CUSAT CAT 2025 Question Paper LLM and LLM IPR

LLM
(FINAL)

1. Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions that
follow

The constitution of India is very well written. It not only defines the need
for fundamental human rights but also ensures that we do not abuse these
laws. The access to justice is one such law but in the present political
scenario, this right like other such rights has been hidden from the
marginalized section of the society. As a result, we can say that for such
classes of the society, there is no such thing as a constitution

The above paragraph says what about the Indian constitution?

(A) It is very well written
(B) Could be better
(C) It ensures everyone has basic rights
(D) The marginalized sections of the society don’t enjoy the rights
guaranteed by the constitution

2. Complete the following

First, it spins a web in the shape of a bell. Then it fixes it to plants under
the water. Next, it swims up to the top of the water and traps a tiny bubble
of air with its hairy back legs. It drags the bubble to its web. And does
this many times until its home is full of air. ………………………

(A) It prepares its web to inject a potent toxin into its prey
(B) Some spiders don’t spin a web
(C) Some spiders can even trap small birds in their webs
(D) Then it sits nice and snug in its web and feeds on tiny fish and other
water animals

3. Direction: Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word
choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word

INFIRMITY

(A) Employment

(B) Indisposition
(C) Strength
(D) Weakness

4. Direction: Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word

FEASIBLE

(A) Useful
(B) Impractical
(C) Uneven
(D) Important

5. Direction: Choose the word that gives the antonym of the words
italicized

His boorish ways amused everyone

(A) Funny
(B) Refined
(C) Friendly
(D) Eccentric

6. Choose the most appropriate phrasal verb from among the four options to
complete the sentence meaning fully

The bank may………..application to expedite a home loan

(A) turned by
(B) turned of
(C) turned down
(D) turned into

7. Direction: Which of the phrases A, B, C, D given below each sentence
should replace the phrase printed in bold to make the sentence
grammatically correct?

We had five fingersin each hand

(A) Have five fingers for
(B) had five fingers on

(C) have five fingers in
(D) have five fingers on

8. Direction: There are four parts of a sentence denoted as A, B, C and D.
Read each part of the sentence to find out whether there is any
grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error if any will be in one part
of the sentence. Ignore the error of punctuation if any. Find out sentence
in which error lies.
(A) Woman after women
(B) claimed to speak against
(C) the present political situation
(D) of Bihar in the meeting
9. Direction: Each question below consists of a word printed in capital
followed by four words/phrase number A, B, C, D. Choose the word or
phrase that is nearly the same in meaning to the word in capital letters

CANTANKEROUS

(A) Disrespectful
(B) Noisy
(C) Quarrelsome
(D) Rash

10. Direction: Select a word out of the following words which has the
opposite meaning to the following words in question

NAIVETE

(A) Originality
(B) Sensitivity
(C) Sophistication
(D) Antipathy

11. Direction: Select a word out of the following words which has the
opposite meaning to the following words in question

BOISTEROUS

(A) Calm
(B) Comfortable
(C) Good

(D) Happy

12. Direction: In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces.
Below each sentence there are four denoted by numbers A, B, C, D. Find
out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in
the same sequence to make the sentence meaning

People ……….. to work hard if you …………..certain conditions on
them

(A) decide, negotiate
(B) try, thrust
(C) plan, meager
(D) hesitate, impose

13. Direction: In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces.
Below each sentence there are four denoted by numbers A, B, C, D. Find
out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in
the same sequence to make the sentence meaning

The human mind is never……………; it advances or it …………

(A) absolute, diminishes
(B) dynamics, stops
(C) perfect, disintegrates
(D) stationary, retrogrades

14. Direction: Each of the following questions contain a small paragraph
followed by a question on it. Read paragraph and answer the question
below it.

Education should not stop when the individual should be prepared to
make a livelihood and to live in modern society. Living would be mere
existence were there not appreciation and enjoyment of the riches of art,
literature and science.

The paragraph best support the statement that true education

(A) is focused on the routine problems of life
(B) prepares one for full enjoyment of life

(C) deals chiefly with art, literature, and science
(D) is not possible for one who does not enjoy scientific literature

15. Direction: Each of the following questions contain a small paragraph
followed by a question on it. Read paragraph and answer the question
below it.

A majority of the today’s youngsters feel they are in control of their lives
and are confident about their future. They seem to understand well that in
today’s competitive world one should learn to stand on one’s own feet.

