MAHA SET 2019 Question Paper 2 Environmental Science

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A
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
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JUN - 31219 (To be filled by the Candidate)
Time Allowed : 2 Hours] [Maximum Marks : 200
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 100
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2

Environmental Science
Paper II
Time Allowed : 120 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 200
Note : This Paper contains Hundred (100) multiple choice questions. Each question
carrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

1. Tropical cyclones are most frequently 3. Hydrostatic equation giving the

relation between height and
observed in the Bay of Bengal
pressure at a given temperature :
during :
dp
(A) = – T
dz
(A) July – August
dp –
(B)
dz T
(B) Jan. – Feb.
dp
(C) = – g
(C) March – May dz

dp –
(D) Oct. – Dec. (D)
dz g

2. The dispersal of pollutants in air is 4. Earth’s atmosphere is transparent to

dependent on : infrared radiation in the wavelength

band which is called atmospheric
(A) Wind speed only
window :
(B) Wind speed and thermal
(A) 8 – 13
stability both
(B) 14 – 17
(C) Thermal stability only
(C) 7 20

(D) Wind speed and humidity
(D) 5 – 7
3 [P.T.O.

5. In an area where there are no land 8. An inversion layer is seen between
surface (open ocean) the albedo of
1000 m to 1500 m. If the
the surface will be :
temperature at 1000 m is 280 K,
(A) Maximum

(B) Minimum what will be temperature at the top

(C) More than bare soil of the layer (negative lapse rate

(D) More than wet soil 1.0°C/100 m) ?

6. In an adiabatic process the ................ (A) 290 K
remains unchanged.
(B) 278 K
(A) Temperature

(B) Entropy (C) 284 K

(C) Density
(D) 285 K
(D) Pressure
9. Subtropical jet stream with its core
7. If 10 calories of heat is added to a
system which does not change its of strong winds (exceeding 60 kt) at

specific volume, then as per the first nearly 200 hPa ...................... .
law of thermodynamics the change
in internal energy of the system will (A) Moves equatorward in summer

be :
(B) Remains at same location in
(A) Zero
winter and summer
(B) Positive
(C) Moves equatorward in winter
(C) Negative

(D) Either (A) or (C) (D) Moves poleward in winter

4

10. In a dry atmosphere under adiabatic 13. Choose the correct concentration for

condition the lapse rate is .............. the gases given in List-I generally

(A) – g/cv found in the urban environment :

List-I : O3, CO2, CH4, CO
(B) – g/cp

(A) 400 PPMV, 60 PPBV,
(C) – g/cpR
1.9 PPMV, 600 PPBV
(D) – gcp/R
(B) 60 PPBV, 400 PPMV,
11. Solar constant is :
1.9 PPMV, 600 PPBV
(A) 1345 W/M
(C) 1.9 PPMV, 60 PPBV,
(B) 1345 W/M2
400 PPMV, 600 PPBV
(C) 1200 W/M2
(D) 600 PPBV, 400 PPMV,
(D) 345 W/M 40 PPBV, 1.9 PPMV

12. If carbon monoxide concentration at 14. Which one of the following causes

1 atm and 25°C is 9.0 PPMV, then warming of the atmosphere but

concentration in mg/m3 is : cooling of the Earth’s surface ?

(A) 10.3 mg/m3 (A) Ozone

(B) 15.2 mg/m3 (B) Black carbon aerosols

(C) 20.0 mg/m3 (C) All greenhouse gases

(D) 5.6 mg/m3 (D) Sulphates and nitrates

5 [P.T.O.

15. Which of the following gases 18. Generally the rain water having pH
facilitates formation of tropospheric ......................... is considered as acid
ozone in the presence of sunlight ? rain.

(A) SO2 (A) More than 5.6

(B) NO2 (B) Less than 5.6

(C) NH3 (C) 10

(D) SF6 (D) 7

16. Alamatti Dam is on river Krishna 19. Which one is the most abundant
and is built in the state : greenhouse gas in the atmosphere ?

(A) Karnatka (A) CH4

(B) Maharashtra (B) SF 6

(C) Andhra Pradesh (C) N2O

(D) Telengana (D) CO2

17. What is the source of cloud 20. Which one of the following is NOT
formation and precipitation in a common component of photo-
troposphere ? chemical smog ?

