WB ANM GNM 2023 Question Paper

(Booklet Number)

Duration: 90 Minutes No. of MCQ : 100 Full Marks: 115

INSTRUCTIONS
1. All questions are of objective type having four answer options for each.
2. Category-I: Carries 1 mark each and only one option is correct. In case of incorrect answer or any
combination of more than one answer, ¼ mark will be deducted.
3. Category-II: Carries 2 marks each and one or more option(s) is/are correct. If all correct answers are
not marked and no incorrect answer is marked, then score = 2 × number of correct answers marked ÷
actual number of correct answers. If any wrong option is marked or if any combination including a
wrong option is marked, the answer will be considered wrong, but there is no negative marking for
the same and zero mark will be awarded.
4. Questions must be answered on OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble marked A, B, C, or D.
5. Use only Black/Blue ink ball point pen to mark the answer by filling up of the respective bubbles
completely.
6. Write Question Booklet number and your roll number carefully in the specified locations of the
OMR Sheet. Also fill appropriate bubbles.
7. Write your name (in block letter), name of the examination center and put your signature (as is
appeared in Admit Card) in appropriate boxes in the OMR Sheet.
8. The OMR Sheet is liable to become invalid if there is any mistake in filling the correct bubbles for
Question Booklet number/roll number or if there is any discrepancy in the name/ signature of the
candidate, name of the examination center. The OMR Sheet may also become invalid due to folding
or putting stray marks on it or any damage to it. The consequence of such invalidation due to
incorrect marking or careless handling by the candidate will be the sole responsibility of candidate.
9. Candidates are not allowed to carry any written or printed material, calculator, pen, log-table,
wristwatch, any communication device like mobile phones, bluetooth device etc. inside the
examination hall. Any candidate found with such prohibited items will be reported against and
his/her candidature will be summarily cancelled.
10. Rough work must be done on the Question Booklet itself. Additional blank pages are given in the
Question Booklet for rough work.
11. Hand over the OMR Sheet to the invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall.
12. This Booklet contains questions in both English and Bengali (except Basic English and Logical
Reasoning). Necessary care and precaution were taken while framing the Bengali version. However,
if any discrepancy(ies) is /are found between the two versions, the information provided in the
English version will stand and will be treated as final.
13. Candidates are allowed to take the Question Booklet after examination is over.

Signature of the Candidate : ______________________________
(as in Admit Card)
Signature of the Invigilator : ______________________________

AA


SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

ANM(R) & GNM-2023 2 

LIFE SCIENCES
Category-I (Q 1 to 30)
(Carry 1 mark each. Only one option is correct. Negative marks: ̶ ¼)

1. Example of ‘Ex-situ’ conservation is
(A) National Park (B) Reserve forest
(C) Seed bank (D) Sanctuary
H„-¢pV¥ pwlr­Zl Ec¡qlZ qm
(A) S¡a£u EcÉ¡e (B) pwl¢ra he (C) h£S hÉ¡ˆ (D) Aiu¡lZÉ

2. Leaves of which of the following dicotyledonous plants show parallel venation ?
(A) Mangifera indica (B) Calotropis procera
(C) Calophyllum inophyllum (D) Ixora sp.
¢ejÀ¢m¢Ma ­L¡e ¢àh£Sfœ£ E¢á­cl fœ pj¡¿¹l¡m ¢nl¡¢heÉ¡p k¤š² ?
(A) Mangifera indica (B) Calotropis procera
(C) Calophyllum inophyllum (D) Ixora sp.

3. If heterozygous offspring is crossed with homozygous recessive parent, then this
phenomenon is called
(A) Back cross (B) Test cross
(C) Reciprocal cross (D) Epistasis
k¢c ­q­V­l¡S¡CN¡p Af­aÉl p­‰ ­q¡­j¡S¡CN¡p f˵Ræ S¢ea«l pwLl¡uZ OV¡­e¡ qu a¡q­m ­pC
OVe¡­L hm¡ qu
(A) hÉ¡L œ²p (B) ­VØV œ²p (C) ­l¢p­fË¡L¡m œ²p (D) H¢fØV¡¢pp

4. Which of the following molecules is glucose ?
(A) C3H6C3 (B) C3H5OH (C) C6H12O6 (D) C6H10O5
¢ej¢À m¢Ma…¢ml ­L¡eÚ¢V N­Ô¤ L¡S AZ¤ ?
(A) C3H6C3 (B) C3H5OH (C) C6H12O6 (D) C6H10O5

5. To which part of the chromosome nucleolus is attached ?
(A) Chromomere (B) Telomere
(C) Primary constriction (D) Secondary constriction
­œ²¡­j¡­S¡­jl ­L¡e Aw­n ¢eE¢LÓJm¡p pwk¤š² b¡­L ?
(A) ­œ²¡­j¡¢ju¡l (B) ­V­m¡¢ju¡l (C) fË¡b¢jL My¡S (D) ­N±Z My¡S

6. ABO blood group of human was discovered by
(A) Carl Woese (B) Karl Landsteiner (C) Karl Fischer (D) Karl Pearson
j¡e¤­ol ABO blood group -Hl B¢hú¡lL q­me
(A) Carl Woese (B) Karl Landsteiner (C) Karl Fischer (D) Karl Pearson

ANM(R) & GNM-2023 3 

7. The wings of a bird and wings of an insect are
(A) Analogous structure (B) Homologous structure
(C) Vestigial structure (D) Phylogenetic structure
f¡¢Ml X¡e¡ Hhw fa­‰l X¡e¡ qm
(A) pjhªš£u NWe (B) pjpwÙÛ NWe
(C) m¤çfË¡u NWe (D) S¡¢aS¢eNa NWe
8. Filariasis or Elephantiasis is caused by which one of the following organisms ?
(A) Taenia solium (B) Fasciola hepatica
(C) Wuchereria bancrofti (D) Hirudinaria granulosa
¢ejÀ¢m¢Ma ­L¡e S£h à¡l¡ g¡C­m¢lu¡¢pp h¡ H¢mgÉ¡¢¾Vu¡¢pp pª¢ø qu ?
(A) Taenia solium (B) Fasciola hepatica
(C) Wuchereria bancrofti (D) Hirudinaria granulosa

9. Which one of the following is the complementary base of guanine in DNA ?
(A) Adenine (B) Thymine (C) Cytosine (D) Uracil
¢ej¢À m¢Ma…¢ml ­L¡eÚ¢V DNA-Hl j­dÉ …u¡¢e­el f¢lf§lL r¡l ?
(A) AÉ¡­X¢ee (B) b¡C¢je (C) p¡C­V¡¢pe (D) CEl¡¢pm
10. At which phase of meiosis are homologous chromosomes separated ?
(A) Prophase I (B) Prophase II (C) Anaphase I (D) Anaphase II
¢j­u¡¢p­pl ­L¡e cn¡u pjpwÙÛ ­œ²¡­j¡­S¡j…¢m fªbL£L«a qu ?
(A) ­fË¡­gS I (B) ­fË¡­gS II (C) AÉ¡e¡­gS I (D) AÉ¡e¡­gS II