The paragraph best support the statement that

(A) Today’s youngsters are more farsighted that their ancestors about
their present and future
(B) There is a need to be competitive in today’s world
(C) Youngsters are the torch-bearers of the society
(D) Standing on once feet is very important today

Direction (Question No. 16 to 18): Read the following sentence and answer the
questions that follows.

“Cash-strapped UK universities are now ready to accept applicants from India
and China who are less meritorious than those from UK as they pay full £27000
fee for an arts degree”.

16. Which of the following can be concluded from the above statement?

(1) victory of wealth over qualities of brain
(2) UK students are not as brilliant as those from India and China
(3) Students from India and China can’t afford to pay fees of domestic
universities

(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Both (2) and (3)

17. The act of the UK Universities can be called as

(1) a wise decision to impart education to student from developing
countries
(2) a graceful social service to India and China
(3) compromise on quality of education for survival

(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Both(2) and (3)

18. Which of the following can most probably be inferred from the
statement?

(1) quality of education in India and China is inferior to that in UK
(2) wealthy and mediocre students from India and China are ready to
pay huge fees for a foreign degree
(3) the UK students are superior in intelligence to those from India and
China

(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Both(2) and (3)

19. Direction: In each of the question below four sentences are given which
are denoted by A, B, C and D. By using all the four sentences you have to
frame a meaningful para. The correct order of the sentence is your
answer. Choose from the four alternatives the one having the correct
order of the sentences.

(1) But as long as advertising achieves its objective it is effective
(2) People classify advertising as good or bad depending on how it
appeals to them
(3) In the ultimate analysis there is only effective and ineffective
advertising
(4) There is no such thing as good or bad advertising

(A) 1, 3, 2, 4
(B) 4, 2, 1, 3
(C) 1, 2, 3, 4
(D) 3, 1, 2, 4

20. Direction: In each of the question below four sentences are given which
are denoted by A, B, C and D. By using all the four sentences you have to
frame a meaningful para. The correct order of the sentence is your
answer. Choose from the four alternatives the one having the correct
order of the sentences.

(1) For democracy to succeed, the urge has to come from the people
(2) But despite democratic elections, peace will be elusive in Iraq as it
is in J & K
(3) The American leadership urged people to appreciate the great task
the US has undertaken to introduce democracy in Iraq
(4) The Iraq elections are being touted as a great democratic success

(A) 1, 3, 2, 4
(B) 3, 4, 1, 2
(C) 1, 2, 3, 4
(D) 4, 3, 2, 1

21. Which of the following sentences does not contain a noun of address?
(A) “Oh, hello, Dad.”
(B) “Come with me, Daniel.”
(C) “Coach, I thought that was you!”
(D) “Give that message to the president, please.”

22. The predicate of a sentence always contains what kind of verbs?

(A) Regular verbs
(B) Transitive verbs
(C) Finite verbs
(D) Non-finite verbs

23. In the sentence “I went to a private catholic school,” which word or
words should be capitalized?

(A) Catholic
(B) private
(C) School
(D) catholic and school

24. Which of the following passive-voice sentences does not contain an agent
of the verb?

(A) “The homework assignment was completed last Thursday.”
(B) “Frank was struck by lightning.”
(C) “Her poem will be read aloud by her teacher.”
(D) “This desk was assembled by my aunt.”

25. A person who walks on foot

(A) Aquatic
(B) Aeronaut
(C) Equestrian
(D) Pedestrian

26. A religious discourse

(A) Sanctum Sanctorum
(B) Sermon
(C) Preach
(D) Stanza

27. A collection of weapons and military equipment

(A) Creche
(B) Cache
(C) Arsenal
(D) Burrow

28. Full of criticism and mockery

(A) Cliché
(B) Screech
(C) Satire
(D) Fiesta

29. A figure of speech by which a thing is spoken of as being that which it
only resembles

(A) Metaphor
(B) Simile
(C) Personification
(D) Alliteration

30. Direction: A sentence or a part of the sentence is highlighted. Four
alternatives marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D) are given as substitutions for
the highlighted part, one of which will improve the sentence. Choose the
correct alternative

University officials says the disciplinary measures pertain to “not
following university procedures” and “providing misinformation” among
other charges

(A) said the discipline measures pertained for
(B) said the disciplinary measure pertain to
(C) said the disciplinary measures pertain to
(D) told to the disciplinary measures pertain to

