DUET Question Paper 2019 for Ph.D (Biomedical Sciences)

DU PhD In Biomedical Sciences

Topic:- DU_J19_PHD_BIOSCI

1) Which is true about composition of Blood

[Question ID = 896]

1. Plasma-45%, Protein/WBC-4%, RBC- 51% [Option ID = 3583]
2. Plasma-50%, Protein/WBC-3%, RBC- 47% [Option ID = 3582]
3. Plasma-35%, Protein/WBC-2%, RBC- 65% [Option ID = 3584]
4. Plasma-55%, Protein/WBC-1%, RBC- 45% [Option ID = 3581]

Plasma-55%, Protein/WBC-1%, RBC- 45% [Option ID = 3581]

2) Central – Supramolecular Associated Clusters and Peripheral- Suramolecular Associated
clusters relate to: [Question ID = 873]

1. Specific regions in the immune synapse [Option ID = 3492]
2. miRNAs in Introns for innate immunity [Option ID = 3491]
3. Genes for B cell maturation [Option ID = 3489]
4. Genes for T cell maturation [Option ID = 3490]

Genes for B cell maturation [Option ID = 3489]

3) HVEM and LIGHT are [Question ID = 879]

1. Costimulatory molecules that regulate immune response [Option ID = 3513]
2. Kinases that regulate immune responses [Option ID = 3515]
3. Transcription factors that regulate immune responses [Option ID = 3514]
4. Phophatases that regulate immune response [Option ID = 3516]

Costimulatory molecules that regulate immune response [Option ID = 3513]

4) The LD50 is calculated from: [Question ID = 910]

1. aquantal dose-response curve [Option ID = 3637]
2. a log-log dose-response curve [Option ID = 3640]
3. a graded dose-response curve [Option ID = 3639]
4. ahormesis dose –response curve [Option ID = 3638]

aquantal dose-response curve [Option ID = 3637]

5) During the development, if a cell has committed to a particular fate, it is said to be

[Question ID = 901]

1. totipotent [Option ID = 3602]
2. differentiated [Option ID = 3604]
3. Pluripotent [Option ID = 3601]
4. determined [Option ID = 3603]

Pluripotent [Option ID = 3601]

6) During isotonic contraction of a skeletal-muscle fibre the

[Question ID = 892]

1. Sarcomeres shorten and I bands shorten. [Option ID = 3568]
2. I bands shorten. [Option ID = 3567]
3. A bands shorten. [Option ID = 3566]
4. Sarcomeres shorten. [Option ID = 3565]

Sarcomeres shorten. [Option ID = 3565]

7) LDA is used as [Question ID = 890]

1. None of these [Option ID = 3560]
2. A dehydrating agent [Option ID = 3559]
3. An acid [Option ID = 3558]
4. A base [Option ID = 3557]

A base [Option ID = 3557]

8) Action of traditional NSAID's [Question ID = 906]

1. Do not inhibit COX-1 or COX-2 [Option ID = 3623]
2. Inhibit COX-1 [Option ID = 3621]
3. Both Inhibit COX-1 and Inhibit COX-2 [Option ID = 3624]
4. Inhibit COX-2 [Option ID = 3622]

Inhibit COX-1 [Option ID = 3621]

9) CD69 and Ki-67 are [Question ID = 876]

1. B cell activation markers [Option ID = 3502]
2. Macrophage activation marker [Option ID = 3504]
3. Dendritic cell activation markers [Option ID = 3503]
4. T cell activation markers [Option ID = 3501]

T cell activation markers [Option ID = 3501]

10) Chromosomes found in the salivary gland of Drosophila is [Question ID = 899]

1. Lampbrush [Option ID = 3593]
2. B-chromosomes. [Option ID = 3596]
3. Supernumerary [Option ID = 3595]
4. Polytene [Option ID = 3594]

Lampbrush [Option ID = 3593]

11) MAGE, PRAME and NY-ESO-1 are examples of [Question ID = 875]

1. Virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus [Option ID = 3498]
2. B cell maturation marker [Option ID = 3500]
3. Tumor antigens [Option ID = 3499]
4. Allergens [Option ID = 3497]

Allergens [Option ID = 3497]

12) The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor _________________
[Question ID = 868]

1. EF-G [Option ID = 3470]
2. eIF2 [Option ID = 3471]
3. eIF4G [Option ID = 3472]
4. EF-Tu [Option ID = 3469]

EF-Tu [Option ID = 3469]

13) Erythropoietin secretion is stimulated by [Question ID = 897]