11. Which one of the following is an example of tropic hormone ?
(A) ACTH (B) Gastrin (C) Secretin (D) CCK-PZ
e£­Ql ­L¡e¢V VÊ¢fL ql­j¡­el Ec¡qlZ ?
(A) ACTH (B) NÉ¡p¢VÊe (C) ¢p¢œ²¢Ve (D) CCK-PZ

12. The book ‘Systema Naturae’ was written by
(A) Charles Darwin (B) Carolus Linnaeus
(C) Robert Harding Whittaker (D) Jean Baptiste Lamarck
‘Systema Naturae’ e¡jL hC¢Vl lQ¢ua¡ q­me
(A) Charles Darwin (B) Carolus Linnaeus
(C) Robert Harding Whittaker (D) Jean Baptiste Lamarck

13. Which plant does exhibit hydrophily ?
(A) Hydrilla sp. (B) Pinus sp. (C) Oryza sp. (D) Nelumbo sp.
­L¡eÚ E¢á­c q¡C­X¡Ê ¢g¢m fËc¢nÑa qu ?
(A) Hydrilla sp. (B) Pinus sp. (C) Oryza sp. (D) Nelumbo sp.

ANM(R) & GNM-2023 4 

14. Which one of the following is an example of vitamin ?
(A) Aspartic acid (B) Stearic acid (C) Glutamic acid (D) Ascorbic acid
¢ej¢À m¢Ma…¢ml j­dÉ ­L¡eÚ¢V ¢iV¡¢j­el Ec¡qlZ ?
(A) AÉ¡pf¡l¢VL AÉ¡¢pX (B) ¢ØVu¡¢lL AÉ¡¢pX
(C) NÔ¤V¡¢jL AÉ¡¢pX (D) AÉ¡pLl¢hL AÉ¡¢pX

15. Which one of the following is not a steroid hormone ?
(A) Testosterone (B) Progesterone (C) Insulin (D) Estrogen
¢ejÀ¢m¢Ma…¢ml ­L¡eÚ¢V ­ØVl­uX ql­j¡e eu ?
(A) ­V­ø¡­ØVle (B) ­fË¡­S­ØVle (C) CeÚp¤¢me (D) C­ØVÊ¡­Se

16. Which of the following is mainly associated with the maintenance of posture ?
(A) Cerebellum (B) Cerebrum (C) Thalamus (D) Pons
¢ej¢À m¢Ma…¢ml ­L¡eÚ¢V fËd¡ea ­cqi¢‰ ¢eu¿»­Zl p­‰ S¢sa ?
(A) ­p¢l­hm¡j (B) ­p¢lhË¡j (C) bÉ¡m¡j¡p (D) feÚp

17. The complex molecule consisting of a DNA strand and a core of histone octamer is
(A) Centromere (B) Nucleosome (C) Nucleotide (D) Chromosome
DNA a¿¹¥ Hhw ¢q­ØV¡e Aƒ¡j¡l -Hl pjeÄ­u N¢Wa S¢Vm AZ¤¢V qm
(A) ­p¾­VÊ¡¢ju¡l (B) ¢eE¢LÓJ­S¡j (C) ¢eE¢LÓJV¡CX (D) ­œ²¡­j¡­S¡j

18. The most abundant lipid in a cell membrane is
(A) Cholesterol (B) Glycolipid (C) Phospholipid (D) Steroid
­L¡ofcÑ¡u ph­Q­u ­hn£ fË¡ç ¢m¢fX¢V qm
(A) ­L¡­m­ølm (B) NÔ¡C­L¡¢m¢fX (C) gp­g¡¢m¢fX (D) ­ØVl­uX

19. Which of the following molecules move regularly from the nucleus to the cytoplasm ?
(A) Glycogen (B) RNA (C) DNA (D) Cholesterol
e£­Ql ­L¡eÚ AZ¤¢V fË¢a¢eua ¢eE¢LÓu¡p ­b­L p¡C­V¡fÔ¡S­j ÙÛ¡e¡¿¹¢la qu ?
(A) NÔ¡C­L¡­Se (B) RNA (C) DNA (D) ­L¡­m­ØVlm

20. The main function of platelets is to
(A) destroy tumour cells (B) produce antibodies
(C) stop bleeding from cut wounds (D) kill bacteria by phagocytosis
Ae¤Q¢œ²L¡l fËd¡e L¡S qm
(A) ¢VEj¡l ­L¡o ¢heø Ll¡ (B) AÉ¡¢¾Vh¢X Evfæ Ll¡
(C) L¡V¡ra ­b­L lš²f¡a hå Ll¡ (D) gÉ¡­N¡p¡C­V¡¢pp à¡l¡ hÉ¡­ƒ¢lu¡ dÆwp Ll¡

ANM(R) & GNM-2023 5 

21. Energy is stored in the liver and muscles as
(A) Glycogen (B) Cholesterol (C) Starch (D) Fat
kL«a Hhw ­fn£­a n¢š² ¢qp¡­h p¢’a qu
(A) NÔ¡C­L¡­Se (B) ­L¡­m­ØVlm (C) ØV¡QÑ (D) gÉ¡V

22. The acrosome of sperm contains
(A) DNA (B) Mitochondria
(C) Fructose (D) Hydrolytic enzymes
öœ²¡Z¤l AÉ¡­œ²¡­S¡­j Ef¢ÙÛa b¡­L
(A) DNA (B) j¡C­V¡Le¢XÊu¡
(C) é¥LÚ­V¡S (D) BâÑ¢h­nÔoL Ev­pQL pj§q

23. Which eukaryotic organisms, among the following do not contain mitochondria ?
(A) Chara vulgaris (B) Monocercomonoides exilis
(C) Monoblepharis laevis (D) Marchantia polymorpha
¢ejÀ¢m¢Ma CELÉ¡¢lJ¢VL S£h…¢ml j­dÉ ­L¡eÚ¢V­a j¡C­V¡Le¢XÊu¡ Ae¤f¢ÙÛa ?
(A) Chara vulgaris (B) Monocercomonoides exilis
(C) Monoblepharis laevis (D) Marchantia polymorpha

24. In the stomach HC is secreted by
(A) Zymogen cells (B) Kupffer’s cells
(C) Oxyntic cells (D) Mucous cells
f¡LÙÛm£­a q¡C­XÊ¡­LÓ¡¢lL AÉ¡¢pX ¢explZ L­l
(A) S¡C­j¡­Se ­L¡o (B) L¥g¡­ll ­L¡o
(C) A¢„e¢VL ­L¡o (D) m¡m¡ ­L¡o