31. Which among the following articles of Constitution of India abolishes the
untouchablity?

(A) Article 15
(B) Article 16
(C) Article 17
(D) Article 18

32. Who among the following is the ex-officio chairman of Indian Council of
World Affairs ?

(A) Foreign Minister
(B) President
(C) Vice President
(D) Prime Minister

33. Which of the following state does not share boundary with Myanmar?

(A) Assam
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Nagaland
(D) Manipur

34. Who is the founder of Wikipedia?

(A) Peer Schneider
(B) Byron Looper
(C) Rickard Eriksson
(D) Jimmy Wales

35. The ‘Red Data Book’ is the documentation of rare and endangered
species belonging to which of the following?

(1) Animals
(2) Plants
(3) Fungi

Select the correct option from the codes given below:

(A) Only 1
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

36. Which of the following is the most commonly used chemical for ripening
of mangoes in India?

(A) Potassium Iodide
(B) Silver Iodide
(C) Ammonium Nitrate
(D) Calcium Carbide

37. What is dry ice?

(A) solidified form of Carbon dioxide
(B) Frozen heavy water
(C) Isotope of Hydrogen
(D) Popular name of Benzene

38. Who wrote the book ‘India Wins Freedom’?

(A) AkhileshTilotia
(B) Amitav Ghosh
(C) MaulanaAbdul Kalam Azad
(D) A. B. Vajpayee

39. The ‘Pulitzer Prize’ is associated with

(A) Journalism
(B) Literature
(C) Cinema
(D) Sports

40. Liberty, equality and fraternity were the slogans of

(A) French Revolution
(B) American was of Independence
(C) Indian Freedom struggle
(D) None of the above

41. Who created E-mail?

(A) Bill Gates
(B) Jack Gallant
(C) Ray Tomlinson
(D) Jack London

42. A large group of small islands is called

(A) Island clusters
(B) Archipelago
(C) Isle
(D) Atoll

43. Who is the present National Human Rights Commission Chairman?

(A) Justice Ranganath Mishra
(B) Justice P.C Panth
(C) Justice V. Ramasubramanyam
(D) Justice B.R. Sarngi

44. Who won the Australian Open Tennis for Women in 2025?

(A) Aryana sabalenka
(B) Madison Keys
(C) Annika Penickova
(D) WakanaSonabe

45. Which University has topped in the recent “Times World’s Reputation
Ranking?

(A) MIT
(B) Stanford University
(C) Oxford University
(D) Harvard University

46. Kuchipudi originated from the state of ……………..

(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Kerala
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Karnataka

47. Capital market means

(A) Share market
(B) Cash market
(C) Commodities market
(D) All of the above

48. Which famous Indian musical artist died in December, 2024?

(A) ZakirHussain
(B) KanakRaju
(C) K. Chellapan
(D) AmanJaiswal

49. The only human organ with re-generative capacity is …………..

(A) Kidney
(B) Lungs
(C) Liver
(D) Thymus

50. Numismatics is the study of ……………..

(A) Birds
(B) Antiques
(C) Coins
(D) Numbers

Directions (Q 51- 52): Read the information given below and answer the
following questions

Pankaj, Qasif, Rajat, Supriya, Tina, Uttkarsh, Vartika, Waseem and Zoya are
sitting around a circle facing at the centre. Rajat is third to the right of Zoya
who is second to the right of Pankaj. Supriya is not an immediate neighbour of
Zoya and Rajat. Tina is third to the left of Supriya. Qasif is third to the right of
Waseem who is not an immediate neighbour of Supriya. Vartika is not a
neighbour of Zoya

51. How many people are sitting between Waseem and Supriya (counted
clockwise from Supriya)?

(A) One
(B) Four
(C) Two
(D) Three

52. Who is sitting 3rd to the right of Vartika?

(A) Tina
(B) Qasif
(C) Rajat
(D) Zoya

53. A Tiebreaker is an additional contest carried out to establish a winner
among tied contestants. Choose one situation from the options below that
best represents a Tiebreaker

(A) At halftime, the score is tied at 2-2 in a football match
(B) Serena and Maria have each secured 1 set in the game
(C) The umpire tosses a coin to decide which team will have bat first
(D) RCB and KKR each finished at 140 all out

54. If 5th January, 1991 was Saturday, then what day of the week was it on 4th
March 1992?

(A) Monday
(B) Wednesday
(C) Friday
(D) Sunday

55. John, Aries and Joseph are brothers with different ages
Given that: Aries is the oldest, Joseph is not the oldest, and John is not
the Youngest. Who is the Youngest?