1. Low blood volume, Anemia, poor blood flow [Option ID = 3585]
2. Pulmonary diseases, hypererythremia, excess blood flow [Option ID = 3587]
3. Low blood volume, hypererythremia, pulmonary diseases [Option ID = 3588]
4. Low Hemoglobin, excess blood flow [Option ID = 3586]

Low blood volume, Anemia, poor blood flow [Option ID = 3585]

14) Some neurons in the vagus nerve terminate on sinoatrial (pacemaker) cells in the heart.
These neurons secrete acetylcholine, which ultimately results in a decreased heart rate. This is
an example of [Question ID = 891]

1. Exocrine Control [Option ID = 3562]
2. Hormonal Control [Option ID = 3564]
3. Endocrine Control [Option ID = 3563]
4. Neural Control [Option ID = 3561]

Neural Control [Option ID = 3561]

15) Plasmids are important to many bacteria because

[Question ID = 904]

1. Both (They can render bacteria drug resistant) and (They may carry genes that give their host a selective
advantage) [Option ID = 3616]
2. None of the above [Option ID = 3615]
3. They can render bacteria drug resistant. [Option ID = 3614]
4. They may carry genes that give their host a selective advantage [Option ID = 3613]

They may carry genes that give their host a selective advantage [Option ID = 3613]

16) In order for the lungs to function normally, the intrapleural pressure must [Question ID =
894]

1. alternate between being less than and greater than atmospheric pressure. [Option ID = 3575]
2. be lower than alveolar pressure. [Option ID = 3573]
3. change as the respiratory demands of the body change. [Option ID = 3576]
4. be between +5 and +10 mmHg above atmospheric pressure. [Option ID = 3574]

be lower than alveolar pressure. [Option ID = 3573]

17) Once the tRNA is aminoacylated, EF-Tu binds to the tRNA at the ____________ [Question
ID = 867]

1. Amino acid [Option ID = 3467]
2. 5’ end of the tRNA [Option ID = 3465]
3. Variable loop of tRNA [Option ID = 3468]
4. 3’ end of the tRNA [Option ID = 3466]

5’ end of the tRNA [Option ID = 3465]

18) The initial dorsal ventral axis in amphibian embryo is determined by [Question ID = 902]

1. the point of contact with uterus [Option ID = 3607]
2. genetics difference in the cells [Option ID = 3608]
3. the point of sperm entry [Option ID = 3605]
4. gravity [Option ID = 3606]

the point of sperm entry [Option ID = 3605]

19) Mendel’s principle of dominance stated that when an individual has a hybrid genotype, it will
only express thedominant trait in its phenotype. Which of the following types of inheritance do
not agree with this principle?
I) co-dominance
II) multiple alleles
III) incomplete dominance [Question ID = 898]

1. I and II only [Option ID = 3589]
2. I and III only [Option ID = 3591]
3. II and III only [Option ID = 3590]
4. I, II and III [Option ID = 3592]

I and II only [Option ID = 3589]

20) MICA and MICB are [Question ID = 871]

1. Mouse Incomplete C-Reactive Antigen A and B [Option ID = 3483]
2. Major Histocompatibility Complex molecules that regulate immunity [Option ID = 3481]
3. Micro- Interleukin Complex A and B [Option ID = 3484]
4. Memory Induced Complementary Antigen A and B [Option ID = 3482]

Major Histocompatibility Complex molecules that regulate immunity [Option ID = 3481]

21) The enzyme of E.coli that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA breaks by homologous
recombination ( base excision repair in DNA) [Question ID = 864]

1. DNA polymerase [Option ID = 3455]
2. RNA polymerase [Option ID = 3456]
3. DNA glycosylase [Option ID = 3453]
4. DNA ligase [Option ID = 3454]

DNA glycosylase [Option ID = 3453]

22) Drosophila has four pairs of chromosomes. How many linkage groups does it have [Question
ID = 900]

1. One more than the pairs of chromosomes [Option ID = 3600]
2. Eight [Option ID = 3597]
3. Four [Option ID = 3598]
4. One less than the pairs of chromosomes [Option ID = 3599]

Eight [Option ID = 3597]

23) Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield [Question ID = 888]

1. 2,4-Dimethylaniline [Option ID = 3552]
2. N,N-dimethylaniline [Option ID = 3549]
3. Toluene [Option ID = 3550]
4. 4-Methylaniline [Option ID = 3551]

N,N-dimethylaniline [Option ID = 3549]

24) What is bioavailability? [Question ID = 908]

1. The amount of available drug to be used for biological testing [Option ID = 3629]
2. The amount of drug that is biometrically excreted in your blood [Option ID = 3632]
3. The amount of blood that is available for transfusion [Option ID = 3631]
4. The amount of medication in your blood that is available to produce an effect [Option ID = 3630]

