AP PGECET 2015 Question Paper for Geo Engineering Geoinformatics

Booklet No. :
A
SET GG - 15
Geo Engineering & Geo Informatics
Duration of Test : 2 Hours Max. Marks : 120

Hall Ticket No.

Name of the Candidate :

Date of Examination : OMR Answer Sheet No. :

Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator

INSTRUCTIONS
1. This Question Booklet consists of 120 multiple choice objective type questions to be answered
in 120 minutes.
2. Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.
3. Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.
4. This Booklet consists of 16 pages. Any discrepancy or any defect is found, the same may be
informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.
5. Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.
6. Before answering the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet, please read the instructions printed
on the OMR sheet carefully.
7. OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination
Hall.
8. Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.
9. No part of the Booklet should be detached under any circumstances.
10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.

GG-15-A

GEO ENGINEERING & GEO INFORMATICS

1. The solution of the equations x + 3 y + 2 z = 0 , x + 4 y + 3z = 0 and x + 5 y + 4 z = 0
(A) x = y = 1, z = −1 (B) x = z = 1, y = −1
(C) y = z = 1, x = −1 (D) none

2. The eigen values of an orthogonal matrix are
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) either -1 or +1 (D) neither 0 nor 1

∂( x, y)
3. If x = r cos θ and y = r sinθ then =
∂( r , θ )
(A) 0 (B) r (C) 1 (D) none

4. If φ is any scalar function then ∇φ is
(A) solenoidal (B) irrotational (C) zero (D) a scalar

x2 y2 ∂u ∂u
5. If u ( x, y ) = 2 2
then x + y is equal to
x +y ∂x ∂y
1 1
u u
(A) 2u (B) 4u (C) 2 (D) 4

6. The real and imaginary parts of a complex analytic function are called
(A) even functions (B) odd functions
(C) none of these (D) harmonics

7. A complex function f ( z ) = u( x, y) + iv( x, y) is analytic then
∂u ∂v ∂u
(A) =− (B) =0
∂y ∂x ∂x
∂u ∂v ∂u
= =0
(C) ∂y ∂x (D) ∂y

8. If the mean and variance of a binomial distributed random variable are 4 and 3
respectively then the probability distribution is
(A) Cx8 (1/ 4) x (3 / 4)8− x (B) Cx8 (1/ 3) x (2 / 3)8− x
16 − x
(C) C16 x
x (1/ 4) (3 / 4) (D) None

Set - A 2 GG

9. If the number of road accidents during the peak period of a day follow Poisson
distribution with 2 accidents on an average, the probability that on a given day there will
be atleast one accident is
e−2 2 e−2 2
(A) (B) 1+ (C) 1 − e−2 (D) None
1! 1!
1 – 1z2
10. The variance of a standard normal distribution e 2 is
2π
1
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 0.5 (D)
2π

11. The shape of the earth is
(A) Sphere (B) Ellipse (C) Spheroid (D) Circular

12. The densest central part of the earth which is composed of the inner and outer cores is
known as
(A) Hydrosphere (B) Asthemosphere
(C) Lithosphere (D) Barysphere

13. The diameter at equator of the earth is
(A) 12713 km (B) 12756 km (C) 6357 km (D) 6371 km

14. Mass Density of the whole earth is
(A) 1.03 g/cm3 (B) 2.8 g/cm3 (C) 10.72 g/cm3 (D) 5.52 g/cm3

15. Isostasy refers to
(A) Gravitational equilibrium (B) Continental drift
(C) Plate tectonics (D) Volcanic activity

16. Which of the following explains the hypothesis of sea floor spreading ?
(A) Earth quakes (B) Thermal convection
(C) Tsunami (D) Gravitation

17. The movement of the continents relative to one another is termed
(A) Plate tectonics (B) Diastrophism
(C) Continental drift (D) Seafloor spreading

18. The estimate of reasonably reliable age of the earth is based on
(A) Gradual development of earth features
(B) Normal processes of sedimentation
(C) Evolutionary sequence indicated by fossils
(D) Radiometric datings
Set - A 3 GG

19. An ice sheet that covers mountains and plains of large section of continent is called
(A) Continental Glacier (B) Composite glacier
(C) Calving (D) Cirque

20. The causes for cyclonic storm wind circulation to be counter clockwise in the Northern
hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern hemisphere is due to
(A) Deflation (B) Bore (C) Gravitation (D) Coriolis effect

