AP ICET 2027 Sample Paper

SAMPLE PAPER

S A M P L E Q U E S T I O N P A P E R

AP ICET 2027
Modelled on the actual exam pattern
.

QUESTIONS MAX MARKS TIME MARKING

198 198 150 Min +1 / 0

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper contains 198 multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory.

2. Each question has four options — (A), (B), (C) and (D) — of which only one is correct.

3. Each correct answer carries 1 mark; there is no negative marking.

4. Total time allowed is 150 minutes. Manage your time across all sections.

5. Use of calculators, mobile phones or any electronic device is not permitted.

6. Attempt the paper first, then check your answers against the Answer Key at the end.

Candidate Name: Roll No.: Date:

SAMPLE PAPER

AP ICET 2027
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

Questions 198 Max Marks 198 Time 150 Min Marking +1 / 0

Attempt all questions. Choose the one correct option for each.

ANALYTICAL ABILITY

1. In each of the Following questions a sequence of
numbers or letters that follow a definite pattern is given.
Each question has a blank space. This has to be filled by
the correct answer from the four given options to
complete the sequence without breaking the pattern.
Askew : Straight :: Rough : ___________

(A) Tall

(B) Smooth

(C) Tough

(D) High

2. The following each question is followed by data in the form of two statements labeled as I and II You must decide
Whether the given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions Using the data make au appropriate choice
from [1] to [4] as per the following guidelines [a] Mark choice [1] if the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question [b] Mark choice [2] if the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. [c] Mark choice [3] if the
statements I and II are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement alone is sufficient. [d] Mark [4] if both
statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question and additional data is required. Is n a prime? I. p is a
prime and p √n ->p n II. 2 | n

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

3. In each of the Following questions a sequence of
numbers or letters that follow a definite pattern is given.
Each question has a blank space. This has to be filled by
the correct answer from the four given options to
complete the sequence without breaking the pattern.
ACE: ZXV :: KID : _________

(A) PRX

(B) PRY

(C) PRZ

(D) PRW

4.  The following each question is followed by data in the form of two statements labeled as I and II You must decide
Whether the given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions Using the data make au appropriate choice
from [1] to [4] as per the following guidelines [a] Mark choice [1] if the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question [b] Mark choice [2] if the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. [c] Mark choice [3] if the
statements I and II are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement alone is sufficient. [d] Mark [4] if both

statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question and additional data is required. What is the value of
x2+8 y2-z2x y z I. x + 2y II. x > y > z

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

5. In the Following questions, pick the odd thing out. 6. Study the following Pie-chart carefully and answer the
following questions A survey is conducted on 10, 500
(A) ABEC
people of the town to find the various professionals and
(B) IDOF
percentage of female professionals amongst them
(C) UGAH Female architects, female teachers and female designers
(D) JEKI are what percent of other doctors. other engineers. and
other lawyers?

(A) 62.1%

(B) 63.5%

(C) 63.9%

(D) 64.2%

7. The following each question is followed by data in the form of two statements labeled as I and II You must decide
Whether the given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions Using the data make au appropriate choice
from [1] to [4] as per the following guidelines [a] Mark choice [1] if the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question [b] Mark choice [2] if the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. [c] Mark choice [3] if the
statements I and II are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement alone is sufficient. [d] Mark [4] if both
statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question and additional data is required. How much canvas is
required to erect a tent in the shape of a cylinder surmounted by a cone having the base radius same as that of the
cylinder? I. Height of the cylinder is 5 meters. II. Radius of the cone is 3 meters

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

8. In a group of hundred people each person speaks at 9. The following question follows a definite pattern.
least one of the languages Telugu, Kannada or Hindi, The Observe the same and fill in the blanks with suitable
number of persons speaking only Telugu is 25, only answers. 1, 4, 10, 20, 35, 56, _______________
Kannada is 15 and only Hindi is 35 . 7 persons speak
(A) 65
Telugu and Hindi only, 8 speak Telugu and Kannada only
(B) 72
and 5 speak Kannada and Hindi only. Basing on this
information answer the following questions The (C) 84

percentage of persons in the group who can speak at (D) 96
least two languages

(A) 20

(B) 35

(C) 25

(D) 30

10. If POND is coded as 16151404 then LAKE is coded as 11. In each of the Following questions a sequence of
numbers or letters that follow a definite pattern is given.
(A) 12011106
Each question has a blank space. This has to be filled by
(B) 12011104
the correct answer from the four given options to
(C) 12011105 complete the sequence without breaking the pattern. AB:
(D) 12011106 144 :: BE _________

(A) 625

(B) 121

(C) 169

(D) 196

12. In each of the Following questions a sequence of 13. In the Following questions, pick the odd thing out.
numbers or letters that follow a definite pattern is given.
(A) X
Each question has a blank space. This has to be filled by
(B) F
the correct answer from the four given options to
complete the sequence without breaking the pattern. CG: (C) W

73 :: LS : ____ (D) T

(A) 1911

(B) 1912

(C) 1812

(D) 1910

14. Study the following Pie-chart carefully and answer 15. In a certain code language if WPSLPIMFHA is coded
the following questions A survey is conducted on 10, 500 as SOLID then in that language ATEXXQIBVO is coded as
people of the town to find the various professionals and
(A) WATER
percentage of female professionals amongst them The
(B) EAGER
difference between the total number of female and other
professional of the town is (C) WIPER

(D) WIDER
(A) 1134

(B) 1164

(C) 1204

(D) 1224

16. The following each question is followed by data in the form of two statements labeled as I and II You must decide
Whether the given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions Using the data make au appropriate choice
from [1] to [4] as per the following guidelines [a] Mark choice [1] if the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question [b] Mark choice [2] if the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. [c] Mark choice [3] if the
statements I and II are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement alone is sufficient. [d] Mark [4] if both
statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question and additional data is required. How is A related to
B? I. L who has only two kids A and B, is the mother-in-law of M who is the sister-in-law of B. II. N who is the sister-in-
law of A, is the daughter-in-law of T who has only two kids A and B.

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

17. Arrange the letters from A to P as shown in the 18. Arrange the letters from A to P as shown in the
following figure. Then these letters are coded as follows: following figure. Then these letters are coded as follows:
Reflect the circle about the line J; and then about >. The Reflect the circle about the line J; and then about >. The
resulting new positions of the letters are codes of A to P resulting new positions of the letters are codes of A to P
respectively ie.. A coded as I. B coded as J. G ceded as C respectively ie.. A coded as I. B coded as J. G ceded as C
ete, Using this coding process answer the following ete, Using this coding process answer the following
questions Code for LOAD questions Which string of letters is coded as BAKE?

(A) DGIM (A) JICN

(B) DGIN (B) JICM

(C) DGIL (C) JICO

(D) DGIJ (D) JICL

19. \& x \&=5 x-7, * y · z *=(3 y)/(z) ⇒ \&(* 7 * 15 *) \&=? 20. The following question follows a definite pattern.
Observe the same and fill in the blanks with suitable
(A) 176/7
answers.
(B) 15
(A) 20
(C) 2
(B) 18 (1)/(5)
(D) 0
(C) 19 (4)/(6)

(D) 25

21. In each of the Following questions a sequence of
numbers or letters that follow a definite pattern is given.
Each question has a blank space. This has to be filled by
the correct answer from the four given options to
complete the sequence without breaking the pattern. 5 ||
3 :34 :: 6 || 3: ______________

(A) 46

(B) 47

(C) 45

(D) 44

22. The following each question is followed by data in the form of two statements labeled as I and II You must decide
Whether the given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions Using the data make au appropriate choice
from [1] to [4] as per the following guidelines [a] Mark choice [1] if the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question [b] Mark choice [2] if the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. [c] Mark choice [3] if the
statements I and II are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement alone is sufficient. [d] Mark [4] if both
statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question and additional data is required. If the arithmetic
mean of 14,20, 40, 52 and x is m then, what is the value of m? I. m/x - 5 =9 II. x m

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

23. The following question follows a definite pattern. 24. In each of the Following questions a sequence of
Observe the same and fill in the blanks with suitable numbers or letters that follow a definite pattern is given.
answers. 2, 6, 20, 42, 110, 156, Each question has a blank space. This has to be filled by
the correct answer from the four given options to
(A) 178
complete the sequence without breaking the pattern.
(B) 216
RAT: ________ :: AXE : ZCV
(C) 272
(A) IZF
(D) 344
(B) IZG

