APRDC CET 2019 Question Paper BA

Total No. of Questions: 150
Total No. of Marks: 150

V-113 RDC CET - 2019
Course Code: 3
Category of Course : ARTS
English- Economics - History- Civics]

ENGLISH / TELUGU MEDIUM

HALL TICKET NUMBER

INSTRUCTIONS
1. For each question, choose the Best answer from among the four choices given. Bubble the
circle ifthe Best answer number with Blue/Black ball point pen only.

2. Before leaving the examination hall, handover the OMR answer sheet to the invigilator.

3. Write your hall ticket number in the blocks provided in the Question paper booklet
immediately after receiving it.

Don't write anything in the question paper booklet. However, for any rough work, you can
ake use of the space provided at the end of the question paper booklet.

5 Do not overwrite in the OMR answer sheet.

6. Question Nos.
from I to
30 are from English language. The next 120 questions, i.e. from
31 to 150 are the group subjects concerned.

7. Each question carries ONE mark. There will be no negative marks for wrong answer.

8. The candidate is allowed to take away the question paper booklet along with him after
completion of the examination.

This Booklet consists of 28 Pages for 150 Questions +03 Pages of Rough Work +
01 Title Page i.c. Total 32 Pages.

PART I: GENERAL ENGLISH
Read the following sentences and answer the questions that follow. Choose the right answer and
mark it.
1. Hewas a man of ambition.
(1) greatly (2) grcatness
(3) great (4) greater

2 You be punctual.

(1) will (2) shall

(3) should (4) can

3 I am a good person,

(1) am 1? (2) amn't 1?

(3) are 1? (4) aren't 1?

4. I know you mean.

(1) why (2) who
(3) when (4) what

5. He is one-eyed person.
(1) that (2) an
(3) a (4) the

6. IfI an engineer I would have gone to U.S.A.

(1) was (2) an

(3) had been (4) were

7 ldentify the number of syllables in the word 'plenty'.
(1) mono (2) di
(3) tri (4) poly

V-General English 3

8. Which letter is stressed in the word
'prevent'?
(1) P (2) v
(3) t (4) n

9 Identify the silent letter in the word 'debut
(1) b (2) u
(3) t (4) e

10. Find the word that differs in sound from other words.

(1) chance (2) chemistry
(3) choir (4) character
For [Q.No. 11 to 15]: Read the following passage carefully and choose the correct answers to
the questions given after it.

Tagore insisted that education should be imparted in an atmosphere of nature with all its
beauty, colours, sounds, forms and such other manifestations. In his opinion, education, in natural
surroundings, develops intimacy with the world and the power of communication with nature.
Nature, according to him, was manuscript of God. So he emphasized that education must enable
a person to realise his immediate relationship with nature. It should take the child nearer nature
and, therefore, in close proximity of God. It should help him to learn freely and spontaneously
from the book of Nature. Since nature never betrays the heart that loves her, she will provide the
child with spontaneous development and natural growth.

11. Tagore insists on

(1) education (2) nature
(3) natural education (4) education in the lap of nature

12. What takes the child close to God?

(1) education in nature (2) nature

(3) worship (4) relationship
13.
13. What is Nature according to Tagore?

(1) God (2) Manuscript
(3) Woman (4) Manuscript of God

V-General English

14. Name the noun form of
'natural
(1) nature (2) nurture
(3) nation (4) notion
15. The present tense of
emphasized
(1) emphasis (2) emphasize
(3) emphatic (4) empathy
16. Identify the right word for/ swiit/
(1) sweat (2) sweet
(3) suit (4) seat
17. Supply the missing letter to complete the spelling of the word
'an__ogy.
(1) at
(2) al
(3) ot
4) ol
18. The students will go out when the bell

