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Karnataka 2nd PUC Question Bank for Geography

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Geography 2017 Question Bank Karnataka Board Class 12 2026

Karnataka 2nd PUC Question Bank for Geography – Text

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Page 1

Government of Karnataka
Department of School Education
(Pre-University)

QUESTION BANK

Page 2

II PUC CHAPTER WISE MARKS ALLOTMENT
TIME: 3 HOURS 24 – GEOGRAPHY Max Marks: 80

Number
UNIT of Marks Page
UNIT NAME
NUMBER Teaching Allotted Number
Hours
Part-A FUNDAMENTALS OF HUMAN GEOGRAPHY
1 HUMAN GEOGRAPHY 05 05 6-8
2 WORLD POPULATION 10 10 9-14
3 HUMAN ECONOMIC ACTIVITIES 05 05 15-18
4 TRANSPORT AND COMMUNICATION 06 06 19-23
5 HUMAN SETTLEMENTS 03 03 24-27
Part-B HUMAN AND ECONOMIC GEOGRAPHY OF INDIA
12 11 29-34
6 POPULATION OF INDIA
7 LAND AND WATER RESOURCES 10 09 35-40
8 AGRICULTURE 12 11 41-48
9 MINERAL AND POWER RESOURCES 14 13 49-56
10 MANUFACTURING INDUSTRIES 12 11 57-63
11 TRANSPORT, COMMUNICATION AND TRADE 10 10 64-68
GEOGRAPHICAL PERSPECTIVES ON
12 ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES-PLANNING AND 07 07 69-72
SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT
Part-C PRACTICAL GEOGRAPHY
14 20 74-81
13 REPRESENTATION OF GEOGRAPHICAL DATA
TOTAL 120 121 81
QUESTION BANK DEVELOPMENT COMMITTEE
82
INFORMATION

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PART-A
FUNDAMENTALS OF
HUMAN GEOGRAPHY

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SUBJECT: 24 - GEOGRAPHY

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CHAPTER-1
HUMAN GEOGRAPHY
(ALLOTTED HOURS-5 Hours)

I. Answer the following multiple-choice questions: (One Mark Questions)
1. Man made features on the earth surface. (EASY)
a) Soil and Climate b) Rocks and Minerals
c) Water bodies and Natural vegetation d) Culture and Society

2. A Book ‘Origin of Species’ written by. (EASY)
a) Charles Darwin b) Friedrich Ratzel
c) Griffith Taylor d) Ellen C Semple

3. The term ‘Human Geography’ was coined by. (EASY)
a) Friedrich Ratzel b) Ellesworth Huntington
c) Griffith Taylor d) Charles Darwin

4. The Father of Human Geography. (EASY)
a) Griffith Taylor b) Charles Darwin
c) Friedrich Ratzel d) Ellesworth Huntington
5. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? (DIFFICULT)
a) Friedrich Ratzel - Origin of Species
b) Charles Darwin - Stop and Go Determinism
c) Griffith Taylor - Anthropo Geography
d) Vidal de la Blache - Possibilism

6. Match List-I with List-II and Choose the correct answer from codes given below. (DIFFICULT)
List-I List-II
(Countries) (Geographers)
A. USA 1 Vidal de la Blache
B. England 2 Halford Makinder
C. France 3 Griffith Taylor
D. Australia 4 Ellen C. Semple
Codes: A B C D
a) 4 2 1 3
b) 3 2 1 4
c) 1 3 2 4
d) 4 3 2 1

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7. Consider the following pair and choose the correct option. (DIFFICULT)
i. German School - Determinism
ii. French School - Possibilism
iii. Australian Geographer - Stop and Go Determinism
a) i and ii only correct b) i and iii only correct
c) ii and iii only correct d) i, ii and iii are correct
8. “Human geography is the study of the changing relationship between the unresting man
and unstable earth”- this definition given by. (AVERAGE)
a) Ellen C. Semple b) Vidal de la Blache
c) Ellesworth Huntington d) Friedrich Ratzel
9. Consider the following pairs related to the branches of Human Geography and various Social Sciences.
(DIFFICULT)
i. Cultural Geography – Anthropology, Sociology, History
ii. Urban Geography – Urban Studies, Urban Planning
iii. Economic Geography – Economic activities and Regional studies.
Which of the above pairs are correct?
a) i and ii only correct b) ii and iii only correct
c) i and iii only correct d) i, ii, and iii are correct
10. Assertion: (A) The new trend observed in the study of Human Geography during 1960s is called
'Quantitative Revolution'. (DIFFICULT)
Reason: (R) During this period, many Statistical and Mathematical approaches were introduced in the
study of Human Geography.
Codes:
a) A Only correct b) R Only correct
c) Both A and R correct d) Both A and R not correct

II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate words given in the bracket.
(One Mark Questions)
(Human, Physical Geography, 1859, Griffith Taylor, Human Geography, 1882)
1. ________ is a recent sprout from main trunk of Geography. (EASY)
2. Charles Darwin Published the book ‘Origin of Spicesʼ in the year ________ (AVERAGE)
3. Friedrich Ratzel wrote a book ‘Anthropo Geographyʼ in the year _________ (AVERAGE)
4. The word ʼAnthropoʼ means ________ (AVERAGE)
5. Concept of ‘Neo Determinism introduced by ________ (AVERAGE)

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Page 6

III. Match the following. (EASY) (One Mark Questions)

A B
a. Ellsworth Huntington i) British Naturalist
b. Charles Darwin ii) Australian Geographer
c. Vidal De La Blache iii) German Geographer
d. Friedrich Ratzel iv) American Geographer
e. Griffith Taylor v) Indian Geographer
vi) French Geographer
IV. Answer the following questions in a word or a sentence. (One Mark Questions)
1. What is Cultural Environment? (EASY)
2. Define Human Geography. (EASY)
3. Who is the ‘Father of Human Geographyʼ? (EASY)
4. Who wrote the book ‘Anthropo Geographyʼ? (AVERAGE)
5. Write any one definition of Human Geography. (AVERAGE)
V. Answer the following questions in 2 to 3 sentences. (Two Mark Questions)
1. State the natural features on the earth’s surface. (EASY)
2. Which are the cultural features on the earth’s surface? (EASY)
3. Name the two major divisions of Geography. (EASY)
4. Name the Schools of Thought deals with Man and Environment relationship. (AVERAGE)
5. What is Determinism? (AVERAGE)
6. What is Possibilism? (AVERAGE)
7. Write the difference between Determinism and Possibilism. (AVERAGE)
8. What is Neo Determinism? (AVERAGE)
9. Name four popular Human Geographers. (AVERAGE)
10. What is Economic Geography? (EASY)
11. Quote the important Elements of Political Geography. (AVERAGE)
12. What is Urban Geography? (EASY)
13. Quote the important Elements of Settlement Geography. (AVERAGE)
14. What is Quantitative Revolution? (DIFFICULT)
VI. Answer the following questions in 20 to 25 sentences. (Five Mark Questions)
1. Explain the Meaning and Field of Human Geography. (EASY)
2. List out the Branches of Human Geography and Explain them. (EASY)
3. Human Geography is the Study of Man-Environment relationship, Justify. (DIFFICULT)
4. Explain the Scope and Importance of Human Geography. (AVERAGE)
5. Write a note on Changing Approaches in Human Geography. (AVERAGE)
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Page 7

