COMEDK 2021 Question Paper

COMEDK
QUESTION
PAPER 2021

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Mathematics

Q1. If then C divides in
the ratio :

A. 1 : 4 internally
B. 4 : 1 externally
C. 1 : 4 externally
D. 4 : 1 internally

Q2. A unit vector perpendicular to the planes containing the vectors 𝑖̂ − 𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ and –
−𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ is

1
A. ± (𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂)
√2
B. ±2(𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂)
C. ±(𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ − 𝑘̂ )
(𝑖̂+𝑗̂ )
D. ± 2 2
√

Q3. At a certain university 4% of male students are over 6 feet tall and 1% of female
students are over 6 feet tall. The total student population is divided in the ratio 3 : 2, in
favor of female students. If a student is selected at random from amongst all those over 6
feet tall, what is the probability that the student is a female?

A. 1/3
B. 2/5
C. 3/11
D. 3/5

Q4. If 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑒 −|𝑥−1| , 𝑥𝜖 (1, ∞) then f(x) is

A. continuous but not differentiable
B. continuous and differentiable
C. not continuous but differentiable
D. not continuous and not differentiable

Q5. An urn contains 5 red and 5 black coloured balls. A ball is picked at random, its
colour noted and then is put back into the urn. Now, additional two balls of the same
colour are put into the urn and then a ball is drawn at random . What is the probability
that the ball now chosen is red.

A. 7/24
B. 1/2
C. 5/8
D. 2/3

2𝑥+1
Q6. The solution set of the inequality 2
+ 2(3 − 𝑥) ≥ 7, 𝑥𝜖 𝑅, is

1
A. [− , ∞)
2
1
B. (−∞, − 2]
C. [−2, ∞)
1
D. (−∞, 2]

Q7. If A and B are two events of a sample space S such that P(A) = 0.2, P(B) = 0.6 and
𝑃(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) = 0.3,then P(A’|B’) =
A. 0.8
B. 0.5
C. 0.7
D. 0.3

Q8. The differential equation x dx + y dy = x dy - y dx has solution

𝑦
A. 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = 2𝑘 𝑡𝑎𝑛−1 𝑥
−1 𝑦
B. 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = 𝑘𝑒 2𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝑥
𝑦
C. 𝑙𝑜𝑔 (𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 ) = 2𝑡𝑎𝑛−1 𝑥 + 𝑐
𝑦
D.𝑙𝑜𝑔 (𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 ) = 𝑡𝑎𝑛−1 𝑥 +c

Q9. The perimeter of a sector of a circle is equal to half the perimeter of the circle. The
circular measure of the angle of the sector is

A. 𝜋 − 2
B. 2(𝜋 − 1)
C. 𝜋/2
D.𝜋 + 2

Q10. Point Q is the image of the point P(4, -1) on the line that is the bisector of the first
quadrant. The length of PQ is

A. 5√2
B. 3√2
C. 5
D.5/√2

𝑑𝑦
Q11. The general solution of 𝑥 + 𝑦 𝑑𝑥 = 𝑠𝑒𝑐(𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 ) is

A. 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = 2𝑥 + 𝑐
B. −𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = 𝑥/2 + 𝑐
C. 𝑠𝑖𝑛 ( 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 ) = 2𝑥 + 𝑐
D.−𝑠𝑖𝑛( 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 ) = 2𝑥 + 𝑐

Q12. If a= 𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ ,b=2𝑗̂ − 𝑘̂ and r×a = b×a, r×b = a×b, then a unit vector in the direction of r
is?

1
A. (𝑖̂ − 𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ )
√3
1
B. 11 (𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ − 𝑘̂ )
√
1
C. (𝑖̂ − 𝑗̂ − 𝑘̂ )
√3
1
D. 11 (3𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ − 𝑘̂ )
√

1
Q13. If A={(𝑥, 𝑦)|𝑦 = 𝑥 , 𝑥 ≠ 0, 𝑥, 𝑦𝜖𝑅}, B={(𝑥, 𝑦)|𝑦 = −𝑥, 𝑥, 𝑦𝜖𝑅}, then

A. 𝐴 ∪ 𝐵 = 𝐴
B. 𝐴 ∩ 𝐵 = 𝛷
C. 𝐴 ∩ 𝐵 = 𝐵
D.𝐴 ∩ 𝐵 = 𝐴

Q14. The value of 𝑖̂ ∗ (𝑗̂ ∗ 𝑘̂ ) + 𝑗̂ ∗ (𝑘̂ ∗ 𝑖̂) + 𝑘̂ ∗ (𝑗̂ ∗ 𝑖̂) is

A. -1
B. 3
C. 1
D.0

Q15. If the lines ax+2y+1=0, bx+3y+1=0 and cx+4y+1=0 are concurrent, then which of the
following relationships are correct?

A. 2b=a+c
B. b=a+c
C. 𝑏 2 = 𝑎𝑐
D. a+b+c = 0

Q16. .If f(x) is continuous then a
=

A. -4
B. 2
C. -2
D. 4

𝜋
Q17. The absolute Maxima and Minima values of the function𝑓(𝑥) = −4𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 + 2𝑥 𝑖𝑛 [0, ]
2
are respectively.

A. 0,𝜋 − 4

B. 0,𝜋/3
C. 1,0
D.0,2𝜋/3-2 √3

Correct Option : D

Q18. If 𝑦 = √𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 + 𝑦, then dy/dx=

𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑥
A. 2𝑦−1
𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑥
B. 1−2𝑦
2𝑦−1
C. 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥
1−2𝑦
D.
𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑥

Q19. If and 𝐴4 = 2𝜆 𝐴, then 𝜆 =

A. 4
B. 5
C. 3
D. 8

Q20. If then A+2A’=

A. -A’
B. -2A’
C. A’
D. 0

Q21. If f : [3, ∞) → 𝑅 is a function defined by 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 + 6, then the range of f is

A. R
B. (9, ∞)
C. [9, ∞)

D. [6, ∞)

Q22.