25. Which chamber of the heart has the thickest muscular wall ?
(A) Right atrium (B) Left atrium (C) Right ventricle (D) Left ventricle
q©v¢f­äl ­L¡e fË­L¡­ù phÑ¡¢dL f¤l¦ ­fn£l Ù¹l b¡­L ?
(A) X¡e A¢m¾c (B) h¡j A¢m¾c (C) X¡e ¢emu (D) h¡j ¢emu

ANM(R) & GNM-2023 6 

26. What is the type of nucleic acid found in HIV ?
(A) ss DNA (B) ds DNA (C) ss RNA (D) ds RNA
HIV ­a ­L¡eÚ dl­el ¢eE¢LÓL AÉ¡¢pX Ef¢ÙÛa b¡­L ?
(A) ss DNA (B) ds DNA (C) ss RNA (D) ds RNA

27. Which one of the following parts is responsible for absorption of digested food in human
being ?
(A) Oesophagus (B) Liver (C) Pancreas (D) Small intestine
e£­Ql ­L¡eÚ Awn¢V j¡eh­c­q f¡¢Qa M¡cÉ ­n¡o­Zl SeÉ c¡u£ ?
(A) NË¡pe¡m£ (B) kL«v (C) ANÀÉ¡nu (D) r¥â¡¿»

28. In BCG vaccine, the full form of BCG is
(A) Bacillus Calmodulin Guanine (B) Bacillus Calmette Guerin
(C) Bacillus Clostridium Gonococci (D) Bordetella Clostridium Guerin
BCG V£L¡l ­r­œ BCG -l f§ZÑl©f¢V qm
(A) Bacillus Calmodulin Guanine (B) Bacillus Calmette Guerin
(C) Bacillus Clostridium Gonococci (D) Bordetella Clostridium Guerin

29. Which of the following plant hormones is responsible for bolting phenotype ?
(A) Cytokinin (B) Auxin (C) Gibberellin (D) IAA
¢ejÀ¢m¢Ma E¢ác ql­j¡e…¢ml ­L¡e¢V ­h¡¢ÒVw ­g­e¡V¡C­fl SeÉ c¡u£ ?
(A) p¡C­V¡L¡C¢ee (B) A¢„e (C) ¢Sî¡­l¢me (D) IAA

30. Which of the following pigments is found in the skin of human body ?
(A) Anthocyanin (B) Cyanidin (C) Melanin (D) Opsin
¢ej¢À m¢Ma l”L…¢ml ­L¡eÚ¢V j¡eh­c­ql aÆ­L f¡Ju¡ k¡u ?
(A) AÉ¡e­b¡p¡u¡¢ee (B) p¡u¡¢e¢Xe (C) ­jm¡¢ee (D) AfÚ¢pe

ANM(R) & GNM-2023 7 

Life Science
Category-II (Q 31 to 40)
(Carry 2 marks each. One or more options are correct. No negative marks)
31. Which among the following is/are coenzymes ?
(A) FADH (B) Mg2+
(C) Mn2+ (D) Vitamin A

¢ej¢À m¢Ma ­L¡eÚ¢V/­L¡eÚ…¢m coenzymes ?
(A) FADH (B) Mg2+
(C) Mn2+ (D) Vitamin A

32. Which among the following cell types in Xylem tissue is/are dead ?
(A) Tracheids (B) Tracheae
(C) Xylem fibres (D) Xylem parenchyma
S¡C­mj Lm¡l Ad£e ¢ejÀ¢m¢Ma ­L¡eÚ ­L¡o / ­L¡o…¢m jªa ?
(A) VÊ¡L¡CXpÚ (B) VÊ¡¢Lu¡
(C) S¡C­mj a¿¹¥ (D) S¡C­mj fÉ¡­leL¡Cj¡

33. In human, deficiency of calciferol leads to
(A) Night-blindness (B) Beri Beri
(C) Rickets (D) Osteomalacia
j¡eh­c­q LÉ¡m¢p­gl­ml üÒfa¡l L¡l­Z k¡ pª¢ø qu a¡ qm
(A) Night-blindness (B) Beri Beri
(C) Rickets (D) Osteomalacia

34. Which of the followings is/are viral disease(s) ?
(A) AIDS (B) Tetanus
(C) Influenza (D) Pneumonia
¢ejÀ¢m¢Ma…¢ml j­dÉ ­L¡eÚ¢V/­L¡eÚ…¢m i¡Cl¡p O¢Va ­l¡N
(A) AIDS (B) ¢V­Ve¡p
(C) Ceg­Ó¥ u”¡ (D) ¢eE­j¡¢eu¡

35. The salient features of Phylum Chordata are
(A) Presence of Stomochord
(B) Presence of Notochord
(C) Presence of dorsal hollow tubular nerve cord
(D) Presence of Pharyngial gill slits
LXÑ¡V¡ f­hÑl °h¢nø…¢m qm
(A) ­ØV¡­j¡LXÑ Ef¢ÙÛa (B) ­e¡­V¡LXÑ Ef¢ÙÛa
(C) fªù£u gy¡f¡ pÀ¡u¤l‹¤ Ef¢ÙÛa (D) Nm¢h­ml g¥mL¡ ¢Râ Ef¢ÙÛa

ANM(R) & GNM-2023 8 

36. Which of the following character(s) is/are present in Z-DNA ?
(A) Left-handed helix (B) Formed in high salinity
(C) 12 base pairs per turn (D) Helix pitch 34Å
Z-DNA ­a ¢ejÀ¢m¢Ma ­L¡eÚ °h¢nøÉ h¡ °h¢nøÉ…¢m haÑj¡e ?
(A) ­q¢m„-h¡j¡haÑ (B) EµQ mhe Oe­aÆ °a¢l qu
(C) HL¢V f§ZÑf¡­L 12 ¢V ­hp­S¡s¡ (D) ­q¢m„ ¢fQÚ 34Å

37. Which of the following white blood cell or cells is/are known as agranulocytes ?
(A) Basophil (B) Monocyte
(C) Neutrophil (D) Lymphocytes
¢ejÀ¢m¢Ma ­L¡eÚ ­nÄaL¢ZL¡ h¡ ­nÄaL¢ZL¡…¢m Ac¡e¡c¡lk¤š² ­L¡o ¢qp¡­h ¢Q¢q²a qu ?
(A) ­h­p¡¢gm (B) j­e¡p¡CV
(C) ¢eE­VÊ¡¢gm (D) ¢m­Çg¡p¡CV

38. Which of these are false fruits ?
(A) Banana (B) Tomato
(C) Apple (D) Strawberry
¢ejÀ¢m¢Ma ­L¡eÚ…¢m ­j¢L gm ?
(A) Lm¡ (B) V­j­V¡
(C) B­fm (D) ØVÊ­h¢l

39. Which of the followings are not present in prokaryotic cell ?
(A) Nucleus (B) Nuclear membrane
(C) Ribosome (D) Nucleoid material
e£­Ql ­L¡eÚ…¢m ­fË¡LÉ¡¢lJ¢VL ­L¡­o b¡­L e¡ ?
(A) ¢eE¢LÓu¡p (B) ¢eE¢LÓJ fcÑ¡
(C) l¡C­h¡­S¡j (D) ¢eE¢LÓu hÙ¹¥

