Rajasthan Paramedical 2021 Question Paper

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RUHS Entrance Examination
2021
Question Paper
Paramedical 2021
Q. No. 1 The percentage error in measurement of voltage and current are 5% and 3%
0052001 respectively. The maximum error in measurement of resistance is
Option A 15%
Option B 1.67%
Option C 8%
Option D 2%

Q. No. 2 If V is the potential drop across the wire in which current I is flowing, then
0052002 dimensional formula of VI is

Option A ML2T-3

Option B MLT2

Option C ML2T-2

Option D ML-1T2

Q. No. 3 A body moving in a straight line covers half of its distance with a speed of 3m/s. The
0052003 other half of its distance is covered in two equal intervals of time with speed of 4m/s
and 5m/s respectively. The average speed of the particle during this motion is
Option A 4 m/s

Option B 5 m/s
Option C 4.5 m/s

Option D 5.5 m/s

Q. No. 4 A body thrown vertically upward with a velocity of 20m/s from a point at a height of
0052004 25m from the ground. How much time will the body take to hit the ground? Take (g =
10ms-2)

Option A 4 sec
Option B 5 sec
Option C 3 sec
Option D 6 sec

Q. No. 5 Train A moves eastwards with a speed of 15m/s and train B moves westwards with a
0052005 speed of 25m/s. What is the relative velocity of train A with respect to train B?
Option A 40m/s

Option B 10 m/s
Option C -10 m/s

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Option D 25 m/s

Q. No. 6
0052006
Option A 4
Option B 3

Option C -2
Option D 1

Q. No. 7 If the maximum range of a projectile is 'R' then the maximum height attained by the
0052007 projectile is
Option A R/2
Option B R
Option C R/4

Option D 2R

Q. No. 8
The speed of tip of the second hand of the watch of length 1 cm is
0052008

Option A /15 cms-1

Option B 2 /15 cms-1

Option C /60 cms-1

Option D /30 cms-1

Q. No. 9 A bullet hits a block resting on a frictionless horizontal plane surface and gets
0052009 embedded, what is conserved
Option A Momentum
Option B Kinetic Energy
Option C Both momentum and Kinetic Energy
Option D Angular Momentum

Q. No. 10 A player kicks a football of mass 0.5 kg and the football begins to move with velocity
0052010 10m/s. If contact between the football and leg lasts for 1/50 seconds, then the force
acted on the football is
Option A 2500N
Option B 1250N
Option C 250N
Option D 625N

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Q. No. 11 A force of 5N acting on a body displaces it through 10m in a straight line. If the work
0052011 done is 25J, then at what angle the force acts with the direction of motion?
Option A Zero

Option B 30o

Option C 90o

Option D 60o

Q. No. 12 Two bodies having their masses in ratio 4:1 are moving towards each other with same
0052012 velocity 'v'. The velocity of center of mass of the system is
Option A v

Option B

Option C

Option D

Q. No. 13 If the linear momentum of a body is increased by 50%, the Kinetic Energy will be
0052013 increased by
Option A 25%
Option B 50%
Option C 125%
Option D 100%

Q. No. 14 A satellite revolves around a planet in an elliptical orbit. Its maximum and minimum
0052014 distances from planet are 1.5x107m and 0.5x107m respectively. If the speed of the
satellite at the farthest point is 5x107 ms-1, then its speed at the nearest point will be

Option A 1.5x108 ms-1

Option B 1.5x107 ms-1

Option C 1.0x108 ms-1

Option D 2.5x108 ms-1

Q. No. 15 The time period of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius R is T. The time period of
0052015 satellite in circular orbit of radius 4R will be

Option A 4T

Option B 8T
Option C T/8

Option D T/4

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Q. No. 16 The time period of a simple pendulum is T. If the mass of the bob of the simple
0052016 pendulum is doubled, then the time period will be
Option A T/2