(A) Water vapour (A) O3

(B) Rain (B) SO2

(C) Infiltration (C) PAN

(D) All of them (D) CFC’s

6

21. Arrange the following greenhouse 24. Out of As, Bi, Sb and graphite

gases in the increasing order of their semimetals, which one of the

Global Warming Potential (GWP) : following is considerded as metalloid ?

(A) N2O < SF6 < CH4 (A) Bi

(B) SF6 < N2O < CH4 (B) As

(C) Sp
(C) CH4 < N2O < SF6

(D) Graphite
(D) SF6 < CH4 < N2O

25. Immobilization of sulphur in soil
22. Decay of one -particle from
occurs when the C : S ratio is :
Thorium (90Th232) will result in :
(A) Below 50 : 1
(A) 90Th 231
(B) Below 100 : 1
(B) 88Ra 228
(C) Below 200 : 1
(C) 88 Ra 223
(D) Above 400 : 1
(D) 88 Ra 226
26. Mass spectrometer separates ions
23. Gypsum is :
based on the :
(A) CaCO 3
(A) Charge

(B) CaSO4.2H2O
(B) Mass

(C) CaCl 2
(C) Mass to charge ratio

(D) CaF2 (D) Molecular weight

7 [P.T.O.

27. The use of buffer eluent is common 29. Temporary hardness of water is

in : caused due to :

(A) Atomic absorption spectrometer (A) Magnesium chloride
(AAS)
(B) Magnesium sulphate
(B) Gas chromatography
(C) Magnesium carbonate
(C) High performance liquid
(D) Calcium sulphate
chromatography
30. Out of the following, the first step
(D) Capillary electrophoresis
of water treatment is :
28. In the process of dynamic dilution
(A) Filtration
to quantify odor in water, the

meaning of olfactory perception (B) Coagulation

threshold is : (C) Chlorination

(A) 25% of the jury perceives the (D) Sedimentation
odor
31. Which one of the following is a
(B) 50% of the jury perceives the
micronutrient for plants ?
odor
(A) S
(C) 75% of the jury perceives the
(B) B
odor
(C) Ca
(D) 100% of the jury perceives the

odor (D) P

8

32. Gas used as fuel in Atomic 35. Calculate molar mass of HNO3 :

Absorption spectrometry is : (A) 48 g/mol

(B) 63 g/mol
(A) Air
(C) 62 g/mol
(B) Nitrogen
(D) 49 g/mol
(C) Acetylene
36. Factors influencing the environ-

(D) Nitrous oxide mental gradients in species diversity
are :
33. How many Nickel atoms are present
(A) Temperature
in 25 g Ni(MW of Nickel is
(B) Rainfall
58.71 g) ?
(C) Potential evapotranspiration
(A) 52.7 × 1023 atoms of Ni (D) All of the above

(B) 25.7 × 1023 atoms of Ni 37. In a deep water lake zonation of
water bodies w.r.t. levels from top to
(C) 2.57 × 1023 atoms of Ni
bottom of D.O. and temperature are
(D) 5.27 × 1023 atoms of Ni different zones are :

(A) Epilimnion Hypolimnion
34. The following reaction is an example
Mesolimnion
of CuCO3 — Cu + CO2
(B) Mesolimnion Epilimnion
(A) Acid base reaction Hypolimnion

(B) Chemiluminescence (C) Hypolimnion Mesolimnion
Epilimnion
(C) Thermal decomposition
(D) Epilimnion Mesolimnion
(D) Photometry Hypolimnion

9 [P.T.O.

38. Which one of the following zones in 41. Oxidation pond method used for
treatment of clarified sewage work
a deep water lake is known as Dark
on :
Zone ?
(A) Bacteria
(A) Littoral zone
(B) Algae
(B) Epilimnion zone (C) Bacteria and Algae

(C) Mesolimnion zone (D) All of the above

42. One of the following organisms
(D) Hypolimnion zone
is most commonly used as
39. Any organism that obtains its biofertilizer :
nutrition from dead organic material (A) Choococcus
is known as : (B) Pediastrum

(A) Autotrophs (C) Nostoc

(B) Heterotrophs (D) Aphanocapsa

43. Which one of the following is
(C) Saprotrophs
observed when analyse sewage
(D) Chemotrophs polluted water ?

40. Blue baby syndrome is caused to the (A) Low level of plant nutrient and
excess growth of algae
human infants due to :
(B) Low growth of algae and less
(A) Nitrate D.O.