21. Name the location where the highest seamount is found
(A) Esperance, Australia (B) West coast of India
(C) Tonga trench, New Zealand (D) Near Andaman island

22. Vast plains form deep layer of sediment lying 3500 m below sea level
(A) Submarine canyon (B) Abyssal plain
(C) Guyot (D) Trench

23. The study of regular pattern of faces and angles between the faces and of the internal
structure of the mineral to which it is related, is called
(A) Crystallography (B) Twinning
(C) Tenacity (D) Palaeontology

24. The _______ is the colour of the powdered mineral which is most readily seen by
scraping the mineral across a plate of unglazed hard porcelain.
(A) Streak (B) Tenacity (C) Cleavage (D) lustre

25. The following is a symbolic structure for the clay minerals and its representing structure
of

(A) Kaolin (B) Serpentine (C) Illite (D) Montmorillonite

26. The relative hardness (H) of quartz as per the arbitrary scale of ten standard minerals,
arranged in Mohs’ scale of hardness is
(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 7 (D) 10

27. The term reniform used to describe crystal habit means
(A) kidney shaped (B) broad, flat crystal
(C) bunch of grapes (D) long crystals—like fibres

Set - A 4 GG

28. Minerals with specific gravities between 4.5 and 7.5 include
(A) native metallic elements such as pure copper, gold and silver.
(B) metallic ores such as sulphides and oxides
(C) silicates and carbonates
(D) sulphates and halides

29. The dominant agent in dynamic metamorphism is
(A) increased stress
(B) increased temperature
(C) increased temperature or pressure
(D) both, increased temperature and pressure

30. Grain size of gneiss is
(A) fine to medium grained (B) fine grained
(C) medium to coarse grained (D) medium grained

31. Sum of specific yield and specific retention is equal to
(A) Permeability (B) Hydraulic gradient
(C) Porosity (D) Hydraulic conductivity

32. Rocks that are formed by the accumulation and compaction of fragments from pre-
existing rocks which have been disintegrated by erosion are called
(A) Igneous rocks (B) Metamorphic rocks
(C) Extrusive rocks (D) Sedimentary rocks

33. What are spectral bands useful for rock type mapping ?
(A) Visible and short wave infrared bands
(B) Thermal infrared data
(C) Radar data
(D) Near infrared data

34. The type of rock which can be readily identified in Arial photography
(A) Sedimentary rock (B) Igneous rock
(C) Metamorphic rock (D) Lime stone

35. Which of the following is more strong and impervious ?
(A) Granite (B) Mica schist’s
(C) Lime stones (D) Shale

36. The angle between two plane mirrors of an optical square is
(A) 30° (B) 60° (C) 45° (D) 90°
Set - A 5 GG

37. Reciprocal ranging is adopted when the following is encountered
(A) a dense forest (B) a hillock (C) a river (D) a tall building

38. An instrument used for measuring the angle of a slope is
(A) Planimeter (B) Clinometer
(C) Tacheometer (D) Omnimeter

39. The instrument used to reproduce plans to a different scale is called
(A) Planimeter (B) Clinometer (C) Ghat tracer (D) Pantograph

40. The method which is most commonly used in triangulation survey
(A) Repetition (B) Reiteration
(C) Both A and B (D) None

41. The contours which are parallel and equidistant of an area, then that area should be
(A) Flat (B) Steep slope (C) Gentle slope (D) Uniform slope.

42. The most rapid method of orientation by the three-point method of plane tabling is the
(A) Tracing paper method (B) Graphical method
(C) Trial and error method (D) Both A and B

43. Geodetic surveying is different from plane surveying because of
(A) The curvature of the earth
(B) The large difference of elevations between various points
(C) Coverage is large
(D) Undulations of the topography

44. If the R.L. of a B.M. is 100.00 m, the back sight is 1.215 m and the foresight is 1.870 m,
the R.L. of the forward station is
(A) 99.345 m (B) 100.345 m (C) 100.655 m (D) 101.870 m

45. The process of revolving the telescope through 360° about its transverse horizontal axis
is known as
(A) Setting (B) Focusing (C) Transiting (D) Centering

46. Systematic errors in survey works is known as
(A) Natural errors (B) Personal errors
(C) Compensating errors (D) Cumulative errors
Set - A 6 GG

47. The ratio of map distance to the corresponding ground distance is called
(A) Graphical scale (B) Engineer’s scale
(C) Representative fraction (D) Numerical scale