40. Which of the following statements are not correct ?
(A) ADH is a peptide hormone.
(B) Thyroxine increases the BMR of the body.
(C) Prolactin helps in digestion.
(D) Somatotropic hormone helps in reproduction.
¢ej¢À m¢Ma E¢š²…¢ml j­dÉ ­L¡eÚ…¢m p¢WL eu ?
(A) ADH HL¢V ­ffV¡CX ql­j¡e
(B) b¡Cl¢„e nl£­ll BMR hª¢Ü L­l
(C) ­fË¡mÉ¡¢ƒe f¡Q­e p¡q¡kÉ L­l
(D) ­p¡j¡­V¡VÊ¢fL ql­j¡e Se­e p¡q¡kÉ L­l

ANM(R) & GNM-2023 9 

Physical Science
Category-I (Q 41 to 55)
(Carry 1 mark each. Only one option is correct. Negative marks: ̶ ¼)

41. Which of the following is the main component of baking powder ?
(A) NaHCO3 (B) NaCO3
(C) NaCl (D) HCl
e£­Ql ­L¡e¢V M¡h¡l ­p¡X¡l j§m Ef¡c¡e ?
(A) NaHCO3 (B) NaCO3
(C) NaCl (D) HCl

42. Which one helps to define force ?
(A) Newton’s 3rd law of motion (B) The theory of relativity
(C) Newton’s 1st law of motion (D) Archimedes’ principle
­L¡e p§œ¢V à¡l¡ h­ml pw‘¡ ¢eZÑu Ll¡ k¡u ?
(A) ¢eEV­el 3'u N¢ap§œ (B) A¡­f¢rLa¡ ašÄ
(C) ¢eEV­el 1'j N¢ap§œ (D) B¢LÑ¢j¢X­pl e£¢a

43. 1 GB memory is approximately ______ times larger than 1 MB memory.
(A) 10 (B) 1000
(C) 100 (D) 2
1 MB ­jjl£ ­b­L 1 GB ­jjl£ fË¡u ______ …Z hs z
(A) 10 (B) 1000
(C) 100 (D) 2

44. LPG used as domestic cooking gas is composed mainly of
(A) propane and butane (B) methane
(C) natural gas (D) acetylene
l¡æ¡l NÉ¡­pl (LPG) -Hl j§m Ef¡c¡e q'm
(A) fË­fe J ¢hE­Ve (B) ¢j­be
(C) fË¡L«¢aL NÉ¡p (D) AÉ¡¢p¢V¢me

ANM(R) & GNM-2023 10 

45. Sulphuric acid is:
(A) mono-basic (B) di-basic
(C) tri-basic (D) tetra-basic
p¡m¢gE¢lL AÉ¡¢pX qm:
(A) HL-r¡l£u (B) ¢à-r¡l£u
(C) ¢œ-r¡l£u (D) Qa¥x-r¡l£u

46. Which of the following statements is true for H 2S ?
(A) It is a strong base. (B) It is neutral.
(C) It is a mild acid. (D) It is a strong acid.
H2S-Hl ­r­œ e£­Ql ­L¡eÚ E¢š²¢V paÉ ?

(A) H¢V HL¢V n¢š²n¡m£ r¡l (B) H¢V ¢el­fr
(C) H¢V HL¢V jªc¤ AÉ¡¢pX (D) H¢V HL¢V n¢š²n¡m£ AÉ¡¢pX

47. The solubility of common salt in water at 100 °C is 40. Approximately how much
common salt is required to make 100 g of saturated solution at 100 °C ?
(A) 28.57 g (B) 40 g
(C) 35 g (D) 20 g
100 °C -H S­m p¡d¡lZ mh­Zl âhZa¡ 40 q­m JC Eo·a¡u 100 g pÇf«š² âhZ °al£ Ll­a fË¡u
LaV¡ p¡d¡lZ mhZ fË­u¡Se ?
(A) 28.57 g (B) 40 g
(C) 35 g (D) 20 g

48. Milk is a
(A) saturated solution (B) supersaturated solution
(C) colloid (D) suspension
c¤d HL¢V
(A) pÇf«š² âhZ (B) A¢afªš² âhZ
(C) Lm­uX (D) fËmðe

ANM(R) & GNM-2023 11 

49. A vessel is filled to the brim by a liquid. It is observed that the vessel always remains
filled to the brim even if it is heated or cooled. What is the coefficient of real expansion
of the liquid if the coefficient of linear expansion of the material of the vessel is ‘α’?
(A) α (B) α/2
(C) 2α (D) 3α
HL¢V f¡œ L¡Z¡u L¡Z¡u f§ZÑ L­l HL¢V alm l¡M¡ B­R z ­cM¡ ­Nm, f¡œ¢V Ešç h¡ W¡ä¡ Ll­mJ
phÑc¡C L¡Z¡u L¡Z¡u f§ZÑ b¡­L z f¡­œl Ef¡c¡­el °cOÑÉ fËp¡lZ …Z¡ˆ ‘α’ q­m JC al­ml fËL«a
fËp¡lZ …Z¡ˆ La ?
(A) α (B) α/2
(C) 2α (D) 3α

50.
32
air

glass

air
θ
As shown in the figure, a ray of light coming from air is incident on a parallel glass slab
at an angle of 32° and emerges from the other side at an angle of θ. What is the value of θ
if refracting index of glass with respect of air is 1.5 ?
(A) 32° (B) 48°
(C) 72° (D) 49.5°
fËc¢nÑa ¢Q­œl j­a¡ HL¢V B­m¡L l¢nÈ h¡u¤ j¡dÉj ­b­L H­p HL¢V pj¡¿¹l¡m Ly¡­Ql gm­Ll
HL¢c­L 32° ­L¡­Z Bf¢aa q'm Hhw E­ÒV¡ ¢cL ­b­L θ ­L¡­Z ¢eNÑa q'm z h¡u¤ p¡­f­r Ly¡­Ql
fË¢apl¡ˆ 1.5 q­m θ -Hl j¡e La ?
(A) 32° (B) 48° (C) 72° (D) 49.5°

51. How much heat is required to melt 100 g of ice kept at 0 °C into water and fully convert
it into steam? (Latent heat of melting of ice, specific heat of water and latent heat of
vaporization of water are respectively 80 cal/g, 1 cal/g °C and 540 cal/g)
(A) 72 kcal (B) 10 kcal
(C) 18 kcal (D) 64 kcal
0 °C Eo·a¡u l¡M¡ 100 g hlg N¢m­u pÇf¨ZÑ h¡×f£i¨a Ll­a La f¢lj¡e a¡­fl fË­u¡Se ? (hlg
Nm­el m£ea¡f, S­ml B­f¢rL a¡f J S­ml h¡×f£ih­el m£ea¡f qm kb¡œ²­j 80 cal/g,
1 cal/g °C and 540 cal/g)
(A) 72 kcal (B) 10 kcal
(C) 18 kcal (D) 64 kcal

ANM(R) & GNM-2023 12 

52. 1 nanometer = ?
(A) 10–3 meter (B) 10–6 meter
(C) 10–9 meter (D) 10–12 meter
1 eÉ¡­e¡¢jV¡l = ?