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q23. The equation of the plane passing through the intersection of planes given by
2x+y+z=7 and x+3y+4z+5=0 and passing through the points (1,0,1) is

A. 8x-y-3z-5=0
B. 8x-y-3z-45=0
C. 12𝑥 + 11𝑦 + 13𝑧 − 25 = 0
D. 9x+17y+22z+11=0

Q24. In a 𝛥𝐴𝐵𝐶, ∠B=900 , and a + b = 4, The area of the triangle is maximum when ∠C=

A. 𝜋/5
B. 𝜋/6
C. 𝜋/3
D. 𝜋/4

Q25. The equation of two diameters of a circle are x+ y - 6 =0 and x + 2y - 4 = 0 and its
radius is 10 units. The equation of the circle is

A. 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 16𝑥 + 4𝑦 − 32 = 0
B. 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 − 4𝑥 − 16𝑦 + 32 = 0
C. 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 16𝑥 − 4𝑦 − 32 = 0
D. 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 4𝑥 + 16𝑦 − 32 = 0

Q26.

A. {1,2}
B. {2}
C. {0}
D. {1}

Q27. If one root of the equation 𝑥 2 + (2𝑚 + 1)𝑥 + (𝑚2 + 2) = 0 is twice the other, the value
of m is

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. -4

Q28. If A and B be independent events with P(A)=¼ and 𝑃(𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) = 2𝑃(𝐵) − 𝑃(𝐴) then
P(B) =

A. 2/5
B. 1/4
C. 3/5
D. 2/3

Q29.

A. x + c
B. 3/2 sin 2x + c
C. -3/2 cos2x + c
D. 0

Q30. Given 𝑣, 𝑢, 𝑤 such that |𝑢| = 1, | 𝑣| = 2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 | 𝑤| = 3. If projection of 𝑣 along 𝑢 is equal
to that of 𝑤 𝑎𝑙𝑜𝑛𝑔 𝑢, and 𝑣 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑤 are perpendicular to each other, then | 𝑢 − 𝑣 + 𝑤| =

A. √14
B. 14
C.√6
D. 6

Q31.

A. 0
B. ½
C. 1/3
D. i

Q32.

A. -1/5
B. 1/2
C. -1/10
D. 1/10

Q33. The distance of the point (2,3,4) from the plane 𝑟. (3𝑖̂ − 6𝑗̂ + 2𝑘̂ = 11 is

A. 7
B. 1
C. 6
D. 5

Q34. The number of ways to divide16 different objects into 3 boxes A, B and C such that
B gets 1 more than A, and C gets 2 more than B is

16!
A. 4!.5!.7!
16!
B.
4.5.7
C. 16! 4! 5! 7!
D. 16! -4! 5! 7!

𝑏
Q35. If f(a + b -x) = f(x) then ∫𝑎 𝑥𝑓(𝑥)𝑑𝑥 =
𝑏
A. ∫𝑎 𝑥𝑓(𝑥)𝑑𝑥 =
(𝑎+𝑏) 𝑏
B. 2 ∫𝑎 𝑥𝑓(𝑥)𝑑𝑥 =
𝑏
C. (𝑎 + 𝑏) ∫𝑎 𝑥𝑓(𝑥)𝑑𝑥 =
(𝑎+𝑏−𝑥) 𝑏
D. 2
∫𝑎 𝑥𝑓(𝑥)𝑑𝑥 =

Q36. The line x/2+y/3= 1, touches the curve 𝑦 = 3𝑒 −𝑥/2 at that point

3
A. (1, 𝑒)
√
B. (-2, 3e)
C. (0,3)
D. (2,3/e)

Q37.

78
A.
6
58
B. 6
8
C. 6
D. 67

Q38. lies

A. on the imaginary axis
B. in the second Quadrant
C. on the real axis
D. in the first quadrant

Q39. If then k is

𝑙𝑜𝑔 2
A.
2
1
B. 𝑙𝑜𝑔 2
1
C. 2𝑙𝑜𝑔 2
D. log 2

𝑑 2 𝑦 𝑑𝑥 2
Q40. If 𝑦 = 𝑒 2𝑥 ,then 𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑦2 =

2
A.
𝑒 2𝑥
B. 1
C. -2𝑒 −2𝑥
D. -2/y

Correct Option : D

Q41. The equation of parabola with focus at (0, -2) and directrix as y = 2 is given by

A. 𝑥 2 = −4𝑦

B. 𝑦 2 = −8𝑥
C. 𝑦 2 = −8𝑥
D. 𝑥 2 = −8𝑦

Correct Option : D

Q42. The sum of the distances of any point on the curve 3𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 = 24 from its focii is

A. 2√2
B. 2√16
C. 16
D. 4√2

Correct Option : D

Q43. The number of terms in the expansion of (𝑥 + 𝑎)53 + (𝑥 − 𝑎)53 is

A. 54
B. 53
C. 27
D. 106

Q44.

A. 8 cos 2A
B. -4 cos 2A
C. -8 cos 2A
D. 4 cos 2A

Q45. If f(1)=3 and f’(1) = 4, then the value of the derivative of 𝑡𝑎𝑛−1 [𝑓(𝑥)] at x = 1 is

A. 3/17
B. 4/7
C. 2/5
D. 1/2

Q46.

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q47.

A. 5√2
√3
B. −5 2
C. 0
D. −5√2

Q48.

A.

B.

C.

D.

𝑥−1 𝑦−2 𝑧+1
Q49. If the line 𝑎
= 𝑏 = 𝑐 passes through (1, 2, -1) and (-1, 0, 1), then <a,b,c> is

A. <-1, 0, -1>
B. <1, 1, -1>
C. <-2, 2, -2>
D. <-1, -1 ,-1>

Q50. The integrating factor of the differential equation dx = dy 𝑥 ≠ 0 is

A. 𝑒 2√𝑥
√𝑥
B. 2
C. 𝑒 −2√𝑥
D. 2√𝑥

Q51. The exponential function 𝑓 ∶ 𝑅 → 𝑅 given by 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑒 𝑥 is

A. injective and surjective
B. neither injective nor surjective
C. injective but not surjective
D. surjective but not injective

Q52.The number of ways in which the letters of the word PROPORTION be arranged
without changing the relative positions of vowels and consonants is

6!4!
A. 2!2!3!
B. 10!
6!
C. 2!2!3!

10!
D. 3!2!2!