48. Which among the following is large scale map ?
(A) Cadastral map (B) Atlas
(C) Wall map (D) Globe

49. SOI Toposheets are of _____ map projection.
(A) Conic (B) Polyconic (C) UTM (D) Cylindrical

50. Spatial relationships between features is called
(A) Topology (B) Topography
(C) Photo-geology (D) DEM

51. Triangulated Irregular Network is
(A) Land use / land cover classification
(B) Consists of elevation data with x, y coordinates
(C) Vector model of elevation
(D) Steroscopic view of an image

52. The process of filling each cell of a new grid with the value of the corresponding cell or
cells in an original grid is termed as
(A) Resampling (B) Affine
(C) Rubber sheeting (D) Stretching

53. Relational database is
(A) A database that is organized at different levels and uses the one-to-many
association between levels.
(B) A database that contains all data in a large table.
(C) A database that consists of a collection of tables and uses keys to connect the
tables.
(D) A database that is based on the built-in-connections across tables.

54. Conformal Projection is
(A) One type of map projection that uses a cylinder as the projection surface.
(B) One type of map projection that uses a polyconic as the projection surface.
(C) One type of map projection that preserves local shapes.
(D) One type of map projection that retains certain accurate directions. It uses a plane
as the projection surface.

Set - A 7 GG

55. Contour interval is equal to
(A) the value of a contour
(B) difference of value between consecutive contours
(C) horizontal shortest distance between consecutive contours
(D) slope of the contour line

56. Flow direction grid is
(A) the directional measure of slope
(B) the vertical distance between contour lines
(C) a graphic method which simulates how the land surface looks with the interaction
between sunlight and landform features.
(D) that shows the direction that water will flow out of each cell of a DEM.

57. A map projection preserves the following
(A) Area (B) Shape
(C) Direction (D) One of the above

58. The instrument for plotting planimetry is
(A) Digital photogrammetry (B) Theodolite
(C) Stereometer (D) Altimeter

59. Buffering in GIS analysis refers to
(A) An overlay method that preserves only those features that fall within the area
extent common to the input and overlay maps.
(B) A GIS operation, in which each point of a point map is assigned attribute data of
the polygon within which it falls.
(C) A GIS operation in which areas that are within a specified distance of selected map
features are separated from areas that are beyond.
(D) A polygon –on-polygon overlay method that preserves all features from the input
and overlay maps extent defined by the input map

60. If ‘f ’ is the focal length of an Aerial camera lens and ‘H’ is the flying height above the
mean terrain then f/H is equal to
(A) Tilt (B) Relief
(C) Vertical exaggeration (D) Scale

61. _______ measures (in geometric transformation) the deviation between the actual
location and the estimated location of the tie (control) points.
(A) Mean (B) Mode
(C) Root Mean Square (RMS) (D) Chi square
Set - A 8 GG

62. Slivers defined as
(A) Overshoot arcs
(B) Undershoot arcs
(C) Very small polygons found along the shared boundary of the two input maps in
map overlay, often resulted from digitizing
(D) A polygon –on-polygon overlay method that preserves all features from the input
and overlay maps

63. Hill shade or Shaded relief or shading is
(A) The directional measure of slope
(B) The vertical distance between contour lines
(C) A graphic method which simulates how the land surface looks with the interaction
between sunlight and landform features.
(D) A grid that shows the direction water will flow out of each cell of a DEM.

64. The raster data analysis operation that involves a focus cell and a set of its surrounding
cells
(A) Band ratioing (B) NDVI
(C) Neighbourhood operation (D) Classification

65. Geo-referencing is
(A) The process of filling each cell of a new grid with the value of the corresponding
cell or cells in an original grid
(B) The process of using a set of control points to convert images from image
coordinates to real–world coordinates
(C) Selecting Bench Mark
(D) Referring to astronomical survey

66. Flat file is defined as
(A) A database that is organized at different levels and uses the one-to-many
association between levels
(B) A database that contains all data in a large table
(C) A database that consists of a collection of tables and uses keys to connect the
tables
(D) A database that is based on the built-in-connections across tables

67. The Scattering process which explains about blue sky, red sunset etc. is known as
(A) Rayleigh (B) Mie (C) Non-selective (D) Selective

Set - A 9 GG

68. Atmospheric windows are present in
(A) only visible part
(B) visible part and infrared regions of EM spectrum
(C) only infrared regions of EM spectrum
(D) Ultraviolet region