The amount of available drug to be used for biological testing [Option ID = 3629]

25) What is the function of the ω subunit of RNA polymerase? [Question ID = 865]

1. Subunit association [Option ID = 3457]
2. Cation binding [Option ID = 3460]
3. Promoter binding [Option ID = 3458]
4. Initiation and elongation [Option ID = 3459]

Subunit association [Option ID = 3457]

26) Most of the CO2 that is transported in blood [Question ID = 895]

1. is in bicarbonate ion. [Option ID = 3580]
2. is bound to hemoglobin. [Option ID = 3578]
3. is in carbonic acid. [Option ID = 3579]
4. is dissolved in the plasma. [Option ID = 3577]

is dissolved in the plasma. [Option ID = 3577]

27) At the end of each phase of cell cycle, cyclins activating Cdks in that phase are inactivated
irreversibly by [Question ID = 870]

1. Ubiquitinylation [Option ID = 3479]
2. Destabilizing by proteolysis in a proteasome [Option ID = 3480]
3. De-phosphorylation [Option ID = 3478]
4. Multiple phosphorylations [Option ID = 3477]

Multiple phosphorylations [Option ID = 3477]

28) Gram Positive bacteria [Question ID = 903]

1. Have one more membrane that helps retain the crystal violet stain [Option ID = 3609]
2. Have multiple layers of peptidoglycan that help retain the crystal violet stain [Option ID = 3610]
3. Have periplasmic space that trap the crystal violet [Option ID = 3612]
4. Have a thick capsule that traps the crystal violet stain [Option ID = 3611]

Have one more membrane that helps retain the crystal violet stain [Option ID = 3609]

29) The reaction of benzoic acid and sodium bicarbonate yields [Question ID = 887]

1. 1-Phenylethane [Option ID = 3548]
2. Benzaldehyde [Option ID = 3545]
3. Benzyne [Option ID = 3547]
4. Sodium benzoate [Option ID = 3546]

Benzaldehyde [Option ID = 3545]

30) The reaction of Lithium acetylide with n-Butyl bromide yields [Question ID = 886]

1. 1-Butyne [Option ID = 3544]
2. 1-Hexyne [Option ID = 3542]
3. 1-Heptyne [Option ID = 3543]
4. 1-Pentyne [Option ID = 3541]

1-Pentyne [Option ID = 3541]

31) The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid [Question ID = 882]

1. 1,2-Ethanediol [Option ID = 3525]
2. Ethanol [Option ID = 3526]
3. Acetaldehyde [Option ID = 3528]

4. Acetic acid [Option ID = 3527]

1,2-Ethanediol [Option ID = 3525]

32) Magnetosomes present in some bacteria [Question ID = 905]

1. Help cells attach to metal object [Option ID = 3617]
2. Help cells to orient in earth magnetic field [Option ID = 3620]
3. Help cells to float on the surface of fresh water bodies [Option ID = 3619]
4. help cells to magnetically attach to each other [Option ID = 3618]

Help cells attach to metal object [Option ID = 3617]

33) MAIT stands for: [Question ID = 872]

1. Mucosal Associated Invariant T cell [Option ID = 3486]
2. Micro-RNA Associated Inducible T cells [Option ID = 3488]
3. Minor antigen of Inducible T cell [Option ID = 3485]
4. Memory Associated islet cell [Option ID = 3487]

Minor antigen of Inducible T cell [Option ID = 3485]

34) MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the: [Question ID = 878]

1. Toll like receptor induced signaling pathway [Option ID = 3512]
2. T cell receptor induced signaling pathway [Option ID = 3510]
3. EGF receptor induced signaling pathway [Option ID = 3511]
4. B cell receptor induced signaling pathway [Option ID = 3509]

B cell receptor induced signaling pathway [Option ID = 3509]

35) n-Butane reacts with Sulphur at 5600C to yield [Question ID = 889]

1. None of these [Option ID = 3556]
2. Dibutyldisulfide [Option ID = 3554]
3. Thiophene [Option ID = 3555]
4. Butane thiol [Option ID = 3553]

Butane thiol [Option ID = 3553]

36) T-bet and GATA are: [Question ID = 877]

1. Cytokines that regulate cell differentiation into plasma cells and memory cells, respectively [Option ID =
3507]
2. Transcription factors that promote T helper cell 2 and T helper cell 1 differentiation marker, respectively
[Option ID = 3506]
3. Transcription factors that promote T helper cell 1 and T helper cell 2 differentiation, respectively [Option ID
= 3505]
4. Proteins secreted by cytotoxic T cells that kill infected macrophages [Option ID = 3508]

Transcription factors that promote T helper cell 1 and T helper cell 2 differentiation, respectively [Option
ID = 3505]

