Kerala SET 2018 Jul Question Paper Home Science

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18715 120 MINUTES
1. Recommended Dietary Allowances of Iron for an infant 0-6 months is ------------/kg body
weight.
A) 10 mg B) 46 mg C) 0.001mg D) 0.01mg
2. The antioxidant present in pomegranate is ------------
A) Anthocyanin B) Citric acid C) Lycopene D) Curcumin

3. World Youth Skills Day is commemorated every year on ------------
A) June 5 B) July 15 C) October 2 D) November 16
4. Functional literacy aims at:
1. Self-reliance in 3 R's
2. Becoming aware of the causes of deprivation and moving towards amelioration of
their condition by participating in the process of development.
3. Skill improvement to improve economic status and general well being.
4. Mobilising public opinion.

A) All the statements are correct B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
C) 2, 3 and 4 are correct D) 1, 3 and 4 are correct

5. The concept of ------------ describes the differences between children and adult learners and
focuses on special needs of the adult learners.
A) Developmental Education B) Extension Education
C) Andragogy D) Life long learning

6. The instructional strategy that encourages critical thinking and problem-solving skills, and
allows the participants confront contextualized, ill-structured problems and strive to find
solutions.
A) Case study B) Observation C) Cohort study D) Problem solving
7. The institutions that are mandated to provide academic and technical resource support to
adult and continuing education through development and production of material and training
modules.
A) SIRD B) NIRDPR C) SRC D) ETC

8. The type of leadership that lacks direct supervision of employees and fails to provide regular
feedback to those under his supervision.
A) Autocratic leadership B) Democratic Leadership
C) Lasseiz faire leadership D) Lay leadership

9. An episodic series of digital media files which a user can set up so that new episodes are
automatically downloaded via web syndication to the user's own local computer or portable
media player.
A) Podcast B) Email attachment
C) Techtalk D) Tele text

10. A system that could facilitate the exchange of information and knowledge on the best
practices of farming from various areas, while the success stories could promptly be
disseminated and be replicated by other farmers in order to improve farming productivity
that will lead to improvement of farmers' life is known as ------------
A) Remote Sensing B) Video conferencing
C) Virtual learning D) Cyber Extension

11. “Development of a cluster of villages that preserve and nurture the essence of rural
community life with focus on equity and inclusiveness without compromising with the
facilities perceived to be essentially urban in nature”- This is the vision of ------------
A) NRLM B) MGNREGA C) NRuM D) NSAP

12. The scheme launched by the Govt of Kerala for creating general awareness among
adolescent girls about health, nutrition, family life, personal identity and skill development.
A) Adolescent club B) Kishori Shakti Yojana
C) Sabla D) Nirbhaya

13. WHO-UNICEF Sponsored first baby friendly state in the world is ------------
A) Finland B) Tamilnadu C) Kerala D) Texas

14. The new skill development scheme designed by the Govt of India to offer employment to
tribal youth in 24 Naxal -affected districts is ------------
A) Roshni
B) Deen Dayal Upadyay Grameen Koshal Yojana
C) SansadAdarsh Gram Yojana
D) HRIDAY

15. Kutir Jyoti Programme aims at:
A) Improving the standard of living of rural families who live below the poverty line by
providing single point light connections.
B) Providing food grains to around 2 cr. Below Poverty Line (BPL) families at a very
subsidized rate.
C) Providing all weather road connectivity to the rural areas
D) To empower the women’s self-help group model across the country

16. Match the following Rural Development programmes with their year of launching:
I II
a SansadAdarsh Gram Yojna 1. 2nd Feb.2006
b MGNREGS 2. 2nd October, 2014
c Antyodaya Anna Yojana 3. 11 October 2014
d Swachh Bharat Mission 4. 25 December 2000
e AamAdmiBhimaYojana 5. 2nd October 2007

A) a-5, b-3, c-1 d-4, e-2 B) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2, e-5
C) a-2, b-5, c-3, d-1, e-4 D) a-4, b-3, c-5, d-2, e-1

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17. The following model of communication was proposed by ------------
Information ˃ Transmitter ˃ Channel ˃ Receiver ˃ Destination
A) Aristotle B) Rogers and Shoemaker
C) Shanon and Weaver D) Schramann

18. An informal type of communication that is not a deliberately created and officially
prescribed channel for the flow of information
A) Oral B) Non verbal C) Kinesics D) Grape vine
19. An outline of activities so arranged as to enable efficient execution of a specific task.
A) Organisational planning B) Plan of work
C) Decision making D) pathway chart

