UPSC CMS 2026 Notification

COMBINED MEDICAL SERVICES EXAMINATION, 2026

EXAMINATION NOTICE NO.9/2026-CMS
Date of Notification of Examination 11.03.2026
Last date for filling up of Application 31.03.2026
Date of Examination 02.08.2026

(The Commission's website - https://upsc.gov.in)
IMPORTANT INFORMATION FOR THE CANDIDATES

The Online Application Portal of Union Public Service Commission for
registration and filling up of application form online, has four cards/modules,
three of which namely, Account creation, Universal Registration and Common
Application Form are common to all examination applications and can be filled
anytime by the candidate, while the fourth card/module is Examination Specific
and can be filled during the time period allowed in notification of an examination.
Applicants are required to apply online by using the website
https://upsconline.nic.in.

Once a candidate has registered on the Online Application Portal, a Universal
Registration Number (URN) is generated which is common for all the examinations
of the Commission. After filling up of the Examination Specific Form, Application
Number is generated which is examination specific and is to be retained by the
applicant along with the URN for any future communication with the Commission.
The URN has to be registered only once in lifetime. While the URN will be unique
and remain constant, the Application Number will be dynamic in nature and will
vary from examination to examination.

Detailed instructions are available on the home page of the portal as well as
with all profiles/modules to guide the candidates for filling up of the application
form and uploading the documents. Candidates are advised to first go through
these Instructions carefully and prepare requisite documents in advance to have
a smooth flow during filling up of form and document uploading.

Applicants are strongly advised to use their Aadhaar Card as ID document for
easy, effortless and seamless verification and authentication of ID and other
details.

1. CANDIDATES TO ENSURE THEIR ELIGIBILITY FOR THE EXAMINATION:

All the candidates are requested to carefully read the Rules of Combined Medical
Services Examination, 2026 notified by the Government (Ministry of Health & Family
Welfare) and this Notice of Examination derived from these Rules. Candidates applying
for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all eligibility conditions for admission
to the Examination. Their admission at all the stages of the examination will be purely
provisional subject to satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. Mere issue of
Admission Certificate to the candidate will not imply that his/her candidature
has been finally cleared by the Commission. The Commission takes up verification
of eligibility conditions with reference to original documents only after the candidate
has qualified for Interview/Personality Test.

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2. HOW TO APPLY

Candidates are required to apply online by using the Commission’s website
https://upsconline.nic.in. Candidates are advised to go through the General
instructions, Profile/Module-wise instructions and instructions for uploading of
documents before proceeding to fill up the form. A candidate who is willing to apply
for Combined Medical Services Examination, 2026 shall be required to submit the
requisite information and supporting documents towards various claims, such as date
of birth, category [viz. SC/ST/OBC/EWS/PwBD/Ex-Servicemen], educational
qualification, etc. as may be sought by the Commission along with the Universal
Registration Number (URN), Common Application Form (CAF) and the fourth module
i.e. Examination Specific Module (including fees and centre etc.). Failure to provide
the required information/documents along with the Common Application Form (CAF)
will entail cancellation of candidature for the examination.

NOTE-1: One-time Edit Facility for URN Profile:

The Commission provides a one-time facility for candidates to update or modify
their Universal Registration Number (URN) Profile. Please note that any changes made
to the URN Profile will not be reflected in application already submitted. The updated
information will apply only to application submitted after the candidate has made the
necessary changes and successfully re-locked the URN Profile.

NOTE – 2 : Live Photo Capture for filling up of Common Application Form (CAF):

Applicants are required to upload their photograph and also capture their live
photograph while filling up the Common Application Form (CAF). Applicants must
ensure that the uploaded photograph and the live photograph captured are clear as
per instructions given on “Instructions and FAQs > Instruction for filling the form >
Photos and Signature” available on the Commission’s website:
https://upsconline.nic.in .

NOTE -3: Uploading of Signature:

Applicants are required to sign three times (one below the other) on a plain white
paper using black ink and upload the same while filling up the Common Application
Form (CAF). The uploaded signatures should be clear and legible. The candidates are
advised to refer to the instruction for uploading the signature available under the
header “Instructions and FAQs” on the Commission’s website:
https://upsconline.nic.in .

2.1 WITHDRAWAL OF APPLICATION:
The candidates will not be allowed to withdraw their applications after submission of
the same. Further, no correction/alteration/modification in any field(s) of the
Application Form is allowed after submission.

Brief instructions for filling up the Online Application have been given in Appendix-II.

2.2 The Candidate should have details of one Photo ID Card viz. Aadhaar Card/Voter
Card (EPIC)/PAN Card/Passport/Driving Licence/Any other Photo ID Card issued by
the State/Central Government. The details of this Photo ID Card will have to be
provided by the candidate while filling up the Universal Registration Number (URN)
Profile. This Photo ID Card will be used for all future reference and the candidate is
advised to carry this Photo ID Card while appearing for Examination/Personality Test.

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3. LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION:
The Online Application can be filled upto 31st March, 2026 till 06:00 P.M.

4. ISSUANCE OF e-ADMIT CARD:
The eligible candidates will be issued an e-Admit Card on the last working day of
the preceding week of the date of examination. Further, those candidates, who have
opted for change of Scribe seven (07) days prior to the date of the examination, shall be
issued e-Admit Card three (03) days prior to the date of examination. The e-Admit Card
will be made available on the Commission’s website [https://upsconline.nic.in] for
downloading by the candidates. No Admit Card will be sent by post or email. All the
applicants are requested to provide valid and active email ID while creating account as
the Commission may use electronic mode for contacting them.

5. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS:
Candidates should note that there will be penalty (Negative Marking) for wrong
answers marked by a candidate in the Objective Type Question Paper.

6. ONLINE REPRESENTATION PORTAL FOR QUESTION PAPER & PROVISIONAL
ANSWER KEYS:-
The Commission will be providing an opportunity to the appeared candidates to make
representations to the Commission on the questions asked in the Papers of the
Examination and on the Provisional Answer Keys of the Objective Type Question
Paper(s) of the Combined Medical Services Examination in a time frame of five (05) days
i.e. from the 3rd day of the Examination date to 06.00 P.M. of the 7th day. The appeared
candidates may login to the Commission’s website https://upsconline.nic.in and
submit their representation(s), if any, under the header ‘Examinations >
Representations on Question Paper & Provisional Answer Keys’. No representation by
email/post/hand or by any other mode shall be accepted and the Commission shall not
involve into any correspondence with the candidates in this regard. No representation
shall be accepted under any circumstances after this window of five (05) days is over.

7. HELPDESK FOR CANDIDATE:
The Commission has established a dedicated helpline to assist the candidates
during the application process. Candidates seeking clarification, guidance, or
assistance related to the application process or examination details can contact the
helpline no. 011-24041001 or 011-40303444 or email ID – [email protected]. The
helpline will be operational from 10:00 A.M. to 5:30 P.M. on all working days during
the application window i.e. from 11.03.2026 to 31.03.2026. Applicants may utilize this
service for any issues relating to the application process, including payment of fee,
uploading of documents, etc.

8. CHANGE OF SCRIBE:
Candidates, who have opted to use a scribe, may request a change of scribe upto
seven (7) days prior to the date of the examination. Such requests shall be submitted
via URL https://upsconline.nic.in. The request will be reviewed in accordance with the
prescribed guidelines, and the candidate will be informed accordingly.

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9. MOBILE PHONES BANNED:

(a) The use of any mobile phone (even in switched off mode), pager or any electronic
equipment or programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smart watches etc.
or camera or Bluetooth devices or any other equipment or related accessories either in
working or switched off mode capable of being used as a communication device during
the examination is strictly prohibited. Any infringement of these instructions shall
entail disciplinary action including ban from future examinations.

(b) Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned items
including mobile phones, pagers or any valuable/costly items to the venue of the
examination, as no arrangement for safe-keeping will be made at the venue of the
examination. The Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this regard.

10. REPORTING AT EXAMINATION VENUE:

The candidates should reach the venue of the Examination well in time at
least 30 minutes prior to the commencement of each session of the Examination.
No late entry will be allowed inside the Examination venue under any
circumstances.

11. FACE AUTHENTICATION FOR CANDIDATES AT THE EXAMINATION VENUE:

In order to ensure a secure and smooth examination process, all the
candidates will be required to undergo face authentication at the examination
venue mandatorily. The candidates are advised to enter the examination venue
well in time for face authentication/identity verification and frisking.

CANDIDATES ARE REQUIRED TO APPLY ONLINE AT https://upsconline.nic.in ONLY.

NO OTHER MODE IS ALLOWED FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION.

“GOVERNMENT STRIVES TO HAVE A WORKFORCE WHICH REFLECTS GENDER
BALANCE AND WOMEN CANDIDATES ARE ENCOURAGED TO APPLY.”

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No.14/1/2025-E.I(B) : A combined examination for recruitment to the services and
posts mentioned in para 2 below will be conducted by the Union Public Service
Commission on 2nd August, 2026 in accordance with the Rules published by the
Ministry of Health & Family Welfare (Dept. of Health and Family Welfare) in the Gazette
of India dated the 11th March, 2026.

