AP DEECET 2021 Question Paper for Biological Science

DEECET – 2021
(PART - A)
Teaching Aptitude – SET – 1

1. Which commission has drafted National Education policy – 2020
(NEP-2020)
1. Kothari Commission
2. Mudaliar Commission
3. Radhakrishnan Commission
4. Krishnaswamy Kasturirangan Commission

2. The purpose of timetable in the schools
1. Schools are organized systematically
2. All subjects are given equal importance
3. Balances the workload among the teachers
4. All of the above

3. How should the teacher behave with the student in accordance with
the current Educational System?
1. Should be strict
2. Keep a distance from the student
3. Should not mingle
4. Should be friendly

4. If the student attends class late every day
1. To be punished physically
2. Nothing to be said
3. Cause to be found out and the problem be solved
4. Name to be deleted

5. Language Development is caused by which of the following?
1. Sports
2. Clay modelling
3. Story telling
4. Dance

G. K. – SET - 1
6. The state which has the largest number of sugar mills in India is
1. Bihar
2. Haryana
3. Punjab
4. Uttar Pradesh

7. Who was the first Asian to win the Nobel prize for literature
1. C.V. Raman
2. Rajiv Gandhi
3. Rabindranath Tagore
4. Mother Teresa

8. The title of Annamayya
1. Padakavita Pitamaha
2. Andhrakavita Pitamaha
3. Andhra Pitamaha
4. Harikatha Pitamaha

9. The fastest train of India
1. Vande Bharath Express
2. Rajdhani Express
3. Duronto Express
4. Garib Rath

10. India’s major achievements in Olympics are in
1. Cricket
2. Hockey
3. Tennis
4. Soccer

English – SET - 1
11. Failures is the highway to success. Tom Watson Sr. said, “If you
want to succeed, double your failure rate”.
What does Tom Watson Sr. mean by saying “If you want to succeed,
double your failure rate.”?
1. If one wants success, one shouldn’t fail.
2. In achieving the target, there may be failures.
3. We must fail two times before we get the success.
4. You have to travel on a highway to get the success.

12. We are weary and we cannot run or leap.
Choose the correct synonym and the antonym of the word
“weary” respectively
1. weight (Synonym); dull (Antonym)
2. playful (Synonym); weak (Antonym)
3. hungry (Synonym); thirsty (Antonym)
4. tired (Synonym); energetic (Antonym)

13. Choose the word that cannot be used after the word, “warm”
1. welcome
2. blood
3. dream
4. place

14. Which of the following is not a part of a poster?
1. number of copies
2. purpose of the poster
3. target audience
4. issued by
15. “Please don’t forget to tell him”. This sentence expresses:
1. question
2. request
3. apology
4. offer

Telugu – SET – 1

16. »»me]¿ì y¹s jáTeTTH r¹sµµ ‚~ ÿ¿£
1. y¿£«+
2. qT&¿±sÁ+
3. n_óçbÍjáT+
4. kÍyîTÔá

17. »»d•VŸ²+µµ ` ‡ |Ÿ<‘“¿ì $¿£Ü
1. #î*$T
2. dŸ+K«eTT
3. HîjáT«eTT
4. HjáTeTT

18. Ôû*¿£>± |Ÿ*¿¹ n¿£sŒ \qT @eT+{²sÁT?
1. dŸsÞÁ ²\T
2. |ŸsTÁ cÍ\T
3. nqTHd¾¿±\T
4. dŸÎsô\T

19. Ôî\T>·T esÁe’ Ö\ýË n#áTÌ\ dŸ+K«
1. 16
2. 3
3. 56
4. 37

20. ÿ¿£ VŸ²\T¢ ¿ì+<Š n<û VŸ²\T¢ ¿±Å£”+&† yûs=¿£ VŸ²\T¢ eºÌ #û]Ôû n~
1. ‹VŸQÞøeTT
2. ~ÇsÁT¿£ï¿£+
3. dŸ+Xâc¢ Í¿£sŒ +Á
4. dŸ+jáTT¿±ï¿sŒ£ +Á

1st Language English – SET – 1

21. Choose the present perfect tense from the following sentences
1. It has rained
2. He is playing
3. She walked
4. I go to library

22. Match the following to make compound adjectives
Set – A Set – B
i) absent a) new
ii) kind b) aged
iii) middle c) minded
iv) brand d) hearted
1. i – a, ii – b, iii – c, iv – d
2. i – b, ii – c, iii – a, iv – d
3. i – c, ii – d, iii – b, iv – a
4. i – d, ii – b, iii – c, iv – a

23. Change the following into passive voice.
Do not write the questions
1. The questions do not write
2. Let the questions not be written
3. Do not be written the questions
4. Not to write the questions

24. It may rain today.
1. Making a request
2. Expressing possibility
3. Giving advice
4. asking permission

25. Find the wrongly spelt word
1. acheivement
2. inspire
3. voracious
4. discrimination

26. Fill the blanks with ‘a / an or the’
_______ sun is ________ star
1. an, a
2. a, the
3. The, a
4. The, an

27. Complete the sentence
If I had played well, ____________
1. I would won the game.
2. I won the game.
3. I will won the game.
4. I would have won the game.