Q53. The relative R on Real numbers, defined as R = {(a, b) : a > b } is

A. reflexive and symmetric but not transitive
B. transitive and symmetric but not reflexive
C. transitive but neither reflexive nor symmetric
D. equivalence relation

Q54. If the straight lines, given in parametric form,

with s and t as parameters, are coplanar, then 𝜆 is

A. 2
B. 1/2
C. -1/2
D. -2

Correct Option : D

Q55. , then f’(x) at x = e is

A. infinite
B. 1/2e
C. 0
D. 1/e

Q56. A box contains 5 white and an unknown number x of red balls. Two balls are drawn
at random. If the probability that both are white is 5/14, then x =

A. 9
B. 12
C. 1
D. 3

Correct Option : D

Q57. The number of all natural numbers less than 1000, which have none of their digits
repeated is

A. 819
B. 738
C. 504
D. 648

Q58. The curve 𝑦 − 𝑒 𝑥𝑦 + 𝑥 = 0 has a vertical tangent at the point

A. (e, 0)
B. (1, 1)
C. (1, 0)
D. (0, 1)

Q59. The sum of the first nine terms of the series is

A. 96
B. 192
C. 196
D. 142

Q60. If A is a square matrix of order 3 such that the
|adj A| =

A. 4
B. -4
C. -8
D. -2

Physics

Q1. If the nuclear radius of an element of 𝑥 216 is 7.8 ∗ 10−15 𝑚, then the nuclear radius of
elements 𝑌 27 is

A. 1.416 ∗ 10−15 𝑚
B. 14.16 ∗ 10−15 𝑚
C. 3.9 ∗ 10−15 𝑚
D. 0.39 ∗ 10−15 𝑚

Q2. For visible LEDS, the semiconductor used must have a minimum energy band gap

A. 1.8 ev
B. 1.5 ev
C. 1.0 ev
D. 0.5 ev

Q3. What is the barometric height of a liquid of density 3.4 gm/𝑐𝑚3 at a place where
mercury is 72 cm. ( given 13. 6 gm/𝑐𝑚3 = density of Mercury)

A. 144 cm
B. 288 cm
C. 18 cm
D. 72 cm

Q4. When a mass 5 kg is suspended from a string its length is 𝑙1 . If a mass of 7 kg is
suspended its length is 𝑙2 . Length L when a mass of 11 kg is suspended from it will be
(Tak eg = 10 m/𝑠 2 )

A. 3𝑙2 − 2𝑙1
B. 2𝑙2 − 3𝑙1
C. 4(2𝑙1 + 𝑙2 )
D. 𝑙2 + 𝑙1

Q5. Which of the following is a Conductor?

A. Impure water
B. Pure water
C. Glass
D. Plastic

Q6. A double convex lens has a radius of curvature of 20 cm on either side and the
refractive index of the material is 1.5. Then it focal length is

A. 10 cm
B. 40 cm
C. 20 cm
D. -20 cm

Q7. When the load on a wire is increased slowly from 20N to 40N. The elongation
increases from 0.6mm to 1.0mm. Work done during the extension of the wire is

A. 28 ∗ 10−3 𝐽
B. 7 ∗ 10−3 𝐽
C. 14 ∗ 10−3 𝐽
D. 41 ∗ 10−3 𝐽

Q8. Assume the diode D is ideal, the output voltage waveform across 𝑅1 is 𝑉0 , then 𝑉0 is

A. 10 V
B. 14.1 V
C. 10/2 V
D. 5 V

Q9. 2 cells A and B are connected as shown in the figure. Each cell has an emf of 9 V, the
internal resistance of cell A and B are 6 ohm and 2 ohms respectively. For what value of
R will the potential difference V across cell A is Zero.

A. 8 Ω
B. 4 Ω
C. 1.5 Ω
D. 2 Ω

Q10. The first law of thermodynamics is restatement of

A. Law of conservation of momentum
B. Law of conservation of mass
C. Law of conservation of energy
D. Newton’s law of cooling

1
Q11. A simple harmonic wave is represented by 𝑦 = 5 𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝜋( − 0.05𝑥).Its wavelength
0.05
and frequency are respectively, (in metres and hertz)

A. 20, 20
B. 20, 0.05
C. 0.5, 20
D. 5, 20

Q12. In which of the following conditions work is done?

A. When force applied is Zero.
B. When force and displacement are parallel to each other
C. When force and displacement are perpendicular to each other
D. When displacement is zero.

Q13. The declination of a place is known to be 15E and the direction of compass needle
OX is as shown in the figure. Then the geographic north is represented by

A. OA
B. OD
C. OC
D. OB

Q14. In an young’s double slit experiment one slit is covered with an opaque
material.Then the change observed in the resulting interference pattern is

A. Intensity of the interference pattern decreased..
B. Interference fringes disappear
C. The width of the fringes decreases
D. Diffraction pattern replaces interference pattern

Correct Option : D

Q15. The logic gates in which
(i) The output is high only when both inputs are low
(ii)The output is low only when both inputs are high are respectively

A. NAND gate and NOR gate
B. NOR gate and NAND gate
C. NOR gate and OR gate
D. AND gate and NAND gate

Q16. If momentum is increased by 10% then the increase in the K.E. of the body is

A. 40%
B. 100%
C. 21%
D. 20%

Q17. There are two bodies of masses 10 kg and 1000 kg separated by distance of 1
meter.At what distance from the bigger body the intensity of gravitational field is Zero

A. 1/11 meter
B. 1/10 meter
C. 1/9 meter
D. 10/11 meter

Correct Option : D

Q18. Which one of the following has a negative temperature coefficient of resistance?

A. Aluminium
B. Carbon
C. Nickel
D. Lead

Q19. Which of the following diagram represents the plane wavefront after being refracted
through a prism

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q20. A 40mH coil carries a current of 1.0A. The energy stored in the coil in joules is

A. 2J
B. 0.04J
C. 0.02J
D. 4J

Q21. The change in the magnetic field intensity B at the center of the circular coil, when
the current in the coil and the number of turns in the coil are doubled

A. 2B = B’
B. B = B’
C. 4B = B’
D. B/2 = B’

Q22. Two radiations containing photons of energy twice and five times the work function
of a metal are incident successively on the metal surface. The ratio of the maximum
velocities of the emitted electrons in the two cases will be

A. 1 : 4
B. 1 : 3
C. 1 : 1
D. 1 : 2

Correct Option : D

Q23. Which of the following example represents a simple harmonic motion

A. An arrow released from a bow
B. A nitrogen molecule rotating about its centre of mass
C. A freely suspended bar magnet displaced from its North -South direction and released
D. A comet

Q24. 10 batteries are connected as shown in the circuit diagram.Each battery is 6V and
has an internal resistance of 0.2 ohm.The reading of voltmeter is