(1) rang (2) shall ring
(3) has ung (4) rings
19. Who wrote the poem 'Bull in the
City"?
(1) V.Narayana Rao (2) Sri Sri
(3) J. Betjeman
(4) Maya Angelou
20. The rose is prettier than flower.
(1) most other (2) more other
(3) another (4) any other
21. The historical
background of 'Animal Farm' is
(1) French Revolution (2) Trojan War
(3) Russian Revolution (4) Spanish War
22. J.B. Priestly's 'Mother's Day' is

(1) anovel (2) a play
(3) a short story (4) a one-act play

V-General English

23. Choose the word that has a negative attribute

(1) pessimistic (2) loving
(3) sociable (4) brave

24. Choose the wrongly spelt word.
(1) wreath (2) formula
(3) drametic (4) usual

25. Choose the correctly spelt word.

(1) writer (2) swiming
6) Wrighting (4) sweap
26. Who is the original character of Napoleon in Animal Fam?

(1) Napoleon (2) Stalin
(3) Hitler (4) Lenin

27 Which one is a corect interrogative sentence?
(1) Whose pen this is? (2) Whose this pen is?
(3) Whose pen is this? (4) This pen is whose?

28. I love the aroma of coffee. Aroma means:

(1) sense (2) fragrance
(3) stink (4) roast

29. Antonym of 'Receded'.
(1) advanced (2) retreat
(3) rebuilt (4) bloomed

30 Choose the right meaningful word of the phrase 'a place where money is coined'.
(1) mint (2) press
(3) bank (4) treasury

V-General English

31. Macro Economics is also known as
(2) Investment theory
(1) Price theory
Income and employment theory (4) Saving theory
(3)

(1) doo goso (2) g o é o

3) s , a6shs oso (4) Bgodo
of is known
The value of commodity / services expressed terms money
in
32.
(2) wealth
(1) value
(4) welfare
(3) price

(1) Dev (2) osd

(3) (4) o á
33. If, the X and 'Y' are substitute goods, if the price of the'X increases, then the demand
for "Y.
(1) Increases (2) Decreases
(3) Constant (4) None of the above

(1) bésoa (2) sao
(3) 6o (4) 3 ) sá»

34. Law of Equi-marginal utility theory is defined by
(1) Adam Smith (2) J.S. Mill
(3) Samuelson (4) Alfred Marshall

(1) sá5 5 (2) a5. 5
(3) á655 (4) S 5 Sró5
35. In which, the exceptions to the Law of Demand
(1) Giffen's Paradox (2) Veblen effect

(3) Speculative effect (4) All the above

(1) A5 3$6égo (2) 3s85 r s o
(3) ygõs5 érso (4) 5josa
V-Economics 7

36. Perfectly inelastic demand is also known as

(1) Zero elastic demand (2) <1 elasticdemand
(3) Equal elastic demand (4)>I elasticdemand

(1) agssás 83ro (2)<1 5 sós 8 s r o
( 4 ) > 1s ' s e s 8 r o 5
(3) s s ags'sés &3ro
37. Total Revenue - (Rent + Interest + Profit) is called

(1) Profit (2) Income
(4) Interest
(3) Wage
3go e o (arbso + 3+ eso) = 8o8 JSs J8?
(1) do (2) sodo

3) 36so (4)
38. An indifference curve is always
(1) Concave to the origin (2) Convex to the origin
(3) Slope upward (4) Parallel to the 'Y"' axis

(1) Saodoáhás Hrsrdom sotwoâ
(2) SredoáHss [oogrsróor o d o â
(3) so Hotwo
(4) 'Y' osas 3srosdom otwoa
39. What are the examples of intangible capital.
(1) Buildings, Plant (2) Patent Rights
(3) Raw material (4) Skill and ability

(1) 3Swev, aodao (2)
(3) Ssóoso (4) 3go, 33gs
40. Supply can be presented in the form of as follows:

(1) QfP Py, F,T,G)
(2) =f(Px, Px+l, P, G, T)
(3) Q =f(P,. Pyr1, J, 0, Y)
(4) Q=f(P, Py-1, T, G,0)