69. The average spectrum reflectance values of an object observed for distinct wavelength
bands will indicate
(A) Mean spectral reflectance (B) Spectral characteristics
(C) Spectral signature (D) Spectroradiation

70. Thermal IR imagery is usually obtained in the wavelength regions of
(A) less than 0.7 micrometre (B) 3 to 5.5 and 8 to 14 micrometre
(C) 3 to 35 micrometre (D) above 35 micrometre

71. At Nadir point, geometrical distortion is
(A) zero (B) highest
(C) average (D) varies with focal length of camera lens

72. For a stereoscopic coverage, Aerial photography is normally flown with
(A) 25% forward slope and 60% side lap
(B) 30% overlap
(C) 60% forward overlap and 25% side lap
(D) No overlap is required

73. Aspect is defined as
(A) The directional measure of slope
(B) The vertical distance between contour lines
(C) A graphic method which simulates how the land surface looks with the interaction
between sunlight and landform features.
(D) A grid that shows the direction water will flow out of each cell of a DEM.

74. Map overlay is
(A) A distance tolerance used to force points and lines to be snapped together if they
fall within the specified distance
(B) A GIS operation that combines the geometry and attributes of two digital maps to
create the output
(C) A GIS operation in which areas that are within a specified distance of selected map
features are separated from areas that are beyond
(D) An overlay method that preserves only features that fall within the area extent
defined by the input map
Set - A 10 GG

75. The basic assumptions of unit hydrograph theory are
(A) Linear response and non linear time variance
(B) Linear response and time variance
(C) Non-linear response and time variance
(D) Linear response and linear time variance

76. Specific capacity of a confined well under equilibrium conditions and within the working
limits of drawdown
(A) Is constant at all drawdowns
(B) Decrease with the increasing drawdown
(C) Increases with drawdown
(D) Increases with decreasing drawdown

77. For unconfined aquifers, the storage coefficient
(A) Is essentially same as the specific yield
(B) Is essentially same as the specific retention
(C) Is essentially same as the porosity
(D) Doesn’t exist

78. A 6 hour storm had 6 cm of rainfall and 3 cm of runoff. If the infiltration index (φ)
remains at the same value, a rainfall excess 12 cm in a 15 hour storm produces a runoff
in this catchment of
(A) 3 cm (B) 4.5 cm (C) 6 cm (D) 7.5 cm

79. The rain gauge station density as per BIS recommendation for plains is approximately
equal to one station per _______ sq.km.
(A) 130 (B) 260 (C) 390 (D) 520

80. The recording type rain-gauge gives
(A) Mass curve of rainfall (B) Rainfall per second
(C) Total rainfall of 24 hours period (D) Hourly rainfall

81. The hyetograph is related to
(A) Runoff curve
(B) Hourly rainfall of a storm
(C) Line joining points of equal rainfall
(D) Hydrograph

82. Time taken for the runoff to be equal to rainfall in urban catchments is known as
(A) Basin time lag (B) Rainfall duration
(C) Equilibrium time (D) Peak flood time
Set - A 11 GG

83. The best method of estimating runoff is
(A) Unit Hydrograph (B) Runoff-Coefficient Method
(C) Rational formula (D) Infiltration index method

84. If K is permeability coefficient and d is depth of aquifer, the transmissibility coefficient
is equal to
(A) d/K (B) K/d (C) K+d (D) K*d

85. The amount of water in soil mass not useful to plant’s growth is
(A) Available moisture (B) Readily available moisture
(C) Hygroscopic water (D) Capillary moisture

86. The capillary fringe is
(A) Above the channel bed (B) Below HFL
(C) Below water table (D) Above water table

87. The permeability coefficient of an aquifer can be determined by
(A) Pumping test (B) Soil test
(C) Topographical surveying (D) All the above

88. In Duipt’s theory, the assumption made that the aquifer is
(A) Unconfined (B) Confined (C) Isotropic (D) Anisotropic

89. The cone of depression is related to
(A) Reservoir (B) River intake (C) Aquifer (D) Hydrograph

90. The drawdown is increasing towards
(A) Nearest observation well (B) Testing well
(C) Farthest observation well (D) Spring

91. The solid part of the earth’s crust is known as
(A) Atmosphere (B) Hydrosphere (C) Lithosphere (D) Biosphere

92. Blue Planet is the name given to the earth due to the presence of
(A) Ice (B) Ocean
(C) Water vapour (D) Ice, water and water vapour
Set - A 12 GG