(C) IZH

(D) IZJ

25. If + means division. - means addition. x means 26. In the Following questions, pick the odd thing out.
subtraction, / means multiplication then the value of the
(A) 77
expression [{(17 x 12)- (4/2) }+ (23 -3)] / 6 is
(B) 187
(A) 1
(C) 35
(B) 2
(D) 15
(C) 3

(D) 4

27. In each of the Following questions a sequence of 28. The following question follows a definite pattern.
numbers or letters that follow a definite pattern is given. Observe the same and fill in the blanks with suitable
Each question has a blank space. This has to be filled by answers. B,C,E,G,K,M,_______
the correct answer from the four given options to
(A) O
complete the sequence without breaking the pattern.
(B) P
ACFT : ZXUQ :: _______ : VTQM
(C) Q
(A) EGJN
(D) R
(B) EUQN

(C) EFKM

(D) FHJL

29. Study the following Pie-chart carefully and answer 30. If x stands for addition , for subtraction, + for
the following questions A survey is conducted on 10, 500 division, > for multiplication.- for equal to, + for greater
people of the town to find the various professionals and than and = for less than, then which one of the following
percentage of female professionals amongst them The is true
ratio of the number of non-female architects to the
(A) 5 +2 > 2 = 10 4 x 8
number of female teachers is
(B) 5 x 2 7 ÷ 8 > 4 x 1
(A) 9:13
(C) 3 x 2 5 ÷ 15 > 2 + 4
(B) 10:17
(D) 3 x 4 > 2 - 9 + 3 3
(C) 11:20

(D) 13:18

31. The following each question is followed by data in the form of two statements labeled as I and II You must decide
Whether the given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions Using the data make au appropriate choice
from [1] to [4] as per the following guidelines [a] Mark choice [1] if the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question [b] Mark choice [2] if the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. [c] Mark choice [3] if the
statements I and II are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement alone is sufficient. [d] Mark [4] if both
statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question and additional data is required. Karuna is in which
direction with respect to Aruna? I. Yamuna is to the south of Aruna and Karuna is to the East of Padma who is to the

North of Yamuna II. Padma is to the south of Aruna.

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

32. The following each question is followed by data in the form of two statements labeled as I and II You must decide
Whether the given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions Using the data make au appropriate choice
from [1] to [4] as per the following guidelines [a] Mark choice [1] if the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question [b] Mark choice [2] if the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. [c] Mark choice [3] if the
statements I and II are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement alone is sufficient. [d] Mark [4] if both
statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question and additional data is required. The ages of Tanishk
and Sunil are in the ratio 5:6. What is the age of Sunil? I. The ages of Tanishk and Deepu are in the ratio 3:2 II. After 6
years. the ratio of the ages of Deepu and Sunil will be 6:7

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

33. The following each question is followed by data in the form of two statements labeled as I and II You must decide
Whether the given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions Using the data make au appropriate choice
from [1] to [4] as per the following guidelines [a] Mark choice [1] if the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question [b] Mark choice [2] if the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. [c] Mark choice [3] if the
statements I and II are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement alone is sufficient. [d] Mark [4] if both
statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question and additional data is required. What is the value of
a4-b4a2 b2 ? I. a + b =4 II. a - b = 2

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

34. In the Following questions, pick the odd thing out. 35. The following table gives information about the
production of wheat in million tons of 4 major states A, B,
(A) PIT
C, D from 2014 to 2018. Based on this information given
(B) SIT
in the table answer the following questions In 2017 the
(C) FIT states each of which have produced more than 20% of
(D) HIT the total production of that year is

(A) A,B,C only

(B) A,C,D only

(C) B,C,D only

(D) A,B,C,D

36. Anil left home on his cycle to his school t minutes 37. In the Following questions, pick the odd thing out.
later than the normal time with 4/3 of his usual speed
(A) 37
and arrived at school t minutes early. Next day he left
(B) 39
home t minutes earlier than the previous day and
travelled with 8/11 of his usual speed. Then he arrived (C) 42

his school. (D) 48

(A) Exactly in time

(B) t minutes late t

(C) t/10 minutes earlier

(D) 3t minutes late

38. In each of the Following questions a sequence of 39. The following question follows a definite pattern.
numbers or letters that follow a definite pattern is given. Observe the same and fill in the blanks with suitable
Each question has a blank space. This has to be filled by answers. (2)/(2), (5)/(9), (10)/(28), (17)/(65), (26)/(126)
the correct answer from the four given options to _____________
complete the sequence without breaking the pattern. 15,
(A) 29/147
35, 77, 143, 221, __________
(B) 33/179
(A) 245
(C) 35/199
(B) 256
(D) 27/217
(C) 484

(D) 323

40. A meeting is scheduled at 11.00 a.m. for which a 41. In a group of hundred people each person speaks at
person P who is away 100kms from the venue has to least one of the languages Telugu, Kannada or Hindi, The
attend. If P starts at 9.45 a.m. in a car which moves with number of persons speaking only Telugu is 25, only
a speed of 60 kmph, then P is late to the meeting by how Kannada is 15 and only Hindi is 35 . 7 persons speak
may minutes. Telugu and Hindi only, 8 speak Telugu and Kannada only
and 5 speak Kannada and Hindi only. Basing on this
(A) 5
information answer the following questions How many
(B) 15
persons in the group speak all the three languages
(C) 25
(A) 6
(D) 35
(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 5

42. Arrange the letters from A to P as shown in the
following figure. Then these letters are coded as follows:
Reflect the circle about the line J; and then about >. The
resulting new positions of the letters are codes of A to P
respectively ie.. A coded as I. B coded as J. G ceded as C
ete, Using this coding process answer the following
questions Code for CODE is

(A) KGLN

(B) KGLM

(C) KGLO

(D) KGLP

43. The following each question is followed by data in the form of two statements labeled as I and II You must decide
Whether the given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions Using the data make au appropriate choice
from [1] to [4] as per the following guidelines [a] Mark choice [1] if the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question [b] Mark choice [2] if the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. [c] Mark choice [3] if the
statements I and II are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement alone is sufficient. [d] Mark [4] if both
statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question and additional data is required. Which train did
Amar catch to go to his office? I. Amar missed his usual train scheduled at 10.25 a.m. A train comes in every 15
minutes, II. Amar could not get into the 10.40 a.m train.

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

44. The following each question is followed by data in the form of two statements labeled as I and II You must decide
Whether the given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions Using the data make au appropriate choice
from [1] to [4] as per the following guidelines [a] Mark choice [1] if the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question [b] Mark choice [2] if the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. [c] Mark choice [3] if the
statements I and II are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement alone is sufficient. [d] Mark [4] if both
statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question and additional data is required. What is the smaller
angle in the parallelogram? I. Ratio between the angles of a triangle is 3:5:4 and the largest angle of the triangle is
34° Jess than the larger angle of the parallelogram. II. The sum of the larger and smaller angle of the parallelogram is
180°

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

45. The following each question is followed by data in the form of two statements labeled as I and II You must decide
Whether the given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions Using the data make au appropriate choice
from [1] to [4] as per the following guidelines [a] Mark choice [1] if the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question [b] Mark choice [2] if the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. [c] Mark choice [3] if the
statements I and II are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement alone is sufficient. [d] Mark [4] if both
statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question and additional data is required. What is the sum of
the two positive integers a and b? I. The LCM of a and b is 52. II. One of a and b is 13.