V-Economics 8

41. When a fim expands output by
increasing all inputs gets certain advantages the same firm
is called
(1) Intermal econonies (2) External economies
(3) Multi cconomies (4) Other economies

(1) ogs sra (2) 2rgs erw
) v é sT
(4) a68 eTw
42. In which cost changes with changes in the volume
of output.
(1) Fixed cost (2) Variable cost
(3) Marginal cost (4) Total cost

(1) ssaádo (2) 6 3goso
(3) o s Ssoiso
(4) o ssoso
43. In monopoiy market the Marginal Revenue is
(1) More than A.R (2) Less than A.R
(3) AR=MR (4) None of the above

(1) s n t ouå so3
Ján,3 (2) K t ouå soð ö53
(4) o
aso 5
44. Price Rigidity existence in the following market.
(1) Monopoly (2) Duopoly
(3) Oligopoly (4) Perfect competition

(1) Dsasá»go (2) asassgo
(3) 5030® ágo 4) so as
45. Selling costs is the specific feature of the following market.
(1) Oligopoly (2) Monopoly
(3) Monopolistic competition (4) Pertfect competition

(1) 303%0 g o (2) 6á»go
(3) sssog > 4) o g s

V-Economics

*0. Rent is the income derived from machines and other manmade appliances ot production is

called
(2) Scarcity Rent
(1) Transfer Rent
(3) Quasi Rent (4) All the above

(2) 56s rbso
(1) 8 rbao
(3) rbao (4) 3 o s a
47
47. Who cconomist explained the wage fund theory
(2) J.S. Mill
(1) Taussig
(3) Prof. Walker (4) J.R. Hicks

(1) S5 (2) a a 5 . 2»6

(3) Ts6 (4) 2.es6. i5j

48. In India, National Income is estimated by
(1) RBI (2) C.S.o.
(3) Planning Commission (4) Finance Commission

(1) s6.0.. (2) .oo..
(3) o h s5»á5 (4) sás
49. Who economist propounded the 'Supply creates its own demand'.

(1) J.S:Mill (2) J.B. Say
(3) Marshall1 (4) Hicks

(1) 2.55. » 5 (2) a..
(3) (4) 5)
50. In which year Reserve Bank of India was nationalised?

(1) 1935 (2) 1947
(3) 1949 (4) 1951

Find the A.M. for the data 30, 20, 32, 16, 17.

51.
eos Kebéo 5535o 30, 20, 32, 16, 17.
(1) 22 (2) 35
(3) 25 (4) 115

V-Economics 10

52.
52. According to Human development report (2014), how much Rank of India as per Human
Development Index.
(1) 135 out of 187 countries (2) 150 out of 187 countries
(3) 153 out of 187 countries (4) 187 out of 187 countries

(1) 135 so 187 dros (2) 150 s o 187 dros'

(3) 153 so 187 dros (4) 187 so 187 dros

53. Dual economy means:

(1) Moderm and traditional sectors (2) Moral and value sectors
(3) Social and political sectors (4) Poor and backward sectors

(1) aéS Si8odw oood öoKo (2) 38s S8as Deos doro
(4) S0os 3[was dofo
(3) o»S So8oi» Teso doKo
54. According to 2011, the literacy rate in India.
2011 85,e Bsso rósði »sosgs Joó?
(1) 74.04 (2) 72.04

(3) 71.04 (4) 73.04

55. According to National Population Policy 2000, marriage age raise from:

(1) 21 years for men and 18 years for women
(2) 21 years for women and 18 years for men
(3) 21 years for women and 25 years for men
(4) 21 years for men and 25 years for women

(1) 21 óone ásávew, 18 óoiee
(2) 21 s o i o , 18 soie jóoáve

(3) 21 óoie e , 25 soue H i a

(4) 21 soie hóeo, 25 Soiee
birth in India.
Which state is highest life expectancy at