28. Choose the meaning of the phrasal verb “keep away” in the
given sentence.
“Why did you keep away yesterday?”
1. Stay away
2. keep it with you
3. throw away
4. look at here

29. Sports is a part and parcel of education.
What does the binomial “Part and Parcel” mean?
1. an integral part
2. a large choice
3. dedicated
4. unimportant things

30. It’s time ________
complete the sentence with correct verb form
1. We went home
2. We have gone home
3. We will go home
4. We go home

Mathematics – SET - 1

(2 ) =
8
4

31. What is the value of
(4 )
8 2

1. 16
2. 32
3. 8
4. 1

32. 8% 400 – 4% 800 + 1% 500 =
1. 10
2. 20
3. 4
4. 5

33. If a + b = 123, b + c = 37 and c + a = 40 then a + b + c =
1. 30
2. 20
3. 10
4. 5

34. 20 + 30 =
1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3

35. The greatest negative integer
1. – 100
2. –1
3. –9
4. 0

36. The value of (–1)100 =
1. –1
2. 0
1
3.
100
4. 1

37. 0.05 ´ 0.09 ´ 5 =
1. 0.025
2. 0.225
3. 0.00
4. 0.0225

38. (5)20 = (25)x then x =
1. 20
2. 10
3. 40
4. 5

39. If x < 0, y > 0 then (–x, –y) belongs to
1. I Quadrant
2. II Quadrant
3. III Quadrant
4. IV Quadrant

1 4 1
40. 3 +4 +9 =
2 5 3
19
1. 17
30
17
2. 18
30
9
3. 20
12
4. 0

General Science – SET – 1
(Biology)

41. Part of the stem from where leaves arise is called
1. Node
2. Cotyledon
3. Bud
4. Internodes

42. The structural and functional unit of life
1. Organ
2. Cell
3. Cell tissue
4. System

43. “Suicidal bags” of the cell
1. Ribosomes
2. Golgi apparatus
3. Lysosomes
4. Cytoplasm

44. The layer that covers lungs is
1. Meninges
2. Chlora
3. Pleura
4. Serum

45. Rearing of honey bee for the commercial production of
honey is called
1. aquaculture
2. apiculture
3. sericulture
4. horticulture

General Science SET-1
Physical Science
46. Volume of solid is measured in
1. Metres
2. Square metres
3. Cubic metres
4. Centimetres

47. “Chromatography” is the method used to separate
1. Mud from water
2. Colours
3. Impurities from water
4. Husk from grains

48. When the speed of a ball is doubled its kinetic energy
1. Remains same
2. gets doubled
3. Becomes half
4. becomes 4 times

49. HCl is
1. Acid
2. Base
3. Salt
4. None of the above

50. The element present in chlorophyll
1. Mg
2. Na
3. Cu
4. Ca
Social Studies – SET – 1

51. In Global forest cover, India ranks
1. 2
2. 5
3. 10
4. 15

52. A book written by Megasthenes
1. Indica
2. Charaka Samhitha
3. Arthasasthram
4. Amukthamalyada

53. Who was the first man to step on the surface of the moon?
1. Neil Armstrong
2. Kalpana Chawla
3. Satish Dhawan
4. Sunitha Williams

54. In which year did the Russian Revolution take place
1. 1916
2. 1917
3. 1918
4. 1919

55. Who is regarded as the “Father of the Indian Constitution”?
1. Mahatma Gandhi
2. Jawaharlal Nehru
3. B.R. Ambedkar
4. Dr. Babu Rajendra Prasad

56. Partition of Bengal takes place in the year
1. 1904
2. 1905
3. 1919
4. 1918

57. Food security means
1. Food production
2. Food Availability
3. Ability to purchase food
4. All the above

58. Who organized “East India Association” in London?
1. Surendranath Banerjee
2. Dadabhai Naoroji
3. Gopalakrishna Gokhale
4. M.G. Ranade

59. Human Development Report published by
1. UNO
2. UNDP
3. WHO
4. UNESCO

60. Where did the Industrial Revolution begin?
1. England
2. Italy
3. France
4. Germany

DEECET – 2021
(BIO - SCIENCE)
Inter Botany – SET - 2
61. In cell cycle, DNA replication takes place in
1. G1 phase
2. G2 phase
3. metaphase
4. S phase

62. In which of the families the stamens are in two whorls
and epiphyllous
1. Malvaceae
2. Solanaceae
3. Liliaceae
4. Fabaceae

63. The components of a nucleotide are
1. Nitrogen base-sugar-phosphate
2. Nitrogen base-sugar-OH
3. Nitrogen base- OH
4. sugar- phosphate

64. Which of the following contribute(s) to the carbon cycle?
1. Respiration and photosynthesis
2. Fossil fuel combustion
3. Decomposition of dead organisms
4. All of these

65. Column – I Column – II
Type of Protozoans Examples
A) Amoeboid protozoans I) Paramecium
B) Ciliated protozoans II) Plasmodium
C) Flagellated protozoans III) Amoeba
D) Sporozoans IV) Trypanosoma
1. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
2. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
3. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
4. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