(A) 10–3 ¢jV¡l (B) 10–6 ¢jV¡l

(C) 10–9 ¢jV¡l (D) 10–12 ¢jV¡l

53. GPS stands for
(A) Global Poles System (B) Global Poly-Silicon Store
(C) Global Positioning System (D) Global Position Structure
GPS n­ël AbÑ
(A) ­NÔ¡h¡m ­f¡mpÚ ¢p­ØVj (B) ­NÔ¡h¡m f¢m-¢p¢mLe ­ØV¡l
(C) ­NÔ¡h¡m f¢Sp¢ew ¢p­ØVj (D) ­NÔ¡h¡m f¢Spe ØVÊ¡LÚQ¡l

54. The principal constituent of the atmosphere of the Earth is
(A) Oxygen (B) Carbon
(C) Hydrogen (D) Nitrogen
fª¢bh£l h¡u¤jä­ml j§m Awn q'm
(A) A¢„­Se (B) L¡hÑe
(C) q¡C­XÊ¡­Se (D) e¡C­VÊ¡­Se

55. Product of force and velocity is called
(A) Work (B) Power
(C) Energy (D) Momentum
hm Hhw ®h­Nl …Zgm­L hm¡ qu
(A) L¡S (B) rja¡
(C) n¢š² (D) il­hN

ANM(R) & GNM-2023 13 

Physical Science
Category-II (Q 56 to 60)
(Carry 2 marks each. One or more options are correct. No negative marks)

56. When a balloon is blown with air and its mouth is tied,
(A) All air molecules inside become fixed in their positions.
(B) There will be empty spaces between those air molecules.
(C) Those air molecules keep moving randomly and often hit the balloon surface from
inside.
(D) The air inside becomes solid.

HL¢V ­hm¤e q¡Ju¡ ¢c­u g¥¢m­u j¤M ­hy­d ¢c­m
(A) ¢ia­ll pjÙ¹ h¡uh£u AZ¤…¢m ¢eS ¢eS AhÙÛ¡­e Aes q­u k¡u z
(B) I h¡uh£u AZ¤…¢ml j­dÉJ A­eL M¡¢m S¡uN¡ f­s b¡­L z
(C) I h¡uh£u AZ¤…¢m Qa¥¢cÑ­L kœaœ Qm¡Qm Ll­a b¡­L J fË¡unxC ¢ial ­b­L ­hm¤­el N¡­u
BO¡a Ll­a b¡­L z
(D) ¢ia­ll h¡u¤ L¢We hÙ¹¥­a f¢lZa qu z

57. Steam causes more severe burn injury than boiling water because,
(A) Steam attacks human body with more force.
(B) Steam contains more heat than boiling water of same mass.
(C) Steam is a vapour.
(D) Steam is hotter than boiling water.
g¥V¿¹ S­ml ­Q­u ¢ØVj (Sm£u h¡×f) A­eL ­h¢n SÆme pª¢ø L­l, L¡lZ,
(A) ¢ØVj A­eL ­h¢n ­S¡­l nl£­l BO¡a L­l z
(B) HLC f¢lj¡e ¢ØV­j g¥V¿¹ S­ml ­Q­u A­eL ­h¢n a¡f b¡­L z
(C) ¢ØVj HL dl­Zl h¡×f z
(D) g¥V¿¹ S­ml ­Q­u ¢ØVj A­eL ­h¢n Nlj z

58. Which of the following statements are true ?
(A) Liquids and gases have fixed volume but no fixed shape.
(B) Solids have fixed volume and shape.
(C) Solids never diffuse in each other.
(D) Gases do not have any fixed shape.
¢e­Ql ­L¡e ­L¡e E¢š²…¢m p¢WL ?
(A) alm J NÉ¡­pl p¢WL Buae b¡­L ¢L¿¹¥ ­L¡­e¡ p¢WL BL«¢a b¡­L e¡ z
(B) L¢We fc¡­bÑl p¢WL Buae J BL«¢a b¡­L z
(C) L¢We fc¡bÑ…¢ml j­dÉ LM­e¡C hÉ¡fe h¡ ¢h­rfZ qu e¡ z
(D) NÉ¡p£u fc¡­bÑl ­L¡­e¡ p¢WL BL«¢a ­eC z

ANM(R) & GNM-2023 14 

59.
45o 45o

If a cracker thrown vertically upward bursts into two pieces; one piece flies to right with
an angle 45° to the vertical; the other piece flies to left with the same angle to the vertical
as shown in the figure. This is primarily due to,
(A) Newton’s 1st law of motion.
(B) Conservation of momentum.
(C) Acceleration due to gravity.
(D) Sound produced by the cracker.
HL¢V h¡¢S ­p¡S¡ Ef­ll ¢c­L ¢c­L Ry¥­s ­cJu¡­a ­g­V c¤V¥L­l¡ q­u HL V¥L­l¡ Eõ­ðl p­‰
45 ­L¡­Z X¡e ¢c­L Q­m ­N­m Afl Awn¢V Eõ­ðl p­‰ HLC 45° ­L¡­Z hy¡ ¢c­L Q­m k¡­h z Hl
j§¤m L¡lZ,
(A) ¢eEV­el fËbj N¢ap§œ z
(B) il­h­Nl pwlrZ z
(C) A¢iLoÑS aÆlZ z
(D) h¡¢S g¡V¡l në z

60. If a ball is released to ground from any height,
(A) When it hits the ground, its potential energy is minimum and kinetic energy is
maximum.
(B) At any point during its fall the total energy remains constant.
(C) At any point during its fall, it has both potential energy and kinetic energy.
(D) When it reaches the ground, its potential energy is maximum.
HL¢V hm ­L¡­e¡ EµQa¡ ­b­L ¢e­Q ­R­s ¢c­m
(A) hm¢V kMe i¨¢j­a ­f¡yRh¡l j¤q¨­aÑ ¢ÙÛ¢an¢š² phÑ¢ejÀ J N¢an¢š² p­hÑ¡µQ qu z
(B) faeL¡­ml ­k ­L¡­e¡ AhÙÛ¡­e ­j¡V n¢š² pj¡e qu z
(C) faeL¡­ml ­k ­L¡­e¡ AhÙÛ¡­e hm¢Vl ¢ÙÛ¢an¢š² J N¢an¢š² c¤C-C b¡­L z
(D) hm¢V kMe i¨¢j­a ­f¡yRh¡l j¤q¨­aÑ ¢ÙÛ¢an¢š² p­hÑ¡µQ qu z