56.
(2) Madhya Pradesh
(1) Andhra Pradesh
(3) Kerala
(4) West Bengal

(1) sodds (2) odg3s
(4) s Som
(3) 306

11
V-Economics

57. Which country was first introduced the concept of Micro-Finance.
() India (2) China

(3) Bangladesh (4) Pakistan

(1) Séðio (2)
(3) 2oros (4) 8as
was launched in
the year.
8. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme

(1) 2nd October 2001 (2) 2nd October 2008

(3) 2nd October 2009 (4) 2nd October 2005

(2) 23 da u5 2008
(1) 2 ss 2001
2005
(3) 25 sa »ud 2009 (4) 25 s «g»
In which percentage of total population engaged in Agriculture Sector in India?
59.
(1) 54.7% (2) 55.7%
(3) 56.7% (4) 57.7%

(1) 54.7 Téo (2) 55.7 rso

(3) 56.7 Tso (4) 57.7 Téo

60. What are the examples of agro-based industry?

(1) SugarIndustry (2) Iron and Steel Industry

(3) Plastic Industry (4) Cement Industry

(1) sosad sogs (2) adá» - $s, 38ES
(3) 5 3og5 (4) ao30s
61. In which district is considered as canal irigation in Andhra Pradesh?

(1) Vizianagaram (2) Visakhapatnam
(3) East Godavari (4) Ananthapur

soO
(1) DeossSKoo (2) Tpstno
(3) rdy Mors8 (4)

V-Economics 12

62. Coperative farming already succeeded in the following country:
(1) Japan (2) U.K
(3) Denmark (4) Russia

(1) s (2) od.3.

(3) a (4) 6
63. How many industries are reserved for the public sector at present.

(1) 18 (2) 12
3) 5 (4) 8

64. How much percentage of Foreign Direct Invest1ment increases in defence production?
(1) 75% (2) 74%
3) 76% (4) 72%

(1) 75 s o (2) 74 Tréo

(3) 76 s o (4) 72 Tdo

65. In which state first place oçcupied in the share of service sector in the GSDP?
(1) Delhi (2) Mizoram
(3) Chandigarh (4) Sikkim

(1) (2) 3os6o

(3) o 5 (4)
66. In which year the planning commission was replaced with NITI Ayog.
(1) lst Jan. 2014 (2) lst Jan. 2013
(3) 1st Jan. 2015 (4) Ist Jan. 2012

(1) 1st es58 2014 (2) Ist s50 2013
3) Ist za58 2015 (4) Ist 558 2012

67. How much of amount provided by A.P. State and Central Government to the scheme of

"Sukhibava".
oD sóg5o voKKds oo, 3o ósçoe o 3vgo
(1) Rs. 300, Rs. 600 (2) Rs. 300, Rs. 700
(3) Rs. 300, Rs. 800 (4) Rs. 300, Rs. 650

V-Economics 13

68. Bowley's price index number formula

P+L
2
(2) Po 2

2 2
(3) Po L+P
(4) o P+L
69. Calculation of Range for ungrouped data
20, 25, 29, 30, 35, 39, 41, 48, 51, 60 and 70.

20, 25, 29, 30, 35, 39, 41, 48, 51, 60 So8os» 70.
(1) 50 (2) 70
(3) 20 (4) 90
70. Who must become environmental heros?
(1) Teachers (2) Students
(3) Engineers (4) Labours

(1) osose (2) g e
(3) aoa69 (4)

V-Economics 14

PART III: HISTORY
71. "Rajatarangini'" the history of Kashmir kings was written by
(1) Bhanabatta (2) Kalhana
(3) Malikjayasi (4) Fahian

(1) (2) 6oso
(3) o S 2ar (4) dr5
72. Who is the exponent of Nyaya darshana
(1) Gouthama (2) Kapila
(3) Badarayana (4) Kranadha