1. CENTRES OF EXAMINATION: The Examination will be held at the following
centres:

Sl. Sl. Sl.
Centre Centre Centre
No. No. No.
1. AGARTALA 17. GAUTAM 33. MUMBAI
BUDDHA NAGAR
(NOIDA)
2. AHMEDABAD 18. GHAZIABAD 34. NAGPUR
3. AIZAWL 19. GURUGRAM 35. PANAJI (GOA)
4. BAREILLY 20. HYDERABAD 36. PATNA
5. BENGALURU 21. IMPHAL 37. SRI VIJAYA PURAM
(PORT BLAIR)
6. BHOPAL 22. ITANAGAR 38. PRAYAGRAJ
7. BHUBANESWAR 23. JAIPUR 39. (ALLAHABAD)
RAIPUR
8. CHANDIGARH 24. JAMMU 40. RANCHI
9. CHENNAI 25. JORHAT 41. SAMBALPUR
10. CUTTACK 26. KANPUR 42. SHILLONG
11. DEHRADUN 27. KOCHI 43. SHIMLA
12. DELHI 28. KOHIMA 44. SRINAGAR
13. DHARWAD 29. KOLKATA 45. THIRUVANANTHAPURAM
14. DISPUR 30. LUCKNOW 46. TIRUPATI
15. FARIDABAD 31. MADURAI 47. UDAIPUR
16. GANGTOK 32. MEERUT 48. VISAKHAPATNAM

The Centres and the date of holding the examination as mentioned above are liable to be
changed at the discretion of the Commission. Applicants should note that there will be a
ceiling on the number of candidates allotted to each of the centres except Chennai,
Delhi, Dispur, Kolkata and Nagpur. Allotment of Centres will be on the “first-apply -
first-allot” basis and once the capacity of a particular centre is attained, the Centre will
no longer be available as an option for non-PwBD candidates, however, the PwBD
candidates would be able to opt the desired Centre. Applicants, who cannot get a Centre
of their choice due to ceiling, will be required to choose a Centre from the remaining ones.
Applicants are, thus, advised that they may apply early so that they could get a Centre
of their choice. If any candidate appears at a venue other than the one indicated by the
Commission in his/her e-Admit Card, such candidate will not be allowed to take the
examination.

NB: Notwithstanding the aforesaid provision, the Commission reserves the right to
change the Centres at their discretion if the situation so demands.
Candidates admitted to the examination will be informed of the time table and place or
places of examination.

Candidates should note that no request for change of Examination Centre will be
entertained. All the examination centres for the examination will cater to the
examination for Persons with Benchmark Disabilities also.
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1(A) REGISTRATION & ONLINE APPLICATION FORM:

1(a)(i) A candidate who is willing to apply for Combined Medical Services
Examination shall be required to apply online and submit the requisite
information and supporting documents towards various claims, such as date of
birth, category [viz. SC/ST/OBC/EWS/PwBD/Ex-Servicemen], educational
qualification etc. as may be sought by the Commission along with the Common
Application Form. The failure to provide the required information/documents
along with Universal Registration Number (URN) Profile and Common Application
Form (CAF) and Exam Specific Form will entail cancellation of candidature for the
examination.

NOTE : The candidates should also note that no addition/deletion/changes are
allowed in the Online Application Form in any circumstances once submitted.
However, the Commission provides a one-time facility for candidates to
update or modify their Universal Registration Number (URN) Profile. Please
note that any changes made to the URN Profile will not be reflected in
applications already submitted. The updated information will apply only to
applications submitted after the candidate has made the necessary changes
and successfully re-locked the URN Profile.

1(a)(ii) The Commission shall provide a window of 15 (Fifteen) days after the
date of declaration of result of written part of Combined Medical Services
Examination, 2026. All the candidates qualified for the Personality Test/Interview
shall be required to mandatorily login to the portal (https://upsconline.nic.in)
during this period and shall be required to update their details/educational
qualification status (whether appearing/appeared) along with proof of passing the
requisite qualifying Examination, and upload the relevant documents as proof of
their claim, failing which, such candidates will not be allowed to participate in the
further stages of this examination and no correspondence will be entertained by
the Commission in this regard.

NOTE-1: In addition to para 1(a)(ii) above, the candidates (wherever applicable) are
required to update the Correspondence/Permanent Postal Address, Higher
Educational Qualification, Achievement in different fields (if any), Employment
details/Service Experience, details of the Service allocated on the basis of
earlier/previous Combined Medical Services Examination (if any), Marital Status,
PwBD Recommendation details in past, Parental Details, Debarment information,
earlier Examination details, OBC/EWS Annexure (wherever applicable) and
submit their Online Application Form.

NOTE- 2: Candidates who have uploaded the required documents/information
earlier and have no information to update/fill in, are also required to login and
finally submit after verifying the details so as to generate the e-Summon letter for
the Personality Test/Interview.

NOTE- 3: The candidates are advised to regularly visit the Commission’s website
with regard to further updates.

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2.(a) The Services/Posts to which recruitment is to be made and the tentative number of
vacancies to be filled on the basis of result of the examination are as follows:-

Category-I
Medical Officers Grade in General Duty - 864
Medical Officers Sub-cadre of Central Health Service

Category-II
(i) Assistant Divisional Medical Officer - 450
in the Railways.
(ii) General Duty Medical Officer in
New Delhi Municipal Council. - 14
(iii) General Duty Medical Officer Grade-II
in Municipal Corporation of Delhi - 30

The Services/Posts identified for PwBD Categories for Combined Medical Services
Examination, 2026 as under:-
(i) Thirty Four (34) Vacancies of Medical Officers Grade in General Duty Medical
Officers Sub-cadre of Central Health Service are reserved for Persons with
Benchmark Disability in the sub-categories of :-
(a) OA, OL, BL, OAL, CP, LC, DW, AAV : Seventeen (17), and
Total of (b) SLD; + [(c) MD involving (a) to (b) above] : Seventeen(17).

(ii) Eighteen (18) Vacancies of Assistant Divisional Medical Officer in the Railways
are reserved for Persons with Benchmark Disability belonging to Locomotor
Disability having functional classification OA, OL, BL, LC & AAV without joint
involvement.

(iii) NIL vacancy for Persons with Benchmark Disability of General Duty Medical
Officer in New Delhi Municipal Council.

(iv) Two (2) Vacancies for Persons with Benchmark Disability of General Duty
Medical Officer (Grade-II) in Municipal Corporation of Delhi in the sub-categories
of :-
(a) Locomotor Disability : Zero (0),
(b) SLD : One (01) and
(c) Multiple Disability involving (a) to (b) above : One (01)

NB: For the vacancies identified for Persons with Benchmark Disabilities in
respect of Central Health Service, Candidates may refer to Part – B of Appendix-
III of the Rules of Combined Medical Services Examination, 2026 available on the
website of the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.

The number of vacancies mentioned above is tentative and liable to alteration.

Reservation will be made for candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled
Tribes, Other Backward Classes, Economically Weaker Sections and Persons with
Benchmark Disability in respect of vacancies as may be fixed by the Government.

A candidate will be eligible to get the benefit of Community reservation only in
case the particular caste to which the candidate belongs is included in the list of
reserved Communities issued by the Central Government. The candidates will be
eligible to get the benefit of the Economically Weaker Section reservation only in
case the candidate meets the criteria issued by the Central Government and in
possession of such eligibility certification. If a candidate indicates in his/her
application form for Combined Medical Services Examination that he/she belongs to
Unreserved category but subsequently writes to the Commission to change his/her
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category to a reserved one, such request shall not be entertained by the Commission.
Further, once a candidate has chosen a reserved category, no request shall be
entertained for change to other reserved category viz. SC to ST, ST to SC, OBC to SC/ST
or SC/ST to OBC, SC to EWS, EWS to SC, ST to EWS, EWS to ST, OBC to EWS, EWS
to OBC. No reserved category candidates other than those who qualified each stage of
the Examination on General standard, shall be allowed to change (on their request or
as decided by the Commission/Government based on the documents submitted by
them) their category from reserved to unreserved or claim the vacancies (Service/Cadre)
for UR category after the declaration of final result by the Commission. In cases where
such candidates do not qualify on General Standard, their candidature shall be
cancelled. Further, no candidate belonging to any sub-category of Persons with
Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) shall be allowed to change the sub-category of
disability.
While the above principle will be followed in general, there may be a few cases
where there was a little gap not more than 3 months between the issuance of a
Government Notifications enlisting a particular Community in the list of any of the
reserved Communities and the date of submission of the application by the candidate.
In such cases, the request for change of Community from General to Reserved may be
considered by the Commission on merit.

In case of a candidate unfortunately becoming Persons with Benchmark Disability
during the course of the examination process, the candidate must produce valid
documents showing him/her acquiring a disability to the extent of 40% or more as
defined under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 to consider him/her to
get the benefits of PwBD reservation.
Candidates seeking reservation/relaxation benefits available for
SC/ST/OBC/EWS/PwBD/Ex-servicemen must ensure that they are entitled to such
reservation/relaxation as per eligibility prescribed in the Rules/Notice. They should be
in possession of all the requisite valid certificates in the prescribed format in support
of their claim as stipulated in the Rules/ Notice for such benefits by the closing date of
the application of Combined Medical Services Examination, 2026.

A candidate of Combined Medical Services Examination, 2026 will be eligible
to get the benefit of the Economically Weaker Section reservation only in case the
candidate meets the criteria issued by the Central Government and is in possession
of requisite Income & Asset Certificate based on the income for Financial Year (FY)
2024-2025 and issued on/after 01.04.2025 (after the completion of FY 2024-25)
but not later than the closing date of the application for Combined Medical Services
Examination-2026 i.e. 31.03.2026.