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

46. Study the following Pie-chart carefully and answer 47. In each of the Following questions a sequence of
the following questions A survey is conducted on 10, 500 numbers or letters that follow a definite pattern is given.
people of the town to find the various professionals and Each question has a blank space. This has to be filled by
percentage of female professionals amongst them the correct answer from the four given options to
Female doctors are what percent of the female teachers complete the sequence without breaking the pattern.
in that town? Fast : Hunger :: Run : _________

(A) 20 (A) Win

(B) 25 (B) Voice

(C) 28 (C) Fatigue

(D) 35 (D) Choke

48. The day on 29th August 2008 is ?

(A) Monday

(B) Wednesday

(C) Friday

(D) Sunday

49. The following each question is followed by data in the form of two statements labeled as I and II You must decide
Whether the given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions Using the data make au appropriate choice
from [1] to [4] as per the following guidelines [a] Mark choice [1] if the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question [b] Mark choice [2] if the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. [c] Mark choice [3] if the
statements I and II are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement alone is sufficient. [d] Mark [4] if both
statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question and additional data is required. What is the slope of
the line OA? I. a = b II. b = 6 cm

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

50. The time after 5 p.m. when the two hands in a clock 51. P is mother of V. V is sister of B. A is son of B. D is
makes an angle of 60° between them for first time is brother of A. S is mother of D. G is grand daughter of P. T
has only two children V and B. Then which one of the
(A) 5. 15 (7)/(11)
following is true?
(B) 5. 16 (1)/(11)
(A) G is daughter of B
(C) 5. 16 (4)/(11)
(B) G is daughter of V
(D) 5. 17 (3)/(11)
(C) D is the son of T’s son

(D) There are 5 females and 3 males in that family

52. If GOEL is coded as HOEM, then CORE is coded as

(A) DESO

(B) DOSE

(C) EDOS

(D) SODE

53. The following each question is followed by data in the form of two statements labeled as I and II You must decide
Whether the given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions Using the data make au appropriate choice
from [1] to [4] as per the following guidelines [a] Mark choice [1] if the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the

question [b] Mark choice [2] if the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. [c] Mark choice [3] if the
statements I and II are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement alone is sufficient. [d] Mark [4] if both
statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question and additional data is required. What is the length
of the train? I. The train crosses a lamp post in 10 seconds. II. The train crosses another train standing on the platform
in 16 seconds.

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

54. Arrange the letters from A to P as shown in the 55. Arrange the letters from A to P as shown in the
following figure. Then these letters are coded as follows: following figure. Then these letters are coded as follows:
Reflect the circle about the line J; and then about >. The Reflect the circle about the line J; and then about >. The
resulting new positions of the letters are codes of A to P resulting new positions of the letters are codes of A to P
respectively ie.. A coded as I. B coded as J. G ceded as C respectively ie.. A coded as I. B coded as J. G ceded as C
ete, Using this coding process answer the following ete, Using this coding process answer the following
questions Which string of letter is coded as LION? questions Code for POEM

(A) DAGE (A) HGME

(B) DAGJ (B) HGMF

(C) DAGK (C) HGMJ

(D) DAGF (D) HGMK

56. The following each question is followed by data in the form of two statements labeled as I and II You must decide
Whether the given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions Using the data make au appropriate choice
from [1] to [4] as per the following guidelines [a] Mark choice [1] if the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question [b] Mark choice [2] if the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. [c] Mark choice [3] if the
statements I and II are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement alone is sufficient. [d] Mark [4] if both
statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question and additional data is required. What is n(A U BUC)?
I. n(A U B) II. n(C ) = 28

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

57. The following each question is followed by data in the form of two statements labeled as I and II You must decide
Whether the given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions Using the data make au appropriate choice
from [1] to [4] as per the following guidelines [a] Mark choice [1] if the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question [b] Mark choice [2] if the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. [c] Mark choice [3] if the
statements I and II are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement alone is sufficient. [d] Mark [4] if both
statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question and additional data is required. Among the five
friends P,Q, R, S, T who earns more than only the least earner among them? I. Qeams more than P and S but less than
R only. Il. P earns more than S who earns less than T.

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

58. In the Following questions, pick the odd thing out. 59. The following question follows a definite pattern.
The following question follows a definite pattern. Observe the same and fill in the blanks with suitable
Observe the same and fill in the blanks with suitable answers. 17, 37, 65, 82. 101. 145,
answers. 1, 1, 2, 8, 3, 27, 4, 64, 5 ___________
(A) 170
(A) 81 (B) 197
(B) 100 (C) 226
(C) 121 (D) 257
(D) 125

60. The following question follows a definite pattern.
Observe the same and fill in the blanks with suitable
answers. 1 (5)/(6), 2 (1)/(6), 2 (5)/(6), 3 (1)/(6), 3 (5)/(6), 4
(5)/(6) _______

(A) 5 (5)/(6)

(B) 5 (1)/(6)

(C) 6 (1)/(6)

(D) 6 (5)/(6)

61. The following each question is followed by data in the form of two statements labeled as I and II You must decide
Whether the given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions Using the data make au appropriate choice
from [1] to [4] as per the following guidelines [a] Mark choice [1] if the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question [b] Mark choice [2] if the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. [c] Mark choice [3] if the
statements I and II are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement alone is sufficient. [d] Mark [4] if both
statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question and additional data is required. What is the salary of
C in a group of A, B, C, D, E and F whose average salary is Rs. 60,000? I. Total salary of A and E is Rs. 64.500. II. Total
salary of B and F is Rs. 52.600.

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

62. The following each question is followed by data in the form of two statements labeled as I and II You must decide
Whether the given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions Using the data make au appropriate choice
from [1] to [4] as per the following guidelines [a] Mark choice [1] if the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question [b] Mark choice [2] if the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. [c] Mark choice [3] if the
statements I and II are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement alone is sufficient. [d] Mark [4] if both
statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question and additional data is required. What is the
minimum pass mark in the test? I. Anil scored 25% marks in the test and Sunil scored 288 marks which is 128 marks
more than Anil, II. Anil scored 64 marks less than the minimum pass mark.

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

63. In each of the Following questions a sequence of 64. If in a code BLINK is coded as 23952 then in that
numbers or letters that follow a definite pattern is given. code CREAK is coded as
Each question has a blank space. This has to be filled by
(A) 39512
the correct answer from the four given options to
(B) 38513
complete the sequence without breaking the pattern. C/L
: 180:27 :: E/N (C) 37514

(D) 35812
(A) 266/45

(B) 126/45

(C) 190/50

(D) 216/50

65. The following each question is followed by data in the form of two statements labeled as I and II You must decide
Whether the given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions Using the data make au appropriate choice
from [1] to [4] as per the following guidelines [a] Mark choice [1] if the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question [b] Mark choice [2] if the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. [c] Mark choice [3] if the
statements I and II are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement alone is sufficient. [d] Mark [4] if both
statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question and additional data is required. What is the 3 digit
number? I. 1/3rd of that number is 27 less than half of that number. II. One-fifth of that number is 20% of that number.

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

66. If DESIRE is coded as GIKUGF then the code word for 67. The following question follows a definite pattern.
GALORE is Observe the same and fill in the blanks with suitable
answers. 3, 9, 27, 81, 243,
(A) GTQMCI

(B) GTQNCJ (A) 486

(C) GTQNCI (B) 729

(D) GTQNCK (C) 972

(D) 693

68. The following each question is followed by data in the form of two statements labeled as I and II You must decide
Whether the given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions Using the data make au appropriate choice
from [1] to [4] as per the following guidelines [a] Mark choice [1] if the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question [b] Mark choice [2] if the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. [c] Mark choice [3] if the
statements I and II are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement alone is sufficient. [d] Mark [4] if both
statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question and additional data is required. If P,Q,R are 3 Points
on a circle, then what is ∠PQR I. ∠PQR = 60 II. PR is a diameter of the circle

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

69. The state which has registered highest growth
percentage in the production of wheat in the given period
is

(A) D

(B) C

(C) B

(D) A

70. The following each question is followed by data in the form of two statements labeled as I and II You must decide
Whether the given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions Using the data make au appropriate choice
from [1] to [4] as per the following guidelines [a] Mark choice [1] if the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question [b] Mark choice [2] if the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. [c] Mark choice [3] if the
statements I and II are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement alone is sufficient. [d] Mark [4] if both
statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question and additional data is required. Can you construct
the ABC with sides a, b and c ? I. a > b > c II. a =2, b= 6, c= 9

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

71. A, B, C, D, E. F, G, H are eight friends sitting around a 72. Study the following Pie-chart carefully and answer
circular table facing the center as follows [1] H is on the the following questions A survey is conducted on 10, 500
immediate left of A but is not a neighbor of D or E [2] F is people of the town to find the various professionals and
on the immediate right of B and G is neighbor of E [3] C is percentage of female professionals amongst them The
in between E and F Which of the following is true? ratio between the total strength of female architects and
female lawyers to that of the other doctors and other
(A) E is in between F and B
engineers is
(B) F is neighbor of G
(A) 2:3
(C) G is in between H and E
(B) 3:5
(D) H is in between A and D
(C) 1:2

(D) 5:9

73. If a clock takes 22 seconds to strike 12 how much
time will it take to strike 6?

(A) 11 sec

(B) 10 sec

(C) 9 sec

(D) 12 sec

MATHEMATICAL ABILITY

74. If two smaller sides of a rectangular sheet of 75. In a certain city 90% of the population own a
dimensions 20m X 12m are joined to form a cylinder of motorcycle 15% own a car and everybody owns a car or a
maximum volume. Then the volume of that cylinder (in motor cycle or both. What percent of the population of
cubic meters) is that city own a car but not a motor cycle?