CHAPTER-2
WORLD POPULATION
(ALLOTTED HOURS-10 Hours)

I. Answer the following multiple-choice questions: (One Mark Questions)

1. The book ‘Population Geography’ written by. (EASY)
a) G.T Trewartha b) Amartya Sen.
c) Friedrich Ratzel d) Ellen C. Semple

2. The word Demography derived from this Language. (EASY)
a) Latin b) English
c) Greek d) French

3. Total world population according to UN population data 2012. (EASY)
a) 6 billion b) 7 billion
c) 8 billion d) 9 billion

4. World AVERAGE Birth Rate According to UN population data 2012. (AVERAGE)
a) 16.14 b) 17.14

c) 18.14 d) 19.14

5. Consider the following statements regarding the distribution of world population. (DIFFICULT)
i. According to Gorge B Gressy large areas of Asia are sparsely populated, but few areas are
highly populated.
ii. More than two-third of the world's population lives on 7 % of the Earth's land surface.
iii. About two-third of the World's population lives within 500 km of the Coast.
Which of the above Statements are correct?
a) i only correct b) i and ii only correct
c) ii and iii only correct d) i, ii and iii are correct

6. Assertion: (A) Asia is the most populated continent in the world. (DIFFICULT)
Reason: (R) World’s most populated Countries like China, India, Indonesia, Pakisthan,
Bangladesh, etc. are located in Asia continent.
Codes:
a) A Only correct b) R Only correct
c) Both A and R correct d) Both A and R not correct

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SUBJECT: 24 - GEOGRAPHY

Page 8

7. The lowest populated Continent in the world. (EASY)
a) Africa b) Australia
c) Europe d) Asia

8. Average sex ratio of the world according to UN population data 2012. (EASY)
a) 984 b) 823
c) 894 d) 832

9. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the given codes. (DIFFICULT)
List-I List-II
(Countries) (Quantity)
A. Niger 1 High Death rate
B. Japan 2 High Birth rate
C. Sierra Leone 3 High Literacy rate
D. Georgia 4 Low Birth rate

Codes: A B C D
a) 4 3 2 1
b) 4 1 2 3
c) 1 3 4 2
d) 2 4 1 3

10. Assertion: (A) The world population is increasing rapidly. (DIFFICULT)
Reason: (R) Development of Agriculture, Development of Industry and Technology, control of
Epidemic Diseases and Development of Medical Facilities have led to High Birth rate and
Significant Decrease in Death rate.
Codes:
a) A Only correct b) R Only correct
c) Both A and R correct d) Both A and R not correct
11. Region of high density of population in the world. (EASY)
a) Australia b) Deserts
c) Polar regions d) Southern part of Asia

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SUBJECT: 24 - GEOGRAPHY

Page 9

12. Consider the following statements. (DIFFICULT)
i) The Eastern, southern and south-eastern parts of the Asian continent has the highest population
density.
ii) The population is moderately dense in tropical regions of the World and the moist temperature
regions of the Argentina, South-East Africa, and Eastern Australia.
iii) The North and South Poles have the lowest population density.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) i and ii only correct b) i and iii only correct
c) ii and iii only correct d) i, ii and iii are correct

13. Match List - I with List - II and identify the correct answer using the given codes. (DIFFICULT)
List I List II
(Continents) (Population in %)
A. Asia 1. 13%
B. Africa 2. 12%
C. Europe 3. 5%
D. North America 4. 61%
Codes: A B C D
a) 4 3 2 1
b) 4 1 2 3
c) 1 3 4 2
d) 2 4 1 3

14. With reference to Demographic Cycle Match List-I with List-II and identify the correct answer
using the codes given. (DIFFICULT)
List -I List-II
(Stages) (Characteristics)
A. First Stage 1 High Stationary
B. Second stage 2 Late Expanding
C. Third stage 3 Early Expanding
D. Fourth stage 4 Low Stationary
Codes: A B C D
a) 3 2 4 1
b) 1 3 2 4
c) 4 3 2 1
d) 2 3 1 4

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SUBJECT: 24 - GEOGRAPHY

Page 10

15. AVERAGE Urban Population in the world according to UN population data 2012. (EASY)
a) 49.5% b) 48.5%
c) 50.5% d) 51.5%

16. The Concept of ʼHuman Development introduced by. (EASY)
a) Prof. Amartya Sen b) Dr. Mahbub Ul Haq
c) G.T Trewartha d) Ellen C Semple

II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the Appropriate word given in the brackets:
(One Mark Questions)
(July-11, Vatican City, 19, January-11, Asia, 8.37)
1. ______________ Continent has the highest population growth in the world. (AVERAGE)
2. According 2011 report the Average population density of the world is _________ (AVERAGE)
3. According 2011 report the Average Death rate of the world is _______ (AVERAGE)
4. The lowest populated Country in the world ______________ (EASY)
5. World Population Day is observed every year on_________ (AVERAGE)

III. Match the following: (EASY) (One Mark Questions)
1. A B
a. High Sex ratio i) Antarctica
b. Low Sex ratio ii) Niger
c. High Literacy rate iii) Kuwait
d. High Birth rate iv) Latvia
e. Uninhabited Continent v) Georgia
vi) U.A.E
IV. Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence: (One Mark Questions)
1. Who is the Founder of Population Geography? (EASY)
2. What is World Population? (EASY)
3. Define Population Geography. (EASY)
4. What is Population Growth? (EASY)
5. What is Natural Growth of Population? (AVERAGE)
6. What do you mean by ‘Population Explosion’? (AVERAGE)
7. Mention the Growth rate of the world population according to 2012. (AVERAGE)
8. Name the Continent which is having high growth rate of population in the world. (EASY)
9. What is Birth rate? (EASY)
10. What is Death rate? (EASY)
11. Name the Country which has highest birth rate in the world. (EASY)
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SUBJECT: 24 - GEOGRAPHY

Page 11

12. Name the Country which has lowest birth rate in the world. (EASY)
13. Name the Country which has highest death rate in the world. (EASY)
14. What is Migration? (EASY)
15. What is Internal Migration? (EASY)
16. What is International Migration? (EASY)
17. What is Population Density? (EASY)
18. Who interpreted the Demographic Transition Model? (EASY)
19. What is Sex Ratio? (EASY)
20. Which Country has the highest Sex Ratio in the world? (EASY)
21. What is Literacy? (EASY)
22. What is the Percentage of Urban Population in the world? (EASY)
23. What is Life Expectancy? (EASY)
24. State the AVERAGE Life Expectancy of the world. (EASY)
25. Expand HDI. (DIFFICULT)
26. Expand HPI. (DIFFICULT)