A. 30 V
B. 3 V
C. Zero
D. 6V

Q25. A ring starts from rest and acquires an angular speed of 20 rad/s in 4 seconds. The
mass of the ring is 250 g and its radius is 20 cm, the torque of the ring is

A. 0.5 Nm
B. 0.025 Nm
C. 0.25 Nm
D. 0.05 Nm

Correct Option : D

Q26. A particles moving in the straight line covers half the distance with a speed of 6
𝑚/𝑠 2 . The other half is covered in two equal time intervals with speeds of 9 m/s and 15
m/s respectively.The average speed of the particle during motion is

A. 11 m/s
B. 9.6 m/s
C. 10 m/s
D. 4.8 m/s

𝜋𝑥
Q27. A wire carrying a current I is placed in the form of a curve 𝑦 = 𝛼 𝑠𝑖𝑛 ( )0 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 2𝐿
𝐿
In the magnetic field of strength B .The force acting on the wire is

A. IBL
𝐼𝐵𝐿
B.
𝜋
C. IBL𝜋
D. 2IBL

Correct Option : D

Q28. A mass of 5 kg suspended from the end of a string is pulled through an angle of
600 to the vertical. The tension in the string is ( g = 10𝑚/𝑠 2 )

100
A.
√3
50
B.
√3

C. 100
D. 50√3

Q29. Two thin converging lenses of focal length 20 cm and 30 cm are held in contact with
each other.The power of the combination will be

A. 83.3 D
B. 0.833 D
C. 8.33 D
D. 0.0833 D

Q30. The brilliance of diamond is due to the fact that

A. Critical angle for diamond-air interface is high
B. Critical angle is high and refractive index is low
C. Critical angle is low and refractive angle is high
D. Its refractive index is low.

Correct Option : c

Q31. A series LCR circuit with inductance 0.12 H, Capacitance 480nF and resistance 23
ohms is connected to a 230 V variable frequency supply, the maximum power absorbed
by the circuit is

A. 460 W
B. 4600 W
C. 2300 W
D. 230 W

Q32. When bombarded by a certain particles, 𝛼 particles are emitted with the
resulting nucleus having a mass number 7 and atomic number 3. The particle used for
bombarded is

A. Positron
B. Neutron
C. Proton
D. Electron

Q33. A fine hole is made at the bottom of the cylinder of height 45 cm. The maximum
speed with which water can flow out of the hole is (g = 10𝑚/𝑠 2 )

A. 9 m/s
B. 0.45 m/s
C. 3 m/s
D. 1 m/s

Q34. A beam of electron is passes through crossed electric and magnetic field, E = 9.6 *
106 𝑁/𝐶 and B = 2.4 T .If the beam goes un deviated the velocity of electrons is
A. 4.0 * 106 𝑚/𝑠
B. 9.6 * 106 𝑚/𝑠
C. 2.0 * 106 𝑚/𝑠
D. 4.8 * 106 𝑚/𝑠

Q35. A thin prism gives a deviation of 1.5 . If its refractive index is 1.5 . Then the angle of
the prism is

A. 3𝑜
B. 2𝑜
C. 5𝑜
D. 1.5𝑜

Q36. Which of the following statements is FALSE in case of electrostatic force between 2
particles?

A. It is always attractive
B. It is a central force
C. It is a conservative force
D. It obeys inverse square law

Q37. Range of a projectile is maximum when angle of projection is

A. 120𝑜

B. 90𝑜
C. 60𝑜
D. 45𝑜

Correct Option : D

Q38. The temperature at which the Celsius reading is half of the Fahrenheit reading is

A. 320 F
B. 375 F
C. 273 F
D.300 F

1
Q39. The vertical components of earth magnetic field is times its horizontal component.
√3
The angle of dip at the place is

A. 15𝑜
B. 45𝑜
C. 60𝑜
D. 30𝑜

Correct Option : D

Q40. A 20 ohm electric heater is connected to a 220 V, 60 Hz mains supply. The peak
value of electric current flowing in the circuit is

A. 22 A
B. 5.5 A
C. 11 A
D. 15.55 A

Correct Option : D

Q41. The resulting intensity at a point on the screen due to the superposition of waves
from two coherent sources with intensities 𝐼1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐼2 is given by

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q42. Which one of the following is dimensionless?

A. Impulse
B. Strain
C. Planck’s Constant
D. Stress

Q43. When I ampere of current flows through two infinitely long straight conductor of
negligible cross section area, separated by 1 meter then each conductor experiences a
force of

A. 4 ∗ 10−7 𝑁/𝑀
B. 2𝜋 ∗ 10−7 𝑁/𝑀
C. 4𝜋 ∗ 10−7 𝑁/𝑀
D. 2 ∗ 10−7 𝑁/𝑀

Correct Option : D

Q44. The radiations used in treatment of muscles ache are

A. Microwave
B. Ultraviolet
C. Infrared
D. X-rays

Q45. A top of moment of inertia I spins with an angular velocity of 40 rad/s, if the angular
velocity changes to half of it s original value the new moment of inertia is

A. I/3
B. 2I
C. I/2
D. 3I

Q46. A ball of mass 4 kg is dropped from a height of 25 m and rises to a height of 4m
after hitting the ground. The coefficient of restitution is

A. 0.4
B. 6.2
C. 2.5
D. 100

Q47. The electromotive force induced in a 1 mH inductor in which the current changes
from 5 A and 3 A in 10−3 seconds is

A. 2 ∗ 10−6 𝑉
B. 8 V
C. 8 ∗ 10−6 𝑉
D. 2V

Correct Option : D

Q48. Two glass balls of radii r and 3r are dropped in air. If the terminal velocity of the ball
with radius 3r is 9 cm/s , then the terminal velocity of the ball with radius r will be

A. 3 cm/s
B. (1/9)cm/s
C. I cm/s
D. (⅓)cm/s

Q49. The threshold frequency of a material is 8 * 1014 𝐻𝑧.The work function of the material
is

A. 3.3 eV
B. 16.5 eV
C. 33 eV
D. 1.65 eV

Q50. In an induction coil, the coefficient of mutual inductance is 8H, if a current of 10A in
the primary coil is cut off in 1/1000 seconds the emf at the terminals of the secondary coil
will be

A. 20 KV
B. 0.8 KV
C. 10 KV
D. 80 KV

Correct Option : D

Q51. Given . If the vector B is added to vector A , then we get a unit
vector along the X-axis. The vector B is