(A) 400/π (A) 8 %

(B) 1200/π (B) 10 %

(C) 600/π (C) 12 %

(D) 800/π (D) 13 %

76. The length of a rectangular field is three times its 77. If x > x2 > x3, then a possible value of x among the
width, Inside the field there is a square shaped pond of following is
side 12 m long. If the area of the pond is 1/12 of the area
(A) -2
of the field, then the length of the field, in meters, is
(B) -1/2
(A) 24
(C) 3/4
(B) 48
(D) 1
(C) 72

(D) 96

78. The area of a trapezium is ½(a2 - b2) sq. units, where 79. Define a = b (mod m) if m divides (a-b) . Then which
a and b are lengths of the parallel sides. Then, the one is true among the following ?
distance between its parallel sides is
(A) 100 = 1(mod 7)
(A) a2 + b2 (B) 100 = 2(mod 8)
(B) 2a (C) 100 = 3(mod 8)
(C) a + b (D) 100 = 4(mod12)
(D) a - b

80. If cost price of 10 pens is equal to the selling price of 81. The ratio of the sides of a triangle whose angles are
8 pens, then the trader gets in the ratio 1:2:3 is

(A) 15% profit (A) 1:√3:2

(B) 20% profit (B) 1:2:3

(C) 25% profit (C) 2:3:4

(D) 30% profit (D) 1:√2:2

82. If a cone of maximum volume is cut from a solid 83. The number of divisors excluding 1 and itself of the
hemisphere of radius 8m. then the volume of that cone. number 8625 is
in cubic meters, is
(A) 16
(A) (128/3)π (B) 14
(B) (256/3)π (C) 12
(C) (512/3)π (D) 13
(D) (1024/3)π

84. The mean of the numbers a, b, 8, 5, 10 is 6 and their 85. The mode of the following distribution of marks
variance is 6.80. Then the difference between a and b is obtained by a group of students is Approximately

(A) 1 (A) 44.7

(B) 3 (B) 45.9

(C) 5 (C) 46.4

(D) 4 (D) 46.7

86. If A=[arrayll 1 & -1 \\ 2 & -1 array], B=[arraycc x & 1 87. From the salary of a person 10% is paid for house
\\ y & -1 array] then (A+B)2 = A2 + B2 then (x,y) = rent. 15% of the rest of the amount was spent on
provisions and 10% of the remaining amount was spent
(A) (-2,-2)
for children’s education. After this expenditure, if he is
(B) (1.4)
left with Rs. 24786/-, then his salary in rupees is
(C) (-1,4)
(A) 18,000
(D) (1-4)
(B) 24,000

(C) 32,000

(D) 36,000

88. If p:q = 7:9. then (4p - 2q): (3p + q) = 89. Sum of all the two-digit numbers that are divisible by
4 is
(A) 1 : 2

(B) 2 : 1 (A) 1188

(C) 1 : 3 (B) 1096

(D) 3 : 1 (C) 1200

(D) 1048

90. The smallest positive integer, when increased by 9 . 91. The area of a parallelogram is 243 sq.cm. If its
is exactly divisible by 3, 4. 10, 15, 24 is altitude is 1/3 of corresponding base. then the length of
its base, in centimetres is
(A) 129

(B) 120 (A) 9

(C) 111 (B) 18

(D) 231 (C) 27

(D) 36

92. A polynomial ϕ(x) leaves remainders -1 and 3 when 93. The probability that a flight arrives on time is 0.7 and
divided by x-3 and x+J respectively. Then the remainder, the probability that a flight departs on time is 0.8. The
when that polynomial ϕ(x) is divided by x2 - 2x - 3 is probability that a flight neither arrives on time nor
departs on time is 0.15. Then the probability that flight
(A) x + 1
arrives on time and departs on time is
(B) 1 - x
(A) 0.65
(C) 2 + x
(B) 0.70
(D) 2 - x
(C) 0.75

(D) 0.85

94. If Q+ denotes the set of positive rational numbers. 95. If the angles of elevation of the top of a tower from
then the relation R=\(x, y) Q+ × Q+: y=(1)/(x)\ the top and front of a pole of Height 15m are 30° and 60°
respectively. then the height of the tower (in meters) is
(A) symmetric and reflexive

(B) not transitive but reflexive (A) 23

(C) not reflexive but symmetric (B) 22 (1)/(2)

(D) transitive but not reflexive (C) 22

(D) 24 (1)/(2)

96. √1+x3-√1-x2x2= 97. The square root of 9x2 + 4y2 + z2 + 12xy - 4yz - 6xz)
x arrow 0
is
(A) 1

(B) -1/2 (A) 3x - 2y - z

(C) 1/2 (B) 3x - 2y + z

(D) -1 (C) 3x + 3y + z

(D) 3x + 2y -z

98. Mr. A can do a piece of work in 24 days. After he had 99.  If 9x = 27y = 81, then 1/x + 1/y
worked for 4 days, B joined him and together they
(A) 3/4
completed the remaining work in § days. Then the
(B) 5/4
number of days in which B alone can complete the same
work is (C) 7/4

(D) 1/4
(A) 16

(B) 20

(C) 24

(D) 30

100. P and Q have a certain number of Mangos. P says to 101. Two persons P and Q entered into a partnership
Q: “If you give me 30 of your mangoes, I will have twice with capitals of Rs. 4 lakhs and Rs 6 lakhs respectively.
as many as left with you". Then Q replies as “If you give After 4 months they invested another 40,000 each. Then
me 10 mangoes, I will have thrice as many as left with the difference of their shares . in Rupees. in the annual
you”. Then how many mangoes P had at the beginning? profit of Rs 1,12.180 is

(A) 32 (A) 18,500

(B) 42 (B) 20,250

(C) 34 (C) 21,300

(D) 38 (D) 22,500

102. If tan θ = ¾ , then tan2 θ + sec 2θ = 103. The perimeter (in cms) of a Rhombus whose
diagonals are 9 cm and 12 cm is
(A) 9/16

(B) 7 (A) 40

(C) 6 (B) 30

(D) 7/4 (C) 32

(D) 36

104. The standard deviation of the distribution 105. If ax4 + bx3 + 2x2 + 4 is exactly divisible by x2 - x -
(approximately) is 2. then (a, b) =

(A) 2.1 (A) (½, -3/2)

(B) 2.3 (B) (3/2, 5/2)

(C) 2.6 (C) (5/2, 7/2)

(D) 2.9 (D) (-5/2, 7/2)

106. If the straight lines 5x + 3y + 7 = 0 and ax -7y +8 107. Which one of the following is a factor of x3 + 6x2 +
=0 are perpendicular, then the value of a is 11x + 6?

(A) 4 (A) x - 1

(B) 19/5 (B) x - 2

(C) 21/5 (C) x + 3

(D) 22/5 (D) x - 3

108. If the sum and product of three consecutive terms 109. The rank correlation coefficient between two
of a geometric progression are 13 and 27 respectively. characteristics X and Y of a group is found to be 0.9. If
then the middle one of the three terms is the sum of the squares of the differences in their ranks is
given to be 56, then the number of individuals in that
(A) 1
group is
(B) 2
(A) 10
(C) 3
(B) 12
(D) 4
(C) 15

(D) 18

110. If 1285 = r(mod 29) , 0 ≤ r ≤ 28, then r = 111. tan (-855°)

(A) 23 (A) 1

(B) 17 (B) -1

(C) 13 (C) 1/2

(D) 9 (D) -1/2

112. A fraction becomes 4/5 if 1 is added to both 113. The number of relations from the set {2,3,4} to the
numerator and denominator. However if 5 is subtracted set {5, 6} is
from both numerator and denominator the fraction
(A) 64
becomes 1/2, then the fraction is
(B) 62
(A) 3/8
(C) 46
(B) 8/9
(D) 63
(C) 14/11

(D) 7/9

114. Two taps A and B can fill an empty tank in 8 hours 115. The inverse of p -> q is
and 12 hours respectively. But due to leak at the bottom
(A) p arrow q
the two taps together took 1 hour 12 min more time to
(B) p arrow q
fill the tank. Then the time. in hours, in which the leak
alone can empty a full tank of water is (C) p arrow q