The OBC candidates applying for Combined Medical Services Examination, 2026
must produce OBC (Non-Creamy Layer) Certificate based on the income of the Financial
Year (FY) 2022-2023, 2023-2024, and 2024-2025 and issued on/after 01.04.2025 (after
the completion of FY 2024-2025) but not later than the closing date of the application
for Combined Medical Services Examination, 2026 i.e. 31.03.2026.

(b) A candidate may apply for admission to the examination in respect of any one
or more of the Services/Posts mentioned in para 2 (a) above.

Candidates will be required to indicate preferences for Services/Posts at the appropriate
time. In case preference for none of the Services is indicated, the candidate will
not be considered for Service Allocation. If a candidate wishes to be admitted for
more than one service/post he/she need to submit only one application. He/She will
be required to pay the fee mentioned in para 4 below once only and will not be required
to pay separate fee for each of the Services/Posts for which he/she applies.

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(c) PRATIBHA SETU PORTAL (erstwhile PUBLIC DISCLOSURE SCHEME):-

As per the policy notified by the Government for increasing the access of
unemployed to job opportunities, the information of candidates who appeared in the
final stage of Examination (Interview/Personality Test) but not recommended, will be
made accessible to any registered Private Company, Public Sector Undertaking,
Statutory and Autonomous Organisations of Government of India on the dedicated
Portal on the website of the Commission to identify suitable candidates in line of their
requirements for providing employment. Short biodata of the candidates with their
educational qualifications, contact numbers, details including their percentile (not
absolute or percentage marks), etc. will also be made accessible on this dedicated
Portal. The data available on this Portal shall be restricted for the purpose of evaluation
of suitability of the candidates for employment purpose only to these registered
organisations. These lists will be made available after the Reserve List is
utilized/exhausted after declaration of final result. It may be noted that there is no
option for partial disclosure and choice once opted cannot be changed.

Candidates will be required to give their consent at the time of filling the Exam
Specific Module. A candidate may opt out of the scheme also and in that case his/her
details will not be published by the Commission.

Besides sharing of the information of the non-recommended willing candidates of
this examination, the Commission will not assume any responsibility or liability for the
method and manner in which information related to such candidates is utilized by these
registered organizations.

3. CONDITIONS OF ELIGIBILITY:

(I) NATIONALITY

A candidate must be either:
(a) a Citizen of India, or
(b) a subject of Nepal, or
(c) a subject of Bhutan, or
(d) a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before the 1st January, 1962 with the
intention of permanently settling in India. or
(e) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka or
East African Countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia,
Malawi, Zaire and Ethiopia or from Vietnam with the intention of permanently
settling in India.
Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (b), (c), (d) and (e) above shall be
a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government
of India.
A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary, may be admitted
to the examination but the offer of appointment may be given only after the necessary
eligibility certificate has been issued to him/her by the Government of India.

(II) AGE LIMIT:

(a) A candidate for this examination must not have attained the age of thirty two
(32) years as on 1st August, 2026 i.e. the candidate must have been born not
earlier than 2nd August, 1994. However, for Medical Officers Grade in General
Duty Medical Officers Sub-cadre of Central Health Service, the upper age limit
must not exceed thirty-five (35) years as on 1st August, 2026.

(b) The upper age limit is relaxable as follows.

(i) Upto a maximum of five (05) years if a candidate belongs to a Scheduled Caste
or a Scheduled Tribe.
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(ii) Upto a maximum of three (03) years in the case of candidates belonging to Other
Backward Classes who are eligible to avail of reservation applicable to such
candidates.

(iii) Upto a maximum of three (03) years in the case of Defence Services personnel
disabled in operations during hostilities with any foreign country or in a
disturbed area and released as a consequence thereof.

(iv) Upto a maximum of five (05) years in the case of Ex-servicemen including
Commissioned Officers and ECOs/SSCOs who have rendered at least five (05)
years Military Service as on 1st August, 2026 and have been released
(i) on completion of assignment (including those whose assignment is due to be
completed within one year from 1st August, 2026 otherwise than by way of
dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency, or
(ii) on account of physical disability attributable to Military Service or
(iii) on invalidment.

(v) Upto a maximum of five (05) years in the case of ECOs/SSCOs who have
completed an initial period of assignment of five (05) years Military Service as
on 1st August, 2026 and whose assignment has been extended beyond five (05)
years and in whose case the Ministry of Defence issues a certificate that they
can apply for civil employment and that they will be released on 3 months’
notice on selection from the date of receipt of offer of appointment.

(vi) Up to a maximum of ten (10) years in the case of Persons with Benchmark
Disability viz. (a) blindness and low vision, (b) deaf and hard of hearing, (c)
Locomotor disability including cerebral palsy, leprosy cured, dwarfism, acid
attack victims and muscular dystrophy, (d) autism, intellectual disability,
specific learning disability and mental illness; (e) multiple disabilities from
amongst person under clauses (a) to (d) of Section 34 of the Rights of Persons
with Disabilities Act, 2016 including deaf-blindness.

NOTE 1: Candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes and the
Other Backward Classes who are also covered under any other clauses of para 3(II) (b)
above, viz. those coming under the category of Ex-servicemen and Persons with
Benchmark Disability will be eligible for grant of cumulative age-relaxation under both
the categories.

NOTE 2: The details of Functional Classification (FC) and Physical Requirements (PR)
of each service are indicated in Appendix-V of this notice which are identified and
prescribed by the respective Cadre Controlling Authorities (CCAs) as per the provisions
of Section 33 and 34 of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016. Only those
category (ies) of disability (ies) mentioned in Appendix-V shall apply for the examination
under Persons with Benchmark Disability (PwBD) Category. Therefore, the candidates
belonging to the Persons with Benchmark Disability (PwBD) categories are advised to
read it carefully before applying for the examination.

NOTE 3: The term Ex-servicemen will apply to the persons who are defined as Ex-
servicemen in the Ex-servicemen (Re-employment in Civil Services and Posts) Rules,
1979, as amended from time to time.

NOTE 4: The age concession under Rule 3 II(b)(iv) and Rule 3 II(b)(v) will be admissible
to Ex-servicemen i.e. a person who has served in any rank whether as combatant or
non-combatant in the Regular Army, Navy and Air Force of the Indian Union and who
either has been retired or relieved or discharged from such service whether at his/her
own request or being relieved by the employer after earning his/her pension

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NOTE 5: Notwithstanding the provision of age-relaxation under para 3 (II) (b)(vi) above,
a Person with Benchmark Disability will be considered to be eligible for appointment
only if he/she (after such physical examination as the Government or appointing
authority, as the case may be, may prescribe) is found to satisfy the requirements of
physical and medical standards for the concerned Services/Posts to be allocated to the
Persons with Benchmark Disability (PwBD) by the Government.

SAVE AS PROVIDED ABOVE THE AGE LIMIT PRESCRIBED CAN IN NO CASE BE
RELAXED.

The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation
or Secondary School Leaving Certificate or in a certificate recognised by an Indian
University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of Matriculates
maintained by a University which must be certified by the proper authority of the
University or in the Higher Secondary or an equivalent examination certificate. These
certificates are required to be submitted only after the declaration of the result of the
written examination.

No other document relating to age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from
Municipal Corporation, service records and the like will be accepted. The expression
Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examination Certificate in this part of the instruction
includes the alternative certificate mentioned above.

NOTE 1: Candidates should note that only the Date of Birth as recorded in the
Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examination Certificate or an equivalent certificate as
on the date of submission of applications will be accepted by the Commission and no
subsequent request for its change will be considered or granted.

NOTE 2 : Candidates should also note that once a Date of Birth has been submitted
by them in the Online Application Form and entered in the records of the Commission
for the purpose of admission to an Examination, no change will be allowed subsequently
(or at any other Examination of the Commission) on any ground whatsoever.

NOTE 3: THE CANDIDATE SHOULD EXERCISE DUE CARE WHILE ENTERING THEIR
DATE OF BIRTH IN THE RESPECTIVE COLUMN OF THE ONLINE APPLICATION FORM.
IF ON VERIFICATION AT ANY SUBSEQUENT STAGE, ANY VARIATION IS FOUND IN
THEIR DATE OF BIRTH FROM THE ONE ENTERED IN THEIR MATRICULATION OR
EQUIVALENT EXAMINATION CERTIFICATE, DISCIPLINARY ACTION WILL BE TAKEN
AGAINST THEM BY THE COMMISSION UNDER THE RULES.

(III) EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION:

For admission to the examination a candidate should have passed the written and
practical parts of the final M.B.B.S. Examination.

NOTE-1: A candidate who has appeared/or is yet to appear at the final M.B.B.S.
Examination may also apply. Such candidates will be admitted to the examination
if otherwise eligible but the admission would be deemed to be provisional subject
to cancellation, if they do not produce proof of having passed the written and
practical parts of the final M.B.B.S. Examination within the time limit prescribed
at para 1(a)(ii).

Only valid proof of passing the qualifying examination viz. Degree
Certificate/Final Marksheet/Provisional Degree Certificate etc. as are normally
issued to the candidates by the competent authority will be accepted.

11

NOTE-2: A candidate who has yet to complete the compulsory rotating internship is
educationally eligible for admission to the examination but on selection he/she will be
appointed only after he/she has completed the compulsory rotating internship.