V. Answer the following questions in 2 to 3 sentences: (Two Mark Questions)
1. Mention the difference between Natural growth of population and Net growth of population.
(AVERAGE)
2. Write the Components of Population Growth. (AVERAGE)
3. Name any four Countries which are having low growth rate of population. (EASY)
4. List out the Causes for rapid growth of population. (EASY)
5. List out the Effects of over population growth. (EASY)
6. State the Causes for Migration. (EASY)
7. Write the types of Migration. (EASY)
8. List out the factors influencing the distribution of population. (AVERAGE)
9. State the areas of densely populated areas in the world. (AVERAGE)
10. State the areas of low density of population in the world. (AVERAGE)
11. Mention the measures for Population Control. (EASY)
12. Name the countries which are having highest Literacy Rate in the world. (AVERAGE)
13. What is Dependency Ratio? (AVERAGE)
14. What is Population Aging? (EASY)
15. Write the Challenges associated with population Aging. (AVERAGE)
16. Write the Meaning of Demographic Dividend. (DIFFICULT)
17. List out the Four concepts of Human Development. (DIFFICULT)

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SUBJECT: 24 - GEOGRAPHY

Page 12

18. State the components of Human Development Index. (AVERAGE)

VI. Answer the following questions in 20 to 25 sentences: (Five Mark Questions)
1. Explain the growth of population in the world. (AVERAGE)
2. Discuss the population Distribution of the world. (EASY)
3. Write a note on Sex Ratio and Age Structure of the world. (AVERAGE)
4. Briefly explain the population composition of the world. (AVERAGE)
5. What is Demographic cycle? Explain the stages of Demographic cycle. (AVERAGE)
6. What is Human development? Discuss the measurement of Human Development. (AVERAGE)
*-*-*-*-*-*-*

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SUBJECT: 24 - GEOGRAPHY

Page 13

CHAPTER-3
HUMAN ECONOMIC ACTIVITIES
(ALLOTTED HOURS-05 Hours)
I. Answer the following multiple-choice questions. (One Mark Questions)

1. Services are Considered in this type of Economic activities. (EASY)
a) Primary activities b) Secondary activities
c) Tertiary activities d) Quaternary activities

2. Ancient Economic occupation of human being. (EASY)
a) Trade b) Hunting
c) Industry d) Transport

3. Choose the correct pair. (AVERAGE)
a) Primary occupation - Industry
b) Secondary occupation - Recreation
c) Tertiary occupation - Postal Service
d) Quaternary occupation - Mining

4. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from codes given below. (DIFFICULT)
List - I List - II
(Tribes) (Regions)
A. Masai 1. Nigeria
B. Bedouins 2. Central Asia
C. Kirghiz 3 .East Africa
D. Fulani 4 .Sahara Desert
Codes: A B C D
a) 2 1 4 3
b) 3 4 2 1
c) 2 3 1 4
d) 4 2 3 1
5. The best example for Agro-based Industry. (EASY)
a) Iron and Steel Industry b) Aluminum Industry
c) Knowledge based Industry d) Sugar Industry

6. The shifting cultivation practiced in north eastern states in India. (EASY)
a) Koman b) Ponam
c) Podu c) Jhumming
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SUBJECT: 24 - GEOGRAPHY

Page 14

7. Consider the following statements. (DIFFICULT)
i. Hunting provides cloths and shelter to the tribal people.
ii. Extinct of animal’s communities by more hunting.
iii. Single variety of trees are distributed in temperate zone.
iv. Jhumming is a one of the modern agricultural method.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) i and iv only correct b) ii and iii only correct
c) i, ii and iii only correct d) ii, iii and iv only correct

8. The best example for Quaternary economic activity. (EASY)
a) Recreation b) Industry
c) Transport d) Banking

9. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from codes given below. (DIFFICULT)
List - I List - II
(Regions) (Grass land)
A. North America 1. Pampas
B. South America 2. Downs
C. Asia 3. Prairies
D. Australia 4. Steppes
Codes: A B C D
a) 2 3 4 1
b) 3 1 4 2
c) 1 4 2 3
d) 4 2 3 1

10. Assertion (A): Lumbering activity has not developed in tropical zone. (DIFFICULT)
Reasons (R): Different varieties of trees and more pests and diseases.
Codes:
a) A only correct b) R only correct
c) Both A and R correct d) Both A and R not correct

11. The main Occupation of the Masai people of East Africa. (EASY)
a) Fishing b) Animal husbandry
c) Mining d) Agriculture

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Page 15

12. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from codes given below. (DIFFICULT)
List - I List - II
(Occupations) (Example)
A. Primary Economic occupations 1. Market
B. Secondary Economic occupations 2. Sports
C. Tertiary Economic occupations 3. Agriculture
D. Quaternary Economic occupations 4. Industry
Codes:
A B C D
a) 2 3 4 1
b) 3 4 1 2
c) 1 4 2 3
d) 4 2 3 1

II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate words given in the brackets.
(One Mark Questions)
(75%, Ladang, Oxygen, Knowledge-Information, 60%, Slash and Burn)
1. Hunting of marine life leading to the decrease of ________ in water. (AVERAGE)
2. The Name of shifting cultivation in Indonesia ________ (AVERAGE)
3. Shifting Cultivation also called has ________________ Agriculture. (AVERAGE)
4. Quaternary activities deals with ________ (EASY)
5. In developed Countries ________ percent of people are engaged in Tertiary activities. (AVERAGE)

III. Match the following. (EASY) (One Mark Questions)
A B
a) Amazon region i) Eskimo
b) Malaysia ii) Transport and communication
c) Kalahari Desert iii) Sports and Entertainment
d) Tandra region iv) Red Indians
e) Tertiary Occupations v) Semangs
vi) Bushman

IV. Answer the following questions in a word or a sentence. (One Mark Questions)
1. What are Human economic activities? (EASY)
2. Define Primary activities. (EASY)
3. What is Food gathering? (EASY)

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Page 16

4. Define Hunting. (EASY)
5. What is Lumbering? (EASY)
6. Define Animal rearing. (EASY)
7. What type of grassland is suitable for Commercial animal rearing? (AVERAGE)
8. What is Fishing? (EASY)
9. What is Agriculture? (EASY)
10. Define Mining. (EASY)
11. Write the Meaning of secondary activities. (AVERAGE)
12. What is the Tertiary activities. (AVERAGE)

V. Answer the following questions in 2 to 3 sentences: (Two Mark Questions)
1. Write a short note on Food gathering. (EASY)
2. List out the major Hunting regions of the world. (AVERAGE)
3. Why Lumbering has more developed in Temperate Regions of the world. (AVERAGE)
4. Write about the Animal Rearing of the world. (EASY)
5. What are the types of Fishing? (EASY)
6. Write the types of Mining. (AVERAGE)
7. Write the importance of Secondary Economic activities. (AVERAGE)
8. What are the differences between Secondary and Tertiary Economic activities? (DIFFICULT)
9. State the differences between Tertiary and Quaternary economic activities. (DIFFICULT)

VI. Answer the following questions in 20 to 25 sentences. (Five Mark Questions)
1. Explain Fishing. (EASY)
2. Give a brief description of Agriculture. (EASY)
3. What is Mining? Explain its Types, Advantages and Disadvantages. (AVERAGE)
4. Write about the Secondary Economic activities. (AVERAGE)

*-*-*-*-*-*-*

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Page 17

CHAPTER - 4
TRANSPORT AND COMMUNICATION
(ALLOTTED HOURS-06 Hours)
I. Answer the following Multiple-Choice Questions. (One Mark Questions)
1. Continent with the highest Road density. (EASY)
a) North America b) Asia
c) Australia d) Europe