20. The rural reconstruction programme started in Mahewa village for educating the villagers
and increasing agricultural production using organic methods.
A) Firka Development Scheme B) Nelokheri experiment
C) Etawah Project D) Gurgoan Experiment

21. Fineness of wool fibre is measured as ------------
A) Super S B) Filament C) Selvedge D) Yarn count

22. This is an example of a delusturing agent for manmade fibres.
A) Nitrogen Peroxide B) Titanium dioxide
C) Potassium Permanganate D) Sodium Chloride
23. The fibre that is referred to as “Golden fibre”.
A) Silk B) Rayon C) Jute D) Nylon

24. The fibre obtained by blending natural and synthetic fibers are known as ------------
A) Artificial fibre B) Real fibre C) Mixed fibre D) Joint fibre

25. Say whether the following statements are Correct or Incorrect?
1. A high amount of twist brings the crinkle effect in the yarn
2. Complex yarns give fancy effects in fabrics
3. Complex yarns are even in their diameter
4. Thread is not the same as yarn
A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct B) 2,3 and 4 are correct
C) 1, 2 and 4 correct D) All the statements are incorrect.

26. The basis of poly propylene fibers are ------------
A) Methana B) Propane C) Propylene D) Ethane

27. Denier a unit of measure of fibre, measures
A) Linear density B) Weight C) Brightness D) None of these

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28. A muslin garment cut from a first pattern is known as ------------
A) Design B) Test fit C) Draft D) Template
29. A slanting or diagonal line cut or sewn across the weave of the cloth is called ------------
A) Bias B) Selvedge C) Grain D) Fullness
30. Match the following embroidery works with respect to their traditional region of work or
origin.
I II
a. Pichwai 1 Punjab
b. Shamilami 2 Gujarat
c. Pipli 3 Manipur
d. Phulkari 4 Odisha
e. Aari 5 Rajasthan
A) a-5, b-3, c-4, d-1, e-2 B) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-5, e-1
C) a- 4, b-1, c-5, d-2, e-3 D) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1, e-5

31. It is an elastic polyurethane fibre or fabric used especially for close-fitting sports clothing.
A) lencell B) wool C) lyorell D) lycra

32. Triclosan is an example for ------------ finish.
A) Mechanical B) Anti microbial C) Chemical D) Dye

33. This is known as the King of fibre.
A) Silk B) Jute C) Cotton D) Wool
34. The fibre that is mainly used for padding and stuffing particularly upholstery is ---------
A) Hemp B) Tactel C) Coolmax D) Kapok

35. Identify and pick out the odd one from the group
A) Polyster B) Silk C) Nylon D) Lycra
36. State whether the following statements are “True” or “False”
1. Satin weaves makes very strong fabrics.
2. Cotton and Linen are not as absorbents as polysters
3. Polyster is a filament fibre.
4. Yarns are made by twisting fibres together.
A) All are true
B) All are false
C) Statements 1, and 2 are false and 3, 4 are true
D) Statements 1 and 2 are true and 3 and 4 are false

37. Find the correct sequential order in fabric making?
A) Yarn – Fabrics- Fibre B) Fibre- Fabrics- Yarn
C) Fibre- Yarn- Fabrics D) Fabrics- Yarn- Fibre

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38. Calendering is a mechanical finishing process which used to:
1. provide lustre.
2. provide various surface effects.
3. lift the fibres from the fabric to form a soft fibrous surface.
A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3

39. Which of the following fabric is most suitable for making a wedding gown?
A) Satin B) Flannel C) Gabardine D) Jute
40. The type of fabric made from flax
A) Polyster B) Coolmax C) Linen D) Muslin

41. The ranking of India in Human Development Index as per 2017
A) 134 B) 124 C) 131 D) 121
42. The centrally sanctioned daily wages rate for a MGNREGA labourer in Kerala as per 2017
March is ------------
A) ` 236/- B) ` 265/- C) ` 258/- D) ` 268/-

43. Swach Bharat Mission is the restructured version of ------------
A) Swach Bharat Abhyan B) Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan
C) Clean city green city D) Chalo India Drive

44. GOBI-FFF stands for ------------
A) Growth monitoring, oral rehydration, breast feeding and immunisation, female
education, family spacing and food supplementation.
B) Global Outreach programme on breast feeding, immunisation, foeticide, fertility
and follicles.
C) Global outlook on banking for infrastructure and federation of funds.
D) Global orientation on basic infrastructural development of family, food and finance.