Option B 4T

Option C 2T
Option D T

Q. No. 17
The reciprocal of bulk modulus of a material is called
0052017

Option A Rigidity
Option B Viscosity

Option C Poisson's ratio
Option D Compressibility

Q. No. 18
Molar specific heat at constant pressure (Cp) for diatomic gasses is
0052018

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Q. No. 19 Two spheres of the same material but of radii 1cm and 2cm respectively are dropped
0052019 one by one in the same viscous fluid. Their terminal velocities respectively will be

Option A Same for the two spheres

Option B In the ratio of 1:2
Option C In the ratio of 1:4

Option D In the ratio of 4:1

Q. No. 20
Which of the following have maximum thermal conductivity?
0052020
Option A Copper

Option B Silver
Option C Aluminum

Option D Mercury

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Q. No. 21 First law of thermodynamics is a special case of
0052021

Option A Law of conservation of energy
Option B Charles's law

Option C Boyle's law
Option D Law of conservation of mass

Q. No. 22 In which of the following processes, all the three thermodynamic variables i.e
0052022 pressure, volume and temperature can change.

Option A Isothermal
Option B Isobaric

Option C Adiabatic
Option D Isochoric

Q. No. 23 How much should the pressure of an ideal gas be increased to decrease the volume by
0052023 10% at a constant temperature?

Option A 10%

Option B 9.5%
Option C 5%

Option D 11.11%

Q. No. 24 The energy emitted per second by a blackbody at 1227oC is E. If the temperature of
0052024 the blackbody is increased to 2727oC, the energy emitted per second in term of E is
Option A E

Option B 4E
Option C 16E

Option D 2E

Q. No. 25 The phase difference between the velocity and displacement of a particle executing
0052025 simple harmonic motion is

Option A Zero
Option B /2

Option C
Option D /4

Q. No. 26 The electric field of uniformly charged thin spherical shell of charge Q and radius R at
0052026 a distance r (r < R) from the centre is

Option A Zero
Option B
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Option C

Option D

Q. No. 27
Electrostatic energy stored in a 10pF capacitor connected to a 50V battery is
0052027

Option A 1.25x10-8J

Option B 1.25x10-6J

Option C 1.5x10-8J

Option D Zero

Q. No. 28
If the electric field in the region is zero, then electric potential is
0052028

Option A Zero throughout the region

Option B Varying from point to point
Option C Constant throughout the region

Option D Not uniformly zero

Q. No. 29 A proton is being accelerated by a potential difference of 1 million volts. Then the
0052029 Kinetic energy is

Option A 1.6x10-15J

Option B 1.6x10-13J

Option C 1.6x10-19J

Option D 3.2x10-14J

Q. No. 30 The combined capacity of two capacitors is 25 F when connected in parallel and 6 F
0052030 when connected in series. Their individual capacities are
Option A 15 F and 10 F
Option B 16 F and 9 F
Option C 20 F and 5 F

Option D 18 F and 7 F

Q. No. 31 A current of 1.344A is flowing in a copper wire of cross-section 1mm2. If the number
0052031
density of the electrons is 8.4x1022 cm-3, then the drift velocity is

Option A 1 cms-1

Option B 0.01 cms-1

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Option C 0.1 cms-1

Option D 10 cms-1

Q. No. 32 The energy stored in a capacitor connected to a battery is E. If the separation
0052032 between the plates of the capacitor is doubled, then what will be the energy stored in
a capacitor?
Option A E

Option B 2E
Option C E/2
Option D E/4

Q. No. 33
Susceptibility is positive and small for a
0052033
Option A Ferromagnetic material
Option B Diamagnetic material
Option C Non-magnetic material

Option D Paramagnetic material

Q. No. 34 The resistance of a wire of length 'l' and radius 'r' is 100 . If the length of a wire is
0052034 doubled and radius of the wire is halved, then resistance of the wire is

Option A 800
Option B 400
Option C 200
Option D 100

Q. No. 35 A voltmeter has a range 0-V with a series resistance of R ohm. With a series
0052035 resistance of 2R its range is 0-V1, then