(IV) PHYSICAL AND MEDICAL STANDARDS:

Candidates must be physically and medically fit according to the physical/medical
standards for the Combined Medical Services Examination, 2026 as per regulations
contained in Appendix III to the Rules of the Examination.

4. FEE:

Candidates (except Female/SC/ST/PwBD candidates who are exempted from payment
of fee) are required to pay fee of Rs. 200/- (Rupees Two Hundred only) either by using
Net Banking Facility of any bank or by using Visa/Master/RuPay/Credit/Debit
Card/UPI Payment for appearing in the Combined Medical Services Examination, 2026.

NOTE-1: Candidates should note that payment of examination fee can be made only
through the modes prescribed above. Payment of fee through any other mode is neither
valid nor acceptable. Applications submitted without the prescribed fee/mode (unless
remission of fee is claimed) shall be summarily rejected.

NOTE-2: Fee once paid shall not be refunded under any circumstances nor can the fee
be held in reserve for any other examination or selection.

ALL FEMALE CANDIDATES AND CANDIDATES BELONGING TO THE SCHEDULED
CASTES/SCHEDULED TRIBES/PERSONS WITH BENCHMARK DISABILITY
CATEGORIES ARE EXEMPTED FROM PAYMENT OF FEE. NO FEE EXEMPTION IS,
HOWEVER, AVAILABLE TO OBC/EWS CANDIDATES AND THEY ARE REQUIRED
TO PAY THE PRESCRIBED FEE IN FULL.

NOTE 3: Candidates belonging to Persons with Benchmark Disabilities are exempted
from the payment of fee provided they are otherwise eligible for appointment to the
Services/Posts to be filled on the results of this examination on the basis of the
standards of medical fitness for these Services/Posts (including any concessions
specifically extended to the Persons with Benchmark Disability). A Person with
Benchmark Disability claiming age relaxation/fee concession will be required to submit
along with his/her Registration and Online Application Form, a certified copy of the
certificate of disability from a Government Hospital/ Medical Board in support of
his/her claim for belonging to Persons with Benchmark Disability.

NOTE 4: Notwithstanding the aforesaid provision for age relaxation/fee exemption, a
Persons with Benchmark Disabilities will be considered to be eligible for appointment
only if he/she (after such physical examination as the Government or the appointing
authority, as the case may be, may prescribe) is found to satisfy the requirements of
physical and medical standards for the concerned Services/Posts to be allocated to
Persons with Benchmark Disabilities by the Government.

NB: Applications without prescribed Fee (unless remission of Fee is claimed) shall be
summarily rejected.

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5. HOW TO APPLY:

(a) Candidates are required to apply online by using the Commission’s website
https://upsconline.nic.in. Candidates are advised to go through the General
instructions, Profile/Module-wise instructions and instructions for uploading of
documents before proceeding to fill up the form. A candidate who is willing to apply for
Combined Medical Services Examination, 2026 shall be required to submit the requisite
information and supporting documents towards various claims, such as date of birth,
category [viz. SC/ST/OBC/EWS/PwBD/Ex-Servicemen], educational qualification, etc.
as may be sought by the Commission along with the Universal Registration Number
(URN), Common Application Form (CAF) and the fourth module i.e. Examination
Specific Module (including fees and centre etc.). Failure to provide the required
information/documents along with the Common Application Form (CAF) will entail
cancellation of candidature for the examination.

NOTE-1: One-time Edit Facility for URN Profile:

The Commission provides a one-time facility for candidates to update or modify
their Universal Registration Number (URN) Profile. Please note that any changes made
to the URN Profile will not be reflected in application already submitted. The updated
information will apply only to application submitted after the candidate has made the
necessary changes and successfully re-locked the URN Profile.

NOTE – 2 : Live Photo Capture for filling up of Common Application Form (CAF):

Applicants are required to upload their photograph and also capture their live
photograph while filling up the Common Application Form (CAF). Applicants must
ensure that the uploaded photograph and the live photograph captured are clear as per
instructions given on “Instructions and FAQs > Instruction for filling the form > Photos
and Signature” available on the Commission’s website: https://upsconline.nic.in .

NOTE -3: Uploading of Signature:

Applicants are required to sign three times (one below the other) on a plain white
paper using black ink and upload the same while filling up the Common Application
Form (CAF). The uploaded signatures should be clear and legible. The candidates are
advised to refer to the instruction for uploading the signature available under the
header “Instructions and FAQs” on the Commission’s website:
https://upsconline.nic.in .

NOTE-4: The candidates will not be allowed to withdraw their applications after the
submission of the same. Further no correction /alteration/modification in any field(s)
of the Application Form is allowed after submission.

(b) All the candidates, whether already in Government Service or Government
owned Industrial Undertakings or other similar organisations or in Private Employment
should submit their applications online direct to the Commission.

Persons already in Government service, whether in a permanent or temporary
capacity or as work charged employees other than casual or daily rated employees or
those serving under the Public Enterprises are however, required to submit an
undertaking that they have informed in writing to their Head of Office/Department that
they have applied for the Examination.

Candidates should note that in case a communication is received from their
employer by the Commission withholding permission to the candidates applying
for/appearing at the examination, their application shall be rejected/candidature shall
be liable to be cancelled.

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NOTE 1: While filling in his/her Online Application Form, the candidate should
carefully decide about his/her choice for the Centre of Examination.

If any candidate appears at a Centre other than the one indicated by the
Commission in his/her e- Admit Card, the papers of such a candidate will not be
valued and his/her candidature will be liable to cancellation.

NOTE 2: Incomplete or defective applications shall be summarily rejected. No
representation or correspondence regarding such rejection shall be entertained under
any circumstances.

NOTE 3: Candidates are not required to submit hard copy of the application to the
Commission.

The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfil all the
eligibility conditions for admission to the Examination. Their admission at all the
stages of examination for which they are admitted by the Commission viz. Written
Examination and Interview/Personality Test will be purely provisional, subject to
their satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. If on verification at any time
before or after the Written Examination or Interview/ Personality Test, it is found
that they do not fulfil any of the eligibility conditions; their candidature for the
examination will be cancelled by the Commission.

If any of their claims is found to be incorrect, they may render themselves liable
to disciplinary action by the Commission in terms of Rule 11 of the Rules for the
Combined Medical Services Examination, 2026, reproduced below:

(1) A candidate who is or has been declared by the Commission to be guilty of:-

(a) Obtaining support for candidature by the following means, namely:-
(i) offering illegal gratification to; or
(ii) applying pressure on; or
(iii) blackmailing, or threatening to blackmail any person connected with
the conduct of the examination; or
(b) impersonation; or
(c) procuring impersonation by any person; or
(d) submitting fabricated/incorrect documents or documents which have been
tampered with; or
(e) uploading irrelevant or incorrect photo/signature in the application form in
place of actual photo/signature; or
(f) making statements which are incorrect or false or suppressing material
information; or
(g) resorting to the following means in connection with the candidature for the
examination, namely :-
(i) obtaining copy of question paper through improper means; or
(ii) finding out the particulars of the persons connected with secret work
relating to the examination; or
(iii) influencing the examiners; or
(h) being in possession of or using unfair means during the examination; or
(i) writing obscene matter or drawing obscene sketches or irrelevant matter in
the scripts; or
(j) misbehaving in the examination hall including tearing of the scripts,
provoking fellow examinees to boycott examination, creating a disorderly
scene and the like; or
(k) harassing, threatening or doing bodily harm to the staff employed by the
Commission for the conduct of the examination; or

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(l) being in possession of or using any mobile phone, (even in switched-off
mode), pager or any electronic equipment or programmable device or
storage media like pen drive, smart watches etc. or camera or Bluetooth
devices or any other equipment or related accessories (either in working or
switched-off mode) capable of being used as a communication device during
the examination; or
(m) violating any of the instructions issued to candidates along with their
admission certificates permitting them to take the examination; or
(n) attempting to commit or, as the case may be, abetting the commission of
all or any of the acts specified in the foregoing clauses;

In addition to being liable to appropriate legal action as deemed fit under the
Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024, as amended from time
to time, the candidate shall be disqualified by the Commission from the
Examination held under these Rules; and/or shall be liable to be debarred either
permanently or for a specified period:-

(i) by the Commission, from any examination or selection held by them;
(ii) by the Central Government from any employment under them;

and shall be liable to face disciplinary action under the appropriate rules if already
in service under Government; Provided that no penalty under this rule shall be
imposed except after :-

(i) giving the candidate an opportunity of making such representation
in writing as the candidate may wish to make in that behalf; and
(ii) taking the representation, if any, submitted by the candidate within
the period allowed for this purpose, into consideration.

(2) Any person who is found by the Commission to be guilty of colluding with a
candidate(s) in committing or abetting the commission of any of the misdeeds listed
at the clauses (a) to (m) above will be liable to appropriate legal action in terms of the
clause (n) above as deemed fit under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair
Means) Act, 2024, as amended from time to time.

NOTE: If a candidate is found to be in possession or using unfair means, may not be
allowed to continue in the said exam as soon as the incident comes to notice of the
Examination functionaries and the action against the candidates may be taken in
consultation with the Commission. Further, the candidate may also not be allowed
in any of the subsequent papers of the said examination.

6. LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION:

(i) The Online Applications can be filled upto 31st March, 2026 till 06:00 P.M.
after which the link will be disabled. Detailed instructions regarding filling of Online
Application is available at Appendix – II.