2. Continent with the highest density of Railway network. (EASY)
a) Asia b) Europe
c) North America d) Australia

3. The longest Trans Continental Railway route in the world. (AVERAGE)
a) Trans-Siberian railway b) Trans-Canadian railway
c) Australian Trans-Continental railway d) Cape Cairo railway

4. Statement: (A) The Northern Atlantic Sea Route is called “The Big Trunk Route" (DIFFICULT)
Reason: (R) North Atlantic Sea route is busiest route in the world.
Codes:
a) A Only correct b) R Only correct
c) Both A and R correct d) Both A and R not correct

5. Oldest Sea route of the world. (AVERAGE)
a) The North Atlantic Sea route b) The Mediterranean Sea route
c) The Cape of Good Hope Sea route d) The Northern Pacific Sea route

6. World’s first Aeroplane was invented by. (EASY)
a) Wright Brothers b) James Watt
c) Graham bell d) Marconi

7. World’s First commercial aviation was started in the year. (EASY)
a) 1825 b) 1826
c) 1925 d) 1926

8. Country launched the first artificial satellite in the world. (EASY)
a) India b) Russia
c) Japan d) USA

9. The First Artificial Satellite. (EASY)
a) SPUTNIK b) ARYABHATA
c) INSAT d) EDUSAT
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Page 18

10. India’s First Artificial Satellite. (EASY)
a) EDUSAT b) SPUTNIK
c) ARYABHATA d) INSAT
11. The main purpose of METSAT Satellite. (AVERAGE)
a) Television Broadcasting b) Weather forecast
c) Education Programme d) Radio Broadcasting

12. Consider the following statements regarding artificial satellite and choose the correct answer.
(DIFFICULT)
i) Russia has launched the artificial satellite called Aryabhata.
ii) INSAT satellite helps to Radio and Television communication.
iii) METSAT satellite helps the meteorological Department and Weather Forecasting.
iv) EDUSAT Satellite helps the Education Field.
Which of the above statements correct?
a) i and iii only correct b) iii and iv only correct
c) ii, iii and iv only correct d) i, ii, iii and iv are correct

13. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer from codes given below. (DIFFICULT)
List-I List-II
(Type of Ships) (Transportation)
A) Liners 1. Carrying only the goods
B) Cargoes 2. Transportation of perishable products
C) Tankers 3. Transportation of passengers.
D) Refrigerators 4.Transportation of petroleum products
Codes
A B C D
a) 1 3 2 4
b) 3 1 4 2
c) 2 4 3 1
d) 4 1 2 3

14. Choose the correct pair. (DIFFICULT)
a) Email - Global Positioning System
b) GPS - Computer Network
c) GIS - Geographical Information System
d) Cyberspace - Electronic Mail

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Page 19

II. Fill in the Blanks by choosing the appropriate words given in the bracket.

(One Mark Questions)
( Panama, James Watt, British Airways, Bangaluru, Chili-Argentina, Suez )
1) Steam engine invented by __________ (AVERAGE)
2) ________ canal connects the Atlantic Ocean with the Pacific Ocean. (AVERAGE)
3) _____________ Canal Connects the Mediterranean Sea with Red Sea. (AVERAGE)
4) ___________ is the most important Airway’s which connects the entire world. (AVERAGE)
5) The Headquarter of ISRO is in ___________ (EASY)

III. Match the following. (EASY) (One Mark Questions)
1. A B
a) Natural Highways i) World’s largest News agency
b) English Channel ii) Ocean routes
c) Reuter iii) Channel tunnel
d) E-Mail iv) Continental under water railway line
e) Marmary v) Global Positioning System
vi) Modern means of Communication
2. A B
a) Telegraph i) John Logie Blaird
b) Telephone ii) Wright Brothers
c) Television iii) Marconi
d) Radio iv) Samuel Morse
e) Color Television v) Alexander Grahambell
vi) Peter Mark

IV. Answer the following questions in a word or a sentence. (One Mark Questions)
1. What is Transportation? (EASY)
2. Define Land Transport. (EASY)
3. Which continent has the highest density of rail network in the world? (EASY)
4. What is Water Transport? (EASY)
5. What is Ocean Transport? (EASY)
6. Which country has the ownership of Panama Canal? (EASY)
7. Which country has the ownership of Suez Canal? (EASY)
8. Which is the busiest shipping canal in the world? (EASY)
9. What are Inland Water ways? (EASY)

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10. What are Pipeline? (EASY)
11. What is communication? (EASY)
12. Which is the largest News agency in the world? (EASY)
13. Write the meaning of Internet. (EASY)
14. What is Satellite Communication? (AVERAGE)
15. Name the first artificial satellite launched by Russia. (EASY)
16. ISRO- Expand. (DIFFICULT)
17. What is E-MAIL? (DIFFICULT)
18. What is E-COMMERCE? (DIFFICULT)
19. What is E-LEARNING? (DIFFICULT)
20. What is E-GOVERNANCE? (DIFFICULT)
21. What is Cyberspace? (DIFFICULT)
22. Define Remote Sensing Technology. (AVERAGE)

V. Answer the following questions in 2 to 3 sentences. (Two Mark Questions)
1. Mention the types of Transportation. (EASY)
2. What are the types of land Transportation? (EASY)
3. Name any two highways of North America. (AVERAGE)
4. When and where was the first railway started in the world? (AVERAGE)
5. Name any two important Trans - Continental railway of Canada. (AVERAGE)
6. Mention the types of water transportation. (EASY)
7. Name any two shipping canals of the World. (AVERAGE)
8. List out important inland waterways of the World. (AVERAGE)
9. List out the major Air ports of South America. (AVERAGE)
10. List out the means of modern communication. (EASY)

VI. Answer the following questions in 20 to 25 sentences. (Five Mark Questions)
1. Give an account of evolution and importance of land transportation. (EASY)
2. Explain the distribution of worldʼs Road transportation. (AVERAGE)
3. Explain the distribution of worldʼs Railway transportation. (AVERAGE)
4. Write about the Trans-Siberian and Trans-Canadian Railways. (AVERAGE)
5. Write a detailed note on the worldʼs Water transportion. (AVERAGE)
6. Write a note on the Mediterranean Sea route. (AVERAGE)
7. Write about the Suez Canal and Panama Canal routes. (AVERAGE)
8. Write about the Inland waterways of the World. (AVERAGE)
9. Write about the Air routes of the World. (AVERAGE)
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10. Write a note on Pipeline transport of the World. (AVERAGE)
11. Explain the significance of Transportation. (EASY)
12. List out the importance of Mass Communication. (EASY)
13. Explain Briefly about the Internet, Remote sensing, E-mail and Satellite communication.
(DIFFICULT)

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CHAPTER - 5
HUMAN SETTLEMENTS
(ALLOTTED HOURS-03 Hours)

I. Answer the following multiple-choice questions: (One Mark Questions)

1. The settlements located near the water supply are. (EASY)
a) Dry point settlements b) Defence settlements
c) Wet point settlements d) Breaking point settlements
2. Consider the following statements. (DIFFICULT)
i. Circular pattern settlements-developed around lakes and tanks
ii. Triangular pattern settlements-set by the confluence of two rivers and also junction points of
two railway line.
iii. Star shaped settlements-developed where the several roads meets.
iv. Double village - settlements extend on both sides of a river where there is a bridge.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) i and ii only correct b) iii and iv only correct
c) i, ii and iii only correct d) i, ii, iii and iv are correct