ANM(R) & GNM-2023 15 

English
Category-I (Q 61 to 75)
(Carry 1 mark each. Only one option is correct. Negative marks: ̶ ¼)
61. Choose the word, which is opposite in meaning to CHIDE.
(A) Request (B) Criticise
(C) Advocate (D) Praise

62. Pick out the word that has either nearly the same meaning or opposite meaning to
EXONERATE.
(A) Escalate (B) Admit
(C) Accuse (D) Reject

63. Choose the word that can replace both the words in italics in the two given sentences.
I. The management did not find him suitable for the job of a clerk.
II. Akash could not arrange all parts of the machine properly.
(A) fit (B) employ
(C) finish (D) adjust

64. Observe the two italicized words in the following two sentences and give your
observation by choosing any one option below.
I. I am indebted to my friend’s wise councel.
II. Some members of the counsil walked out of the meeting.
(A) Only sentence-I is correct.
(B) Only sentence-II is correct.
(C) Both sentences I and II are correct.
(D) Neither sentence I nor sentence II is correct.

65. Choose the word, which can most appropriately replace the italicized words in the
sentence –
A person can be sentenced to death for killing another human being.
(A) patricide (B) homicide
(C) genocide (D) fratricide

66. Choose the most effective word to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully
complete.
Some people _______ themselves into believing that they are indispensable to the
organization they work for.
(A) force (B) delude (C) keep (D) ask

67. Choose the most effective word to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully
complete.
His _______ of the subject was so good that students had very few questions to raise.
(A) exposition (B) clarity (C) disposing (D) exposure

ANM(R) & GNM-2023 16 

68. Choose the most effective word to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully
complete.
Those who have well _______ their transition from village life to city life have
prospered.
(A) managed (B) taken (C) tried (D) finalised

69. Choose the most effective word to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully
complete.
This is the _______ chosen for the school to come up.
(A) site (B) sight (C) plot (D) area

70. Choose the most appropriate pair of words from the options given below to fill in the
blanks in the given sentence in the same order to make the sentence meaningfully
complete.
The _______ imposed for non-payment was too _______ for it to bring in any
improvement.
(A) penalty, low (B) toll, simple
(C) punishment, harsh (D) fine, severe

71. Choose the most appropriate pair of words from the options given below to fill in the
blanks in the given sentence in the same order to make the sentence meaningfully
complete.
We are _______ to have him _______ here to make this function a great success.
(A) pleased, over (B) happy, lie
(C) proud, leave (D) sorry, over

72. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word/group of words to make the sentence
meaningfully complete.
We should not be indifferent _______ the sufferings of our fellow men.
(A) of (B) to (C) from (D) at

73. Choose the word, which has nearly the same meaning as OBLIGATORY.
(A) Agreeable (B) Required
(C) Stubborn (D) Useful

74. Choose the word, which has nearly the same meaning as EXUDE.
(A) Drop (B) Ooze
(C) Overflow (D) Evaporate

75. Choose the word, which is opposite in meaning to IMPOUND.
(A) Compound (B) Generate
(C) Dollar (D) Release

ANM(R) & GNM-2023 17 

Mathematics
Category-I (Q 76 to 85)
(Carry 1 mark each. Only one option is correct. Negative marks: ̶ ¼)

76. Ramesh Babu sold a clock at Rs. 300 and incurred a loss of 25%. If he would have to
make a profit of 16% then at how much higher price, he should have sold the clock ?
(A) Rs. 164 (B) Rs. 173
(C) Rs. 185 (D) Rs. 187
l­jnh¡h¤ HL¢V O¢s 300 V¡L¡u ¢h¢œ² L­le z H­a ay¡l r¢a qu 25% z ¢a¢e k¢c 16% m¡i Ll­a
Q¡C­ae a¡q­m O¢s¢V ay¡­L, I ¢hœ²u j§­mÉl ­b­L BlJ La ­h¢n V¡L¡u ¢hœ²u Ll­a qa ?
(A) 164 V¡L¡ (B) 173 V¡L¡
(C) 185 V¡L¡ (D) 187 V¡L¡

77. Two cubes of edges 4 cm are placed side by side to form a rectangular cube. What is the
length of the diagonal of this larger rectangular cube ?
(A) 4 3 cm (B) 4 6 cm
(C) 12 cm (D) 12 3 cm
4 ­p¢j °c­OÑÉl d¡l ¢h¢nø c¤¢V OeL­L f¡n¡f¡¢n ­l­M HL¢V BuaOe °a¢l Ll¡ qm z I pwk¤š²
BuaOeL¢Vl L­ZÑl °cOÑÉ La ?
(A) 4 3 ­p¢j (B) 4 6 ­p¢j
(C) 12 ­p¢j (D) 12 3 ­p¢j

78. A pump can fill water in a tank at 2100 liters per hour. Then how many hours does it take
to fill a reservoir at length 7 m, breadth 5 m and height 30 decimeter ?
(A) 5 hours (B) 50 hours
(C) 60 hours (D) 500 hours
HL¢V f¡Çf O¾V¡u 2100 ¢mV¡l Sm i¢aÑ Ll­a f¡­l z a¡q­m 7 ¢jV¡l °cOÑÉ J 5 ¢jV¡l fËÙÛ ¢h¢nø
Sm¡d¡­l 30 ­X¢p¢jV¡l EµQa¡u Sm il¡l SeÉ f¡Çf¢V­L LarZ Q¡m¡­a q­h ?
(A) 5 O¾V¡ (B) 50 O¾V¡
(C) 60 O¾V¡ (D) 500 O¾V¡

79. A and B are two solid spheres. The total surface area of B is 4 times of total surface area
of A. Then the ratio of the volume of A and B is
(A) 1:4 (B) 4:1
(C) 1:8 (D) 8:1
A J B c¤¢V ¢e­lV ­N¡mL z B -Hl pjNËa­ml ­rœgm A -Hl pjNËa­ml ­rœg­ml 4 …Z z
a¡q­m A J B Hl Bua­el Ae¤f¡a La q­h ?
(A) 1:4 (B) 4:1
(C) 1:8 (D) 8:1

ANM(R) & GNM-2023 18 

80. The ratio of the height and transverse height of a cylindrical cone is 4:5, then the ratio of
the transverse height and the radius of the base is
(A) 5:3 (B) 3:5
(C) 7:5 (D) 5:7
HL¢V mðhªš¡L¡l nˆ¥l EµQa¡ J ¢akÑL EµQa¡l Ae¤f¡a 4:5 q­m I nˆ¥l ¢akÑL EµQa¡ J i¨¢jl
hÉ¡p¡­dÑl Ae¤f¡a La q­h ?
(A) 5:3 (B) 3:5
(C) 7:5 (D) 5:7