66. Increase in CO2 concentration around leaf results in
1. rapid opening of stomata
2. partial closure of stomata
3. complete closure of stomata
4. no effect on stomatal opening

67. A polygonum type of embryo sac is
1. 7-celled and 8-nucleate
2. 8-celled and 7-nucleate
3. 7-celled and 7-nucleate
4. 8-celled and 8-nucleate

68. Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for
1. DNA finger printing
2. Disarming pathogen vectors
3. Transformation of plant cells
4. Constructing recombinant DNA molecules

69. Who proposed “Lock and key” hypothesis
1. Michaelis
2. Blackman
3. Emil Fisher
4. Daniel E. Koshland

70. Which one of the following is a living fossil
1. Pinus
2. Gnetum
3. Ginkgo
4. Cycas

71. C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesis than C3 plants due to
1. higher leaf area
2. presence of larger number of chloroplasts in the leaf cells
3. presence of thin cuticle
4. lower rate of photorespiration

72. Which is not a stem modification?
1. Rhizome of ginger
2. Corm of Colocasia
3. Pitcher of Nepenthes
4. Tubers of potato

73. In Krebs cycle FAD participates as electron acceptor during
the conversion of
1. succinyl CoA ® succinic acid
2. a -ketoglutarate ® succinyl CoA
3. succinic acid ® fumaric acid
4. fumaric acid ® malic acid

74. The genotype of a plant showing the dominant phenotype
can be determined by
1. test cross
2. dihybrid cross
3. pedigree analysis
4. back cross

75. Fern plant is a
1. haploid gametophyte
2. diploid gametophyte
3. diploid sporophyte
4. haploid sporophyte

76. Which one of the micro-organism is used for production of
citric acid in industries?
1. Lactobacillus bulgaricus
2. Penicillium citrinum
3. Aspergillus niger
4. Rhizopus nigricans

77. Which element is regarded as the 17th essential element which acts
as an activator for urease
1. copper
2. chlorine
3. nickel
4. zinc

78. Which of the following is absent in prokaryotes?
1. DNA
2. Ribosomes
3. Plasma membrane
4. Mitochondria

79. Which one of the following generally acts as an antagonist
to gibberellins?
1. Zeatin
2. Ethylene
3. Abscisic Acid
4. Indole Acetic Acid

80. Study of different tissues present in the plant body is called
1. Anatomy
2. Histology
3. Palynology
4. Phycology

Inter Zoology – SET –2

81. Cells of the cartilage are called
1. Osteocytes
2. Chondrocytes
3. Mast cells
4. Thrombocytes

82. Multiple fission is seen in the protozoan
1. Bacteria
2. Euglena
3. Paramecium
4. Plasmodium

83. The incorrect match of the phylum with their examples is
1. Platyhelminthes - Ancylostoma
2. Mollusca - Octopus
3. Porifera - Sycon
4. Cnidaria - Aurelia

84. The amount of volume of air that can be inspired / expired
normally is called
1. Tidal volume
2. Vital capacity
3. Residual volume
4. Lung capacity

85. Example of Viviparous organism
1. Catla
2. Labeo
3. Scoliodon
4. Echeneis

86. Common cold is caused by
1. Rhinovirus
2. Streptococcus
3. Variola
4. Retrovirus

87. In human beings XXY karyotype is seen in
1. Down’s syndrome
2. Klinefelter’s syndrome
3. Turner’s Syndrome
4. Edward’s Syndrome

88. Mature Human Insulin is made up of how many polypeptide chains?
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 1

89. In situ conservation refers to
1. On site conservation
2. Off site conservation
3. Could be both (1) and (2)
4. None of the above

90. A single gene may express more than one effect. The phenomenon
is called
1. Multiple allelism
2. Polyploidy
3. Pleiotropy
4. Polygeny

91. Insufficient thyroxine in adults can lead to
1. Goitre
2. Tetany
3. Cretinism
4. Myxedema

92. The most abundant antibody produced during allergies is
1. IgE
2. IgA
3. IgG
4. IgM

93. During resting state, fluid outside axon contains
1. Low concentration of K+
2. Low concentration of Na+
3. Low concentration of Cl–
4. High concentration of Cl–

94. The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in ART is called
1. GIFT
2. ZIFT
3. ICSI
4. ET

95. The signals for parturition originate from
1. Placenta only
2. Placenta as well as fully developed foetus
3. Oxytocin
4. Fully developed foetus only

96. The normal blood pressure in humans is
1. 130/90 mmHg
2. 120/80 mmHg
3. 110/80 mmHg
4. 80/120 mmHg

97. “Zoological survey of India” organization is located in
1. Dehradun
2. Kolkata
3. Delhi
4. Hyderabad

98. Microtubules arrangement in flagella is
1. 9+1
2. 1+9
3. 2+9
4. 9+2

99. pH value of Human blood is
1. 6.2
2. 9.4
3. 7.4
4. 10

100. Widal test is used for the diagnosis of
1. Malaria
2. Filaria
3. Tuberculosis
4. Typhoid