3. Identify the correct pair. (DIFFICULT)
a) Mesopotamia - India
b) Indus Valley - China
c) Yangtze River Valley - Iraq
d) Nile River Valley - Egypt

4. Identify the correct pair. (DIFFICULT)
a) Educational City - Dhanbad
b) Administration City - New Delhi
c) Religious City - Mumbai
d) Tourist City-Aligarh

5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from codes given below. (DIFFICULT)
List-I List-II
(Types of Cities) (Example)
A) Administrative Cities 1 Dhanbad, Johannesburg, Kimberley
B) Tourist Centers 2 Varanasi, Mathura, Madurai
C) Religious cities 3 New Delhi, London, Canberra
D) Mining cities 4 Shimla, Darjeeling, Miami (USA)
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Codes:
A B C D
a) 2 1 4 3
b) 4 3 2 1
c) 3 4 2 1
d) 4 3 1 2

6. The important criteria to classify urban settlements. (EASY)
a) Income b) Population Size
c) Shape of the settlement d) Fertility of the land

7. Identify the correct sequence of urbanization process. (DIFFICULT)
a) Town- City-Conurbation- Mega city
b) City- Town - Mega city- Conurbation
c) Conurbation- Mega city- Town- City
d) Mega City-City -Conurbation- Town

8. The first Million City of the world. (EASY)
a) New York b) London
c) Beijing d) New Delhi

9. Assertion: (A) London is the first million City in the world. (DIFFICULT)
Reason: (R) London reached the one million population in 1800.
Codes:
a) A only correct b) R only correct
c) Both A and R are correct d) Both A and R are not correct

10. The first Mega city of the world. (EASY)
a) London b) Moscow
c) New York d) Mumbai

11. Assertion: (A) New York is the first Mega city in the world. (DIFFICULT)
Reason: (R) New York reached 12.5 million population in 1950.
a) A only correct b) R only correct
c) Both A and R are correct d) Both A and R are not correct

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II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate words given in the bracket.
(One Mark Questions)
(Frankfurt, Defence, Allahabad, Aligarh, Dharavi, Jamshedpur)
1. In Nigeria upstanding inselbergs formed __________ settlement sites. (AVERAGE)
2. _________ city is a triangular shaped settlement at the confluence of the Ganga and Yamuna rivers.
(AVERAGE)
3. The Banking and Financial city is ______ (AVERAGE)
4. _______ is an Industrial Town in India. (AVERAGE)
5. The largest Slum in Asia is ___________ (EASY)

III. Match the following. (EASY) (One Mark Questions)
A B
a) Hamlets i) Jean Gotmann
b) Stock Market ii) Patrick Geddes
c) Industrial City iii) Mumbai
d) Conurbation iv) Double Villages
e) Megalopolis v) Small village
vi) Jamshedpur

IV. Answer the following questions in a word or a sentence each (One Mark Questions)
1. What are Human settlements? (EASY)
2. What are Rural settlements? (EASY)
3. What are Hamlet? (EASY)
4. Define Double village.(AVERAGE)
5. What are Uniform pattern settlements? (EASY)
6. What are Clustered pattern settlements? (EASY)
7. Define Linear pattern settlements. (EASY)
8. Where are the Circular shaped settlements formed? (EASY)
9. Write the meaning of Dispersed settlements. (EASY)
10. Define the Rectangular pattern settlements. (EASY)
11. Give the meaning of Star shaped settlements. (EASY)
12. What are Wet point settlements? (AVERAGE)
13. Write the meaning of Dry point settlements. (AVERAGE)
14. What are Urban settlements? (EASY)
15. What is a Town? (EASY)
16. Which is the first Million city of the world? (EASY)
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17. What is Mega City? (EASY)
18. Which is the first Mega city of the world? (EASY)
19. Define the term Conurbation. (DIFFICULT)
20. Which is the Largest Slum in Asia? (EASY)

V. Answer the following questions in 2 to 3 sentences. (Two Mark Questions)
1. Where are the Y and X shaped settlements builds? (AVERAGE)
2. Define the Urban and Rural settlements. (EASY)
3. List out the criteria to Consider an Urban settlement according to Census of India. (AVERAGE))
4. State the main causes of urbanization. (AVERAGE)
5. What is ʼBreaking pointʼ? Give Example. (DIFFICULT)
6. What do you a mean by City and Million City? (EASY)
7. Name any two Cultural and Religious towns. (EASY)
8. What is Educational town and give Example. (EASY)
9. Give example for Trading and Commercial towns. (EASY)
10. What are Administrative towns? Give Example. ( (EASY)
11. What are Tourist Centers? Give example. (EASY)

VI. Answer the following questions in 20 to 25 sentences. (Five Mark Questions)
1. Discus the factors affecting the location of Rural settlements. (EASY)
2. Explain the patterns of Rural settlements. (AVERAGE)
3. Write about the different shapes of Rural settlements. (AVERAGE)
4. List out and Explain the problems of Rural settlements. (EASY)
5. Classify and Explain the Urban settlements based on Population. (AVERAGE)
6. Classify and Explain the Urban settlements based on their occupation and function. (DIFFICULT)
7. List out and Explain the problems of Urban settlements. (EASY)

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PART-B
HUMAN AND ECONOMIC
GEOGRAPHY OF INDIA

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CHAPTER-06
POPULATION OF INDIA
(ALLOTTED HOURS-12 Hours)

I. Answer the following multiple-choice questions. (One Mark Questions)
1. The total population of India as per 2011 census. (EASY)
a) 122.03 crore b) 121.01 crore
c) 123.15 crore d) 124.16 crore

2. Total percentage of land area India occupies in the world. (EASY)
a) 2.2 % b) 2.3 %
c) 2.4 % d) 2.5 %

3. India's share in the world's total population according to 2011 census. (EASY)
a) 13.5 % b) 14.5 %
c) 16.5 % d) 17.5 %

4. Match List-I with List-II and Choose the correct answer using Codes given below. (DIFFICULT)
List – I List – II
(Stages of Population Growth) (Period of Population Growth)
A. Stagnant Population Growth 1 1981-2011
B. Steady Growth 2 1951-1981
C. Rapid high growth 3 1921-1951
D. High growth with definite signs of slowing down. 4 1901-1921
Codes:
A B C D
a) 3 4 1 2
b) 1 2 3 4
c) 4 3 2 1
d) 2 1 4 3

5. Assertion: (A) The decade 1911-21 has been called the “Great Divide in the history of Indian
census”. (DIFFICULT)
Reason: (R) Epidemic diseases such as Plague, Cholera, Malaria, influenza which prevailed
during this period were the reasons for the negative population growth.
Codes:
a) A only correct b) R only correct
c) Both A and R correct d) Both A and R not correct

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6. The year in which the first census of India was started. (EASY)
a) 1801 b) 1872
c) 1850 d) 1891