37) Potassium sparing diuretics have the primary effect upon which part of the kidney.
[Question ID = 911]

1. Collecting duct [Option ID = 3643]
2. Loop of Henle [Option ID = 3642]
3. Proximal convoluted tubule [Option ID = 3641]
4. Distal convoluted tubule [Option ID = 3644]

Proximal convoluted tubule [Option ID = 3641]

38) Atopic individuals are: [Question ID = 874]

1. Prone to allergy [Option ID = 3493]
2. Prone to autoimmunity [Option ID = 3494]
3. Tolerant to allergy [Option ID = 3495]
4. Tolerant to infection [Option ID = 3496]

Prone to allergy [Option ID = 3493]

39) A transition state of high energy is formed in the following reaction [Question ID = 883]

1. None of these [Option ID = 3532]
2. SN2 [Option ID = 3530]
3. SN1 [Option ID = 3529]
4. E1 [Option ID = 3531]

SN1 [Option ID = 3529]

40) Plasmid stability in cells is maintained by [Question ID = 880]

1. Par [Option ID = 3519]
2. Ori gene [Option ID = 3518]
3. RepA [Option ID = 3517]
4. Rop [Option ID = 3520]

RepA [Option ID = 3517]

41) Which of the following is a long-term side effect of amphetamine? [Question ID = 912]

1. hair loss [Option ID = 3646]
2. constipation [Option ID = 3647]
3. depression [Option ID = 3648]
4. Euphoria [Option ID = 3645]

Euphoria [Option ID = 3645]

42) Which of the following is an Antihistamine? [Question ID = 907]

1. Chlorpheniramine [Option ID = 3625]
2. Pseudoephedrine [Option ID = 3626]
3. Glycopyrrolate [Option ID = 3627]
4. Epinephrin [Option ID = 3628]

Chlorpheniramine [Option ID = 3625]

43) Which of the following is the primary site of activity for the drug Warfarin? [Question ID =
909]

1. Liver [Option ID = 3634]
2. Kidney [Option ID = 3633]
3. Blood [Option ID = 3635]
4. Heart [Option ID = 3636]

Kidney [Option ID = 3633]

44) Which of the following is an Ubiquitin activating enzyme? [Question ID = 869]

1. E2 [Option ID = 3474]
2. E3 [Option ID = 3475]
3. E4 [Option ID = 3476]
4. E1 [Option ID = 3473]

E1 [Option ID = 3473]

45) For chronic myeloid leukemia one of the best chemotherapy drugs used is: [Question ID =
863]

1. Adriamycin [Option ID = 3451]
2. cisplatin [Option ID = 3452]
3. Bleomycin [Option ID = 3450]
4. Imatinib [Option ID = 3449]

Imatinib [Option ID = 3449]

46) According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart, [Question ID = 893]

1. the intrinsic rate of the heart's pacemaker is 100 beats/min. [Option ID = 3570]
2. stroke volume increases with increased venous return. [Option ID = 3572]
3. the left ventricle ejects a larger volume of blood with each systole than the right ventricle. [Option ID =
3569]
4. cardiac output increases with increased heart rate. [Option ID = 3571]

the left ventricle ejects a larger volume of blood with each systole than the right ventricle. [Option ID =
3569]

47) DNA ligase [Question ID = 881]

1. Facilitate Phosphodiester bonds [Option ID = 3522]
2. Sythesizes DNA in 5’- 3’ direction [Option ID = 3521]

3. Prevent DNA from restriction endonuclease mediated digestion [Option ID = 3524]
4. Maintain plasmid supercoiling [Option ID = 3523]

Sythesizes DNA in 5’- 3’ direction [Option ID = 3521]

48) Formation of turbidity on reaction of a plant extract with Phosphomolybdic acid indicates
the presence of [Question ID = 885]

1. a phytosteroid [Option ID = 3538]
2. a triterpenoid [Option ID = 3540]
3. an alkaloid [Option ID = 3537]
4. a carboxylic acid [Option ID = 3539]

an alkaloid [Option ID = 3537]

49) Crystal violet is used [Question ID = 884]

1. as a Lewis base [Option ID = 3536]
2. to dye silk and wool [Option ID = 3534]
3. as an acid base indicator [Option ID = 3533]
4. for dehydration [Option ID = 3535]

as an acid base indicator [Option ID = 3533]

50) Four types of σ factors are known ,of them which one used during Nitrogen deficiency?
[Question ID = 866]

1. σ54 [Option ID = 3463]
2. σ32 [Option ID = 3462]
3. σ28 [Option ID = 3464]
4. σ70 [Option ID = 3461]

σ70 [Option ID = 3461]