(ii) The candidates will not be allowed to withdraw their applications after the
submission of the same.

7. CORRESPONDENCE WITH THE COMMISSION:

The Commission will not enter into any correspondence with the candidates about
their candidature except in the following cases:

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(i) The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card on the last working day
of the preceding week of the date of the examination. Further, those candidates, who
have opted for change of Scribe upto seven (07) days prior to the date of the
examination, shall be issued e-Admit Card three (03) days prior to the date of
examination. The e-Admit Card will be made available on the Commission’s website
[https://upsconline.nic.in] for downloading by candidates. No Admit Card will be sent
by post or email.

If a candidate does not receive his/her e-Admit Card or any other communication
regarding his/her candidature for the examination on the last working day of the
preceding week of the date of examination, he/she should at once contact the
Commission.

Information in this regard can also be obtained from the Facilitation Counter located in
the Commission’s Office either in person or over phone via Helpdesk no. 011-
24041001. In case no communication is received in the Commission's Office from
the candidate regarding non-receipt of his/her e-Admit Card at least three days
before the commencement of the examination, he/she himself/herself will be solely
responsible for non-receipt of his/her e-Admit Card. No candidate will ordinarily be
allowed to take the examination unless he/she holds an e-Admit Card for the
examination. On downloading of e-Admit Card, the candidates are requested to check
it carefully and bring discrepancies/errors, if any, to the notice of the Commission
immediately.

The mere fact that an e-Admit Card to the Examination has been issued to a
candidate, will not imply that his/her candidature has been finally cleared by the
Commission or that entries made by the candidate in his/her Universal
Registration Number (URN), Common Application Form (CAF) and Exam Specific
Module for the Combined Medical Services Examination have been accepted by
the Commission as true and correct. Candidates may note that the Commission
take up the verification of eligibility conditions of a candidate, with reference to
original documents, only after the candidate has qualified for
Interview/Personality Test on the results of the Written Examination. Unless
candidature is formally confirmed by the Commission, it continues to be
provisional.

The decision of the Commission as to the eligibility or otherwise of a candidate for
admission to the Examination shall be final. Candidates should note that the name in
the e-Admit Card in some cases, may be abbreviated due to technical reasons.

(ii) Candidates must ensure that their email ID given in their application are valid
and active as the Commission may use electronic mode of communication while
contacting them at different stage of examination process.

(iii) A candidate must see that communications sent to him/her at the address
stated in his/her application are redirected, if necessary. Change in address should be
communicated to the Commission at the earliest opportunity. Although the
Commission makes every effort to take account of such changes, they cannot accept
any responsibility in the matter.

Important: All communications to the Commission should invariably contain the
following particulars:

1. NAME AND YEAR OF THE EXAMINATION.
2. UNIVERSAL REGISTRATION NUMBER (URN)
3. APPLICATION NUMBER

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4. ROLL NUMBER (IF RECEIVED)
5. NAME OF CANDIDATE (IN FULL AND IN BLOCK LETTERS)
6. COMPLETE POSTAL ADDRESS AS GIVEN IN THE APPLICATION.
7. VALID AND ACTIVE REGISTERED E-MAIL ID AND REGISTERED MOBILE
NUMBER.

N.B.: (i) Communication not containing the above particulars may not be attended
to.
N.B.: (ii) If a letter/communication is received from a candidate after an examination
has been held and it does not give his/her full name and Roll number, it will be ignored
and no action will be taken thereon.
N.B. (iii) Candidates are strongly advised to keep a printout or soft copy of their online
application for future references.

8. The eligibility for availing reservation against the vacancies reserved for the
Persons with Benchmark Disability shall be the same as prescribed in “The Rights of
Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016”. The candidates of Multiple Disabilities will be
eligible for reservation under category (e) - Multiple Disabilities only of Section 34(1) of
RPwD Act, 2016 and shall not be eligible for reservation under any other categories of
disabilities i.e. (a) to (d) of Section 34(1) of RPwD Act, 2016 on account of having 40%
and above impairment in any of these categories of PwBD.

Provided further that the Persons with Benchmark Disability shall also be
required to meet special eligibility criteria in terms of Functional Classification and
Physical Requirements (abilities/disabilities) (FC&PR) consistent with requirements of
the identified service/post as may be prescribed by its Cadre Controlling Authority. A
list of services identified suitable for Persons with Benchmark Disability along with the
Functional Classification and Physical Requirements is at Appendix V.

9. The candidates will not be allowed to withdraw their applications after the
submission of the same.

10. The form and manner of communication of the result of the examination to
individual candidates shall be decided by the Commission in their discretion and the
Commission will not enter into correspondence with them regarding the result.

11. Subject to other provisions contained in this Notice, successful candidates will be
considered for appointment on the basis of the order of merit assigned to them by the
Commission and preferences expressed by them for various posts.

12. Success in the examination confers no right to appointment unless
Government are satisfied after such enquiry as may be considered necessary that
the candidate having regard to his/her character and antecedents is suitable in all
respects for appointment to the service. The appointment will be further subject
to the candidate, satisfying the appointing authority of his/her having
satisfactorily completed the compulsory rotating internship.

13. A candidate must be in good mental and bodily health and free from any physical
defect likely to interfere with the discharge of his/her duties as an officer of the Service.
A candidate, who after such physical examination, as Government or the appointing
authority, as the case may be, may prescribe, is found not to satisfy these requirements,
will not be appointed.

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14. NO PERSON –

(a) who has entered into or contracted a marriage with a person having a spouse
living; or

(b) who having a spouse living has entered into or contracted a marriage with
any person;
shall be eligible for appointment of service;

Provided that the Central Government may if satisfied that such marriage is
permissible under the personal law applicable to such person and the other party to the
marriage and there are other grounds for so doing exempt any person from the operation
of this rule.

15. The details regarding (a) Scheme and Syllabi of the examination, (b)
Instructions/Guidelines for filling up the application form, (c) Special Instructions to the
candidates for objective type tests and (d) Brief particulars of the services to which
recruitment is made are given in Appendix I, II, III and IV of this Notice.

16. ‘ROUNDING OFF MARKS’ AND ‘TIE-BREAKING PRINCIPLE’:

The provisions relating to the rounding off of marks, wherever applicable, and
the principles for resolving cases of tie in scores shall be as prescribed below:-

(A) Rounding Off Marks:

Marks obtained by the candidates shall be rounded off up to two decimal
digits, at all stage(s) of the examination, by applying the standard rounding off
principle, wherever applicable. Accordingly, while applying the tie-breaking
principles, the rounded-off marks upto two decimal digits shall be considered for
resolving all tie cases.

(B) Tie-Breaking Principle:

(i) If the marks in aggregate (Final Marks) are equal, the candidate
securing more marks in the written total will be ranked higher;
(ii) If the marks at (i) above are equal, the candidate senior in age will be
ranked higher;
(iii) If the date of birth is also same, the candidate whose date of
completion of the Internship is earlier, will be ranked higher; and
(iv) In cases where a tie persists even after applying the above Tie
Breaking Principles, it will be resolved at the discretion of the
Commission.

(JITENDRA KUMAR MANDAL)
UNDER SECRETARY (EXAMINATION)
UNION PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

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APPENDIX-I
SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

The examination shall be conducted according to the following plan:-
Part-I
WRITTEN EXAMINATION – (500 marks)
The candidates will take the written examination in two Papers, each Paper carrying a
maximum of 250 marks. Each Paper will be of two hours duration.

Part-II
PERSONALITY TEST: (100 Marks):
Personality Test carrying 100 marks of such of the candidates who qualify on the results
of the written examination.

(A) Written Examination:
1. The components and syllabi of two Papers and the weightage to different components
in the two papers are given below: -

PAPER I Maximum Marks: 250
(Code No. 1)

GENERAL MEDICINE AND PAEDIATRICS:

Total questions in Paper I = 120 (96 from General Medicine and 24 from
Paediatrics);

SYLLABUS OF PAPER-I

(a) General Medicine including the following:

(i) Cardiology
(ii) Respiratory diseases
(iii) Gastro-intestinal
(iv) Genito-Urinary
(v) Neurology
(vi) Hematology
(vii) Endocrinology
(viii) Metabolic disorders
(ix) Infections/Communicable Diseases
a) Virus
b) Rickets
c) Bacterial
d) Spirochetal
e) Protozoan
f) Metazoan
g) Fungus
(x) Nutrition/Growth
(xi) Diseases of the skin (Dermatology)
(xii) Musculoskeletal System
(xiii) Psychiatry
(xiv) General
(xv) Emergency Medicine
(xvi) Common Poisoning
(xvii) Snake bite
(xviii) Tropical Medicine
(xix) Critical Care Medicine
(xx) Emphasis on medical procedures
(xxi) Patho physiological basis of diseases

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(xxii) Vaccines preventable diseases and Non vaccines preventable diseases
(xxiii) Vitamin deficiency diseases
(xxiv) In psychiatry include – Depression, psychosis, anxiety, bipolar diseases and
Schizophrenia.

(b) Paediatrics including the following –

(i) Common childhood emergencies,
(ii) Basic new born care,
(iii) Normal developmental milestones,
(iv) Accidents and poisonings in children,
(v) Birth defects and counselling including autism,
(vi) Immunization in children,
(vii) Recognizing children with special needs and management, and
(viii) National programmes related to child health.

PAPER II Maximum Marks: 250
(Code No. 2)

(a) Surgery
(b) Gynaecology & Obstetrics
(c) Preventive & Social Medicine

Total questions in Paper II = 120 (40 questions from each part.)