Option A V1 > 2V

Option B V1 < 2V

Option C V1 = 2V

Option D V1 > 2V

Q. No. 36 Two long conductors separated by a distance 'd' having current I1 and I2 flowing in
0052036 same direction exerts a force 'F' on each other. If the current in each wire is
increased to two times and distance is doubled, the new value of the force between
them is

Option A F
Option B 2F
Option C F/2

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Option D F/4

Q. No. 37 An emf of 8V is induced in a coil when a current changes from 8A to 4A in 0.05
0052037 seconds. The coefficient of self induction of coil is
Option A 0.4H
Option B 0.8H

Option C 0.1H
Option D 0.2H

Q. No. 38 The resonant frequency of a LCR circuit is 600Hz and the half power frequencies are
0052038 650Hz and 550Hz.The quality factor of the circuit will be

Option A 1/6
Option B 1/3
Option C 3

Option D 6

Q. No. 39
The brilliance of diamond is mainly due to
0052039
Option A Total internal reflection of light

Option B Refraction of light
Option C Reflection of light
Option D Diffraction of light

Q. No. 40 Two slits in Young's double slit experiment are 1mm apart and screen is placed 1m
0052040 away. The fringe separation observed with a wavelength of 5000 is
Option A 0.5mm
Option B 1mm

Option C 2mm
Option D Zero

Q. No. 41 Two coherent sources whose intensity ratio is 9:1 produce interference fringes. The
0052041 ratio of maximum intensity to minimum intensity in fringe system is

Option A 10:8
Option B 9:1
Option C 4:1
Option D 2:1

Q. No. 42 Which of the following phenomenon is not observed in sound waves?
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0052042
Option A Diffraction

Option B Reflection
Option C Refraction
Option D Polarization

Q. No. 43 The radius of first Bohr orbit in hydrogen atom is 0.528 . The radius of second Bohr
0052043 orbit in hydrogen atom will be

Option A 2.112

Option B 1.056

Option C 0.264

Option D 0.142

Q. No. 44 An electron, an -particle and a proton has same kinetic energy. Which of these
0052044 particles has the smallest de Broglie wavelength?

Option A Proton
Option B -particle
Option C Electron

Option D All will have the same wavelength

Q. No. 45 If the wavelength of a spectral line observed in hydrogen atom spectra lies in the
0052045 visible region, it belongs to
Option A Balmer series

Option B Lyman series
Option C Paschen series
Option D Pfund series

Q. No. 46
In photoelectric effect, the photoelectric current
0052046
Option A Increases with increase in frequency of incident photon
Option B Decreases with increase in frequency of incident photon
Option C Depends on intensity and is independent of frequency of incident photon

Option D Depends both on intensity and frequency of incident photon

Q. No. 47
If p1, p2 and p3 are penetration power of , , rays respectively, then which of
0052047
the following relation is correct?
Option A p1 > p2 > p3

Option B p1 < p2 < p3
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Option C p1 < p2 > p3
Option D p1 > p2 < p3

Q. No. 48
0052048
Option A Neutrino
Option B Photon

Option C Anti-neutrino
Option D - ray

Q. No. 49 If antimony (Sb) is added to germanium (Ge), the majority current carriers in the
0052049 semiconductors are

Option A Holes
Option B Electrons
Option C Positive ions
Option D Protons

Q. No. 50 In n-p-n transistor, the current gain for common emitter configuration is 94. If the
0052050 emitter current be 9.5mA, then the base current is
Option A 0.1mA
Option B 0.01mA

Option C 1mA
Option D 0.001mA

Q. No. 51
The percentage of calcium in calcium nitrate is:
0082051
Option A 22.4
Option B 23.4
Option C 24.4

Option D 25.4

Q. No. 52
Complete burning of 280 g of hexane will require:
0082052

Option A ~990 g O2

Option B ~1050 g O2

Option C ~990 g CO2

Option D ~1050 g CO2

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Q. No. 53
Which of the following electronic configurations is incorrect:
0082053

Option A 1s2, 2s22px22py22pz2, 3s2

Option B 1s2, 2s22py22pz1

Option C 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p63d3, 4s2

Option D 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p63d5, 4s1

Q. No. 54
Which of the following statements is correct:
0082054
Option A All the atomic orbitals are directional in nature.
Option B An orbital can have maximum of two electrons with same spin in any direction.