7. India's Average death rate as per 2011 census. (DIFFICULT)
a) 6.1 % b) 6.4 %
c) 6.2 % d) 6.3 %

8. Average birth rate of India as per 2011 census. (AVERAGE)
a) 49.22% b) 22.22 %
c) 6.40% d) 42.60 %

9. The year Family Planning Programme was adopted in India. (EASY)
a) 1947 b) 1952
c) 1956 d) 1962

10. India's Average Sex Ratio as per 2011 census. (EASY)
a) 910 b) 920
c) 930 d) 940

11. Average population density of India as per 2011 census. (EASY)
a) 275 per sq. km b) 380 per sq. km
c) 382 per sq. km d) 375 per sq. km

12. Match List-I with List-II and Choose the correct answer using Codes given below. (DIFFICULT)

List – I List – II
(Population Density) (States/UTs)
A. State has lowest population density 1. Andaman and Nicobar
B. State has highest population density 2. Delhi
C. Union territory has lowest population density 3. Arunachal Pradesh
D. Union territory has highest population density 4. Bihar

Codes: A B C D
a) 4 1 2 3
b) 3 4 1 2
c) 1 2 3 4
d) 2 1 4 3

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13. Consider the following pairs regarding Population density of India. (DIFFICULT)
i. High density zone – Bihar, West Bengal, Kerala and Uttar Pradesh
ii. Moderate density zone – Jharkhand, Assam, Goa and Maharashtra
iii. Low density zone – Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Sikkim and Nagaland,
Which of the above pairs are correct?
a) i only correct b) ii only correct
c) iii only correct d) i, ii and iii are correct

14. Consider the following statements regarding the population of India as per 2011 Census. (DIFFICULT)
i) Uttar Pradesh is the most populous State in the country.
ii) Sikkim is the lowest populated State in the country.
iii) Delhi is the most populous Union Territory.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) i and ii only correct b) ii and iii only correct
c) i and iii only correct d) i, ii and iii are correct

15. Match List-I with List-II and Choose the correct answer using Codes given below. (DIFFICULT)
List – I List – II
(Population Composition) (States)
A. State has the lowest Sex Ratio 1 Bihar
B. State has the highest Sex ratio 2 Arunachala Pradesh
C. State has the lowest Literacy 3 Haryana
D. State has the lowest Population density 4 Kerala
Codes:
A B C D
a) 3 1 4 2
b) 4 1 2 3
c) 1 2 3 4
d) 3 4 1 2

16. Consider the following pair as per 2011 census of India. (DIFFICULT)
i. State has the highest Sex ratio – Tamil Nadu
ii. State has the lowest Sex ratio - Haryana
iii. State has the lowest Literacy – Bihar

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Which of the above pairs are correct?
a) i, and ii only correct b) ii and iii only correct
c) i and iii only correct d) i, ii and iii are correct

17. India's Average literacy rate as per 2011 census. (EASY)
a) 74.04 % b) 78.03 %
c) 84.04 % d) 65.03 %

18. State has the highest literacy in India as per 2011 census. (EASY)
a) Kerala b) Haryana
c) Bihar d) Karnataka

19. Match List-I with List-II and Choose the correct answer using Codes given below. (DIFFICULT)
List – I List – II
(Rural / Urban Population) (States)
A. Lowest Urban population 1 Uttar Pradesh
B. Highest Urban population 2 Mizoram
C. Lowest Rural population 3 Sikkim
D. Highest Rural population 4 Maharashtra
Codes:
A B C D
a) 3 4 1 2
b) 4 1 2 3
c) 1 2 3 4
d) 3 4 2 1

20. State with the highest human development index in India as per 2011 Human development report.
(EASY)
a) Kerala b) Madhya Pradesh
c) Uttar Pradesh d) Karnataka

II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate words given in the bracket. (One Mark Questions)
(Chhattisgarh, 940, China, 1952, India, Haryana)
1. ________ was the first country in the world to adopt Family Planning Programme. (EASY)
2. The Family Planning Programme was implemented in the year _______ in India. (AVERAGE)
3. India's Average Sex ratio as per 2011 census is _________ (AVERAGE)
4. The state with the lowest sex ratio in India is __________ (AVERAGE)
5. ___________ is the state with the lowest human development index in India. (AVERAGE)

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III. Match the Following: (EASY) (One Mark Questions)
1. A B
a. Unproductive population i) Female Migration
b. Control of Infant Mortality ii) Tubectomy
c. Male sterilization Surgery iii) Children and Age old
d. Female sterilization surgery iv) Janani Suraksha Yojana
e. Migration from Village-to-Village v) Brain Drain
vi) Vasectomy

IV. Answer the following questions in a word or a sentence: (One Mark Questions)
1. What is the total population of India according to 2011 census? (EASY)
2. Which decade is known as Great divide in Indian census? (EASY)
3. Which decade recorded the lowest population growth after India’s independence? (AVERAGE)
4. What is the Average population density of India according to 2011 census? (EASY)
5. Name the state has the highest literacy rate in India. (EASY)
6. Which state has the highest population density in India? (EASY)
7. Which Indian state has the highest Sex ratio? (EASY)
8. Which union territory of India has the highest population density? (EASY)
9. In which year the Family Planning Programme was introduced in India? (EASY)
10. What is the Average Literacy rate of India according to 2011 census? (EASY)
11. What is Migration? (EASY)
12. Which type of internal migration is called 'Female Migration'? (AVERAGE)
13. What is Brain Drain? (AVERAGE)
14. What is the Human Development Index rank of India According to the 2011 UNDP report?
(AVERAGE)
15. UNDP- Expand. (DIFFICULT)
16. HDI – Expand. (DIFFICULT)
17. GHI – Expand. (DIFFICULT)

V. Answer the following questions in 2 to 3 sentences. (Two Mark Questions)
1. What is Population explosion? (AVERAGE)
2. What is Population density? (EASY)
3. Mention the Average Birth and Death rate of India. (AVERAGE)
4. Give any Four causes for High birth rate in India. (EASY)
5. Give any Four causes for Low death rate in India. (EASY)
6. What is the difference between Immigration and Emigration? (AVERAGE)

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7. What is the difference between Intra-state migration and Inter-state migration? (DIFFICULT)
8. What are the Four types of Internal migration? (EASY)
9. List out the Positive effects of migration. (AVERAGE)
10. List out the Negative effects of migration. (AVERAGE)
11. List out the Four Stages of population growth in India. (AVERAGE)
12. List out the main causes for Rapid population growth in India. (EASY)
13. Name the states having the Highest and the Lowest population density in India. (AVERAGE)
14. State the causes for declining Death rate in India. (EASY)
15. Mention the Male and Female literacy rate in India according to 2011 census. (DIFFICULT)
16. Name the programs undertaken by the Government of India to improve the status of women.
(DIFFICULT)
17. Name the states of Highest and Lowest HDI in India. (AVERAGE)
18. Mention the factors influenced on Human Development Index in India. (AVERAGE)

VI. Answer the following question in 20 to 25 sentences. (Five Mark Questions)
1. Explain the trend of population growth in India. (AVERAGE)
2. Analyse the factors responsible for rapid growth of population in India. (EASY)
3. Discuss the factors responsible for uneven distribution of population in India. (EASY)
4. List out and Explain the problems caused by rapid population growth in India. * (EASY)
5. Explain the measures to control population growth in India. (EASY)
6. Analyse the population composition of India. * (DIFFICULT)
7. What is Migration? Explain the types of migration. * (EASY)
8. Analyse the Positive and Negative effects of migration. * (AVERAGE)
9. Discuss the controlling measures of migration. (AVERAGE)
10. What are the factors affected on Human Development Index of India? Analyse. (DIFFICULT)

Instruction: Consider ‘*ʼ marked questions for 10 marks.
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CHAPTER -7
LAND AND WATER RESOURCES IN INDIA
(ALLOTTED HOURS-10 Hours)

I. Answer the following multiple-Choice questions. (One Mark Questions)
1.The correct sequence of descending order of Land Use Pattern on the basis of area in India.
(DIFFICULT)
a) Forest area - Land not available for cultivation - Fallow land - Net sown area.
b) Land not available for cultivation - Forest area - Fallow land - Net sown area.
c) Fallow land - Forest area - Land not available for cultivation - Net sown area.
d) Net Sown Area - Forest area - Land not available for cultivation - Fallow land.