(1) Tesoá (2) 8 e d
(3) roodn (4) Toáo
73. Bimbisara belongs to
(1) Mauryas (2) Nandas
3) Haryankas (4) Kushanas

(1) 56gsoao (2) So6soso
3) oso[%oéo (4) soassoso
74. "The great bath'" was found at
(1) Harppa (2) Mohenjadaroo
(3) Lothal (4) Rupar

(1) r6> (2) 3wroer5
(3) r (4) drs5
75. Battle of Jilam fought between
(1) Alexandar-Porus (2) Alexandar Bimbisara
(3) Alexandar Ajatasatru (4) Alexandar-Udayana

-

(1) aod5-65 (2)Bpod5-DoDdoá
(3) wagod5-vrdié (4) Tgod5-ado[sdDás

V-History 15

76. Ashoka the great conquered Kalinga in the year
(1) 261 BC (2) 58 BC
(3) 261 AD (4) 78 AD

(1) 6 261 (2) 6. 58
(3) . . 261 (4) 6..78
77. Oldest veda is
(1) Samaveda (2) Yajurveda
(3) Rigveda (4) Adarvanaveda

(1) 5oado (2) eOsão
3) 2sáo (4) oseodo
78. Fourth Buddist council was held during the reign of
(1) Kaniskha (2) Ashoka
(3) Harsha (4) Chandragupta

(1) S á á (2) soss
(3) d (4) oKHó
79. Who wrote "Arthasasthra"
(1) Kalidasa (2) Megasthanis
(3) Bhana (4) Koutilya

(1) 50á (2) 3ns85
(3) c03ás (4) FSeosás
80. Sri Krishna Devaraya belongs to
(1) Sangama (2) Saluva
(3) Tuluva (4) Aaraveeti

(1) sonso sodo (2) es Soso
(3) s Soso (4) 6bS Soso

V-History 16

81. "Lumbini" was birth place of
(1) Lord Mahaveera (2) Lord Buddha

(3) Lord Krishna (4) None of these

(1) 5báás (2) 6
(3) a (4) 3 ss

82. "Navaratnas" patronised by
(1) ChandraguptaII (2) Kumaragupta
(3) Samudragupta (4) Srigupta

(1) do soghás (2) soáróKá
(3) SKHá (4) 3
83 Who is greatest king among the kushanas
(1) Vasiskha (2) Havishaka
(3) Kaniskha (4) Harsha

(1) S2á (2) á n
(3) $ (4)ad
84. Tuzi-Ki--babari knanas the memories of babar was written by babar in
(1) Persian (2) Arabic
(3) Turki (4) Urdu
we6 s)s6 "svss-3-6" h s osbȌoa
(1) s0o55 (2)
(3) 05 (4)
85. The policy of "Doctrine of Lapsy" introduced by
(1) Dalhousie (2) Kanning
(3) Wellasly (4) Carn wallies

(1) d6 (2) soh
(3) 39 (4) 565 Tb5

V-History 17

86. "Golden temple" located in
(2) Jaipur
(1) Delhi
(4) Jodhpur
(3) Amrutsir

(2) 2s6
(1)
(4) s5r5
(3) yS%6
a
87
87. Vasco-di-gama, who first came to India was
British
(1) Portugese (2)
(4) French
(3) Spanish

(2)
(1) sMs
(4) o5

88. "Din-I-Illahi" founded by
(2) Akbar
(1) Babar
(4) Galib
(3) Salim chisti
"65-a-ae"
(1) (2)
(3) sbo D (4) mb