SYLLABUS OF PAPER – II

(a) SURGERY
(Surgery including ENT, Ophthalmology, Traumatology and Orthopaedics)

(I) General Surgery
i) Wounds
ii) Infections
iii) Tumours
iv) Lymphatic
v) Blood vessels
vi) Cysts/sinuses
vii) Head and neck
viii) Breast
ix) Alimentary tract
a) Oesophagus
b) Stomach
c) Intestines
d) Anus
e) Developmental
x) Liver, Bile, Pancreas
xi) Spleen
xii) Peritoneum
xiii) Abdominal wall
xiv) Abdominal injuries
(II) Urological Surgery
(III) Neuro Surgery
(IV) Otorhinolaryngology E.N.T.
(V) Thoracic surgery
(VI) Orthopaedic surgery
(VII) Ophthalmology
(VIII) Anesthesiology
(IX) Traumatology
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(X) Diagnosis and management of common surgical ailments
(XI) Pre-operative and post-operative care of surgical patients
(XII) Medicolegal and ethical issues of surgery
(XIII) Wound healing
(XIV) Fluid and electrolyte management in surgery
(XV) Shock patho-physiology and management.

(b) GYNAECOLOGY & OBSTETRICS

(I) OBSTETRICS

i) Ante-natal conditions
ii) Intra-natal conditions
iii) Post-natal conditions
iv) Management of normal labours or complicated labour

(II) GYNAECOLOGY

i) Questions on applied anatomy
ii) Questions on applied physiology of menstruation and fertilization
iii) Questions on infections in genital tract
iv) Questions on neoplasma in the genital tract
v) Questions on displacement of the uterus
vi) Normal delivery and safe delivery practices
vii) High risk pregnancy and management
viii) Abortions
ix) Intra Uterine growth retardation
x) Medicolegal examination in obgy and Gynae including Rape.

(III) FAMILY PLANNING
i) Conventional contraceptives
ii) U.D. and oral pills
iii) Operative procedure, sterilization and organization of programmes in the urban
and rural surroundings
iv) Medical Termination of Pregnancy

(c) PREVENTIVE SOCIAL AND COMMUNITY MEDICINE

I Social and Community Medicine
II Concept of Health, Disease and Preventive Medicine
III Health Administration and Planning
IV General Epidemiology
V Demography and Health Statistics
VI Communicable Diseases
VII Environmental Health
VIII Nutrition and Health
IX Non-communicable diseases
X Occupational Health
XI Genetics and Health
XII International Health
XIII Medical Sociology and Health Education
XIV Maternal and Child Health
XV National Programmes
XVI Management of common health problems
XVII Ability to monitor national health programmes
XVIII Knowledge of maternal and child wellness
XIX Ability to recognize, investigate, report, plan and manage community health
problems including malnutrition and emergencies.
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2. The written examination in both the papers will be completely of objective
(Multiple choice answers) type. The question Papers (Test Booklets) will be set in English
only.

3. GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS FOR EXAMINATION:

3.1 Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances
will they be allowed the help of a scribe to write the answers for them. However,
the Persons with Benchmark Disabilities in the categories of blindness,
locomotor disability (both arm affected–BA) and cerebral palsy will be eligible
for the facility of scribe, if desired by the person. In case of other category of
Persons with Benchmark Disabilities as defined under Section 2(r) of the RPwD
Act, 2016, such candidates will be eligible for the facility of scribe on production
of a certificate to the effect that the person concerned has physical limitation to
write, and scribe is essential to write the examination on his/her behalf, from the
Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Medical Superintendent of a Government
Healthcare institution as per proforma at Appendix–VI.

Further, for persons with specified disabilities covered under the definition of
Section 2(s) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of
the said Act, i.e. persons having less than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing
will be eligible for the facility of scribe subject to production of a certificate to the effect
that person concerned has limitation to write and that scribe is essential to write the
examination on his/her behalf from the competent medical authority of a Government
healthcare institution as per proforma at Appendix-VIII.

3.2 The candidates have discretion of opting for his/her own scribe or request
the Commission for the same. The details of scribe i.e. whether own or the
Commission’s and the details of scribe in case candidates are bringing their own
scribe, will be sought at the time of filling up the application form online as per
proforma at Appendix –VII (for Candidates having 40% disability or more) and Appendix
- IX (for Candidates having less than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing).

3.3 The qualification of the Commission’s scribe as well as own scribe will not
be more than the minimum qualification criteria of the examination. However, the
qualification of the scribe should always be matriculate or above.

3.4 The Persons with Benchmark Disabilities in the category of blindness,
locomotor disability (both arm affected-BA) and cerebral palsy will be eligible for
Compensatory Time of twenty minutes per hour of the examination. In case of
other categories of Person with Benchmark Disabilities, such candidates will be
eligible for this facility on production of a certificate to the effect that the person
concerned has physical limitation to write from the Chief Medical Officer/Civil
Surgeon/ Medical Superintendent of a Government Healthcare institution as per
proforma at Appendix – VI.

Further, for persons with specified disabilities covered under the definition of Section
2(s) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the said
Act, i.e. persons having less than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing will be
eligible for compensatory time subject to production of a certificate to the effect that
person concerned has limitation to write from the competent medical authority of a
Government healthcare institution as per proforma at Appendix – VIII.

3.5 Facility of Scribe and/or Compensatory time to eligible candidates will be
provided, if desired by them.

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NOTE 1: The eligibility conditions of a scribe, his/her conduct inside the examination
hall and the manner in which and extent to which he/she can help the eligible candidates
(as defined above) shall be governed by the instructions issued by the Commission in
this regard. Violation of all or any of the said instructions shall entail the cancellation of
the candidature of the PwBD candidate in addition to any other action that the
Commission may take against the scribe.

NOTE 2: The criteria for determining the percentage of visual impairment shall be as
follows :—
Better eye Worse eye Per Cent Disability category
Best Corrected Best Corrected Impairment
6/6 to 6/18 6/6 to 6/18 0% 0
6/24 to 6/60 10% 0
Less than 6/60 to 3/60 20% I
Less than 3/60 to No 30% II (One eyed person)
Light Perception
6/24 to 6/60 6/24 to 6/60 40% III a (low vision)
Or Less than 6/60 to 3/60 50% III b (low vision)
Visual field less than 40 Less than 3/60 to No 60% III c (low vision)
up to 20 degree around Light Perception
centre of fixation or
heminaopia involving
macula
Less than 6/60 to 3/60 Less than 6/60 to 3/60 70% III d (low vision)
Or Less than 3/60 to No 80% III e (low vision)
Visual field less than 20 Light Perception
up to 10 degree around
centre of fixation
Less than 3/60 to 1/60 Less than 3/60 to No 90% IV a (Blindness)
Or Light Perception
Visual field less than 10
degree around centre of
fixation
Only HMCF Only HMCF 100% IV b (Blindness)
Only Light Perception Only Light Perception
No Light Perception No Light Perception

NOTE 3: The concession admissible to blind/low vision candidates shall not be
admissible to those suffering from Myopia.

4. The Commission have discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or both the papers
of the examination.

5. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS :

There will be penalty (Negative Marking) for wrong answers marked by a
candidate in the Objective Type Question Paper.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answers to every question. For each question
for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one third of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

23

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer
even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty
as above for that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no
penalty for that question.

6. Candidates are not permitted to use calculators for answering Objective Type
Papers. They should, therefore not bring the same inside the Examination Hall.

7. Both the Papers of the Combined Medical Services Examination will be of
MBBS standard.

(B) PERSONALITY TEST – (100 marks):

Candidates who qualify in the written examination will be called for Interview/
Personality Test to be conducted by the Commission. The Interview/ Personality Test will
carry 100 marks.

The Interview/Personality Test will be intended to serve as a supplement to the written
examination for testing the General Knowledge and ability of the candidates in the fields
of their academic study and also in the nature of a personality test to assess the
candidate’s intellectual curiosity, critical powers of assimilation, balance of judgement
and alertness of mind, ability for social cohesion, integrity of character, initiative and
capability for leadership.

APPENDIX-II

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES FOR FILLING ONLINE APPLICATION

Candidates are required to apply online by using the website https://upsconline.nic.in.

 Detailed instructions for filling up Online Applications are available on the above
mentioned website under the header ‘Instructions and FAQs’ -> ‘Instructions for filling
the form’.
 The Candidates are advised to go through the General Instructions, Profile/Module-wise
Instructions and Instructions for uploading of documents before proceeding to fill up the
form. A candidate who is willing to apply for Combined Medical Services Examination shall
be required to submit the requisite information and supporting documents towards various
claims, such as date of birth, educational qualification, etc. as may be sought by the
Commission along with the Universal Registration Number (URN) Profile, Common
Application Form (CAF) and the fourth module i.e. Examination Specific Module (including
fees and centre etc.).
 The candidates [except SC/ST/Female/PwBD candidates who are exempted from
payment of fee] are required to pay a fee of Rs. 200/- (Rupees Two Hundred Only) either
by using Net Banking Facility of any Bank or by using any
Visa/Master/RuPay/Credit/Debit Card/UPI Payment for appearing in Combined
Medical Services Examination, 2026.
 Before filling up Online Application Form, a candidate must have his/her photograph
and signature duly scanned in the .jpg format in such a manner that photograph file
should not exceed 200 KB and must not be less than 20 KB in size and signature file
should not exceed 100 KB and must not be less than 20 KB in size.