(A) Aries
(B) John
(C) Joseph
(D) Cannot be determined from the given information

56. Ganesh walked 15km towards the west, and then, he turned left and
walked for 20km. Then, he moved towards the east and walked 25km,
and finally, turning left, he covered 20km. How far away he from his
starting point?

(A) 20 km
(B) 30 km
(C) 10 km
(D) None of the above

57. If 22nd April 2013 is Monday, then what was the day of the week on 22nd
April 2012?

(A) Sunday
(B) Saturday
(C) Tuesday
(D) Wednesday

2 6 13
58. The ascending arrangements of , , is
3 7 21

6 2 13
(A) , ,
7 3 21
13 2 6
(B) , ,
21 3 7
6 13 2
(C) , ,
7 21 3
2 6 13
(D) , ,
3 7 21

59. Which of the following will NOTbe a number of the series 1, 8, 27, 64,
125,…….

(A) 253
(B) 512
(C) 729
(D) 1,000

60. If ‘CERTAIN’ is coded as ‘XVIGZRM’ in a particular code language,
how will ‘MUNDANE’ be code in that language?

(A) NFMWZMX
(B) VMZWMFN
(C) NFMWZMV
(D) MIMXZMV

61. If F is the brother of A, C is the daughter of A, K is the Sister of F, and G
is the brother of C, then who is the uncle of G?

(A) F
(B) K
(C) C
(D) None of the above

62. The Income of A and B are in the ratio 3:2 and expenses are in the ration
5:3. If both save Rs. 200, then the income of A is

(A) Rs. 800
(B) Rs. 1,000
(C) Rs. 1,500
(D) Rs. 1,200

63. Arrange the following words in a logical and meaningful order.

(1) Learn
(2) College
(3) Degree
(4) Admission
(5) Assessment
(6) Class

(A) 4, 2, 1, 6, 3, 5
(B) 5, 4, 1, 2, 6, 3
(C) 2, 1, 4, 5, 6, 3
(D) 4, 2, 6, 1, 5, 3

64. Day after tomorrow is Sonali’s birthday. On the same day, next week
falls ‘Shivaratri’. Today is Monday. What will be the day after
‘Shivaratri’.?

(A) Wednesday
(B) Thursday
(C) Friday
(D) Saturday

65. Find out the next number in the following series:

1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?

(A) 37
(B) 36
(C) 38
(D) 40

66. What should come in the place of the question mark in the following
question?

ACE:CEG::MOQ: ?

(A) OQS
(B) NPR
(C) OQR
(D) NPS

67. Direction: Select the word from the given alternative, which can replace
the question mark in such a way that the third and fourth words are
related in the same way as the first and second words.

Money : Poverty :: Education: ?

(A) Illiteracy
(B) Unsuccess
(C) Knowledge
(D) Greedings

68. Direction: Select the number from the given alternatives, which can be
replace the question mark (?) in such a way that the third and fourth
numbers are related in the same way as the first and second number.

5: 36 :: 7 : ?

(A) 36
(B) 49
(C) 64
(D) 81

69. Heena is facing South. She turns right and walk 35m, then turns right
again and walk 40m more. Finally, she turns lefts and walk 35m. Which
direction is she facing now?

(A) West
(B) East
(C) South
(D) North
Direction: Read the passage and answer the questions.

There is family of six- P, Q, R, S, T and U. They work as a lawyer, Doctor,
Teacher, Salesman, Engineer and Manager. There are two married couples in
the family. S, the salesman is married to the lady teacher. Q, the doctor, is
married to lawyer. The manager is the son of Q, the brother of T. T, the lawyer,
is the daughter-in-law of P. T is the unmarried Engineer. P is the Grandmother
of U.

70. Which of the following is one of the married couples?

(A) T and R
(B) P and S
(C) S and Q
(D) T and P

71. What is the profession of P?

(A) Lawyer
(B) Engineer
(C) Doctor
(D) Teacher

72. Abhay is 24th from the right in a row of 49 person. What is his position
from the left end?

(A) 24th
(B) 25th
(C) 26th
(D) 27th

73. A, B, C and D are claiming a ladder. C is standing ahead of D, A is
standing between B and D. Who is standing at the second place from the
bottom?

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D

74. Direction: Read the given statements and conclusions carefully.
Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if they
appear to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the
given conclusion logically follow from this statements.