A. 3𝑗̂ − 2𝑘̂
B. −3𝑗̂ + 2𝑘̂I
C. 2𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ − 2𝑘̂
D. 𝑖̂ − 3𝑗̂

Q52. In an electromagnetic wave, the electric and magnetic fields are

A. Parallel and in phase with each other
B. Perpendicular and opposite in phase
C. Parallel and opposite in phase
D. Perpendicular and in phase with each other

Correct Option : D

Q53. When two ways having slightly different frequencies 𝑛1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑛2 and comparable
amplitude are superposed, the result wave has a frequency

𝑛
A. 𝑛1
2
B. 𝑛1 − 𝑛2
C. 1 𝑛1 + 𝑛2
D. 2

Q54. A generator produces a voltage that is given by V = 200 sin 314t where t is in
seconds. The frequency and rms voltage are

A. 50 Hz, 100 V
B. 157 Hz, 141 V

C. 157 Hz, 100 V
D. 50 Hz, 141 V

Correct Option : D

Q55. Four point charges 𝑞1 3𝑛𝐶, 𝑞2 = −2𝑛𝐶, 𝑞3 = 3𝑛𝐶 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑞4 = 2𝑛𝐶 are kept at 4 corners of a
square of side 1m, the potential at the centre of the square is

A. 54 ∗ 103 𝑉
54
B. 𝑉
√2
C. 90√2𝑉
D. 54√2 𝑉

Correct Option : D

Q56. The value of I in the given circuit is

A. 12A
B. 18A
C. 20A
D. 25A

Q57. The force between 2 point charge separated by a distance l is 18 N.If the separation
is 3 times, then the force between them becomes

A. 1 N

B. 2 N
C. 6 N
D. 54 N

Q58. The ionization energy of hydrogen is 13.6 eV.The ionization energy of Lithium atom
is

A. 54.4 eV
B. 1.6 eV
C. 122.4 eV
D. 1.51 eV

Q59. Electric intensity due to an infinite plane sheet of charge q is

𝑞
A. 𝐸 = 𝜖
0
𝑞
B. 𝐸 = 𝜎𝜖
0
𝜎
C. 𝐸 =
𝜖0
𝜎
D. 𝐸 = 2𝜖
0

Correct Option : D

Q60. In an potentiometer experiment for obtaining balance point between the ends of
wire, the emf of the cell in the secondary circuit (𝐸𝑠 ) and storage cell in the primary
(𝐸𝑃 ) must be such that

𝐸
A. 𝐸𝑠 = 2
𝑝

B. 𝐸𝑝 > 𝐸𝑠
C. 𝐸𝑠 > 𝐸𝑃
D. 𝐸𝑝 = 𝐸𝑠

Chemistry

Q1. The order that is NOT in accordance with the property state against it.

A. 𝐶𝑙 > 𝐹 > 𝑆 > 𝑂 [𝐸𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑜𝑛 𝑔𝑎𝑖𝑛 𝑒𝑛𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑙𝑝𝑦]
B. 𝐹2 > 𝐶𝑙2 > 𝐵𝑟2 > 𝐼2 [𝐵𝑜𝑛𝑑 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑠𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑦]
C. 𝐻𝐼 > 𝐻𝐵𝑟 > 𝐻𝐶𝑙 > 𝐻𝐼 [𝐴𝑐𝑖𝑑𝑖𝑐 𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ]
D. 𝐹2 > 𝐶𝑙2 > 𝐵𝑟2 > 𝐼2 [𝐸𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑜𝑛𝑒𝑔𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑖𝑡𝑦]

Q2. Which one of the following compounds is NOT expected to undergo haloform
reaction?

A. ethylmethylketone
B. propan-2-ol
C. 1-phenylethanol
D. Isobutyl alcohol

Correct Option : D

Q3. Identify the ion which is most effective in causing Coagulation of 𝐴𝑠2 𝑆3sol?

A. 𝐴𝑙 3+
B. 𝐶𝑎2−
C. 𝑆02−4
D. 𝑃𝑂3− 4

Q4. The Equilibrium constant for the decomposition of 𝑁𝑜2 gas at 200𝑜 𝐶 to give 2 moles
of NO gas and 1 mole of 𝑂2 gas is 2.0 ∗ 10−6 . What would be the Equilibrium constant
value when 4 moles of NO gas combine with 2 moles of 𝑂2 gas to yield 𝑁𝑂2 gas as the
product?

A. 5 ∗ 105
B. 8.6 ∗ 1012
C. 2.5 ∗ 1011
D. 2.0 ∗ 106

Q5. The orbit of 𝐵𝑒 3+that has the same orbital radius as that of ground state of hydrogen
atom is:

A. 2
B. 3
C. 𝑆1
D. 4

Q6. Which of the following coordination compound is named INCORRECTLY based on
IUPAC system of nomenclature?

A. 𝑁𝑎3 [𝐶𝑜(𝑂𝑁𝑂)6 ] sodium hexanitritocobaltate (III)
B. 𝐾4 [𝑀𝑛(𝐶𝑁06 ] 𝑝𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑠𝑠𝑖𝑢𝑚 ℎ𝑒𝑥𝑎𝑐𝑦𝑎𝑛𝑜𝑚𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑡𝑒 (𝐼𝐼)
C. 𝐶𝑠[𝐹𝑒𝐶𝑙4 ] caesium tetrachloroferrate (III)
D. [𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑁)6 ]3− hexacyanitroferrate (III) ion

Correct Option : D

Q7. Identify the 2 reagents to be used to bring out the following reactions.

A. (I) alcoholic KOH (II) 𝑃𝐶𝑙3
B. (I) Zn/Hg.Conc.HCL (II)𝐶𝑙2 /ℎ𝛾
C. (I) aqueous KOH (II)𝐹𝑒𝐶𝑙3 /𝐶𝑙2
D. (I)𝐿𝑖𝐴𝑙𝐻4 /𝐸𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑟 (II)𝑃𝐶𝑙5

Correct Option : D

Q8. The mole fraction of the solute in a dilute aqueous solution of glucose with a vapour
pressure of 750 mm at 373 K is :

A. 1/35
B. 1/76
C. 1/25
D. 1/80

Q9. Choose the INCORRECT statement from the following.