89 Who assumed the tittle "Chatrapathi"
(1) Shivaji (2) Sambuji
(3) Rajaram (4) Tarabai

(1) (2) sos
(3) eoo (4) oero

90. Shivaji Council of ministers was called
(1) Astadiggajas (2) Astapradhan
(3) Navaratnas (4) Mantri parishit

(1) gere (2) s 5
(3) 3do^e (4) Soo8 58á5

V-History 18

91. Electronic bulb was Invented by
(1) Grahambell
(2) Edison
(3) Marconi
(4) J.L. Baird

(1) o a S (2) as5
(4) 2.o5. 35

92. Renaissance started first in
(1) England (2) France
(3) Italy (4) Russia

(1) aoro (2)
(3) ad (4) 8rS
93 "Liberty, Equality and Fraternity was the slogan in

(1) American war of Independence (2) The french revolution
(3) Russian revolution (4) The industrial revolution
s , 33rséso, aerésso" sógár08 óowo@odsa
(1) 3B5 gsoes HTbo (2) oS D5so

3) 6a gso (4) 0Ta s o
94. "Bloody Sunday" related to
(2) French
(1) Russian
(3) America (4) England

(2) o 3250
(3) e305 s o
(4)

95. "Telephone" was Invented by

(2) J.L Baird
(1) Edison
(4) Graham bell
(3) Marconi
"BOES" sáTh356 (2) 2o6 2
(1) 8s5
(4) o@S
(3) Sr5
19

96. Das capital communist
manifasto were written oy
(1) Engles (2) Trotsky
(3) Lenin (4) Karlmarx

(1) Son (2) r S
(3) 85 (4) 566 ár
97 Garibaldi conquered
(1) Sisili-Nepuls (2) Sisili-kaiyo
(3) Sasili-Rome (4) Sisili-Italy

(1) SS 3 (2) 35
(3) S8 5 5 (4) ð - abô

98. Industrial revolution started in
(1) England (2) France
(3) Germany (4) U.S.A

(1) aono (2)
(3) 61 (4) U.S.A
99. The prime minister of England at time of second world war
began
(1) Winstan churchill (2) Climent Attle
(3) Navellie chambarlin (4) Herold micmillon

(1) 5g5 s 6 (2) o 5 e
(3) 33 rog5 (4) ro 355
j00. The first world war came to the end with this treaty of
(1) Versailles
(2) Nanking
(3) Veanna (4) Anjus pact

(1) 5 y áo6 (2) TSsoR bo
(3) 3os) áos
(4)o asjodo
V-History 20

101. "Young Italy" was
started by
(1) Kavur (2) Garibaldi
(3) Mazini (4) Victor Imunnial
"oso ao" aboisa
(1) 55 (2) mo
(3) Soe 4) g5 aárods
102. Who is father of Turks
(1) Mustapha Kemal Pasha (2) Kavur
(3) Mazini (4) Garibaldi

(1) (2) 5
(3) S (4) roer
103. First American president was
(1) Woodrow Wilson (2) George Washington
(3) Thomas Jhaperson (4) Linclon

(1) y s 5 (2) Thoft
(3) 5 2$655 (4)
104. "Man born free but is in chains everywhere" this statement of
(1) Russeau (2) Diderot
3) Voltaire (4) Montesquieu

(1) dra (2) &85

(3) 5 (4) ro3á78
105. United Nations organisation was started in the year
(1) Oct 24, 1949 (2) Oct 24, 1945
(3) May 24, 1945 (4) Dec 24, 1945

(1) 6 24, 1949 (2) 6 24, 1945
(3) 3 24, 1945 (4) do6 24, 1945

21
V-Historyy

T06. Head Quarter of United Nations Organisation located in

(1) London (2) Paris
(3) New York (4) Berlin

(1) eod5 (2) 85

(3) goi (4) 05
107. Symbol of
Nazi party
(1) Swasthik (2) Axe
(3) Horse 4) Cow

(1) 5 (2) go
(3) (4) s
108. Father of Modern China
(1) Mayo (2) Sunyetsen
(3) Fahian
(4) Karalmarx

(1) S5
(2) $SasoS 5
(3) r 5 (4) sr66ár6)
109. Second world war come to the end in the
year