Statements:
1. All beans are meat
2. All breads are meat
Conclusions:
I. Some beans are breads
II. Some breads are beans

(A) Only conclusion I follows
(B) Both conclusions I and II follows
(C) Either conclusions I or II follows
(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows

75. Direction: Read the given statements and conclusions carefully.
Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if they
appear to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the
given conclusion logically follow from this statements.

Statements:
1. All crayons are pens
2. All pens are nibs
Conclusions:
I. All crayons are nibs
II. All nibs are crayons

(A) Only conclusion II follows
(B) Conclusion I alone follows
(C) Both I and II follows
(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows

76. The two main approaches of a research are

(A) Data collection and data analysis
(B) Surveys and questionnaires
(C) Sampling and data collection
(D) Qualitative and quantitative

77. Which of the following are features of the qualitative research paradigm?

(a) The research is concerned with understanding the social phenomena
from the participant’s perspective
(b) It is seeks to establish relationships, among variables and explains
the causes of changes in measured social facts
(c) It is conducted in actual setting as the direct source of data and the
researcher is the instrument
(d) It attempts to establish universal context- free generalization
(e) It is concerned with the process rather than simply with outcomes
or products.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(A) (a), (b) and (c) only
(B) (b), (c) and (d) only

(C) (a), (c) and (d) only
(D) (c), (d) and (e) only

78. The idea that knowledge comes from experience is

(A) Rationalism
(B) Deductive reasoning
(C) Logic
(D) Empiricism

79. The research that applies the laws at the time of field study to draw more
and more clear ideas about the problem is

(A) Applied research
(B) Action research
(C) Experimental research
(D) None of the above

80. The following is a qualitative research approach that involves observing
variables in their natural environments or habitats in order to arrive at
objective research outcomes

(A) Ethnographic research
(B) Case study research
(C) Content analysis
(D) Focused interview

81. The major characteristic of correlation analysis is to seek out

(A) Differences among variables
(B) Variations among variables
(C) Association among variables
(D) Regression among variables

82. Which one of the following is an important characteristic of the
researchers involved in qualitative study?

(A) Non-partisan
(B) Reflexivity
(C) Transparency
(D) Enthusiasm

83. The first step of research is

(A) Selecting a problem
(B) Searching a problem
(C) Finding a problem
(D) Identifying a problem

84. The Government of India conducts census after every 10 years. The
method of research used in this process is

(A) Case study
(B) Developmental
(C) Survey
(D) Experimental

85. Inductive reasoning is based on which of the following:

1. Uniformity of nature
2. Theory to observation approach
3. Aristotle was basically in favour of inductive reasoning
4. Observation of Theory approach

(A) 1 and 4
(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 3

86. Deductive proceeds from

(A) Particular to Universal
(B) Universal to Particular
(C) Particular to Particular
(D) Universal to Universal

87. Which of the following is an initial mandatory requirement for pursuing
research?

(A) Developing a research design
(B) Formulating a research question
(C) Deciding about the data analysis procedure
(D) Formulating a research hypothesis

88. The core elements of dissertation are

(A) Introduction; Data Collection; Data Analysis; Conclusions and
Recommendations
(B) Executive Summary; Literature review; Data gathered;
Conclusions; Bibliography
(C) Research Plan; Research Data; Analysis; References
(D) Introduction; Literature Review; Research Methodology; Results;
Discussion and Conclusion

89. What is a Research Design?

(A) A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory
(B) The choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods
(C) The style in which you present your research findings e.g. a graph
(D) A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data

90. “Sampling Cases” means

(A) Sampling using a sampling frame
(B) Identifying people who are suitable for research
(C) Literally the researcher’s brief case
(D) Sampling of people, newspapers, television programmesetc

91. When planning to do a social research, it is better to

(A) Approach the topic with an open mind
(B) Do a pilot study before getting stuck into it
(C) Be familiar with literature on the topic
(D) Forget about theory because this is a very practical

92. When academicians are called to deliver lecture or presentations to an
audience on certain topics or a set of topics of educational nature, it is
called

(A) Training Program
(B) Seminar
(C) Workshop
(D) Symposium

93. Which one of the following is not a source of data ?

(A) Administrative records
(B) Population census
(C) GIS
(D) Sample survey

94. The essential qualities of a researcher are

(A) spirit of free enquiry
(B) reliance on observation and evidence
(C) systematization or theorizing of knowledge
(D) All of the above

95. A common test in research demands much priority on

(A) Reliability
(B) Useability
(C) Objectivity
(D) All of the above

96. Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process?