Option C The energies of various subshells in the same shell are in the order of s>p>d>f.
Option D Chromium has six unpaired electrons.

Q. No. 55
Which of the following pairs do not show diagonal relationship:
0082055
Option A Li-Mg
Option B Be-B
Option C Be-Al

Option D B-Si

Q. No. 56
0082056 What is the correct order of sizes of F-, Na+, Li+ and Cl-?

Option A Li+< Na+< F- < Cl-

Option B Na+< Li+< F- < Cl-

Option C Na+< Li+< Cl- < F-

Option D Li+< Na+< Cl- < F-

Q. No. 57
The shape of [CH3]+ is:
0082057
Option A Tetrahedral
Option B Linear

Option C Trigonal planar
Option D Square planar

Q. No. 58
Orthonitrophenol involves ................ hydrogen bonding:
0082058

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Option A Intermolecular
Option B Intramolecular
Option C Diamagnetic

Option D Paramagnetic

Q. No. 59
The volume occupied by 8g of nitrogen gas at 27oC and 750mm pressure will be:
0082059
Option A 8.2L
Option B 10.5L
Option C 7.12L

Option D 6.24L

Q. No. 60
On dissolving soap in water:
0082060

Option A Viscosity will increase.
Option B Viscosity will decrease.
Option C Surface tension will increase.
Option D Surface tension will decrease.

Q. No. 61 Two moles of ethane produce 3200KJ of energy on complete burning. Calculate its
0082061 heat of formation, given Hf for CO2 and H2O is -395 and -286KJ respectively.

Option A -48KJ
Option B +48KJ

Option C -58KJ
Option D +58KJ

Q. No. 62
Hess's law of constant heat summation is an application of:
0082062

Option A First law of thermodynamics
Option B Second law of thermodynamics
Option C Third law of thermodynamics
Option D Fourth law of thermodynamics

Q. No. 63 S8 on heating at 900K and 1atm initial pressure, converts to S2 and falls by 30% at
0082063 equilibrium. The equilibrium constant for this reaction will be:

Option A 1.96atm2

Option B 2.96atm2

Option C 1.96atm3

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Option D 2.96atm3

Q. No. 64
0082064 The solubility product of silver chloride is 2.5625x10-10 at 25oC. Its solubility will be:

Option A 3.79x10-3g/l

Option B 1.79x10-3g/l

Option C 2.29x10-3g/l

Option D 0.79x10-3g/l

Q. No. 65
Choose the correct statement:
0082065

Option A The oxidation state of Fe in K4Fe(CN)6 is +3.

Option B The oxidation state of Fe in K4Fe(CN)6 is +2.

Option C The oxidation state of Cr in K2Cr2O7 is +3.

Option D The oxidation state of Cr in K2Cr2O7 is +4.

Q. No. 66
Which of the following is not an example of redox reaction:
0082066

Option A Na2SO4 + BaCl2 BaSO4 + 2NaCl

Option B 2CuSO4 + 4KI Cu2I2 + 2K2SO4 + I2

Option C Cu + 4HNO3 Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO2 + 2H2O

Option D 3I2 + 6NaOH NaIO3 + 5NaI + 3H2O

Q. No. 67 What happens when an alkaline solution of potassium ferricyanide is treated with
0082067 hydrogen peroxide?
Option A Potassium ferricyanide is oxidized to potassium ferrocyanide.
Option B Potassium ferricyanide is reduced to potassium ferrocyanide.
Option C Hydrogen peroxide is reduced to oxygen.
Option D Hydrogen peroxide evaporated out.