81. The square root of the product of two roots of the quadratic equation x2 – 6x + 4 = 0 is
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 16 (D) 3 + 5
2
x – 6x + 4 = 0 ¢àO¡a pj£Ll­Zl h£S…¢ml …Zg­ml hNÑj§m La ?
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 16 (D) 3 + 5

82. If the difference between two roots of a quadratic equation is 3 and the constant term is 4.
Then the equation is
(A) x2 – 5x + 4 = 0 (B) x2 – 3x + 4 = 0
(C) x2 – 5x – 4 = 0 (D) x2 – 3x – 4 = 0
k¢c HL¢V ¢àO¡a pj£Ll­Zl c¤¢V h£­Sl A¿¹l 3 J dËh¤ L fc 4 qu a¡q­m pj£LlZ¢V q­h
(A) x2 – 5x + 4 = 0 (B) x2 – 3x + 4 = 0
2
(C) x – 5x – 4 = 0 (D) x2 – 3x – 4 = 0

83. The sides of a triangle are 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm. Then the area of its circumcircle is
(A) 5 cm2 (B) 14 cm2
275 175
(C) 14 cm2 (D) 7 cm2
HL¢V ¢œi¥­Sl h¡ýl °cOÑÉ kb¡œ²­j 3 ­p¢j, 4 ­p¢j J 5 ­p¢j z a¡q­m ¢œi¥S¢Vl f¢lhª­šl
­rœgm q­h
(A) 5 hNÑ ­p¢j (B) 14 hNÑ ­p¢j
275 175
(C) 14 hNÑ ­p¢j (D) 7 hNÑ ­p¢j

84. At what rate of simple interest an amount of money will double in 4 years ?
(A) 16% (B) 25% (C) 50% (D) 64%
plm p¤¤­cl q¡l La q­m ­L¡­e¡ V¡L¡ 4 hR­l p¤¤­c-Bp­m ¢à…Z q­h ?
(A) 16% (B) 25% (C) 50% (D) 64%

85. Find simple interest on Rs. 3000 at 6% per annum from 1 st January to 26th May, in 2005.
(A) Rs. 36 (B) Rs. 48 (C) Rs. 60 (D) Rs. 72
2005 p¡­ml 1 S¡e¤u¡l£ ­b­L 26 ­j fkÑ¿¹ h¡¢oÑL 6% plm p¤¤­cl q¡­l 3000 V¡L¡l p¤¤c La ?
(A) 36 V¡L¡ (B) 48 V¡L¡ (C) 60 V¡L¡ (D) 72 V¡L¡

ANM(R) & GNM-2023 19 

General Knowledge
Category-I (Q 86 to 95)
(Carry 1 mark each. Only one option is correct. Negative marks: ̶ ¼)

86. Fire temple is the place of worship of which of the following religion ?
(A) Buddhism. (B) Shintoism
(C) Christianism. (D) Zoroastrianism (Parsi Religion).
A¢NÀj¢¾cl (Fire temple) ­L¡eÚ d­jÑl j¡e¤­ol Ef¡pe¡ Nªq ?
(A) ­h±Ü djÑ (B) ¢n­¾V¡ djÑ
(C) MË£ødjÑ (D) Slb¤øÊh¡c (f¡l¢p djÑ)

87. The United Nations Organization has its Headquarters at
(A) Delhi (B) London (C) New York (D) Moscow
l¡ØVÊpw­Ol fËd¡e L¡kÑ¡mu ­L¡b¡u Ah¢ÙÛa ?
(A) ¢cõ£ (B) mäe (C) ¢eECuLÑ (D) j­ú¡

88. Naval staff in a submarine can see objects at the surface of water with a
(A) Stethoscope (B) Periscope (C) Kaleidoscope (D) Telescope
p¡h­j¢l­el e¡¢hLl¡ S­ml Ef­ll hÙ¹¥ ­cM­a f¡u ­L¡eÚ¢Vl p¡q¡­kÉ ?
(A) ­ØV­b¡­ú¡f (B) ­f¢l­ú¡f (C) LÉ¡­mC­X¡­ú¡f (D) ­V¢m­ú¡f

89. Which of the following musical instruments is played by Amjad Ali Khan ?
(A) Veena (B) Tabla (C) Sarod (D) Sitar
e£­Ql ­L¡eÚ h¡cÉk¿»¢V BjS¡c B¢m M¡e h¡S¡e ?
(A) h£Z¡ (B) ahm¡ (C) p­l¡c (D) ­pa¡l

90. The ‘Lady with the Lamp’ was the name given to ?
(A) Sister Nivedita (B) Queen Elizabeth
(C) Florence Nightingale (D) Princess Diana
‘­m¢X ECb cÉ¡ mÉ¡Çf’ e¡­j L¡­L X¡L¡ qu ?
(A) ¢pØV¡l ¢e­h¢ca¡ (B) L¥Ce H¢mS¡­hb
(C) ­gÓ¡­l¾p e¡C¢Vw­Nm (D) ¢fË­¾pp X¡u¡e¡

ANM(R) & GNM-2023 20 

91. “The Great Barrier” Reef is in which country ?
(A) China (B) Australia (C) Ireland (D) Singapore
“­NËV ­h¢lu¡l ¢lg” ­L¡eÚ ­c­n Ah¢ÙÛa ?
(A) Q£e (B) A­ØVÊ¢mu¡ (C) Bu¡lmÉ¡ä (D) ¢p‰¡f¤l

92. Of the following diseases which one is caused by insect bite ?
(A) Dengue (B) Scurvy (C) Pneumonia (D) Asthma
e£­Ql ­L¡eÚ ­l¡N¢V fa­‰l L¡j­sl g­m qu ?
(A) ­X¢‰ (B) ú¡¢iÑ (C) ¢eE­j¡¢eu¡ (D) AÉ¡Sj¡

93. Which of the following is the largest air pollutant ?
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Sulphur dioxide (D) Hydrocarbons
¢ejÀ¢m¢Ma ­L¡eÚ¢V p­h¡Ñšj h¡u¤c§oZL¡l£ ?
(A) L¡hÑe-X¡C A„¡CX (B) L¡hÑe j­e¡„¡CX
(C) p¡mg¡l X¡C A„¡CX (D) q¡C­X¡Ê L¡hÑe

94. The hottest planet in the solar system ?
(A) Mercury (B) Venus (C) Mars (D) Jupiter
­p±lSN­al Eo·aj NË­ql e¡j ¢L ?
(A) h¤d (B) öœ² (C) j‰m (D) hªqØf¢a