A. 𝐵𝑒𝐻2 has covalent polymeric structure
B. 𝐻2 𝑆 is an electron precise hydride
C. Heavy water is used as a moderator in nuclear reactors
D. NaB𝐻4 is used as reducing agent in organic synthesis

Q10. What are the products formed when Anisole is reacted with Hydroiodic acid and
heated?

A. Iodobenzene + Methane
B. Phenol + Methanol
C. Phenol + Iodomethane
D. Iodobenzene + Methanol

Q11. Lanthanides are a group of 14 elements which are metals. Identify the correct
statement from among the 4 statements given below:

A. Shielding power of 4f electrons is quite strong.
B. As a result of Lanthanide contraction, the elements of the second and third transition series
resemble each other in their chemical properties.
C. Due to Lanthanide contraction, the size of Lanthanoid ions increases regularly with increase
in atomic number.
D. It is very easy to separate the Lanthanide elements from each other and obtain them in the
pure state.l

Q12. Given below are 4 cyclic structures of monosaccharides. From among them identify
the Anomer of 𝛼 − 𝐷 − (+) − 𝐺𝑙𝑦𝑐𝑜𝑝𝑦𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑜𝑠𝑒.

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q13. In the following sequence of reactions, what is “R”?

A. 3-aminobenzoic acid
B. 3-bromobenzamide
C. 3-bromobenzenesulphonamide
D. 3-bromoaniline

Correct Option : D

Q14. .Bond enthalpies N≡N, N=N, O=O and N=0 are 946, 418,
−1
498 and 607 KJ𝑚𝑜𝑙 respectively. The resonance energy of 𝑁2 𝑂 is

A. -90 KJ𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1
B. 82 KJ𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 l
C. 170 KJ𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1
D. -82 KJ𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1

Q15. Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of the Oxidation numbers
of Carbons atoms present in the 4 compounds.
𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐻, 𝐶𝐻2 𝑂, 𝐶2 𝐻6, 𝐻𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻

A. 𝐶2 𝐻6 < 𝐶𝐻2 𝑂 < 𝐻𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 < 𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐻
B. 𝐶𝐻2 𝑂 < 𝐶2 𝐻6 < 𝐻𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 < 𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐻
C. 𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐻 < 𝐶2 𝐻6 < 𝐶𝐻2 𝑂 < 𝐻𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻
D. 𝐶2 𝐻6 < 𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐻 < 𝐶𝐻2 𝑂 < 𝐻𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻

Correct Option : D

Q16. Which one of the following graphs correctly represents Freundlich Adsorption
Isotherm?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q17. A stone having a mass of 40g when catapulted had a speed of 30 m/s. If its speed
can be measured with an accuracy of 4%, what would be the uncertainty nin measuring
its position? ℎ = 6.625 ∗ 10−34 𝑘𝑔𝑚2 /𝑠

A. 1.099 ∗ 10−33 𝑚
B. 3.01 ∗ 10−30 𝑚
C. 2.198 ∗ 10−33 𝑚
D. 2.863 ∗ 10−31 𝑚

Q18. Which one of the following does NOT correctly represent the correct order of the
property stated against it?

A. 𝑇𝑖 < 𝑉 < 𝐶𝑟 < 𝑀𝑛 [Oxidation State]
B. 𝑇𝑖 < 𝑉 < 𝑀𝑛 < 𝐶𝑟 [ Second Ionisation Enthalpy]
C. 𝐶𝑂2+ < 𝐹𝑒 2+ < 𝑀𝑛2+ < 𝐶𝑟 2+ [Ionic Size]
D. 𝑇𝑖 2+ < 𝑉 2+ < 𝑀𝑛2+ < 𝑁𝑖 2+ [Paramagnetic Behaviour]

Correct Option : D

Q19. Consider the following reaction

The final product “Y” is

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q20. Arrange the following in the correct order of 𝑆𝑁 𝐼 reactivity.
1-bromobutane(I) 2-bromobutane(II) 3-bromobut-1-ene(III)

A. (III) > (I) > (II)
B. (III) > (II) > (I)
C. (I) > (III) > (II)
D. (II) > (III) > (I)

Q21. When Acetylene is passed through a red hot Copper tube it forms an aromatic
hydrocarbon “X”. X on reaction with 𝐵𝑟2 in the dark but in presence of Lewis acid 𝐹𝑒𝐵𝑟3
gives “Y”. Compound Y on reaction with Sodium metal in dry ether gives a Hydrocarbon,
“Z”. Identify the compound “Z”.

A. p-Xylene
B. Toluene
C. Diphenyl
D. o-Xylene

Q22. The elements within a group of the Periodic table show similar chemical properties.
Which one of the following statements is not the reason for Lithium showing behavior
which is different when compared to that of the other members of the group.

A. Non-availability of d orbitals.
B. High Ionisation enthalpy and Electronegativity.
C. Low polarizing power of its cation
D. Small size of its atom and ion.

Q23. The graph given represents the variation in first Ionization enthalpy with change in
Z value of Group 1 elements of the Periodic table represented as P, Q, R, S and T (not the
actual symbols of the elements). Identify the actual Group 1 element which has minimum
𝐼𝐸1 value.

A. Rb
B. Na
C. K
D. Cs

Correct Option : D

Q24. The unit of K (rate constant) for a third order reaction is:

𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑟𝑒
A. (𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒)−3 𝑠𝑒𝑐.
𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒
B. ( 𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑟𝑒 )−3 𝑠𝑒𝑐
𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑟𝑒
C. (𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒) 𝑠𝑒𝑐
𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑟𝑒 −2
D. ( ) 𝑠𝑒𝑐 −1
𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒

Correct Option : D

Q25. The freezing point of a solution containing 50𝑐𝑚3 of ethylene glycol in 50 g water is
found to be −340C. If the solution shows ideal behaviour, what is the mass of Ethylene
glycol added? 𝐾𝑓 of water is 1.86 K/m. MM of Ethylene glycol = 62 amu.

A. 88.2 g
B. 56.67 g
C. 44.2 g
D. 30.69 g.

Q26. The standard reduction potential of 𝑃𝑏 2+ /𝑃𝑏 𝑖𝑠 − 0.13 𝑉. The reduction potential at
pH=14 for the above electrode is :[ Given : 𝐾𝑠𝑝 of 𝑃𝑏(𝑂𝐻)2 𝑖𝑠 1 ∗ 1015]

A. -0.42 V
B. -0.22 V
C. -0.31 V
D. -0.59 V.

Correct Option : D

Q27. For a reaction X + Y —> Products, when [X] is kept constant and [Y] is doubled, the
rate becomes doubled and keeping [Y] constant, when [X] is doubled, the rate becomes
four times. The order of the reaction is:

A. 1
B. 3
C. 0
D. 2

Q28. The non-aromatic compound among the following is:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q29. Identify the INCORRECT method for the preparation of benzaldehyde from the
following

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Option : D

Q30. The degree of dissociation of 0.5 M 𝑁𝐻3 at 250 𝐶 in a solution of pH = 12.