45. Adding lactose instead of glucose as the fermentation substrate increases the production of -
-----------by Pencillium.
A) Fructose B) Deoxycholic acid C) Pencillin D) Glucose

46. An antibiotics widely used for the preservation of meat is------------
A) Natamycin B) Streptomycin C) Ethyl formate D) Nisin
47. Homogenization is used in milk industry to
A) prevent spoilage B) increase nutritive value
C) enhance colour D) prevent fat globules to separate out

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48. Match the following:
I II
a Aflatoxin 1 Airborne Fungi
b Cladosporium 2 Non nutritivesweetner
c Clostridium perfringens poisoning 3 Anti microbial agent
d Aspartame Saccharin 4 Aspergillusflavus
e Propionates Benzoate 5 Intestine

A) a-4, b- 1, c- 5, d-2, e-3 B) a-2, b- 5 ,c- 4, d-3, e-1
C) a-3, b- 4, c- 1, d-5, e-2i D) a-5, b- 3 ,c- 2, d-1, e-4

49. Which of the following can be linked to a diet high in saturated fats?
A) Bulimia B) Kidney failure
C) Cardiovascular disease D) Anorexia

50. Your body needs vitamins and minerals because ------------
A) They help carry out metabolic reactions
B) They give the body energy
C) They withdraw heat from the body
D) They insulate the body’s organs

51. Which of the following is NOT considered as a nutrient?
A) Minerals B) Vitamins C) Lipids D) Fibres

52. Which of the following nutrients is known as the sunshine vitamin?
A) Vitamin C B) Vitamin A C) Vitamin K D) Vitamin D
53. This nutrient is needed for a healthy immune system and strong connective tissue
A) Fibre B) Vitamin C C) Vitamin K D) Fluoride

54. Which of the following has the highest glycemic index?
A) White potatoes B) Oats C) Sweet potato D) Carrot

55. Which of the following is NOT a component of dietary fibre?
A) Pectin B) Agar C) Lignin D) Cellulose
56. Biotin deficiency can occur due to daily consumption of
A) Raw egg B) Nuts C) Liver D) Potato
57. Which of the following is the coenzyme form of Thiamine?
A) TTP (Thiamine Tri Phosphate) B) TMP (Thiamine Mono Phosphate)
C) TPP (Thiamine Pyrophosphate) D) Does not have a co enzyme form

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58. The hormone that stimulates the synthesis of milk protein?
A) Luteinising Hormone (LH)
B) Prolactin (PRL)
C) Follicule Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
D) Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

59. A pentose sugar present in the heart muscle is ------------
A) Aldose B) Lyxose C) Sucrose D) Lactose

60. All the biochemical tests are positive for Lactose except,
A) Ozazone test B) Barfoed C) Molisch D) Benedicts

61. Which of the following statement is NOT true?
A) Learning is a process of behavioural change
B) Change is an inevitable law of nature
C) Growth and development are interrelated
D) Development is a quantitative process
62. The type of evaluation that helps to identify the deficiencies and difficulties of the learner?
A) Formative B) Summative C) Diagnostic D) Continous
63. Which of the following is NOT a factor for motivating a learner?
A) Prize B) Praise C) Practice D) Reward

64. The Continuous Comprehensive Evaluation focuses to evaluate mainly on the ………..
A) Development of creativity of a child
B) Holistic development of the child
C) Development of thinking skills
D) Development of social skills of the child

65. A creative learner is referred to as one who is ------------
A) Good at lateral thinking and problem solving
B) Very talented in drawing and painting
C) Showing potentials in music, dance and other art forms
D) Capable of scoring full marks in all the exams and the ability to maintain it

66. Concept development is a part of ------------
A) Physical development B) Emotional development
C) Social development D) Intellectual development
67. According to Piaget, during the first stages of development (0-24 months), the child learns
best------------
A) By applying newly acquired knowledge of language
B) By identifying the people around him
C) By using his senses
D) By thinking in an abstract fashion

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68. A specific learning disability due to a neurological disorder that affects written expression
of the child is known as ------------
A) Dyslexia B) Dysgraphia C) Epilepsy D) Autism

69. Reading difficulty of a child, DOES NOT mean that, the child is having difficulty in -------
A) Spelling consistency B) Reading in speed and fluency
C) Letter and word recognition D) Understanding words and concepts
70. A knowledge in Child development, will help the teacher to…
A) Understand the socio-economic background of the learners
B) Identify the areas of interest of the learners
C) Analyse the reasons for the poor performance of the learners
D) Able to cater to the different learning style of the learners
71. Which among the following is the best strategy of a teacher to improve class discipline?
A) Being friendly with students all the time
B) Do not keeping any particular strict rules and regulations in the classroom
C) Frequent interaction with the parents
D) Self-evaluation on the methods, materials and approaches