95. Exposure to sunlight helps a person improve his health because
(A) resistance power increases.
(B) the infrared light kills bacteria in the body.
(C) the ultraviolet rays convert skin oil into Vitamin - D.
(D) the pigment cells in the skin get stimulated and produce a healthy tan.
p§kÑ¡­m¡L j¡e¤­ol ü¡­ÙÛÉl Eæ¢a OV¡­a p¡q¡kÉ L­l L¡lZ -
(A) a¡ fË¢a­l¡d rja¡ h¡s¡u z
(B) Ceé¡­lV B­m¡ nl£­ll hÉ¡­ƒ¢lu¡ dÆwp L­l z
(C) A¢a­h…e£ l¢nÈ aÆ­Ll °am­L ¢iV¡¢je-¢X ­a l©f¡¿¹¢la L­l z
(D) aÆ­Ll l”L LZ¡ E­š¢Sa qu Hhw aÆL­L f¡L¡ L­l z

ANM(R) & GNM-2023 21 

Logical Reasoning
Category-I (Q 96 to 100)
(Carry 1 mark each. Only one option is correct. Negative marks: ̶ ¼)

96. 6, 11, 21, 36, 56, ?
(A) 42 (B) 51
(C) 81 (D) 91

97. Which of the following relations is most analogous to LIGHT : CANDLE ?
(A) Exercise : Strength (B) Car : Engine
(C) Dieting : Overweight (D) Power : Battery

98. How is David’s father’s only daughter-in-law’s son’s wife related to David ?
(A) Daughter (B) Daughter-in-law
(C) Niece (D) Granddaughter

99. 36, 34, 30, 28, 24, ... What number should come next ?
(A) 20 (B) 22
(C) 23 (D) 26

100. Find the missing terms.

5 3 7 5 6 4
19 ? 29
4 6 5
(a) (b) (c)
(A) 25 (B) 37
(C) 41 (D) 47
_____________

ANM(R) & GNM-2023 22 

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

ANM(R) & GNM-2023 23 

pju: 90 ¢j¢eV f§ZÑj¡e : 115
¢e­cÑn¡hm£
1. HC fËnÀf­œ pjÙ¹ fËnC
À Ah­S¢ƒi fËnÀ Hhw fË¢a¢V fË­nÀl Q¡l¢V pñ¡hÉ Ešl ­cJu¡ B­R z
2. Category-I : HL¢V Ešl p¢WL z p¢WL Ešl ¢c­m 1 eðl f¡­h z i¥m Ešl ¢c­m Abh¡ ­k ­L¡e
HL¡¢dL Ešl ¢c­m ¼ eðl L¡V¡ k¡­h z
3. Category-II: HL h¡ HL¡¢dL Ešl p¢WL z ph L¢V p¢WL Ešl ¢c­m 2 eðl f¡­h z k¢c ­L¡e i¥m
Ešl e¡ b¡­L Hhw p¢WL EšlJ ph L¢V e¡ b¡­L a¡q­m f¡­h 2  ­k L¢V p¢WL Ešl ­cJu¡ q­u­R
a¡l pwMÉ¡  Bp­m ­k L¢V Ešl p¢WL a¡l pwMÉ¡ z k¢c ­L¡­e¡ i¥m Ešl ­cJu¡ qu h¡ HL¡¢dL
Eš­ll j­dÉ HL¢VJ i¥m b¡­L a¡q­m Ešl¢V i¥m d­l ­eJu¡ q­h z ¢L¿¹¥ ­p­r­œ ­L¡­e¡ eðl L¡V¡
k¡­h e¡, AbÑ¡v n§eÉ eðl f¡­h z
4. OMR f­œ A, B, C, D ¢Q¢q²a p¢WL Ol¢V il¡V L­l Ešl ¢c­a q­h z
5. OMR f­œ Ešl ¢c­a öd¤j¡œ L¡­m¡ h¡ e£m L¡¢ml hm f­u¾V ­fe hÉhq¡l Ll­h z
6. OMR f­œ ¢e¢cÑø ÙÛ¡e R¡s¡ AeÉ ­L¡b¡J ­L¡e c¡N ­c­h e¡ z
7. OMR f­œ ¢e¢cÑø ÙÛ¡­e fËnf
À ­œl eðl Hhw ¢e­Sl ­l¡m eðl A¢a p¡hd¡ea¡l p¡­b ¢mM­a q­h Hhw
fË­u¡Se£u Ol…¢m f§lZ Ll­a q­h z
8. OMR f­œ ¢e¢cÑø ÙÛ¡­e ¢e­Sl e¡j J fl£r¡ ­L­¾cÊl e¡j ¢mM­a q­h Hhw ¢e­Sl (Admit Card-H
E­õ¢Ma) pÄ¡rl Ll­a q­h z
9. fËnÀf­œl eðl h¡ ­l¡m eðl i¥m ¢mM­m Abh¡ i¥m Ol il¡V Ll­m, fl£r¡bÑ£l e¡j, fl£r¡ ­L­¾cÊl e¡j
h¡ pÄ¡r­l ­L¡e i¥m b¡L­m Ešl fœ h¡¢am q­u ­k­a f¡­l z OMR fœ¢V i¡yS q­m h¡ a¡­a
Ae¡hnÉL c¡N fs­mJ h¡¢am q­u ­k­a f¡­l z fl£r¡bÑ£l HC dl­el i¥m h¡ ApaÑLa¡l SeÉ
Ešlfœ h¡¢am q­m HLj¡œ fl£r¡bÑ£ ¢e­SC a¡l SeÉ c¡u£ b¡L­h z
10. ­j¡h¡Cm­g¡e, LÉ¡mL¥­mVl, pÔ¡CXl¦m, mN­Vhm, q¡aO¢s, ­lM¡¢Qœ, NË¡g h¡ ­L¡e dl­Zl a¡¢mL¡
fl£r¡ L­r Be¡ k¡­h e¡ z Be­m ­p¢V h¡­Su¡ç q­h Hhw fl£r¡bÑ£l JC fl£r¡ h¡¢am Ll¡ q­h z
11. fËnÀf­œ l¡g L¡S Ll¡l SeÉ gy¡L¡ S¡uN¡ ­cJu¡ B­R z AeÉ ­L¡e L¡NS HC L¡­S hÉhq¡l Ll¡ k¡­h
e¡ z
12. fl£r¡ Lr R¡s¡l B­N OMR fœ AhnÉ C f¢lcnÑL­L ¢c­u k¡­h z
13. HC fËnfÀ ­œ Cwl¡S£ J h¡wm¡ Eiu i¡o¡­aC fËnÀ ­cJu¡ B­R z (Basic English & Logical
Reasoning R¡s¡) h¡wm¡ j¡dÉ­j fËnÀ °al£l pju fË­u¡Se£u p¡hd¡ea¡ J paLÑa¡ Ahmðe Ll¡
q­u­R z a¡ p­šJ
Ä k¢c ­L¡e Ap‰¢a mrÉ Ll¡ k¡u, ­p­r­œ Cwl¡S£ j¡dÉ­j ­cJu¡ fËnÀ ¢WL J Q¨s¡¿¹
h­m ¢h­h¢Qa q­h z
14. fl£r¡ ®n­o fl£r¡b£Ñl¡ fËnÀfœ¢V ¢e­u k¡­h z

A 
ANM(R) & GNM-2023 24 