A. 12%
B. 1%
C. 4%
D. 2%

Correct Option : D

Q31. The number of atoms in 100 g of an fcc crystal having a density of 10 𝑔/𝑐𝑚3 and
edge length 200 pm is :

A. 5 ∗ 1024
B. 5 ∗ 1023
C. 6 ∗ 1024
D. 6 ∗ 1024

Q32. Which one of the following reactions listed below cannot be used to prepare
Aniline?

A. Chlorobenzene with Ammonia (473K, 60 atm, 𝐶𝑢2 𝑂)
B.Benzamide reacted with 𝐵𝑟2 /𝐾𝑂𝐻
C. Nitrobenzene reacts with Fe/Hcl
D. Potassium phthalimide heated with Chlorobenzene

Correct Option : D

Q33. Arrange the given Hydrides in increasing order of their reducing character.
𝑆𝑏𝐻3 , 𝑁𝐻3 , 𝐴𝑠𝐻3 , 𝑃𝐻3

A. 𝑆𝑏𝐻3 < 𝐴𝑠𝐻3 < 𝑃𝐻3 < 𝑁𝐻3
B. 𝐴𝑠𝐻3 < 𝑃𝐻3 < 𝑆𝑏𝐻3 < 𝑁𝐻3
C. 𝑁𝐻3 < 𝑃𝐻3 < 𝐴𝑠𝐻3 < 𝑆𝑏𝐻3
D. 𝑃𝐻3 < 𝑁𝐻3 < 𝐴𝑠𝐻3 < 𝑆𝑏𝐻3

Q34. Which of the following statements is NOT correct with respect to interstitial
compounds of transition metals?

A. They have comparatively low melting points than those of the pure metals.
B.They are chemically inert.
C. They retain metallic conductivity
D. They are very hard and rigid

Q35. In a given sample of air the ratio between the masses of 𝑂2 gas and 𝑁2 gas is 6 : 7.
What would be the ratio of their moles?

A. Ratio of the molecules of 𝑂2 :𝑁2 = 2 : 3
B. Ratio of the molecules of 𝑂2 :𝑁2 = 1 : 4
C. Ratio of the molecules of 𝑂2 :𝑁2 = 2 : 5
D. Ratio of the molecules of 𝑂2 :𝑁2 = 3 : 4

Correct Option : D
Q36. Identify the incorrect statement about Lyophilic sols from the 4 statements given
below:

A. Lyophilic sols are reversible in nature.
B. The viscosity of Lyophilic sol is much higher than that of the dispersion medium.
C. Lyophilic colloids are not easily precipitated by addition of small amounts of electrolytes.
D. Lyophilic colloids show the Tyndall effect.

Correct Option : D

Q37. Which one of the following represent the correct increasing order of atomic radii of
4 elements, given below, which belong to group 13 of the Periodic Table?
Ga, In, Al, TI

A. Al < In < Ga < TI
B. Ga < Al < In < TI
C. Al < Ga < In < TI
D. Ga < Al < TI < In

Q38. A 5L flask containing 1.6g of oxygen is heated to 900 k, when 30% of the molecules
are dissociated to atoms. The pressure of the gas at 900 K is:

A. 1.92 atm
B. 0.96 atm
C. 0.69 atm
D. 1 atm

Q39. The equation showing the decomposition of Dinitrogen pentoxide is as follows :

If the initial pressure is 250 mm and after half an hour of the reaction the total pressure of
the gaseous mixture is 296 mm, what is the average rate of the reaction ?

A. 4.04 ∗ 10−3 𝑎𝑡𝑚 𝑚𝑖𝑛−1
B. −2.02 ∗ 10−3 𝑎𝑡𝑚 𝑚𝑖𝑛−1
C. 2.19 ∗ 10−2 𝑎𝑡𝑚 𝑚𝑖𝑛−1
D. 1.09 ∗ 10−2 𝑎𝑡𝑚 𝑚𝑖𝑛−1

Q40. An Anion formed by an atom carries one unit of negative charge and has a mass
number equal to 37𝜇. If this Anion contains 11.1% more neutrons than electrons, what is
the correct number of protons, neutrons and electrons in it?

A. protons=17 electrons=18 neutrons=20
B. protons=16 electrons=16 neutrons=21
C. protons=19 electrons=19 neutrons=18
D. protons=18 electrons=18 neutrons=19

Q41.
Compound “Y” in the above mentioned reaction is :

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q42. The osmotic pressure of 0.1 M aqueous solution of Calcium nitrate, Potassium
chloride, Glucose, and Sodium phosphate are in the order……..

A. Glucose < Potassium chloride < Calcium nitrate < Sodium phosphate
B. Sodium phosphate < Calcium nitrate < Potassium chloride < Glucose
C. Potassium chloride < Glucose < Calcium nitrate < Sodium phosphate
D. Sodium phosphate < Potassium chloride < Calcium nitrate < Glucose

Q43. When Potassium permanganate plays the role of an oxidizing agent producing
the 4 compounds listed below, what would be the number of electrons transferred in
each case?
Potassium manganate, Manganese dioxide, Manganese (III) oxide, Manganese
sulphate.

A. 3, 5, 1, 2
B. 3, 4, 1, 2
C. 1, 3, 4, 5
D. 5, 3, 4, 2

Q44. An ionic solid AB crystallizes in the NaCl structure “A” atoms occupy the
corners and the face centers. “B” atoms occupy the edge centers and the body
center. If the face centered atoms along one axis are removed, the resultant
stoichiometry of the solid is:

A. 𝐴2 𝐵
B. AB
C. 𝐴4 𝐵3
D. 𝐴3 𝐵4

Correct Option : D

Q45. Which one of the following is a “High spin complex”?