(1) 1949
(2) 1939
(3) 1945 (4) 1946
110. How many organs in
United Nations Organisation (UNO)

(1) 10
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 5

V-History 22

PART IV: CIVICS
111. Political science deals with the Government.
(1) Green (2) Mill
(3) Leacock 4) Gettle

(1) 5 (2) 5
(3) bs 4) nirs5
112. Who is known as the father
of the political science
(1) Mnchiavelli (2) Bodin
(3) Laski (4) Aristotle

(1) gsado 34 (2) 8 5
(3) , 4) 0
113. Plotos ideal number for the size
of the population of a state

(1) 10000 (2) 5040
(3) 5000 (4) 10040
114. The English word "Law" orginated from
(1) Log (2) Lag
3) Leg 4) Led

(1) (2)
(3) 3 (4)
115. The concept of Administrative Law found in
(1) Britan (2) America
(3) France (4) India

(1) p5 (2) 30s
(3) (4) aoåci

V-Civics 23

116. In which year Bloodless Revolution

(2) 1588
(1) 1488
(4) 1788
(3) 1688

117. The Greek word Polis refer to0
(2) State
(1) Politics
(4) City state
(3) City

(1) oebo r » (2) oasá
(3) SK6Ss (4) SK oagsw

118. "Rights are those power cliamed and recognised as contributory to the common good".

(1) T.H. Green (2) J.S. Mill

(3) R.G Gettle (4) J.W.Garner

(1) . S . ÁS (2) 2.oS. v s

(3)5.2.nSS (4) .6s. r a
119. Justice means to help the friend and harm enemies

(1) Caphlous (2) Aristotle
(3) Polymarchus (4) Bharkar

(1) 3 e s (2) 0 5
(3) D 5 (4) 5
120. The membership in the state is.

(1) Optional (2) Temporary
(3) Compulsory (4) Pressure

(1) a 6 (2) 0650
(3) ojo$s» (4) ga

V-Civics 24

121. Which is the most important and direct source of Law.
(1) Customs (2) Legislature
(3) Religion 4) Equity

(2) sss
(1) Q3veD
(3) Ss6o (4) 6

122. Give the example of Theocratic state
(2) Israel
(1) Britan
(4) China
(3) India

(1) 5 (2) aw
(3) aoa 4)
123. Who is the guardian of the constitution in Federal Government

(1) Executive (2) Legislature
(4) Finance department
(3) Judicary

(1) 56sogro (2) T Tp
(4) 5 Tp

124. Aliens are not enjoyed this right

(1) Right to vote (2) Right to education
(4) Right to marriage
(3) Right to work

(1) 6, (2) 2
(3) 5 , (4) ar sá,
in which every one has a share?
125. Name of the Government
(1) Democracy (2) Monarchy
(4) Dictatorship

(3) Aristocracy

(2) 0ss
(1) rgáogs
(3) 56S>os (4) osbosjøso

25
V-Civics

126. Indian constitution came
to. force

(2) 1947-8-15
(1) 1946-12-9
(4) 1950-1-26
(3) 1949-11-26
127. Chairman of the drafting committee
(1) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (2) Vallabhai patel
(3) Dr. Rajendra prasad Jawaharlal Nehru
(4)

(1) i . e 5 . wo@s),5 (2) soero S05

(3) i oão Kd5 4) 3r5er5 v

128. In which constitutional Amendment added the term "Socialistic" and "Secular" to the preamble

(1) 42 (2) 43
(3) 44 (4) 45

129. Indian Union-State relation forrowed from
(1) Ameica (2) Britan
(3) Canada (4) Germany

(1) 05 (2) s
(3) B5 (4) 0
130. Article 368 deals
(1) Union State relation
(2) Union Government
(3) State Government
(4) Amendment procedure of constitution
368 s 6 da Kro) Tepnáoa
(1) So sowo68we