(B) Sulphate (C) High concentration of nutrients
and low growth of algae
(C) Calcium
(D) High concentration of nutrients
(D) Potassium and excess growth of algae

10

44. Which of the following is NOT used 47. Contaminated water can spread
for bringing about bioconversion of disease like :
different substances ?
(A) TB (Tuberculosis)
(A) Yeasts
(B) Typhoid
(B) Molds
(C) Tetanus
(C) Bacteria
(D) Diphtheria
(D) Viruses

45. Azolla is used as a biofertilizer as 48. Pick the odd one out :

it has ...................... that fixes (A) Agrobacterium – horseradish
nitrogen.
(B) Azolla – Anabaena
(A) Rhizobium
(C) Frankia – Alder
(B) Anabaena
(D) Rhizobium – Peas
(C) Mycorrhiza
49. The ocean thermal energy
(D) Azotobacter
conversion system that is meant to
46. Which of the following are air-borne
generate power in most suitable in :
viral diseases ?

(A) Chickenpox, influenza, measles (A) Sub-tropical region

(B) Polio, rabies (B) Tropical region

(C) Tuberculosis, diphtheria (C) Cold region

(D) Cholera, typhoid (D) Moderate climate region

11 [P.T.O.

50. Primary cosmic rays are composed 53. .................... denotes all rectilinear or
curvilinear features observed on
of very energetic :
remotely sensed data products which
(A) Electron are of geologic origin that reflect
underlying structure.
(B) Mesons
(A) Lineament
(C) Protons
(B) Linear

(D) Neutron (C) Line

51. A discordant igneous intrusion is (D) Superlineament

known as : 54. The orbit of the satellite around the
earth that keeps pace with rotation
(A) Lopolith
of earth is known as :

(B) Laccolith (A) Sunsynchronous orbit

(C) Dyke (B) Geostationary orbit

(C) Low earth orbit
(D) Sill
(D) Elliptical orbit
52. Solifluction is a .................... type of
55. An automated system for capture,
mass movement. storage, retrieval, analysis and
display of spatial data is knonw as :
(A) Subsidence
(A) GPS
(B) Slide
(B) Landsat
(C) Rapid flow
(C) GIS

(D) Slow flow (D) Radiometer

12

56. Which of the following is NOT a 58. Which of the following is NOT a part
social impact ?
of Environmental Management
(A) Demographic
Plan in EIA ?
(B) Cultural
(A) Monitoring
(C) Gender

(D) Investment (B) Implementation schedule and

57. Scoping in EIA : cost estimates

(i) is a systematic exercise that
(C) TOR
establishes the boundaries of

EIA. (D) Mitigation

(ii) clearly establishes/indicates 59. Which category of projects does not
what is relevant and what is
require Environmental Impact
not.
Assessment in accordance with Indian
(iii) serves as a work plan for the

entire EIA process. EIA notification 2006 ?

Which of the following are true ? (A) Category B2

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) Category B1
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) Category A
(C) (ii) and (iii)

(D) All of the above (D) Category C

13 [P.T.O.

60. Which is the Umbrella Act of the 62. Which of these biomedical wastes
Government of India for Protection
are to be disposed in yellow colour
and Conservation of Environment ?
coded container as per the
(A) Water (P & CP) Act, I
Biomedical Waste (Management and
(B) Air (P & CP) Act
Handling) Rules, 2016 ?
(C) Wildlife Conservation Act
(A) Human anatomical, animal,
(D) Environmental Protection Act
microbiology and biotechnology
61. Schedule II of the Hazardous Waste
(Management Handling and wastes

Transboundary Movement) Rules, (B) Waste sharps
2016 gives :
(C) Glassware
(A) List of processes generating
hazardous waste (D) Liquid waste