(D) q -> p
(A) 12

(B) 18

(C) 21

(D) 24

116. A tangent is drawn to a circle from a point 13 cm 117. If [arraycc 2 & -1 \\ 1 & 1 array][arrayl x \\ y
away from its centre. If the length of that tangent is 12 array]=[arrayl 4 \\ 5 array] then x2 + y2 =
cm, then the radius (in cms) of the circle is
(A) 11
(A) 4 (B) 12
(B) 6 (C) 22
(C) 5 (D) 13
(D) 7

118. The sum of the first 25 terms in the progression 2, 119. The 9th term in the binomial expansion of (x-(1)/(x))
5/2 , 3 ……….. is 17 is

(A) 401/2 (A) - 17 C (1)/(x)
B
(B) 200 (B) 17 C (1)/(x)
B
(C) 403/2 (C) -17 C x
8
(D) 399/2 (D) 17 C x
8

120. Tap A can fill a tank in 6 hours and another tap B 121. The ascending order of the numbers 31/2, 51/4, 71/5
can empty that full tank of water in 4 hours. If tap A is is
opened at 6 AM and after 3 hours tap B is opened, then
(A) 31/2, 51/4, 71/5
the time by which the tank will be empty is
(B) 51/4, 71/5, 31/2
(A) 1 P.M
(C) 31/2, 71/5, 51/4
(B) 2 P.M
(D) 31/2, 71/2, 71/5
(C) 3 P.M

(D) 4 P.M

122. If an amount of Rs 7380 is divided among 3 persons 123. If x=17+12 √(2)17-12 √(2) then x+(1)/(x)=?
A, B. C in the ratio 5:6:7, then the difference of the
(A) 577
amounts received by A and C. in rupees is
(B) 1154
(A) 1640
(C) 204√2
(B) 2460
(D) 1682
(C) 820

(D) 410

124. The area (in sq. units) of the triangle formed by the 125. If the positive integer 1541, 2444, 2659 leave the
points (0,0), (2, -3) and (4, 5) is same remainder when divided by a positive integer m,
then the largest value of m is
(A) 22

(B) 11 (A) 27

(C) 12 (B) 39

(D) 16 (C) 43

(D) 55

126. If x=4-√[2]7 then x3 - 12x2 + 48x - 21 = 127. (1+ θ)/( θ)+( θ)/(1+ θ)=

(A) 36 (A) 2 sin θ

(B) 50 (B) 2 cos θ

(C) 64 (C) 2 sec θ

(D) 71 (D) 0

128. A person A started a business with a capital of Rs. 129. If |2 (3)/(4)-3 (4)/(5)-4 (5)/(6)+5 (6)/(7)|=(p)/(q)
3.5 Lakhs and after few months B joined him with a where and if (p,q) =1, then p+q =
capital of 3 Lakhs. At the end of the year A and B shared
(A) 341
the profit in the ratio 2:1. Then the number of months B’s
(B) 431
capital is used in the business is
(C) 521
(A) 8
(D) 651
(B) 7

(C) 6

(D) 5

130. If two equal cubes of side 7m are joined together to 131. The ratio in which the X-axis divides the line
form a cuboid. Then the total surface area of that cuboid, segment joining the points (2, 3) and (3, -5) is
in square meters. is
(A) -2:3
(A) 49 (B) 3:2
(B) 245 (C) -3:5
(C) 490 (D) 3:5
(D) 686

132. If a person goes to his office at 3/4 of his usual 133. Let r be a rational number such that. if 2 is added to
speed, he reaches the office late by 15 minutes. If he the denominator its value is equal to 1/2 and if 5 is
goes at usual rate. then the time taken to reach his subtracted from the numerator then its value is equal to
office, in hours, is ⅓ then (1+r)/(1-r)=

(A) 3/4 (A) 37/11

(B) 5/4 (B) 17/32

(C) 1/2 (C) 15/28

(D) 1 (D) 13/24

134. A and B can complete a piece of work in 24 days 135. The equation of the straight line passing through
while B and C can complete the same work in 30 days. If the point (2,3) and perpendicular to the line x + 2y - 3 =
A works twice as much as C, then the number of days 0
required for B alone to complete the work is
(A) 2x - 2y - 1=0
(A) 40 (B) x -2y + 4 = 0
(B) 35 (C) 2x - y - 7 = 0
(C) 30 (D) 2x - 2y +2 =0
(D) 25

136. (d)/(d x)( -1((1+ x)/(1- x)))= 137. A trader marks an article 25% above its cost price.
He sells it by giving a discount of 15% If the selling price
(A) 4
of this article is Rs. 9350. then its cost price. in rupees. is
(B) 0
(A) 7800
(C) 2
(B) 8800
(D) 1
(C) 9600

(D) 9200

138. If the expansion of (x — 3x2)25 is a polynomial of n 139. A metallic solid sphere of radius 5 cm is melt and
th degree in x, then n= moulded into a long wire of radius 6 mm then the length
of the wire. in meters is
(A) 75

(B) 25 (A) 25/27

(C) 50 (B) 50/27

(D) 28 (C) 100/27

(D) 125/27

140. If 3n divides (72)9. (24)7. (48)11, then the largest 141. If the mean of the following distribution is 50, then
integral value of n is the ratio of the missing frequencies f and f is
1 2

(A) 36 (A) 6:5

(B) 24 (B) 7:5

(C) 48 (C) 7:6

(D) 78 (D) 8:5

142. If a train crosses a pole in 30 seconds and a 143. A bag contains 4 red and 5 black balls. Another bag
platform of length 100 m in 50 seconds, then the length contains 3 red and 6 black balls. One ball is drawn from
of the train, in meters, is the first bag and two balls are drawn from the second
bag at random. The probability that out of the three
(A) 50
balls. two are black and one is red is
(B) 100
(A) 5/18
(C) 150
(B) 15/54
(D) 175
(C) 77/228

(D) 25/54

144. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 15% and 145. The median of the following distribution is
its breadth is decreased by 20%. then it area
(A) 16
(A) decreases by 8% (B) 17
(B) decreases by 6% (C) 18
(C) increases by 8% (D) 17.5
(D) increases by 6%

146. In a construction company the probability that the 147. Bag B contains 4 white and 2 black balls. Bag B
1 2
workers go on strike is 0.65 and the probability that a contains 3 white and 4 black balls. A bag is drawn at
construction job will be completed on time if there is no random and a ball is chosen at random from it. Then the
strike is 0.80. If the probability that the construction job probability that the ball drawn is white, is
is completed on time even if there is strike is 0.32, then
(A) 3/14
the probability that the construction job is completed on
(B) 2/7
time is
(C) 23/42
(A) 0.208
(D) 23/41
(B) 0.488

(C) 0.288

(D) 0.512

148. The contra positive of p -> (q-> r) is

(A) (q r) arrow p

(B) (q r) arrow p

(C) (q -> r) -> p

(D) ( q r) arrow p

COMMUNICATION ABILITY

149. Read the below passage and answer the following questions Life is what you make of it. You are the author of
your own story, and as such, it is completely up to you to decide when to say ‘Yes and when to say ‘No’. Your ability to
decide wisely will contribute greatly to your ability to live a less stressful life with more time to do the things you
actually want to do, rather than doing the things you feel you are expected to do. However, it would also be
unrealistic to expect anyone to live a completely self-centred life. telling people ‘No’ to every request that will not be
to his or her own benefit. Setting healthy boundaries and creating a balance between the number of "Yeses’ and ‘No’s’
will be the key to your success and well-being. You also must set some boundaries when deciding whether to agree to
something if it goes against your moral and ethical standards. whether it is in your personal life or your professional
life. As stated by Oprah Winfrey, “when you do not set healthy boundaries for yourself, you are inviting people to
ignore your needs”. What does ‘setting healthy boundaries’ mean?

(A) leading a healthy life

(B) Using one’s discretion

(C) avoiding confrontations

(D) helping others.