Q. No. 68
Hydrogen gas is liberated by the action of aluminium with concentrated solution of:
0082068
Option A Sulphuric acid
Option B Nitric acid

Option C Sodium hydroxide
Option D Copper sulfate

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Q. No. 69 The reaction of alkyl halides proceeds faster with potassium fluoride as compared to
0082069 sodium fluoride because:

Option A Potassium fluoride is less ionic than sodium fluoride.
Option B Potassium fluoride is more ionic than sodium fluoride.
Option C Potassium fluoride has more covalent character than sodium fluoride.
Option D Potassium fluoride has less covalent character than sodium fluoride.

Q. No. 70
It is dangerous to drop sodium in:
0082070
Option A Alcohol
Option B Acetone
Option C Alkali
Option D Water

Q. No. 71
Ammonium nitrite on heating releases:
0082071
Option A Oxygen
Option B Nitrogen

Option C Hydrogen
Option D Aluminium

Q. No. 72 An aqueous solution of a gas 'X' turns red litmus blue. It also produces deep blue
0082072 color on addition to copper sulfate solution. And, on addition to ferric chloride
solution, it produces a brownish precipitate, soluble in nitric acid. Identify 'X':
Option A Ammonia

Option B Nitrogen
Option C Oxygen
Option D Hydrogen

Q. No. 73 IUPAC name for CH3-CH2-CH(C2H5)-CH2-CH(CH3)-CH2-CH3 is:
0082073
Option A 3-methyl-5-methylheptane
Option B 5-methyl-3-methylheptane
Option C 3-methyl-5-ethylheptane
Option D 3-ethyl-5-methylheptane

Q. No. 74
Heterolytic fission occurs when carbon is linked with an atom of different:
0082074

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Option A Electropositivity
Option B Electronegativity
Option C Molecular weight
Option D Atomic weight

Q. No. 75 An organic compound (C6H10; A) on reduction gives 'B' (C6H12), which is further
0082075 converted to 'C' (C6H14). 'A' on ozonolysis followed by hydrolysis gives two aldehydes
'D' (C2H4O) and 'E' (C2H2O2). 'B' on oxidation with acidic potassium permanganate
gives 'F' (C4H8O2). What are A-F?

Option A A: 2-hexyne; B: 2-hexene; C: hexane; D: acetaldehyde; E: glyoxal; F: butanoic acid
Option B A: 4-hexyne; B: 2-hexene; C: hexane; D: acetaldehyde; E: glyoxal; F: butanoic acid
Option C A: 2,4-hexadiene; B: 2-hexene; C: hexane; D: acetaldehyde; E: glyoxal; F: butanoic acid

Option D A: 2,4-hexadiene; B: 3-hexene; C: hexane; D: acetaldehyde; E: glyoxal; F: butanoic acid

Q. No. 76 Nitro group in benzene nucleus is ......... directing. It .......... the activity of benzene
0082076 ring.
Option A m-, decreases

Option B m-, increases
Option C o/p-, decreases
Option D o/p-, increases

Q. No. 77
Pure dry air, on average contains 78% ................ and .............. oxygen by volume.
0082077
Option A Ammonia, 23%
Option B Nitrogen, 21%
Option C Ammonia, 25%
Option D Nitrogen, 23%

Q. No. 78
Ozone is ................... pollutant.
0082078
Option A Primary air
Option B Primary water
Option C Secondary water
Option D Secondary air

Q. No. 79
The percentage of void volume in body-centred cubic metallic crystal is:
0082079
Option A 30
Option B 31

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Option C 32
Option D 33

Q. No. 80 A solution is prepared from 30g of an unknown compound and 120g of acetone at
0082080 313K. the vapour pressure of pure acetone at this temperature is 0.826atm and that
of acetone above the solution is 0.801atm. The molar mass of the unknown compound
is:
Option A ~580g/mol
Option B ~480g/mol
Option C ~290g/mol
Option D ~180g/mol

Q. No. 81 The density of a 2.4% by mass solution of glucose (C6H12O6) is 0.045g/cc at 293K.
0082081 What will be the osmotic pressure of the solution?