72. Fear of darkness is known as
A) Melissophobia B) Nyctophobia
C) Enochlophobia D) Acrophobia

73. Slow learners whose educational attainments fall below their natural abilities are known as
------------
A) Exceptional Child B) Backwardness
C) Juvenile Delinquent D) Mentally retarded

74. Schema refers to ------------
A) a mental concept that informs a person about what to expect from a variety of
experiences and situations.
B) Defensive mechanism of a neglected child when he/she is thrown to negative
circumstances.
C) Diseased condition characterised by low intelligence
D) Learning disability of a learner

75. “The intrauterine growth retardation, low birth weight, and premature birth have a causal
relationship to the origins of hypertension, coronary heart disease, and non-insulin-
dependent diabetes, in middle age”- This theory is known as ------------
A) Piagets Cognitive theory B) Barkers Hypothesis
C) Malthusian theory D) Havighurst developmental delay

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76. A personality test that helps to analyze inner thoughts, feelings, and personality traits of a
person.
A) Apgar test B) BASC test C) Ink blot test D) Cognitive test

77. A method used to assess the health of the community is …
A) Screening B) ABCD method C) Vaccination D) Suicide rate
78. Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection) Act was passed on ------------
A) 1986 B) 2015 C) 2017 D) 1993

79. Who is the chairman of NCPCR (National Commission for Protection of Childrens Right)?
A) Geetha Narayan B) Stuti Narain Kacker
C) Rekha Sharma D) None of these
80. People whose lives are disordered and in chaos, having short temper, irritable and anxious
often tend to have ------------ type of stress.
A) Chronic stress B) Episodic acute stress
C) Distant stress D) Brief naturalistic stress
81. A photographic device, that is used to study the types of motions used in performing tasks
of a home maker is ------------
A) Sociometry B) Cyclograph C) Pathway chart D) Ergonograph

82. The process of how equipments and furniture are arranged so that people can work
efficiently is known as
A) Ergonomics B) Work simplification
C) Pathway Chart D) Process chart
83. Ergonomics principle suggests that ------------
A) Monitoring displays should be placed outside peripheral limitations
B) Glow-in-the dark dials made of reflective substances are good for viewing in the
nights.
C) Visual systems should be preferred over auditory systems in noisy locations
D) All of the above
84. The height of the top of the work bench should be __ the height of the elbow of the
workmen.
A) Above B) Below C) At D) Cannot be determined

85. While considering a work space, the most frequently used components are arranged in ------
A) Left side B) Right side C) Central D) Below

86. Slate is an example for ------------
A) Secondary colour B) Tertiary Colour
C) Quarternary colour D) Warm colour

87. Colours adjacent to each other on the colour wheel are called------------
A) Analogous B) Split complimentary
C) Triad D) Double complimentary

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88. Red –Yellow Orange –Green –Blue ; This colour series is an example for------------
A) Cool colours B) Square colourscheme
C) Rectangle colour scheme D) Split complimentary
89. In interior designing, the selection and arrangement of consistent ideas and objects is termed
as ------------
A) Design B) Pattern C) Spacing D) Harmony

90. Floating type of flower arrangement is also known as ------------
A) Ikebana B) Crescent C) Moribana D) Ukibana

91. The type of design which involves the application of color, line, texture, or pattern to an
object where the ornamentation is added to the basic form, is called ------------
A) Structural design B) Decorative C) Abstract D) Natural

92. Which of the following is one of the major barrier for effective time management?
A) Lack of time B) Lack of proper planning
C) Being well organized D) Procrastination

93. A creative diagram to visually organize information and shows relationship among pieces of
the whole is ------------
A) To do list B) Time log
C) Mind mapping D) Visualization chart

94. Maslow’s hierarchy of need is related to ------------
A) Self-actualization B) Branding
C) Budgetting D) Decision making

95. A legal effective protection of interests of consumers which makes provision for the
establishment of consumer councils and other authorities that help in settlement of
consumer disputes and matters connected therewith is ------------
A) Consumer Protection Act B) Drugs and Cosmetics Act
C) Sales of Goods Act D) Food Safety and Standard Act
96. Which of the following statement/s are TRUE in labeling a product?
1 Enhances Brand and Product Identity
2 Identifies Grade and type
3 Promotes credibility
4 Ensures quality and product knowledge
A) 1, 2 and 3 are true B) 2, 3 and 4 are true
C) 1, 2 and 4 are true D) All the statements are True