(A) Searching sources of information to locate problem
(B) Survey of related literature
(C) Identification of problem
(D) Searching for solutions to the problem

97. Which one of the following is the oldest Archival source of data in India
?

(A) National Sample Surveys
(B) Agricultural Statistics
(C) Census
(D) Vital Statistics

98. Who said that members of the same species are not alike?

(A) Darwin
(B) Herbert Spencer
(C) Louis Pasteur
(D) Marie Curie

99. Inferring about the whole population on the basis of the observations
made on a small part is called

(A) deductive inference
(B) inductive inference
(C) objective inference
(D) pseudo-inference

100. The format of thesis writing is the same as in

(A) preparation of a research paper/article
(B) writing of seminar presentation
(C) a research dissertation
(D) presenting a workshop/conference paper

101. What is jurisprudence?

(A) Systematic study of law
(B) The study of legal decisions
(C) All intellectual enquiries about law
(D) Set of public law

102. Roscoe Pound propounded the theory of “Social Engineering” which
means

(A) Greatest happiness to greatest number of people
(B) Balancing of competing interest in society
(C) Changes in the concept and function of the state
(D) That law has its source in the general consciousness

103. Meaning of the world “Volkgeist” is

(A) General consciousness of the people
(B) The bunch of customs
(C) Law prevailing in the country
(D) The series of judge made laws

104. The main distinctive element of Law of Hart is

(A) Its systematic quality
(B) That it reflects the moral standards of a society
(C) That it is enforceable
(D) That it is unenforceable

105. Which of the following Supreme Court Judgment pronounced that
Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged?

(A) GolakNathv. State of Punjab
(B) Kesavanand Bharti v. State of Kerala
(C) India Gandhi v. Rajnarain
(D) None of the above

106. Bentham’s philosophy was based on

(A) Utilitarian individualism
(B) Utilitarian socialism
(C) Utilitarian communalism
(D) Utilitarian fundamentalism

107. The President under Article 352(1) shall not issue a Proclamation of
Emergency without the decision of

(A) The Union Cabinet
(B) The High Court
(C) The Supreme Court
(D) The LokSabha and RajyaSabha

108. The provision of Financial emergency are elucidated in Article…………..
of Constitution

(A) 360
(B) 370
(C) 380
(D) 390

109. The words “unity and integrity of the nation” was added in the preamble
by the

(A) 42nd Amendment
(B) 7th Amendment
(C) 44th Amendment
(D) 35th Amendment

110. In which of the cases the question of Constitutional validity of section 9
of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 came for consideration for the first
time?

(A) Digvijay Singh v. PratapKumari
(B) T. Sarithav. T. VenkatSubbaiah
(C) YamunabaiAdhavv. AnantraoShivramAdhav
(D) Saroj rani v. Sudarshan Kumar

111. Decision in D.K. Basu’s relates to

(A) Dowry death
(B) Sexual harassment at work place
(C) Murder
(D) Arrest

112. Which of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as
“the heart and soul of the Constitution”?

(A) Right to equality
(B) Freedom of religion
(C) Right to constitutional remedies
(D) Right to property

113. To which liability the maxim “qui facit per aliumfacit per se” applies

(A) Strict liability
(B) Vicarious liability
(C) Absolute liability
(D) Liability of negligence

114. The right to compensation for the victim of unlawful arrest and detention
has been recognized by the Supreme Court, in

(A) NeelaBatiBehra V. State of Orissa
(B) A.K. Gopalan V. State of Madras
(C) Maneka Gandhi V. Union of India
(D) M.C. Mehta V. Union of India

115. The maxim res ipsaloquiter is a

(A) Rule of law
(B) A rule of maxim
(C) Rule of evidence
(D) Rule of natural justice

116. ‘Ashby vs. White’ case stands for

(A) Damnum sine injuria
(B) Negligence
(C) Injuria sine damnum
(D) Recklessness

117. Cundyv. Lindsay (1878) 3 A.C.459 case deals with

(A) Coercion
(B) Undue influence
(C) Mistake as to the nature of transaction
(D) Mistake as regard identity

118. A quasi-contract is based on the principle that

(A) No one shall be allowed to retain unjust benefit at the expense of
another
(B) No one shall be allowed to breach the contract
(C) Word given shall always be honored
(D) Gentlemen should honor their obligations