Option A 0.1439atm
Option B 0.2487atm
Option C 0.6672atm
Option D 0.9878atm

Q. No. 82
In a galvanic cell, anode is ______ terminal whereas cathode is _____ terminal.
0082082
Option A Negative, positive
Option B Positive, negative
Option C Negative, neutral
Option D Positive, neutral

Q. No. 83 The hydrolysis of ethyl ethanoate in ____________ medium is a ______ order
0082083 reaction.
Option A Acidic, second
Option B Acidic, third

Option C Acidic, first
Option D Acidic, zero

Q. No. 84
__________ reaction is catalysed by one of the reactants.
0082084

Option A Reversible
Option B Autocatalytic
Option C Catalytic
Option D Forward

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Q. No. 85
Which of the following statements is true about chemisorption:
0082085
Option A It involves chemical forces between adsorbate-adsorbate molecules.
Option B It involves chemical forces between adsorbent-adsorbent molecules.
Option C It involves low activation energy.

Option D It involves high heat of adsorption.

Q. No. 86
Which of the following is a common ore of iron:
0082086
Option A Carnallite

Option B Haematite
Option C Bauxite
Option D Millerite

Q. No. 87 ClF3 exists but FCl3 does not because:
0082087
Option A Fluorine does not have d-orbitals.
Option B Fluorine exists in gaseous state.
Option C Fluorine is non-metal.
Option D Fluorine belongs to VII group of periodic table.

Q. No. 88
Noble gases are inert because:
0082088
Option A They have half-filled d-orbitals with stable configuration.
Option B They have half-filled f-orbitals with stable configuration.
Option C They have completely filled p-orbitals with stable configuration.
Option D They have completely filled d-orbitals with stable configuration.

Q. No. 89
Color of anhydrous copper sulfate is:
0082089
Option A Blue
Option B Green

Option C White
Option D Pink

Q. No. 90
f-block elements are also known as:
0082090

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Option A Coordination compounds
Option B Complexometric compounds
Option C Transition elements
Option D Inner-transition elements

Q. No. 91
Triethylenetetramine is an example of:
0082091
Option A Bidentate ligand
Option B Tridentate ligand
Option C Tetradentate ligand
Option D Pentadentate ligand

Q. No. 92
Systematic name of [PtCl2(NH3)4]+2 will be:
0082092
Option A Tetraminochloroplatinum (IV) ion
Option B Tetraamminechloroplatinum (II) ion

Option C Tetraamminechloroplatinum (IV) ion
Option D Tetraamminedichloroplatinum (IV) ion

Q. No. 93
___________ is obtained on heating acetone with bleaching powder:
0082093

Option A Chloroform
Option B DDT
Option C Iodoform
Option D Freon

Q. No. 94
Toluene reacts with chlorine in the presence of FeCl3 to form:
0082094
Option A m-chlorotoluene
Option B o-chloro toluene
Option C p-chlorotoluene
Option D Mixture of o- and p-chlorotoluenes

Q. No. 95
Phenol is acidic because of formation of:
0082095
Option A Phenic acid
Option B Phenoxide ion

Option C Phenyl ion
Option D Phenoxamine
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Q. No. 96
The most reactive derivatives of carboxylic acids are:
0082096

Option A Acid halides
Option B Acid amides
Option C Esters
Option D Acid anhydrides

Q. No. 97
Which of the following are the examples of polysaccharides:
0082097
Option A Starch and fructose
Option B Starch and glucose
Option C Cellulose and starch
Option D Cellulose and sucrose

Q. No. 98
Amino acids exist as:
0082098
Option A Anions
Option B Cations
Option C Neutral zwitter ions

Option D Doubly-charged zwitter ions

Q. No. 99
Which of the following is an example of natural polymer:
0082099
Option A Nylon

Option B Orlon
Option C Cellulose
Option D Bakelite

Q. No. 100
Artificial sweeteners are used in:
0082100
Option A Food preservation
Option B Cleaning utensils
Option C Reducing pain
Option D Reducing fever

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