2. The total Geographical area of India with reference to Land use pattern. (AVERAGE)
a) 228.7 million hectares b) 258.7 million hectares
c) 328.7 million hectares d) 358.7 million hectares
3. Match list-I with list-II and choose the answer from the codes given below. (DIFFICULT)
List -1 List-II
(Land use pattern) (Area in %)
A. Forest Area 1. 8.6%
B. Non Agricultural land 2. 8.1%
C. Fallow Land 3. 46.2%
D. Net sown area 4. 22.8%
Codes:
A B C D
a) 1 2 3 4
b) 4 3 2 1
c) 4 1 2 3
d) 1 4 3 2

4. State with the highest Net sown area in India. (EASY)
a) Karnataka b) Haryana
c) Uttar Pradesh d) Bihar

5. State with the highest Irrigated land in India. (EASY)
a) Maharashtra b) Haryana
c) Uttar Pradesh d) Tamil Nadu
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6. The Average Annual rainfall in India is. (EASY)
a) 98 cm b) 108 cm
c) 118 cm d) 128 cm

7. In recent years the irrigation system losing its importance. (EASY)
a) Canal irrigation b) Tank irrigation
c) Well irrigation d) Sprinkler irrigation

8. The first multi-purpose river valley project in India. (EASY)
a) Hirakud project b) Bhakra - Nangal project
c) Tungabhadra project d) Damodar valley project

9. The longest dam in India. (EASY)
a) Hirakud dam b) Bhakra dam
c) Nangal dam d) Tungabhadra dam

10. Bhakra-Nangal project is a joint venture of the following states. (DIFFICULT)
a) Punjab, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan b) Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan
c) Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh d) Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan

11. Consider the following statements, (DIFFICULT)
i. West coast and North Eastern parts in India get heavy rain fall.
ii. Rajasthan desert and Ladakh get low rain fall.
iii. Most part of India receives heavy rain fall during June to September.
iv. Most part of India receives heavy rain fall during October to December.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) i and ii only correct b) i and iv only correct
c) ii and iii only correct d) i, ii and iii are correct

12. Assertion: (A) Irrigation facility is most necessary for agriculture in India. (DIFFICULT)
Reason: (R) Irregular, Uncertain, Limited nature of rain fall and probability of drought is common in
India.
Codes:
a) A only correct b) R only correct
c) Both A and R correct d) Both A and R not correct

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13. Match list-I with list-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below. (DIFFICULT)
List -1 List-II
(Sources of irrigation) (Irrigation Area %)
A) Well 1) 3.2 %
B) Canal 2) 5.1 %
C) Tank 3) 31.0%
D) Others 4) 60.7%
Codes:
A B C D
a) 4 3 2 1
b) 4 3 1 2
c) 4 1 2 3
d) 4 2 1 3

14. Assertion: (A) The river Damodar was called “The Sorrow of Bengal” (DIFFICULT)
Reason: (R) River Damodar brought sediments, cause destruction of life and crops due to
frequent floods.
Codes:
a) A only correct b) R only correct
c) Both A and R correct d) Both A and R not correct

15. Durgapur barrage is constructed across the river (EASY)
a) Barakar b) Damodar
c) Roopnarayan d) Hooghly
16. Which one of the following is correctly matched? (DIFFICULT)
Dams Reservoir
a) Alamatti - Pampa sagar
b) Bhakra - Gobind sagar
c) Narayanapur - Shastri sagar
d) Tungabhadra - Basava sagar
17. Identify the correct pair from the following. (DIFFICULT)
i. Bakra dam - Govindasagara
ii. Narayanapura dam - Basavasagara
iii. Thungabadra dam - Pamampasagara
Codes:
a) i only correct b) ii only correct
c) iii only correct d) i, ii and iii are correct

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18. Identify the Correct Pair. (DIFFICULT)
a) Hirakud project- Mahanadi b) Bhakra-Nangal project- Damodar River
c) Damodar project- Sutlej River d) Upper Krishna project-Tungabhadra River

19. The project in India planned on the pattern of Tennessee River Valley authority of USA. (EASY)
a) Hirakud Project b) Tugabhadra project
c) Bhakra-Nangal project- Project d) Damodar River valley project

II Fill in the blanks by using the Appropriate words given in the brackets (One Mark Questions)
1.
(Israel, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, 1948, Himachal Pradesh, 1967)
1. _________ State has the highest forest area in India. (EASY)
2. The Damodar valley corporation was established in the year _______ (AVERAGE)
3. Bhakra dam is constructed in the state of _________ (AVERAGE)
4. _________ state has the highest number of Tube wells in India. (AVERAGE)
5. Drip irrigation is originally developed in (AVERAGE)

2.

(Krishna, Damodar, Uttar Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Sutlej, Odisha)
1. _________ is the tributary of Hooghly River. (EASY)
2. _________ state has the highest Canal Irrigated area in India. (AVERAGE)
3. The Hirakud project is constructed in the state of ___________. (AVERAGE)
4. The Narayanapura dam is constructed across__________ river. (AVERAGE)
5. The Bakra-Nangal dam is constructed across ___________ river. (AVERAGE)

III. Match the following: (EASY) (One Mark Questions)
1. A B
a) Tilaiya dam i. Konar River
b) Konar dam ii. Barakar River
c) Panchet hill dam iii. Sutlej River
d) Alamatti dam iv. Damodar River
e) Hirakud dam v. Krishna River
vi. River Mahanadi

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2. A B
a) USA i. Muddebihal Taluk
b) Rain water harvesting ii. Rajendra Singh
c) Water Man iii. Tennesse River Valley Project
d) Alamatti Dam iv. Hirakud river valley Project
e) Narayanpura Dam v. Basavanabagewadi taluk
vi. In-Situ Method

IV. Answer the following questions in one word or a sentence. (One Mark Questions)
1. What is Land-use? (EASY)
2. What is Fallow land? (EASY)
3. What is the percentage of Net sown area in India? (AVERAGE)
4. What is land Capability? (EASY)
5. Mention the main sources of surface water resource. (EASY)
6. Write the meaning of irrigation. (EASY)
7. What is Well irrigation? (EASY)
8. Define Canal Irrigation. (AVERAGE)
9. What is Tank irrigation? (EASY)
10. What is Drip irrigation? (EASY)
11. Define Sprinkler irrigation. (AVERAGE)
12. What is multi-purpose river valley project? (EASY)
13. DVC- Expand. (DIFFICULT)
14. What is water conservation? (EASY)
15. Write the meaning of rain water harvesting. (EASY)