(B) List of waste constituents with 63. Montreal Protocol is related to :
concentration limits
(A) Greenhouse gas emission
(C) List of hazardous wastes
reduction
applicable for import and export
not requiring prior informed (B) Reducing ozone depleting
consent
substances
(D) List of hazardous wastes for
(C) Climate change protocol
import requiring prior informed
consent (D) Hazardous waste

14

64. The following are the types of 67. BOD of effluents discharged in

environmental audit : inland surface waters should not

exceed :
(A) Liabilities Audit
(A) 30 mg/L
(B) Waste Audits
(B) 50 mg/L
(C) EMS Audit
(C) 10 mg/L
(D) All of the above
(D) 100 mg/L
65. Biological treatment of waste water
68. Which of the following can remove
removes :
particulate as well as gaseous
(A) Suspended organic solids pollutants from air emissions ?

(B) Dissolved organic solids (A) Wet scrubber

(C) Dissolved inorganic solids (B) Cyclone

(D) All of the above (C) Electrostatic precipitation

66. Select the attached growth process (D) Bag filter

from the following : 69. A size of plot for vegetation studies

(A) Anaerobic Contact Process is decided on the basis of :

(B) Activated Sludge Process (A) No. of species

(B) Area covered by vegetation
(C) Rotating Biological Contactor

(C) Species-Area curve
(D) Upflow Anaerobic Sludge

Blanket (D) Random

15 [P.T.O.

70. The term species richness in 72. Dams during their early stages of

formation are relatively barren and
biodiversity study refers to :

nutrient deficient supporting very
(A) Number of genera in an area
poor aquatic life are :

(B) Number of species in an area
(A) Epiphytic

(C) Species composition in an area
(B) Parasitic

(D) Relative abundance of species in (C) Oligotrophic

an area (D) Saprophytic

71. The continuous increase in 73. Which one of the following agencies

concentration of a toxicant at has been designated by the Ministry

of Environment, Forest and Climate
successive trophic levels in a food
Change for Indian Eco-Mark
chain is :
Scheme ?
(A) Bioremediation
(A) Board of Indian Standards

(B) Biotransformation
(B) Bureau of Indian Standards

(C) Bioaugmentation
(C) Directorate of Marketing

(D) Biomagnification (D) Directorate of Plant Protection

16

74. ‘‘Salt water intrusion’’ in the coastal 76. The soil formed by the decomposition

area is : of silt brought by rivers is

called ...................... .
(A) A flow of saline water on the
(A) Red soil
land through estuary
(B) Black soil
(B) An entry of saline water in a
(C) Alluvial soil
freshwater aquifer
(D) Pod soil
(C) An increase in salinity due to
77. Soil without living organisms is
waterlogging
referred as ..................... .
(D) An entry of marine water in
(A) Fertile soil
river in delta region
(B) Subfertile soil
75. The process of formation of soil
(C) Humus
through the breaking down of rocks
(D) Mineral substrate
is called :
78. Dodo is a flightless bird which is :
(A) Biogenesis
(A) Rare
(B) Pedogenesis
(B) Extinct

(C) Biodegradation
(C) Endangered

(D) Biomagnification (D) Critically endangered

17 [P.T.O.

79. Net primary productivity in an 81. Match the following :

Reactivity of Substance
ecosystem refers to :

(a) Spontaneously and/or vigorously
(A) Apparent photosynthesis
react with water

(B) Total assimilation (b) Spontaneously and/or vigorously

react with air
(C) Total photosynthesis
(c) Generate toxic fumes
(D) Assimilation
(d) Explosive substance
80. Phytoplankton stage during
Example
hydrosere development include the
(i) Dynamite

following community : (ii) Aluminium nitrate

(A) Vallisnaria, Utricularia, (iii) Phosphorous pentaoxide

Hydrilla (iv) Trimethyl aluminium

Codes :
(B) Blue green algae, green algae,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
diatoms
(A) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(C) Typha, Sagittaria, Phragmites
(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(D) Nelumbo, Nymphea, Limnan- (C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

themum (D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

18

82. Which of the following components 85. Calculate the resultant noise of four

of solid waste is reclaimed by machines emitting the equal sound

mechanical recovery ? level of 60 dB(A) :

(A) Food (A) 120 dB(A)

(B) Plastics (B) 90 dB(A)

(C) Leaves and plant debris (C) 63 dB(A)

(D) Metals (D) 66 dB(A)

83. Which of the following is ecofriendly 86. Which one of the following is NOT

process of solid waste management ? a natural factor that can affect

(A) Incineration watershed health ?