(2) Bo sso

(3) óhéso
(4) oraso s56» géie»

V-Civics 26

131. Who is the
Supreme Commander of Defence Force of
(1) President India?
(3) Prime minister (2) Vice president
(4) Defence minister

(1) s 8
(2) ogsa
(3) o
(4) 5e 3o
132. Which right described as "Heart
and Soul" of the constitution?
(1) Right to equality (2) Right to freedom
(3) Right to vote (4) Right to constitutional remedies
sn orgomaS "dosoo, só' so6 s9owd?
(2) s
(3) &ta s ,
(4)
133. At present how many Fundamental duties in Indian Constitution

(1) 9 (2) 10
(3) 11 4) 12

134. What is age of retirement of President?
(1) 70 (2) 65
(3) 62 (4) There is no age limit

(1) 70 (2) 65

(3) 62 (4) a s 0 v a dó

135. Indian parliament Question hour commenced
at

(1) 10o' clock (2) 11 o' clock
(3) 8o' clock (4) 9o' clock

a6osoo 10 Kotew (2) oabo 11 Kobe
(1)
8 Kote» (4) dowo 9 Kodse
(3) [vo

27
V-Civics

136. So far how many occasion were proclaimed National emergenoy t dia

8ho8.
(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7
137. Who is chairman of
NITTI Aayog
(1) President (2) Prime Minister
(3) Finance Minister (4) Vice President

(1) 8 (2) s Sso@
(3)ss soo@ (4) sos8
138. Quorum of the Loksabha

(1) 1/10
(2) 1/2
(3) 1/3
(4) 1/4
139. President nominated how
many members to the Rajyasabha
o s svos saged oagsesso aosoo
(1) 10 (2) 11
(3) 12
(4) 13
140. The gap between two
meeting of the Indian Parliament
(1) 3 months
(2) 4 months
(3) 5 months
(4) 6 months

(1) 33ee (2) 4 Jee
(3) 53oe
(4) 63eew
141. A money bill is introduced in first
(1) Loksabha
(2) Rajyasabha
(3) Either house of the Parliament
(4) In a joint setting of
the both house

(1) S'55 (2) a s
(3) Joá ssvs' dds'33
(4) Dod $so
soosa»g si»3svs
V-Civics
28

142. How many members in the
Legislative Assembly
(1) 117
(2) 175
(3) 220
(4) 294
143. Wh0 is the first speaker of
bifurcated AP Legislative assembly?
(1) Shivaprasad Rao (2) Manohar
(3) Venkataramayya Chowdary (4) Kaleswara Rao

(1) 35>do$ (2) .5s5
(3) 305oSoos S68
(4) 54soors
144. According to 370 Article which state
enjoy a special status
(1) A.P
(2) Telangana
(3) Thipura (4) Jammu & Kashmir

(1) (2) 3eoro
(3) (4) s*
145. How many High Courts in India?

(1) 19 (2) 20
(3) 24 (4) 25

146. How many subjects contain in the union list?

(1) 97 (2 98
(4) 100
(3) 99
commission
147. Chairman of the 15th finance
(2) Y.V.Reddy
(1) N.K. Singh (4) Vijaya Kelkar
(3) K.C. Pant

(2) Y.V. ag
(1) N.K. 3oh
(4) oso 3e5
(3) K.C. so6

29
V-Civics

148. Which state the local self Government was introduced first time m

(1) M.P (2) U.P
(3) Bihar (4) Rajasthan

(1) M.P (2) U.P
(3) b5
(4) T
149. In which year the
Telugudesham party was formed.

(1) 1980 (2) 1981
(3) 1982
(4) 1983
150. The National Human Rights Commission was
established on
(1) 1991-10-12 (2) 1992-10-12
(3) 1993-10-12 (4) 1994-10-12

(1) 1991-10-12 (2) 1992-10-12
3) 1993-10-12 4) 1994-10-12

V-Civics 30
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