd position of anticodon - codon interaction
B) Due to variable 2nd position of codon - anticodon interaction
C) Due to variable 3rd position of codon - anticodon interaction
D) Due to stable 3rd position of codon – anticodon interaction

66. One of the following represents the repertoire of ribozyme of the cell during protein
synthesis;
A) Transformaylase B) Peptidyl transferase
C) Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase –I D) Aminoaceyl tRNA synthetase -II

67. The antibodies are heterodimers where two identical heavy chain and light chain
combinations are linked to each other by;
A) Disulfide bridges and H-linkages only
B) Disulfide bridges and Non-covalent linkages
C) Disulfide bridges and salt bridges only
D) Non-covalent linkages only

68. The substrate level phosphorylation is a process that involves synthesis of which one of
the following during glycolysis;
A) Phsphorylation of Glucose
B) Phosphorylation of 3 phosphoglycerate
C) Formation of dihydroxyacetone phosphate
D) ATP

69. One of the following does not represent anaplerotic reaction;
A) Reaction catalyzed by phosphoenol pyruvate carboxikinase
B) Reaction catalyzed by Malic enzyme
C) Reaction catalyzed by Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase
D) Reaction catalyzed by pyruvate kinase

70. During which process of metabolism, an enzyme functions as a primer and also catalyzes
priming reaction as well;
A) During glycogenesis B) During DNA replication
C) During lipidogenesis D) During RNA synthesis

71. Vertebrates cannot convert fatty acid to carbohydrates due to which of the following
reason;
A) Due to inability of conversion of acetate to phophoenol pyruvate
B) Due to constitutive activity of isocitrate lyase
C) Due to constitutive activity of malic synthase
D) Due to irreversibility of glycolysis

72. The first stage in the assimilation of CO2 into biomolecules is
A) Condensation of CO2 with a five carbon acceptor
B) Condensation of CO2with a four carbon acceptor
C) Condensation of CO2with a three carbon acceptor
D) Condensation of CO2with a two carbon acceptor

73. You are given a autoradiogram of electrophoresis gel following completion of Sangers
sequencing method, looking at the autoradiogram provide the template against which this
autoradiogram is obtained;

A) 3’ –CTAAGCTTGC-5’ B) 3’ – CGTTCGAATC-5’
C) 3’ –GCAAGCTTAG-5’ D) 3’ –GATTCGAACG-5’

74. Which one of the following amino acid is required to be supplied to humans beings in
their diet;
A) Serine B) Glutamin C) Tyrosine D) Threonine

75. The prefix sn in sn-glycerol means;
A) Sterospecfic numbering in glycerol B) Small nuclear localized glycerol
C) Specific naming of glycerol D) Soluble nano-based glycerol

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