93. Which of the following refers to life zone on earth ?
(A) Hydrosphere (B) Biosphere (C) Atmosphere (D) Lithosphere

94. Which of the following is not an abiotic component of earth’s environment ?
(A) Soil (B) Calcium (C) Humus (D) Microbes

95. Which of the following depends on autotrophs for both energy and raw materials to make
complex organic molecules ?
(A) Fungi and Bacteria (B) Bacteria and Protozoa
(C) Only Bacteria (D) Fungi, Bacteria and Protozoa

96. Which of the following are consumers ?
(A) Herbivores (B) Carnivores
(C) Decomposers (D) All the above

97. Now-a-days, to monitor and control the environment pollution, an increasing threat to be
considered is
(A) Ozone layer depletion (B) Global warming
(C) Air pollution (D) Water pollution

98. World environment day is observed on
(A) 1st December (B) 5th June (C) 17th July (D) 22nd September

99. The biotic components of environment are
(A) Autotrophs (B) Heterotrophs
(C) Autotrophs and Heterotrophs (D) Petrophs

100. The optimum moisture content for clay will be
(A) 14-20% (B) 12-16% (C) 8-12% (D) 6-10%

101. The void ratio of a soil sample is 0.5, then porosity of the sample is
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0 (C) 0.33 (D) 0.25

102. The swelling nature of black cotton soil is primarily due to the presence of
(A) Kaolinite (B) Illite
(C) Montmorillonite (D) Vermiculite
Set - A 13 GG

103. The liquid limit and plastic limit of a soil sample is 45% and 25% respectively. In the
liquid limit test of the soil sample, its water content varied from 5% to 25%. When the
number of blows increased from 10 to 100, the toughness index of the soil is
(A) 1.0 (B) 0.75 (C) 0.50 (D) 2.0

104. The useful moisture of a soil is equal to its
(A) Field capacity
(B) Saturation capacity
(C) Moisture content at permanent wilting point
(D) Difference between field capacity and permanent wilting point within the root zone
of plants

105. Texture of a soil is largely reflected by the particle
(A) Size (B) Shape
(C) Size and Shape (D) Size, Shape and Gradation

106. The Critical void ratio is the void ratio at which volume change is
(A) Constant (B) Zero (C) Maximum (D) Minimum

107. The optimum moisture content is the water content at which the dry density is
(A) Zero (B) Minimum (C) Constant (D) Maximum

108. During liquefaction, soil will have
(A) Gain of shear strength (B) Loss of shear strength
(C) Erosion (D) Sedimentation

109. Soils that are formed by disintegration of rocks in place under various actions are known
as
(A) Residual soils (B) Alluvial soils
(C) Aeolian soils (D) Colluvial soils

110. According to Darcy’s law, as porosity (n) of soil sample increases, the seepage velocity
(Vs)
(A) increases (B) constant
(C) decreases (D) independent of porosity

111. The function that defines the entry point and exit point of a C program is
(A) printf (B) scanf (C) main( ) (D) float c

Set - A 14 GG

112. In C, ‘for’, ‘while’, ‘do-while’ are types of
(A) Errors (B) Loops (C) Data types (D) Library functions

113. A collection of similar elements stored in adjacent locations are called
(A) Functions (B) Structures (C) Arrays (D) Pointers

114. The structure elements are accessed using _______ operator.
(A) (.) Dot operator (B) (? :) Conditional operator
(C) (!) OR operator (D) (&) AND operator

115. Which of the following is a decision control structure ?
(A) scanf (B) else (C) char (D) switch-case

116. Which of the following is not a type of storage class in C ?
(A) stack (B) register (C) extern (D) auto

117. A pointer is generally notated as
(A) a[ ] (B) *a (C) &a (D) %a

118. int, char and float are
(A) Library functions (B) Loops
(C) Operators (D) Data types

119. Which of the following is not a library function ?
(A) clrscr( ) (B) add(a,b) (C) getch( ) (D) scanf( )

120. Fuzzy tolerance
(A) Distance tolerance used to force points and lines to be snapped together if they fall
within the specified distance.
(B) A GIS operation that combines the geometry and attributes of two digital maps to
create the output.
(C) Very small polygons found along the shared boundary of the two input maps in
map overlay, often resulted from digitizing.
(D) An overlay method that preserves only features that fall within the area extent
defined by the input map.
_____________

Set - A 15 GG

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Set - A 16 GG