119. An executed contract is one in which

(A) Both the parties have, completely performed their share of
obligation
(B) One party performed his part
(C) Both the parties has yet to perform their part
(D) None of the above

120. In an agreement caused by bilateral mistake of essential fact

(A) Restitution is not allowed

(B) Parties has to suffer the loss
(C) Restitution is allowed
(D) None of the above

121. The concept of ‘Creamy Layer’ was evolved by the Supreme Court in

(A) Ashok Kumar Thakur v. State of Bihar
(B) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(C) Indira Sawhneyv. Union of India
(D) Minerva Mills v. Union of India

122. The first appeal under the RTI Act, 2005 would lie before the

(A) Appellate Authority as specified by the concerned Public Authority
(B) High Court
(C) State RTI Commission
(D) District Court

123. A settlement arrived at in the course of conciliation proceedings shall be
binding on

(A) The workers who are parties to the settlement
(B) All the parties to the industrial dispute
(C) The parties as directed by the Conciliation offer
(D) The parties as directed by the Labour Court

124. Lock out is

(A) Strike
(B) Antithesis of strike
(C) Lay-off
(D) Closure

125. “International law is not true law; it is only positive international
morality”-who said it?

(A) John Austin
(B) Starke
(C) Hall
(D) Gray

126. What does the principle ‘pactasuntservanda’ mean?

(A) Parties to a treaty should adhere to the terms in good faith
(B) Parties to a treaty should b cognizant of its terms and not
misinterpret them
(C) Parties to a treaty should violate the most important provision of
the treaty
(D) Parties to a treaty should safeguard the object and purpose of the
teaty

127. Can countries rely on their domestic law as an excuse to violate their
obligations under international law?

(A) Domestic law always prevails over international law
(B) Only customary international law prevails over domestic law
(C) Obligations under international law prevail over domestic law
(D) Constitutional obligations always prevails over the obligations
under international law

128. Do individual (physical) persons enjoy international legal personality in
the same manner as states and international organisations?

(A) Individuals enjoy international legal personality, but this is limited
(B) Individuals enjoy unlimited international legal personality
(C) Individuals do not enjoy any international legal personality
(D) Individuals can only bring claims before international courts

129. When was the Universal Declaration of Human Rights adopted?

(A) 10th December, 1948
(B) 11th December, 1948
(C) 12th December, 1947
(D) 10th December, 1947

130. Digital signature is

(A) Not recognized in India
(B) Recognized only in a limited way
(C) Recognized as sufficient under IT Act

(D) In the process of recognition in India

131. What is extradition?

(A) An international wrongful conduct which is in breach of a rule of
international criminal Law
(B) It is the formal process whereby a fugitive offender is surrendered
to the state in which an offence was allegedly committed in order
to stand trial to serve a sentence of imprisonment
(C) An international wrongful conduct by the offender
(D) Punishing a Criminal without prosecution

132. A and B enter into a contract to marry each other. Before the time fixed
for the marriage, A goes mad. The contract becomes

(A) Void
(B) Valid
(C) Illegal
(D) Voidable

133. Which of the following principles is enshrined in Article 13 of the
Constitution of India?

(A) Judicial Review
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) Fundamental Rights

134. The theory of "Pure Theory of Law" was propounded by

(A) John Austin
(B) Hans Kelsen
(C) Karl Marx
(D) Roscoe Pound

135. The concept of "Strict Liability" was laid down in the case of

(A) Donoghue v. Stevenson
(B) Rylands v. Fletcher
(C) Palsgraf v. Long Island Railroad
(D) Torts v. Pritchard

136. Which of the following cases is most significant in affirming that a Hindu
male can adopt a child without the consent of his wife, as long as the
adoption is in compliance with the legal requirements under the Hindu
Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956?