150. Choose the correct answer: A: Thank God. You are 151. Choose the correct answer: He faced the music for
saved. B: I don’t know how to thank Had you not wamed failing in the examination. The underlined phrase means
me, I would have fallen over the precipice B expresses that he

(A) his gratitude to ‘A’ (A) listened to his favourite music

(B) his anger against ‘A’ (B) enjoyed himself

(C) his mercy for (C) trained himself in music

(D) anger for “A for coming near the precipice (D) experienced unpleasant consequences

152. Read the below passage and answer the following questions Life is what you make of it. You are the author of
your own story, and as such, it is completely up to you to decide when to say ‘Yes and when to say ‘No’. Your ability to
decide wisely will contribute greatly to your ability to live a less stressful life with more time to do the things you
actually want to do, rather than doing the things you feel you are expected to do. However, it would also be
unrealistic to expect anyone to live a completely self-centred life. telling people ‘No’ to every request that will not be
to his or her own benefit. Setting healthy boundaries and creating a balance between the number of "Yeses’ and ‘No’s’
will be the key to your success and well-being. You also must set some boundaries when deciding whether to agree to
something if it goes against your moral and ethical standards. whether it is in your personal life or your professional
life. As stated by Oprah Winfrey, “when you do not set healthy boundaries for yourself, you are inviting people to
ignore your needs”. What contributes to a less stressful life?

(A) Wise decisions

(B) a self-centred existence

(C) a philosophical attitude

(D) idealism

153. Fill in the blank choosing the correct word: A 154. Choose the correct meaning of the word given:
________________ person is one who readily believes others. Fallacy

(A) credible (A) creative thinking

(B) creditable (B) false reasoning

(C) credulous (C) correct policy

(D) skeptical (D) exact reasoning

155. A business that has everything needed to start it 156. Choose the correct answer: Capital invested in a
immediately is called new business in which there is an element of risk is
called
(A) an upstart

(B) a start-up (A) enterprise capital

(C) a turnkey business (B) working capital

(D) turnover of business (C) venture capital

(D) equity capital

157. Read the below passage and answer the following questions The jute industry occupies an important place in the
national economy. It is one of the major industries in the eastern region, particularly in West Bengal. Jute. the golden
fibre, meets all the standards for safe packaging in view of being a natural, renewable, biodegradable and eco-friendly
product. Globally, India is the producer and second largest exporter of jute goods and this sector supports the
livelihood of about 40 lakh farm families, and provides direct and indirect employment to 4 lakh workers. There are 77
jute mills in the country. Of these 60 are in West Bengal. 3 each in Bihar and Uttar Pradesh, 7 in Andhra Pradesh, and
one each in Assam, Orissa, Tripura and Chhattisgarh, The production of jute is concentrated in 36 districts of West
Bengal. Orissa. Bihar, Assam, Meghalaya. Tripura and Andhra Pradesh. In the 2008-09 jute season (July- June), the
production of raw jute was 90 lakh bales (180 kgs each) India is the largest ___________ of jute.

(A) exporter

(B) producer

(C) importer

(D) consumer

158. Choose the correct answer: Invoice means bill
showing goods

(A) to be purchased in future

(B) consumed in the process of production

(C) consumed in the process of transport

(D) sold for which amount is to be paid

159. Read the below passage and answer the following questions The usual goals of monetary policy are to achieve or
maintain full employment, to achieve or maintain a high rate of economic growth. and to stabilize prices and wages
Until the early 20" century. monetary policy was thought by most experts to be of little use in influencing the
economy. Inflationary trends after World War II. however. caused governments to adopt measures that reduced
inflation by restricting growth in the money supply. Monetary policy is the domain of a nation’s central bank. The
Federal Reserve System (commonly called the Fed) in the United States and the Bank of England of Great Britain are
two of the largest such “banks” in the world. Although there are some differences between them. the fundamentals of
their operations are almost identical and are useful for highlighting the various measures that can constitute
monetary policy. The Fed uses three main instruments in regulating the money supply: open market operations, the
discount rate, and reserve requirements. The first is by far the most important. By buying or selling government
securities (usually bonds), the Fed — or a central bank — affects the money supply and interest rates. If, for example.
the Fed buys government securities. it pays with a check drawn on itself. This action creates money in the form of
additional deposits from the sale of the securities by commercial banks. By adding to the cash reserves of the
commercial banks. then, the Fed enables those banks to increase their lending capacity. Consequently. the additional
demand for government bonds bids up their price and thus reduces their yield (i.e.. interest rates). The purpose of
this operation is to ease the availability of credit and to reduce interest rates. which thereby encourages businesses
to invest more and consumers to spend more. The selling of government securities by the Fed achieves the opposite
effect of contracting the money supply and increasing interest rates. Which factor promoted the governments to
adopt measures for reducing inflation?

(A) Early 20th century ideas about monetary policy

(B) Trends of inflation after World War - II

(C) Economic growth in the early 20th century.

(D) The Federal Reserve System.

160. Choose the correct answer: Identify the correct
statement:

(A) Being a tough exam, I left many questions unanswered.

(B) It being a tough exam, many questions left unanswered.

(C) It being a tough exam, I left many questions
unanswered.

(D) Being a tough exam, many questions were left
unanswered.

161. Read the below passage and answer the following questions Life is what you make of it. You are the author of
your own story, and as such, it is completely up to you to decide when to say ‘Yes and when to say ‘No’. Your ability to
decide wisely will contribute greatly to your ability to live a less stressful life with more time to do the things you
actually want to do, rather than doing the things you feel you are expected to do. However, it would also be
unrealistic to expect anyone to live a completely self-centred life. telling people ‘No’ to every request that will not be

to his or her own benefit. Setting healthy boundaries and creating a balance between the number of "Yeses’ and ‘No’s’
will be the key to your success and well-being. You also must set some boundaries when deciding whether to agree to
something if it goes against your moral and ethical standards. whether it is in your personal life or your professional
life. As stated by Oprah Winfrey, “when you do not set healthy boundaries for yourself, you are inviting people to
ignore your needs”. Life is shaped by

(A) fate

(B) destiny

(C) others

(D) oneself

162. Fill in the blank with the appropriate 163. Choose the correct answer: “He is very competent.
phrase/verb/preposition: A: Why is your friend pacing? B : But he works by fits and starts” The speaker implies that
He is waiting for a phone call like a cat on a hot tin roof. the one referred to here, works
B feels that his friend is very
(A) slowly
(A) curious (B) repeatedly
(B) angry (C) irregularly
(C) fast (D) insensitively
(D) restless

164. Fill in the blank choosing the correct word: The 165. Choose the correct answer: consensus means
Russian player ______________ all the rest.
(A) dispute
(A) rooted (B) enumeration
(B) flouted (C) consecration
(C) routed (D) agreement
(D) triumphed

166. Choose the correct answer: She ate the whole of it 167. Choose the correct meaning of the word given:
_______________?, Insipid

(A) isn’t it (A) witty

(B) didn’t she (B) dirty

(C) did she (C) tasteless

(D) hasn't she (D) stupid

168. Read the below passage and answer the following questions Life is what you make of it. You are the author of
your own story, and as such, it is completely up to you to decide when to say ‘Yes and when to say ‘No’. Your ability to
decide wisely will contribute greatly to your ability to live a less stressful life with more time to do the things you
actually want to do, rather than doing the things you feel you are expected to do. However, it would also be
unrealistic to expect anyone to live a completely self-centred life. telling people ‘No’ to every request that will not be
to his or her own benefit. Setting healthy boundaries and creating a balance between the number of "Yeses’ and ‘No’s’
will be the key to your success and well-being. You also must set some boundaries when deciding whether to agree to
something if it goes against your moral and ethical standards. whether it is in your personal life or your professional
life. As stated by Oprah Winfrey, “when you do not set healthy boundaries for yourself, you are inviting people to
ignore your needs”. What happens when one continually agrees to every request?

(A) others are happy

(B) others become more selfish

(C) it leads to self-contentment

(D) it leads to discontentment

169. Data that provides information about other data is 170. Choose the correct meaning of the word given:
called Ardour

(A) metadata (A) Passion

(B) big data (B) Hard work

(C) e-data (C) Apathy

(D) primary data (D) Difficulty

171. Choose the correct answer: The Global Financial
System suffered a major

(A) bumout

(B) Stroke

(C) meltdown

(D) kickback

172. Read the below passage and answer the following questions The usual goals of monetary policy are to achieve or
maintain full employment, to achieve or maintain a high rate of economic growth. and to stabilize prices and wages
Until the early 20" century. monetary policy was thought by most experts to be of little use in influencing the
economy. Inflationary trends after World War II. however. caused governments to adopt measures that reduced
inflation by restricting growth in the money supply. Monetary policy is the domain of a nation’s central bank. The
Federal Reserve System (commonly called the Fed) in the United States and the Bank of England of Great Britain are
two of the largest such “banks” in the world. Although there are some differences between them. the fundamentals of
their operations are almost identical and are useful for highlighting the various measures that can constitute
monetary policy. The Fed uses three main instruments in regulating the money supply: open market operations, the
discount rate, and reserve requirements. The first is by far the most important. By buying or selling government
securities (usually bonds), the Fed — or a central bank — affects the money supply and interest rates. If, for example.
the Fed buys government securities. it pays with a check drawn on itself. This action creates money in the form of
additional deposits from the sale of the securities by commercial banks. By adding to the cash reserves of the
commercial banks. then, the Fed enables those banks to increase their lending capacity. Consequently. the additional
demand for government bonds bids up their price and thus reduces their yield (i.e.. interest rates). The purpose of
this operation is to ease the availability of credit and to reduce interest rates. which thereby encourages businesses
to invest more and consumers to spend more. The selling of government securities by the Fed achieves the opposite
effect of contracting the money supply and increasing interest rates. Which of the following is NOT usually the goal of
monetary policy?