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 The Candidate should have details of one photo ID viz. Aadhaar Card/ Voter Card
(EPIC)/ PAN Card/ Passport/ Driving License/ Any other photo ID card issued by the
State/Central Government. The details of this photo ID will have to be provided by the
candidate while filling up the Online Application Form. This photo ID will be used for
all future references and the candidate is advised to carry this photo ID while appearing
for examination.
 The Online Applications can be filled from 11th March, 2026 to 31st March, 2026 till
06:00 P.M.
 Applicants should not submit multiple applications.
 The applicants must ensure that while filling their application form, they are providing
their valid and active email ID as the Commission may use electronic mode of
communication while contacting them at different stages of examination process.
 The Applicants are advised to check their emails at regular intervals and ensure that
the email addresses ending with @nic.in and @gov.in are directed to their INBOX folder
and not to the SPAM folder or any other folder.
 Candidates are strongly advised to apply Online well in time without waiting for
the last date for submission of Online Application.

APPENDIX III

SPECIAL INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES FOR OBJECTIVE TYPE TESTS

No candidate will be allowed to leave the venue of the Examination during the test.

1. ARTICLES PERMITTED INSIDE EXAMINATION HALL:

Clip board or hard board (on which nothing is written), a good quality black ball
pen for making responses on the Answer Sheet. Answer Sheet and sheet for rough
work will be supplied by the invigilator.

2. ARTICLES NOT PERMITTED INSIDE EXAMINATION HALL

 Do not bring into the Examination Hall any article other than those specified
above e.g. bags, books, notes, loose sheets, electronic or any other type of
calculators, mathematical and drawing instruments, Log Tables, stencils of
maps, slide rules, rough sheets pertaining to earlier session(s), any other
incriminating material (notes on e-Admit Cards, papers, erasers) etc.

 ELECTRONIC OR ANY OTHER TYPE OF CALCULATORS, LOG TABLES, SLIDE
RULES, CELLULAR/BLUETOOTH/MOBILE PHONES/PAGERS OR ANY
OTHER EQUIPMENT CAPABLE OF BEING USED AS A COMMUNICATION
DEVICE ARE NOT ALLOWED INSIDE THE PREMISES WHERE THE TEST IS
BEING CONDUCTED. ANY INFRINGEMENT OF THE ABOVE INSTRUCTIONS
SHALL ENTAIL DISCIPLINARY ACTION INCLUDING BAN FROM FUTURE
TEST.

 Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the
banned items including mobile phones/Bluetooth/pagers to the venue of
the examination, as no arrangements for safekeeping will be made at the
venue of the examination. Candidates are advised not to bring any
valuable/costly items to the Examination Halls, no arrangements for
safekeeping will be made at the venue of the examination. Commission
will not be responsible for any loss in this regard.

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3. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS

THERE WILL BE PENALTY (NEGATIVE MARKING) FOR WRONG
ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION
PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question
for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate. One third (0.33)
of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer
even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same
penalty as above for that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will
be no penalty for that question.

4. UNFAIR MEANS STRICTLY PROHIBITED

No candidate shall copy from the papers of any other candidate nor permit
his/her papers to be copied nor give nor attempt to give nor obtain nor attempt
to obtain irregular assistance of any description.

5. CONDUCT IN EXAMINATION HALL

 No candidate should misbehave in any manner or create disorderly scene in
the Examination Hall or harass the staff employed by the Commission for the
conduct of the examination. Any such misconduct will be severely penalised.

 Candidates must not, on any pretext whatsoever speak to or have any
communication with any other Candidates; such communication will be
regarded as a breach of the Test regulations.

 Candidates in the Test venue, who is found to have unauthorized materials in
his/her possession, shall be deemed to be in breach of the test regulations. All
breaches of test regulations shall be considered to constitute unfair practice.
In case any candidate is found to be indulging in unfair practice, he/she will
be debarred from this and future exams of UPSC and/or liable for disciplinary
action.

 At the conclusion of the test, candidates must remain quietly seated and must
not communicate with one another till the entire test time has elapsed.

 No candidate shall be permitted to leave the venue of the Examination till
expiry of the allotted time.

 No candidate shall be allowed to go to the toilet during the last 30 minutes of
the Test.

 The candidate must abide by the instructions and such further instructions as
may be given by Supervisor/Invigilator of the Test. If the candidate fails to do
so or indulges in disorderly or improper conduct, he/she will render
himself/herself liable to expulsion from the Test and/or such other
punishment as the Commission may deem fit to impose.

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APPENDIX IV

BRIEF PARTICULARS OF THE SERVICES

Brief particulars relating to the Services to which recruitment is being made through
this examination are given below:-

I. ASSISTANT DIVISIONAL MEDICAL OFFICER IN THE RAILWAYS:

(a) The post of Assistant Divisional Medical Officer in the Indian Railway Health
Service is in Group ‘A” Junior Scale in level 10 of Pay Matrix (Rs. 56100-177500/-)
and it carries Non-Practising Allowance as per rules/orders in force from time to time.
Private practice is prohibited. The candidate will be bound to observe the orders which
the Ministry of Railways or any other competent authority may issue from time to time
restricting or prohibiting private practice by him/her.

(b) A candidate will be appointed on probation for a period of One year which may
be extended by the Government if considered necessary. On satisfactory completion of
the probation, candidates will be eligible for confirmation in the junior scale of the
Indian Railway Medical Service.

(c) The appointment of probationers can be terminated by one month's notice in
writing on either side during the period of probation in terms of Rule 301 (3) of the
Indian Railway Establishment Code, Volume-I. Such notice is not however, required in
cases of dismissal or removals as disciplinary measure after compliance with the
provisions of Clause (2) of Article 311 of the Constitution and compulsory retirement
due to mental or physical incapacity.

(d) A candidate will have to undergo training as prescribed by the Ministry of
Railways and pass all the Departmental Examinations.

(e) A candidate will be governed by the "Contributory Pension System" effective from
01.01.2004 as per orders of the Government.

(f) A candidate will be eligible for leave in accordance with the leave rules as in force
from time to time and applicable to officers of his/her status.

(g) A candidate will be eligible for free Railway Passes and Privilege Ticket Orders in
accordance with the rules in force from time to time.

(h) A candidate will be required to pass the examination in Hindi of an approved
standard within the period of probation and failure to do so shall involve liability to
termination of service.

(i) Under the rules every person appointed to the above post shall, if so required, be
liable to serve in any Defence Service or post connected with the Defence of India for a
period of not less than four years including the period spent on training, if any, provided
that such person –

(a) shall not be required to serve as aforesaid after the expiry of ten years from the
date of such appointment.

(b) shall not ordinarily be required to serve as aforesaid after attaining the age of
45 years.

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(j) A candidate will be governed in respect of matters specifically referred to above as
well as other matters by the provisions of the Indian Railways Establishment Code and
the extant orders as amended/issued from time to time.

(k) A candidate will undergo Foundation Course training initially and after
completion of Foundation Course, the candidate may also be posted to the Railway
Health Units/Dispensaries at way side stations, ADMOs are also liable to transfer to
any Railway.

(l) Prospects of promotion including pay scales and allowances attached to higher
grades will be as per the provisions of Railway Medical Service Recruitment Rules, 2000
and the orders and instructions issued by the Ministry of Railway from time to time.

(m) Duties and Responsibilities:

Assistant Divisional Medical Officers

(i) He/she will attend the indoor wards and out patient department daily and as
required.
(ii) He/she will carry out physical examination of candidates and of employees in
service in accordance with the regulations in force.
(iii) He/she will look after family planning, public health and sanitation in his/her
jurisdiction.
(iv) He/she will carry out examination of vendors.
(v) He/she will be responsible for discipline and proper discharge of duties of the
Hospital Health Unit Staff.
(vi) He/she will carry out duties assigned to him/her specially if any and will prepare
returns and indents connected with his/her speciality.
(vii) He/she will maintain and upkeep all equipments in his/her charge.

NOTE 1: When an ADMO is posted at the Headquarters of a Division under the charge
of a CMS/Addl.CMS/MS Incharge he/she will assist the CMS/Addl.CMS/MS Incharge
in all his/her duties but may be specially assigned with certain duties and
responsibilities.

NOTE 2: ADMOs will also be required to perform such other duties as may be assigned
to them from time to time.

II. MEDICAL OFFICERS GRADE IN GENERAL DUTY MEDICAL OFFICERS SUB-
CADRE OF CENTRAL HEALTH SERVICE:

(a) The posts are temporary but likely to continue indefinitely. Candidates will be
appointed to Junior Group `A` scale and they will be on probation for a period of 2
years from the date of appointment which may be curtailed or extended at the
discretion of the Competent Authority. They will be confirmed after the satisfactory
completion of probation.

(b) The candidates can be posted anywhere in India in any dispensary or hospital
under any organisation participating in the Central Health Service across India.
Private Practice of any kind whatsoever including Lab. and consultant practice is
prohibited.

(c) The scale of pay admissible to the Medical Officer of CHS is in the Level-10
(Rs.56,100 to Rs.1,77,500/-) of the pay matrix and NPA as per orders issued by the
Government from time to time, and the promotional avenues will be available as per

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the provision of CHS Rules, 2014 and the orders and instructions issued by the
Government from time to time.