(A) M. Subramaniam v. S. N. Ramaswamy
(B) Gurbachan Singh v. Rajinder Kaur
(C) Smt. S. Sarojini v. C. R. Reddy
(D) Muthammal v. P. Rajammal

137. The concept of "Transfer of Property" under Section 5 of the Transfer of
Property Act, 1882, refers to

(A) Sale of property
(B) Mortgage of property
(C) Transfer of property from one living person to another
(D) All of the above

138. Which of the following is a type of easement under the Indian Easements
Act, 1882?

(A) Right to light
(B) Right to property
(C) Right to inheritance
(D) Right to occupation

139. The doctrine of "Adverse Possession" allows a person to acquire
ownership of property if

(A) They hold the property with the owner's consent
(B) They hold the property peacefully for a continuous period
(C) The property is legally abandoned
(D) The property is transferred to them under contract

140. The principle of "Equal Pay for Equal Work" is enshrined in

(A) Article 14 of the Constitution
(B) Article 39(d) of the Constitution
(C) The Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
(D) Both (B) and (C)

141. Who shall be the first owner of copy right?

(A) The author of a work
(B) The publisher
(C) The book seller
(D) The buyer of the book

142. A method of agriculture or horticulture

(A) Not patentable
(B) Entitled to legal protection
(C) Patentable
(D) Can be protected as property

143. In which landmark case did the Supreme Court of India recognize the
significance of the "doctrine of exhaustion" under patent law?

(A) Bayer Corporation v. Union of India
(B) Novartis AG v. Union of India
(C) KapilWadhwa v. Samsung Electronics Co. Ltd
(D) Monsanto Technology LLC v. Nuziveedu Seeds Ltd.

144. Which case is associated with the recognition of the “test of deceptive
similarity” under trademark law in India?

(A) Parle Products Pvt. Ltd. v. J.P. & Co. Mysore
(B) Dabur India Ltd. v. Emami Ltd.
(C) ITC Ltd. v. Nestle India Ltd.
(D) Cadila Health Care Ltd. v. Cadila Pharmaceuticals Ltd.

145. In the case of Bajaj Auto Ltd. v. TVS Motor Company Ltd., which IPR
issue was primarily addressed?

(A) Copyright infringement
(B) Trademark infringement
(C) Patent infringement
(D) Geographical indication dispute

146. Which of the following principles was emphasized in Novartis AG v.
Union of India, commonly known as the Glivec case?

(A) Territoriality principle
(B) Section 3(d) of the Patents Act, 1970
(C) Doctrine of first sale
(D) Doctrine of dilution

147. The case of Monsanto Technology LLC v. Nuziveedu Seeds Ltd.
addressed which issue under Indian IPR law?

(A) Patent rights over genetically modified seeds
(B) Geographical indication of agricultural products
(C) Copyright protection of agricultural data
(D) Traditional knowledge and farmers’ rights

148. The term "well-known trademark" is defined under which section of the
Trade Marks Act, 1999?

(A) Section 2(1)(zg)
(B) Section 9
(C) Section 11(6)
(D) Section 18

149. Under the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Act, 2001,
farmers are granted rights to

(A) Patent their seeds
(B) Save, use, sow, resow, exchange, and share seeds
(C) Claim royalty from breeders
(D) Import genetically modified seeds

150. What does the term "geographical indication" signify?

(A) An industrial design created in a specific location
(B) A sign used on goods indicating their specific geographical origin
(C) A regional style of industrial manufacturing
(D) An international trademark system

ANSWER KEY
Subject Name: LLM
SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key
1 D 31 C 61 A 91 A 121 C
2 D 32 C 62 D 92 B 122 A
3 C 33 A 63 D 93 A 123 B
4 B 34 D 64 B 94 D 124 B
5 B 35 D 65 B 95 D 125 A
6 B 36 D 66 A 96 A 126 A
7 D 37 A 67 A 97 A 127 C
8 A 38 C 68 C 98 A 128 A
9 C 39 A 69 A 99 B 129 A
10 C 40 A 70 B 100 C 130 C
11 A 41 C 71 D 101 A 131 B
12 D 42 B 72 C 102 B 132 A
13 D 43 C 73 A 103 A 133 A
14 B 44 B 74 D 104 B 134 B
15 D 45 D 75 B 105 A 135 B
16 A 46 C 76 D 106 A 136 A
17 C 47 A 77 B 107 A 137 C
18 D 48 A 78 D 108 A 138 A
19 B 49 C 79 C 109 A 139 B
20 D 50 C 80 A 110 B 140 D
21 C 51 D 81 B 111 D 141 A
22 C 52 D 82 B 112 C 142 A
23 A 53 D 83 D 113 B 143 C
24 A 54 B 84 C 114 A 144 D
25 D 55 C 85 D 115 C 145 C
26 B 56 C 86 B 116 C 146 B
27 B 57 A 87 B 117 D 147 A
28 C 58 B 88 D 118 A 148 A
29 A 59 A 89 D 119 A 149 B
30 C 60 C 90 D 120 C 150 B