(A) To achieve or maintain high inflation.

(B) To achieve or maintain high rate of economic growth

(C) To achieve or maintain full employment,

(D) To stabilize prices and wages

173. Fill in the blank choosing the correct word:
Reproducing word for word is known as _________

(A) Verbatim

(B) verbal

(C) verbalizing

(D) verbose

174. Read the below passage and answer the following questions The usual goals of monetary policy are to achieve or
maintain full employment, to achieve or maintain a high rate of economic growth. and to stabilize prices and wages
Until the early 20" century. monetary policy was thought by most experts to be of little use in influencing the

economy. Inflationary trends after World War II. however. caused governments to adopt measures that reduced
inflation by restricting growth in the money supply. Monetary policy is the domain of a nation’s central bank. The
Federal Reserve System (commonly called the Fed) in the United States and the Bank of England of Great Britain are
two of the largest such “banks” in the world. Although there are some differences between them. the fundamentals of
their operations are almost identical and are useful for highlighting the various measures that can constitute
monetary policy. The Fed uses three main instruments in regulating the money supply: open market operations, the
discount rate, and reserve requirements. The first is by far the most important. By buying or selling government
securities (usually bonds), the Fed — or a central bank — affects the money supply and interest rates. If, for example.
the Fed buys government securities. it pays with a check drawn on itself. This action creates money in the form of
additional deposits from the sale of the securities by commercial banks. By adding to the cash reserves of the
commercial banks. then, the Fed enables those banks to increase their lending capacity. Consequently. the additional
demand for government bonds bids up their price and thus reduces their yield (i.e.. interest rates). The purpose of
this operation is to ease the availability of credit and to reduce interest rates. which thereby encourages businesses
to invest more and consumers to spend more. The selling of government securities by the Fed achieves the opposite
effect of contracting the money supply and increasing interest rates. If the Fed buys government securities, how does
it pay back?

(A) With a check drawn on government account,

(B) With a check drawn on itself.

(C) With a check drawn on public money.

(D) With an overdraft.

175. Choose the correct answer: Choose the passive 176. Choose the correct answer: To add data at the end
form for the sentence. “Tam to do this work” of an existing file is to

(A) This work has to be done by me (A) append

(B) This work should be done by me. (B) expend

(C) This work is to be done by me (C) compound

(D) I must do this work (D) depend

177. Read the below passage and answer the following questions The jute industry occupies an important place in the
national economy. It is one of the major industries in the eastern region, particularly in West Bengal. Jute. the golden
fibre, meets all the standards for safe packaging in view of being a natural, renewable, biodegradable and eco-friendly
product. Globally, India is the producer and second largest exporter of jute goods and this sector supports the
livelihood of about 40 lakh farm families, and provides direct and indirect employment to 4 lakh workers. There are 77
jute mills in the country. Of these 60 are in West Bengal. 3 each in Bihar and Uttar Pradesh, 7 in Andhra Pradesh, and
one each in Assam, Orissa, Tripura and Chhattisgarh, The production of jute is concentrated in 36 districts of West
Bengal. Orissa. Bihar, Assam, Meghalaya. Tripura and Andhra Pradesh. In the 2008-09 jute season (July- June), the
production of raw jute was 90 lakh bales (180 kgs each)

(A) Jute is also called the golden fibre.

(B) The measure of 180 kgs is called a bale.

(C) India is the largest exporter of jute.

(D) After West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh has the highest number of jute mills

178. Read the below passage and answer the following questions The usual goals of monetary policy are to achieve or
maintain full employment, to achieve or maintain a high rate of economic growth. and to stabilize prices and wages
Until the early 20" century. monetary policy was thought by most experts to be of little use in influencing the
economy. Inflationary trends after World War II. however. caused governments to adopt measures that reduced
inflation by restricting growth in the money supply. Monetary policy is the domain of a nation’s central bank. The
Federal Reserve System (commonly called the Fed) in the United States and the Bank of England of Great Britain are
two of the largest such “banks” in the world. Although there are some differences between them. the fundamentals of

their operations are almost identical and are useful for highlighting the various measures that can constitute
monetary policy. The Fed uses three main instruments in regulating the money supply: open market operations, the
discount rate, and reserve requirements. The first is by far the most important. By buying or selling government
securities (usually bonds), the Fed — or a central bank — affects the money supply and interest rates. If, for example.
the Fed buys government securities. it pays with a check drawn on itself. This action creates money in the form of
additional deposits from the sale of the securities by commercial banks. By adding to the cash reserves of the
commercial banks. then, the Fed enables those banks to increase their lending capacity. Consequently. the additional
demand for government bonds bids up their price and thus reduces their yield (i.e.. interest rates). The purpose of
this operation is to ease the availability of credit and to reduce interest rates. which thereby encourages businesses
to invest more and consumers to spend more. The selling of government securities by the Fed achieves the opposite
effect of contracting the money supply and increasing interest rates. Which of the following is not an instrument used
by the Fed in regulating money supply?

(A) Reserve requirements

(B) Discount rate

(C) Open-market operations

(D) Increasing inflation

179. Fill in the blank with the appropriate
phrase/verb/preposition: He has lost the memory of his
past, labouring under a shock. He is suffering from
___________

(A) dyslexia

(B) amnesia

(C) angina

(D) anorexia

180. Read the below passage and answer the following questions The jute industry occupies an important place in the
national economy. It is one of the major industries in the eastern region, particularly in West Bengal. Jute. the golden
fibre, meets all the standards for safe packaging in view of being a natural, renewable, biodegradable and eco-friendly
product. Globally, India is the producer and second largest exporter of jute goods and this sector supports the
livelihood of about 40 lakh farm families, and provides direct and indirect employment to 4 lakh workers. There are 77
jute mills in the country. Of these 60 are in West Bengal. 3 each in Bihar and Uttar Pradesh, 7 in Andhra Pradesh, and
one each in Assam, Orissa, Tripura and Chhattisgarh, The production of jute is concentrated in 36 districts of West
Bengal. Orissa. Bihar, Assam, Meghalaya. Tripura and Andhra Pradesh. In the 2008-09 jute season (July- June), the
production of raw jute was 90 lakh bales (180 kgs each) Which state has more than one jute mill?

(A) Orissa

(B) Chhattisgarh

(C) Tripura

(D) Uttar Pradesh

181. Choose the correct answer: ‘Start-up’ is a word that
describes a

(A) business in profits

(B) business in its infancy

(C) business in loss

(D) business at its peak

182. Read the below passage and answer the following questions Life is what you make of it. You are the author of
your own story, and as such, it is completely up to you to decide when to say ‘Yes and when to say ‘No’. Your ability to
decide wisely will contribute greatly to your ability to live a less stressful life with more time to do the things you
actually want to do, rather than doing the things you feel you are expected to do. However, it would also be
unrealistic to expect anyone to live a completely self-centred life. telling people ‘No’ to every request that will not be
to his or her own benefit. Setting healthy boundaries and creating a balance between the number of "Yeses’ and ‘No’s’
will be the key to your success and well-being. You also must set some boundaries when deciding whether to agree to
something if it goes against your moral and ethical standards. whether it is in your personal life or your professional
life. As stated by Oprah Winfrey, “when you do not set healthy boundaries for yourself, you are inviting people to
ignore your needs”. The passage does not mention ___________ as a consequence of setting boundaries.