A. [𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑁)6 ]3−
B. [𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑁)6 ]4−
C. [𝐹𝑒(𝐻2 𝑂)6 ]3−
D. [𝐹𝑒(𝑁𝐻3 )6 ]3−

Q46. Given below are 4 pairs of amines. In which one of the pairs does the second
amine have lower 𝑝𝐾𝑏 value than the first?

A. Aniline and Diphenylaniline
B. p-Toluidine and p-Nitroaniline
C. Aniline and p-Chloroaniline
D. Diphenylaniline and Benzylamine.

Correct Option : D

Q47. An aliphatic alcohol [X] on heating with Conc.𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 gives a compound [Y].
Compound Y when reacted with HBr and then with aqueous KOH yielded 2-
Methylpropan-2-ol. What are the compounds X and Y ?

A. X = Isobutyl alcohol Y= Methylpropene
B. X= Tertiary butyl alcohol Y= But-2-ene
C. X= Sec-butyl alcohol Y= But-2-ene
D. X= n-butyl alcohol Y= But-1-ene

Q48. Which one of the following Oxoacids of Chlorine has tetrahedral geometry?
𝐻𝑂𝐶𝑙𝑂3 , 𝐻𝑂𝐶𝑙𝑂, 𝐻𝑂𝐶𝑙𝑂2 , 𝐻𝑂𝐶𝑙

A. 𝐻𝑂𝐶𝑙𝑂3
B. 𝐻𝑂𝐶𝑙
C. 𝐻𝑂𝐶𝑙𝑂
D. 𝐻𝑂𝐶𝑙𝑂2

Q49. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding DNA?

A. Process of melting occurs when the 2 strands of DNA separate from each other on heating.
B. Thymine and Adenine are joined by three Hydrogen bonds while Cytosine and Guanine by
two Hydrogen bonds.
C. The double helical structure of DNA consists of two right handed helical polynucleotide
chains coiled around the same central axis.
D. Total amount of Purines is equal to that of Pyrimidines (ie) A+G=C+T

Q50. Arrange the following molecular species in the increasing order of their Bind
dissociation enthalpies.
𝑂2 , 𝑂+ 2 , 𝑂 − 2 , 𝑂−2 2

A. 𝑂2 < 𝑂+ 2 < 𝑂−2 2 < 𝑂− 2
B. 𝑂− 2 < 𝑂 −2 2 < 𝑂2 < 𝑂+ 2
C. 𝑂−2 2 < 𝑂− 2 < 𝑂2 < 𝑂+ 2
D. 𝑂+ 2 < 𝑂 − 2 < 𝑂−2 2 < 𝑂2

Q51. The density of a gas 4.2 𝑔𝐿−1 at 300 K and 2 bar pressure. Its density at STP is :

A. 3.0 𝑔𝐿−1
B. 3.2 𝑔𝐿−1
C. 1.8 𝑔𝐿−1
D. 2.3 𝑔𝐿−1

Correct Option : D

Q52. The Molar conductance of 0.1 M NaCl solution is 1.06 x 102 𝑜ℎ𝑚−1 𝑐𝑚2 𝑚𝑜𝑙−1 . Its
specific conductance is …….

A. 5.3 x 10−3 𝑜ℎ𝑚−1 𝑐𝑚−1 .
B.1.06 x 10−2 𝑜ℎ𝑚−1 𝑐𝑚−1 ..
C. 1.06 x 10−1 𝑜ℎ𝑚−1 𝑐𝑚−1 .
D. 1.06 x 10−3 𝑜ℎ𝑚−1 𝑐𝑚−1 .

Q53. Identify which one of the following statements correctly describes the Inductive
effect seen in Organic compounds.

A. This effect moves over the entire length of the Carbon chain.
B. It is a permanent effect which operates only in saturated compounds with polar bonds.
C. Inductive effect involves displacement of 𝜋 electrons.
D. This effect causes a slight drift of 𝜋 electrons towards the more electronegative atom.

Q54. 𝑋 + 𝑒− → 𝑋− and 𝑌 + 𝑒 − → 𝑌 − , are two half-cell reaction with their reduction
potential, values as 1.78V and 1.09 V, it follows that :

A. X is more easily oxidized than Y
B. Y is more easily oxidized than X
C. Y will be a better oxidized agent
D. X will be a better oxidizing agent.

Correct Option : D

Q55. Alkenes undergo reaction with hot acidic 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 𝑜𝑟 𝐾2 𝐶𝑟2 𝑂7 solutions. Which one
of the following Alkenes would yield a mixture of Propanoic acid and Ethanoic acid
on reaction with hot acidic 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 ?

A. 2- Methylpropene
B. But-2-ene
C. But-1-ene
D. Pent-2-ene

Correct Option : D

Q56. Identify the number of different functional groups present in the organic
compound whose structure is given.

A.

B.

C.
D.

Correct Option : D

Q57. The magnetic moment of the complex [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )5 𝐶𝑙]𝐶𝑙2 is

A. 5.92 BM
B. 3.87 BM
C. 1.73 BM
D. Zero

Correct Option : D

Q58. The mineral Spinel has the molecular formula 𝑀𝑔𝐴𝑙2 𝑂4. In the crystal lattice the
oxide ions are present in ccp pattern with 𝑀𝑔2+ ions occupying the tetrahedral voids
and 𝐴𝑙3+ ions occupying the octahedral voids. What is the percentage of octahedral
voids occupied by 𝐴𝑙3+ and the percentage of tetrahedral voids occupied by 𝑀𝑔2+
ion?

A. Percentage of voids occupied by 𝐴𝑙3+ = 50 & 𝑀𝑔2+ = 12.5
B. Percentage of voids occupied by 𝐴𝑙3+ = 25 & 𝑀𝑔2+ = 25
C. Percentage of voids occupied by 𝐴𝑙3+ = 75 & 𝑀𝑔2+ = 15.62
D. Percentage of voids occupied by 𝐴𝑙3+ = 67 & 𝑀𝑔2+ = 14.6

Q59. A pale blue gas, which is an isotope of Oxygen has a Vapour density equal to
24. It acts as a good oxidizing agent. What is the final main oxidized product formed
when this gas is reacted with moist Iodine?

A. 𝐼2 𝑂5
B. 𝐻𝐼𝑂3
C. HIO
D. None of the above

Q60. Which of the following is NOT correct?

A. 𝛼 −Keratin is insoluble in water.
B. Isoleucine is an essential amino acid
C. All naturally occurring amino acids except lysine are optically active
D. Keratin and myosin are fibrous proteins..