III. GENERAL DUTY MEDICAL OFFICER IN THE NEW DELHI MUNICIPAL COUNCIL:

(a) Pay Matrix Level-10 Rs. 56,100-1,77,500/- + restricted Non-practicing allowance
(NPA).

(b) Ordinary rules regarding pensions, gratuity, confirmation etc. as enforced in the
Council from time to time will be applicable.

(c) The candidate will be on probation for a period of two years from the date of
appointment which may be extended at the discretion of the competent authority. On
satisfactory completion of the probation period will continue in the temporary capacity
till confirmed against the permanent vacancy.

(d) The candidate can be posted anywhere within the jurisdiction of the N.D.M.C. in any
of the hospital/dispensaries/M & C family welfare Centres/Primary Health Centres etc.

(e) Private practice of any kind whatsoever is prohibited.

(f) The appointment can be terminated on one month’s notice on either side during the
period of probation and thereafter, while employed in temporary capacity, NDMC reserves
the right to one month’s pay in lieu of notice.

(g) GDMO shall be entitled for promotion as Senior Medical Officer in the Pay Matrix
Level–11 Rs.67700-208700/- and from Senior Medical Officer to Chief Medical Officer in
the Pay Matrix Level-12 Rs.78800-209200/- and from Chief Medical Officer to Chief
Medical Officer (Non-functional Selection Grade) in the Pay Matrix Level–13 Rs.118500-
214100/- and Senior Administrative Grade in the Pay Matrix Level–14 Rs.144200-
218200/-.

IV. GENERAL DUTY MEDICAL OFFICER GRADE-II IN MUNICIPAL CORPORATION
OF DELHI:

(i) Salary at the minimum of first cell of Rs.56,100/- in the level 10 of the Pay Matrix
under 7th CPC (corresponding to pre-revised scale in PB–3 Rs.15600-39100+GP
Rs.5400/-) plus NPA and other admissible allowances as per rules.

(ii) The candidates will be on probation for a period of two year from the date of
appointment which may be curtailed or extended at the discretion of the Competent
Authority. On satisfactory completion of the probation period, he/she will continue in
the temporary post till confirmed against the permanent vacancy.

(iii) The candidate can be posted anywhere within the jurisdiction of the Municipal
Corporation of Delhi in anyone of the Hospital/Dispensaries/M&CW and Family Welfare
Centres/Primary Health Centres etc.

(iv) Private practice of any kind whatsoever is prohibited.

(v) The appointment can be terminated on one month`s notice on either side during
the period of probation and thereafter while employed in temporary capacity. The
Municipal Corporation of Delhi reserves the right to pay one month`s pay in lieu of notice.
Prospects of promotion including pay scale and allowances attached to the higher grades
shall be according to the provisions of Recruitment Regulations.

29

APPENDIX-V
A list of Services Identified suitable for Persons with Benchmark Disability
along with the Functional Classifications and Physical Requirements
Sl. Name of the Category(ies) for Functional Physical Requirements
No. Service which Identified Classification
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
1. Assistant Locomotor (i) OA-One arm affected. S, ST, BN, W, SE, MF, C, RW,
Divisional Disability (ii) OL-One leg affected. H
Medical Officer (iii) BL-Both legs affected S–Sitting, ST–Standing,
(ADMO) in but not arms. BN– Bending, W– Walking,
Indian Railway SE-Seeing,
(iv) LC-Leprosy cured.
Health Services MF-Manipulation by Fingers,
(v) AAV-Acid Attack Victim,
(IRHS) C-Communication,
without joint involvement.
RW-Reading and Writing, H-
Hearing.
2. General Duty (a) Locomotor (i) OA-One arm affected. S, ST, W, RW, SE, H, C
Medical Officers Disability (ii) OL-One leg affected
(b) SLD S=Sitting, ST=Standing,
of Central (iii) BL-Both legs affected
(c) MD involving W=Walking, RW=Reading &
Health Service but not arms.
(a) to (b) above Writing, SE=Seeing,
(iv) OAL-One Arm & One H=Hearing, C=Communication
Leg
(v) CP – Cerebral Palsy Incumbent should be
considered with aids &
(vi) LC-Leprosy cured
appliances, Bilateral hand
(vii) AAV-Acid Attack
activities should be adequate.
Victim (non-surgical jobs)
(viii) DW – Dwarfism
(ix) Specific Learning
Disability
3. General Duty (a) Locomotor a) OA (One arm), OL(One S, ST, W, BN, MF, RW, SE, H,
Medical Officer Disability leg), BL (Both leg), LC C
Grade-II in MCD (b) SLD (Leprosy cured), DW
S=Sitting, ST=Standing,
(c) MD involving (Dwarfism), AAV (Acid
Attack Victim) W=Walking, BN- Bending, MF-
(a) to (b) above Manipulation by Fingers,
b) SLD (Specific Learning
Disability) RW=Reading & Writing,
c) MD involving (a) to (b) SE=Seeing, H=Hearing,
above C=Communication

Incumbent should be
considered with aids &
appliances. Bilateral hand
activities should be adequate.
4. General Duty Locomotor (i) OA-One arm affected. S, ST, BN, W, SE, MF, C, RW,
Medical Officer Disability (ii) OL-One leg affected H
in NDMC S–Sitting, ST–Standing,
BN– Bending, W– Walking,
SE-Seeing, MF-Manipulation
by Fingers, C-Communication,
RW-Reading and Writing, H-
Hearing.

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APPENDIX – VI

Certificate regarding physical limitation in an examinee to write

This is to certify that, I have examined Mr./Ms./Mrs………………………….…..
(name of the candidate with benchmark disability), a person with
…………………………………………………………………………….….……….. (nature and
percentage of disability as mentioned in the certificate of disability), S/o
/D/o…………………………………………….……………………..……., a resident of
………………………………………………………….. (Village/District/State) and to state that
he/she has physical limitation which hampers his/her writing capabilities owing to
his/her disability.

Signature

Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon /
Medical Superintendent of a Government Healthcare Institution.

Note: Certificate should be given by a specialist of the relevant stream/disability (e.g.
Visual Impairment – Ophthalmologist, Locomotor disability – Orthopaedic
specialist/PMR).

APPENDIX – VII

Letter of Undertaking for Using Own Scribe
(To be filled by the candidates online to the Commission)

I……………………..……., a candidate with……………………………… (name of the
disability) appearing for the ……………………..…………. (name of the
examination)……………….. bearing Roll No……………….. at ……….. (name of the centre)
in the District ……………..……., ……………..… (name of the State). My qualification is
…………..

I do hereby state that …………………………… (name of the scribe) will provide the
service of scribe/reader/lab assistant for the undersigned for taking the aforesaid
examination.

I do hereby undertake that his/her qualification is …………………… In case,
subsequently it is found that his/her qualification is not as declared by the undersigned
and is beyond my qualification, I shall forfeit my right to the post and claims thereto.

(Signature of the candidate with Disability)

Place:

Date:

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APPENDIX-VIII

Certificate for person with specified disability covered under the definition of
Section 2(s) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered under the definition of Section
2(r) of the said Act, i.e. persons having less than 40% disability and having
difficulty in writing

This is to certify that, we have examined
Mr./Ms./Mrs………………………………………………………… (name of the candidate), S/o
/ D/o …………………………………………………., a resident of
…………………………………………. (Vill/PO/PS/District/State), aged…………… years, a
person with …………………………….. (nature of disability/condition), and to state that
he/she has limitation which hampers his/her writing capability owing to his/her above
condition. He/she requires support of scribe for writing the examination.

2. The above candidate uses aids and assistive device such as prosthetics &
orthotics, hearing aid (name to be specified) which is /are essential for the candidate to
appear at the examination, with the assistance of scribe.

3. This certificate is issued only for the purpose of appearing in written examinations
conducted by recruitment agencies as well as academic institutions and is valid upto
………………… (it is valid for maximum period of six months or less as may be certified
by the medical authority)

Signature of medical authority
(Signature & (Signature & (Signature (Signature & (Signature &
Name) Name) & Name) Name) Name)
Orthopaedic/PMR Clinical Neurologist Occupational Other Expert,
Specialist Psychologist/ (if available) therapist (if as nominated
Rehabilitation available) by the
Psychologist/ Chairperson
Psychiatrist/ (if any)
Special Educator

(Signature & Name)

Chief Medical Officer / Civil Surgeon / Chief District Medical Officer ………………………
Chairperson

Name of Government Hospital / Healthcare Centre with seal
Place :
Date :
32

APPENDIX-IX

Letter of Undertaking by the person with specified disability covered under the definition
of Section 2(s) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered under the definition of Section 2(r)
of the said Act, i.e. persons having less than 40% disability and having difficulty in
writing

I………………………………………………………, a candidate with
…………………………………. (nature of disability/condition) appearing for the
………………..…………………………….. (name of the examination) bearing Roll
No……………….. at ……………………………………… (name of the centre) in the District
………………………………., ……………………………………. (name of the state). My
educational qualification is ……………………………………………

2. I do hereby state that ……………………………………. (name of the scribe) will
provide the service of scribe for the undersigned for taking the aforementioned
examination.

3. I do hereby undertake that his/her qualification is ………………………………. In
case, subsequently it is found that his/her qualification is not as declared by the
undersigned and is beyond my qualification. I shall forfeit my right to the post or
certificate/diploma/degree and claims relating thereto.

(Signature of the candidate)

Place :
Date :

*****

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