(A) success and well being

(B) more time for ourselves

(C) less stressful life

(D) wealthy life

183. Choose the correct meaning of the word given: 184. Fill in the blank choosing the correct word: A person
Facile who talks continuously is said to be ___________

(A) arduous (A) vicarious

(B) effortless (B) licentious

(C) faceless (C) voracious

(D) laborious (D) loquacious

185. Read the below passage and answer the following questions The jute industry occupies an important place in the
national economy. It is one of the major industries in the eastern region, particularly in West Bengal. Jute. the golden
fibre, meets all the standards for safe packaging in view of being a natural, renewable, biodegradable and eco-friendly
product. Globally, India is the producer and second largest exporter of jute goods and this sector supports the
livelihood of about 40 lakh farm families, and provides direct and indirect employment to 4 lakh workers. There are 77
jute mills in the country. Of these 60 are in West Bengal. 3 each in Bihar and Uttar Pradesh, 7 in Andhra Pradesh, and
one each in Assam, Orissa, Tripura and Chhattisgarh, The production of jute is concentrated in 36 districts of West
Bengal. Orissa. Bihar, Assam, Meghalaya. Tripura and Andhra Pradesh. In the 2008-09 jute season (July- June), the
production of raw jute was 90 lakh bales (180 kgs each) According to the passage, which is NOT true about jute? June
is ________

(A) eco-friendly

(B) biodegradable

(C) expensive

(D) renewable

186. A modem is the short form for 187. Choose the correct answer: A: How is your new
principal? B : He seems to be a heavy-handed person B
(A) moderator-demonitor
implies that his principal is
(B) monitor-demonitor
(A) stem
(C) moderator-demoderator
(B) clumsy
(D) modulator-demodulator
(C) fat

(D) generous

188. Fill in the blank with the appropriate 189. Identify the device that is not considered a
phrase/verb/preposition: Raju is very studious. Every computer peripheral:
time I see him, I find him _________ books.
(A) keyboard
(A) poring out on (B) monitor
(B) poring over (C) motherboard
(C) pouring on (D) printer
(D) pouring at

190. Choose the correct answer: A: Who did he invite to 191. Fill in the blank with the appropriate
the party? B: He invited all and sundry B feels that phrase/verb/preposition: Change the following sentence
into passive voice: “Shut the door.”
(A) A invited people all of a sudden

(B) A invited everyone without any distinction (A) Let shut be the door.

(C) A invited all but one (B) Shut let be the door.

(D) A is inviting all the time (C) Let be the door shut.

(D) Let the door be shut

192. Read the below passage and answer the following questions The jute industry occupies an important place in the
national economy. It is one of the major industries in the eastern region, particularly in West Bengal. Jute. the golden
fibre, meets all the standards for safe packaging in view of being a natural, renewable, biodegradable and eco-friendly
product. Globally, India is the producer and second largest exporter of jute goods and this sector supports the
livelihood of about 40 lakh farm families, and provides direct and indirect employment to 4 lakh workers. There are 77
jute mills in the country. Of these 60 are in West Bengal. 3 each in Bihar and Uttar Pradesh, 7 in Andhra Pradesh, and
one each in Assam, Orissa, Tripura and Chhattisgarh, The production of jute is concentrated in 36 districts of West
Bengal. Orissa. Bihar, Assam, Meghalaya. Tripura and Andhra Pradesh. In the 2008-09 jute season (July- June), the
production of raw jute was 90 lakh bales (180 kgs each) Which state is not known for its production of jute?

(A) Tamil Nadu

(B) Assam

(C) West Bengal

(D) Meghalaya

193.  Choose the correct meaning of the word given: 194. Choose the correct meaning of the word given:
Argument Clairvoyance

(A) Decrease (A) voyage

(B) Increase (B) chivalry

(C) Pigment (C) foretelling

(D) Fragment (D) diligence

195. Read the below passage and answer the following questions The usual goals of monetary policy are to achieve or
maintain full employment, to achieve or maintain a high rate of economic growth. and to stabilize prices and wages
Until the early 20" century. monetary policy was thought by most experts to be of little use in influencing the
economy. Inflationary trends after World War II. however. caused governments to adopt measures that reduced
inflation by restricting growth in the money supply. Monetary policy is the domain of a nation’s central bank. The
Federal Reserve System (commonly called the Fed) in the United States and the Bank of England of Great Britain are
two of the largest such “banks” in the world. Although there are some differences between them. the fundamentals of
their operations are almost identical and are useful for highlighting the various measures that can constitute
monetary policy. The Fed uses three main instruments in regulating the money supply: open market operations, the
discount rate, and reserve requirements. The first is by far the most important. By buying or selling government
securities (usually bonds), the Fed — or a central bank — affects the money supply and interest rates. If, for example.

the Fed buys government securities. it pays with a check drawn on itself. This action creates money in the form of
additional deposits from the sale of the securities by commercial banks. By adding to the cash reserves of the
commercial banks. then, the Fed enables those banks to increase their lending capacity. Consequently. the additional
demand for government bonds bids up their price and thus reduces their yield (i.e.. interest rates). The purpose of
this operation is to ease the availability of credit and to reduce interest rates. which thereby encourages businesses
to invest more and consumers to spend more. The selling of government securities by the Fed achieves the opposite
effect of contracting the money supply and increasing interest rates. Two of the largest central banks in the world are
___________

(A) Federal Reserve System and Central Bank,

(B) The Bank of United States and the Bank of England.

(C) The Fed and the Federal Reserve System.

(D) The Fed and the Bank of England.

196. Choose the correct answer: The alarm __________ 197. Fill in the blank with the appropriate
infra-red rays which are used to detect any intruder phrase/verb/preposition: A: Why did you deceive your
enemy? B : Everything is fair in love and war B is _________
(A) detects

(B) surrounds (A) doubtful of his action

(C) emits (B) defending his action

(D) rejects (C) speaking of his love for the enemy

(D) praising both love and war

198. Choose the correct answer: The refuse created by
discarded electronic devices is generally called

(A) e-rubbish

(B) e-litter

(C) e-trash

(D) e-waste

ANSWER KEY

1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (D)

8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (A)

15. (A) 16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (D) 20. (A) 21. (C)

22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (C)

29. (C) 30. (A) 31. (C) 32. (C) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (D)

36. (D) 37. (A) 38. (D) 39. (D) 40. (C) 41. (D) 42. (B)

43. (D) 44. (A) 45. (D) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (C) 49. (A)

50. (C) 51. (C) 52. (B) 53. (D) 54. (D) 55. (A) 56. (A)

57. (D) 58. (D) 59. (B) 60. (B) 61. (D) 62. (C) 63. (A)

64. (A) 65. (A) 66. (C) 67. (B) 68. (B) 69. (A) 70. (B)

71. (C) 72. (C) 73. (B) 74. (B) 75. (B) 76. (C) 77. (C)

78. (D) 79. (D) 80. (C) 81. (A) 82. (C) 83. (B) 84. (A)

85. (B) 86. (B) 87. (D) 88. (C) 89. (A) 90. (C) 91. (C)

92. (D) 93. (A) 94. (C) 95. (B) 96. (C) 97. (D) 98. (A)

99. (B) 100. (C) 101. (C) 102. (B) 103. (B) 104. (B) 105. (D)

106. (C) 107. (C) 108. (C) 109. (C) 110. (D) 111. (A) 112. (D)

113. (A) 114. (D) 115. (A) 116. (C) 117. (D) 118. (B) 119. (D)

120. (C) 121. (C) 122. (C) 123. (B) 124. (B) 125. (C) 126. (A)

127. (C) 128. (B) 129. (B) 130. (C) 131. (D) 132. (A) 133. (A)

134. (A) 135. (A) 136. (D) 137. (B) 138. (C) 139. (D) 140. (A)

141. (C) 142. (C) 143. (D) 144. (A) 145. (B) 146. (B) 147. (C)

148. (B) 149. (B) 150. (A) 151. (D) 152. (A) 153. (C) 154. (B)

155. (C) 156. (C) 157. (B) 158. (D) 159. (B) 160. (C) 161. (D)

162. (D) 163. (C) 164. (C) 165. (D) 166. (B) 167. (C) 168. (D)

169. (A) 170. (A) 171. (C) 172. (A) 173. (A) 174. (B) 175. (C)

176. (A) 177. (C) 178. (D) 179. (B) 180. (D) 181. (B) 182. (D)

183. (B) 184. (D) 185. (C) 186. (D) 187. (A) 188. (B) 189. (C)

190. (B) 191. (D) 192. (A) 193. (B) 194. (C) 195. (D) 196. (C)

197. (B) 198. (D)