(B) Landfilling (A) Fires

(C) Open dumping (B) Mining

(D) Conversion into Compost/ (C) Floods

Biogas/Bioethanol (D) Earthquakes

84. The GRIHA rating was developed 87. Who was the founder of Appiko

by : movement in Uttara Kannada ?

(A) ISO (A) Pandurang Hegde

(B) TERI (B) Ganesh Gauda

(C) MoEFCC (C) Appa Swamy

(D) IGBC (D) Sunderlal Bahuguna

19 [P.T.O.

88. Match the following : 89. Which of the following is an example

Waste Separation Techniques of stepped matrix ?

(a) Stripping (A) Leopold et al (1971)

(b) Precipitation
(B) Johnson and Bell (1975)

(c) Sorption
(C) Carstea et al (1976)
(d) Solvent extraction
(D) Asian Development Bank
Pollutants Separated
(1987)
(i) Toxic metals
90. Which of the following is wrong
(ii) Oils and organochlorine
sentence related to Koyto Protocol ?
compounds

(A) Koyto Protocol was adopted in
(iii) Ethanol
1997
(iv) Xylene

(B) The first commitment period of
Codes :

this Protocol ended in 2012
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (C) The Protocol is about the

reduction of Greenhouse gases
(B) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (D) The second commitment period

(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) of the Protocol will end in 2030

20

91. Energent woody plants that tolerate 94. Which of the following is NOT a

salinity of the open sea are known weakness in the Gaussian Plume

as : Model ?

(A) Grasses (A) The model does not evaluate
dispersion in all three
(B) Herbs
dimensions
(C) Shrubs
(B) The model cannot be used for
(D) Mangroves
reactive pollutants
92. Which one of the plant species
(C) The model is dependent upon
occurs in mangrove ecosystem ? steady-state conditions

(A) Rhizophora (D) The model is not designed as a

(B) Azadirachta long-term air shed pollutant
evaluator
(C) Mangifera
95. Which of the following cross
(D) Casurina
validation technique is best suited
93. For a certain Normal distribution,
for time series data ?
the first moment about 10 is 40.
(A) K-fold cross validation
What is the arithmetic mean ?
(B) Leave-one-out cross validation
(A) 40
(C) Stratified shuffle split cross
(B) 30
validation
(C) 50
(D) Forward chaining cross
(D) 20 validation

21 [P.T.O.

96. The probability of rejecting the 98. The largest population that the
null hypothesis when it is true, is resources of a given environment
can support is :
called :
(A) Population structure
(A) Level of confidence
(B) Carrying capacity
(B) Level of significance (C) Optimum population
(C) Power of the test (D) Minimum population

(D) All of the above 99. In statistical hypothesis of equality
of means such as H0 : = 10, if
97. The following are percentages of fat
= 5% :
found in 5 samples of each of two
(A) 95% of the time we will make
brands of food : an incorrect inference
A : 5.7, 4.5, 6.2, 6.3, 7.3 (B) 5% of the time we will say that
there is no real difference when
B : 6.3, 5.7, 5.9, 6.4, 5.1
there is no difference
To test the hypothesis of equal (C) 5% of the time we will say that
average fat content in the two types there is a real difference when
of food. Which of the following there is no difference
procedures is appropriate ? (D) 95% of the time the null
hypothesis will be correct
(A) Two sample t-test with 8
100. The following system of equations
degrees of freedom
has solution(s) :
(B) Paired t-test with 4 degrees of x + y = 2
freedom
6x + 6y = 12
(C) Two sample t-test with 9 (A) Infinite
degrees of freedom (B) No
(D) Paired t-test with 5 degrees of (C) Two
freedom (D) Unique
22

ROUGH WORK

23 [P.T.O.

ROUGH WORK

24