97. The ability to combine two or more activities at a time is known as ……
A) Ergonomics B) Work Simplification
C) Dove tailing D) Balancing

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98. Modular homes are also called ------------
A) Prefab homes B) Studios
C) Mobile homes D) Manufactured homes
99. A green home is a type of house designed
1. To be environmentally friendly and sustainable
2. With all the furnishings and accessories arranged in the shades and tints of green
3. Protecting occupants health and reducing waste, pollution and environmental
degradation
4. To be resource efficient and environmentally responsible
A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
C) 1, 3 and 4 are correct D) 1, 2 and 4 are correct

100. A specialist work of writing on a single subject or an aspect of a subject, usually by a single
author
A) Scientific report B) Monograph
C) Review paper D) Autobiography

101. Priscilla and Ruffled curtains are ideal for a ----------
A) Boy’s room B) Study room C) Girl’s room D) Master bed room

102. ------------ is the Destitute Identification Rehabilitation and Monitoring Project for the
rehabilitation of destitute families in Kerala.
A) Nirbhaya B) Samagra C) Sabala D) Asraya

103. All research process begins with…………
A) Observation B) Pilot study
C) Hypothesis D) Reviewing the data

104. This refers to the process of selecting units from a whole population of interest
A) Survey B) Census C) Sampling D) Exclusion

105. The better the reliability, then…
A) The lower the maximum correlation of that test with any other variable
B) The more likely the variables show positive relationship
C) More consistent and stable will be the results
D) The less likely the test is measuring what is intended to measure

106. The primary aim of ---------- is to give structure to data in the form of categories which can
then be analysed.
A) Coding B) Pilot Study C) Statistical analysis D) Testing

107. Which of the following is not a source of data which is appropriate for qualitative study?
A) Experiments B) Historical data
C) Observations D) Case study reports

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108. Deciding what data is best for your research analysis depends upon which of the following?
A) Individual preference of the researcher
B) The research problem and the samples
C) The tool used for the study
D) All the above

109. A meta-analysis would allow the researcher to –
A) Explore the variations or inconsistencies in the outcomes of lots of studies
B) Identify the antecedents of a behaviour
C) Assess the reliability of a study
D) Helps to frame the hypothesis in a more convincing manner

110. What sort of data is “height”?
A) Independent B) Qualitative C) Dependent D) Quantitative

111. Which of the following assumption/s are normally TRUE for doing a two way ANOVA?
A) The groups must have not equal number of samples
B) The Samples must not be independent
C) The population variances must not be equal
D) The population must be close to a normal distribution

112. The field of study focusing on identifying and understanding molecular-level interaction
between nutrients and other dietary bioactives with the genome.
A) Genetically Modified Foods B) Nutrigenomeics
C) Entomology D) Molecular Biology

113. A …….. is most commonly applied when the test statistic would follow a normal
distribution if the value of a scaling term in the test statistic were known.
A) ANOVA B) Student ‘t’ test C) Regression D) Chi square

114. A ………… is done when the study variables involves observation and analysis of more
than one statistical outcome variable at a time.
A) Regression B) Chi Square
C) Correlation D) Multivariate analysis

115. MOOCS refers to………..
A) Moodle analysis using Computer Softwares
B) Massive Online Open Courses
C) Massive Open Online Courses
D) Mobile Oriented Online Course System

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116. “Play represents not merely wish-fulfilling tendencies but also mastery ,an attempt through
repetition to cope with overwhelming anxiety-provoking situations. Play is defensive as
well as adaptive in dealing with anxiety”. This theory of Play is known as …………..
A) Cognitive theory B) Psycho analytical theory
C) Recapitulation theory D) Relaxation theory
117. A therapeutic approach that uses literature to support good mental health, and is a versatile
and cost-effective treatment option often adapted or used to supplement other types of
therapy.
A) Play therapy B) Music therapy
C) Biblio therapy D) Horticulture therapy

118. An example for low calorie food is ………….
A) Celery B) pulses C) Rice D) Fish

119. Thermostabilised foods are examples for…….
A) Zero calorie B) Low Glycemic index
C) Space foods D) High calorie foods

120. Indigo is an example for ………..dye.
A) Vat B) Disperse C) Reactive D) Direct dye

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