V. Answer the following questions in 2 to 3 sentences. (Two Mark Questions)
1. What are the main physical features determining the land-use pattern? (AVERAGE)
2. What are the two types of water resources? (EASY)
3. Give example for surface water resources. (EASY)
4. What are the determining factors of the sources of irrigation? (AVERAGE)
5. What are the major sources of irrigation in India? (EASY)
6. Mention the difference between Inundation canal and Perennial canal system? (AVERAGE)
7. List out the major draw backs of Canal irrigation. (AVERAGE)
8. List out the major problems of Tank irrigation. (AVERAGE)

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9. Why Tank irrigation is very predominant in peninsular plateau? (DIFFICULT)
10. Write the main objectives of multipurpose river valley project. (EASY)
11. Write the major objectives of the Damodar River valley project. (AVERAGE)
12. What are the major dams of Damodar River valley project? (AVERAGE)
13. Name the dams constructed under Hirakud project? (AVERAGE)
14. Name the dams constructed under upper Krishna project. (AVERAGE)
15. Name the beneficiary districts of Upper Krishna project in Karnataka. (AVERAGE)
16. What is water conservation? Give example. (EASY)
17. Write any four importance of watershed. (AVERAGE)
18. Mention any two methods of watershed management. (AVERAGE)
19. Mention the need of watershed management. (AVERAGE)
20. List out the main objectives of rain water harvesting. (AVERAGE)
21. Mention the methods of Rain water harvesting. (AVERAGE)
22. Distinguish between IN-SITU method and EX-SITU method of rain water harvesting. (DIFFICULT)

VI. Answer the following questions in 20 to 25 sentences. (Five Mark Questions)
1. Give an account of land-use pattern in India. * (AVERAGE)
2. Discuss the importance of land capability. (AVERAGE)
3. Briefly explain the water resources of India. (EASY)
4. Discuss about the necessity of irrigation in India. (EASY)
5. Discuss about the Well irrigation in India. (AVERAGE)
6. Explain the Canal irrigation in India. (AVERAGE)
7. Discuss the present situation of Tank irrigation in India. (AVERAGE)
8. Explain the development and distribution of Sprinkler and Drip irrigation in India. (AVERAGE)
9. What is Multi-Purpose River valley project? Explain its importance in India. (AVERAGE)
10. Explain the important features and aims of Damodar River Valley project. *(AVERAGE)
11. Explain the important features and aims of Bhakra Nangal project. *(AVERAGE)
12. Explain the important features and aims of Hirakud project. *(AVERAGE)
13. Explain the important features and aims of Upper Krishna project. *(AVERAGE)
14. Write a note on water conservation and management. (EASY)
15. Discuss about the watershed management. *(AVERAGE)
16. Explain rain water harvesting in detail. *(AVERAGE)

Instruction: Consider ‘*ʼ marked questions for 10 marks.
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CHAPTER -8
AGRICULTURE
(ALLOTTED HOURS-12 Hours)

I. Answer the following multiple-choice questions. (One Mark Questions)
1. Population depends on agriculture for their livelihood in India. (EASY)
a) 30 % b) 35 %
c) 65 % d) 70 %

2. Method of farming practiced by tribes in tropical rainy forest. (EASY)
a) Sedentary farming b) Migratory subsistence farming
c) Mixed farming d) Intensive farming

3. With reference to shifting cultivation, Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the
codes given below. (DIFFICULT)
List – I List – II
(local names) (states)
A. Jhumming 1 Andhra Pradesh
B. Koman 2 Kerala
C. Ponam 3 Odisha
D. Podu 4 Assam
Codes:
A B C D
a) 4 3 2 1
b) 1 4 3 2
c) 2 1 4 3
d) 3 2 1 4

4. The year Mixed farming was introduced in India. (EASY)
a) 1951 b) 1952
c) 1960 d) 1961

5. The suitable crops for Dry farming. (EASY)
a) Rice and Wheat b) Tea and Coffee
c) Ragi and Jowar d) Sugarcane and Jute

6. Major Plantation crops of India. (EASY)
a) Tea, coffee and Rubber b) Rice, Ragi and Cotton
c) Wheat, Jowar and sugarcane d) Tobacco, Jute and Maize
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7. Consider the following statements. (DIFFICULT)
i. Indian budget is a gamble with the monsoon.
ii. Indian Agriculture largely dependent on monsoon rain.
iii. Agriculture is a major source of national income.
which of the above statements are correct?
a) i only correct b) ii only correct
c) iii only correct d) i, ii and iii correct

8. The year Green Revolution introduced in India. (EASY)
a) 1950 b) 1960
c) 1970 d) 1980

9. The state that produces highest vegetables in India. (EASY)
a) Andhra Pradesh b) Madhyaprdesh
c) Uttar Pradesh d) West Bengal

10. The first state to adopt Organic farming in India. (EASY)
a) Karnataka b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Rajasthan d) Maharashtra

11. The country that produces and exports the most mangoes in the world. (EASY)
a) U. S. A b) India
c) Britain d) China

12. Largest black pepper producing state in India. (EASY)
a) Andhra Pradesh b) Karnataka
c) Kerala d) Tamil Nadu

13. Choose the correct pair. (AVERAGE)
a) Food Crops - Cotton and Jute
b) Beverage Crops - Rice and Wheat
c) Commercial Crops - Sugarcane and Tabacco
d) Fibre Crops - Tea and Coffee

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14. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below. (DIFFICULT)
List – I List – II
(Major Crops) (Examples)
A. Food Crops 1. Cotton and Jute
B. Beverage Crops 2. Sugarcane and Tabacco
C. Commercial Crops 3. Rice and Wheat
D. Fibre Crops 4. Tea and Coffee
Codes:
A B C D
a) 3 4 2 1
b) 4 3 2 1
c) 2 1 4 3
d) 2 3 1 4

15. Popular state for the production of Basumati rice. (EASY)
a) Andhra Pradesh b) Uttar Pradesh
c) West Bengal d) Punjab

16. The largest Rice producing state in India. (EASY)
a) Uttar Pradesh b) Chhattisgarh
c) West Bengal d) Andhra Pradesh

17. Which of the followings are correctly matched regarding the rice crop. (DIFFICULT)
i) “Aus/Autumn Rice” - Sown in May-June, and harvested in September-October.
ii) “Aman/Winter Rice” - Sown in June – July, harvested in November - December.
iii) “Boro/ summer Rice” – Sown in November-December, harvested in March-April.
a) i Only correct b) i and ii Only correct
c) ii and iii Only correct d) i, ii and iii are correct

18. ‘Ratoon cropping systemʼ is related to (EASY)
a) Wheat b) Ragi
c) Rice d) Sugarcane

19. Assertion: (A) Black soil is suitable for cotton cultivation. (DIFFICULT)
Reason: (R) Black soil is capable of retaining moisture for the long duration.
Codes:
a) A only correct b) R only correct
c) Both A and R correct d) Both A and R not correct

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20. The largest sugarcane producing country in the world. (EASY)
a) Bangladesh b) China
c) India d) Brazil

21. According to 2011 report, The largest Cotton producing state in India. (EASY)
a) Gujarat b) Maharashtra
c) Madhya Pradesh d) Karnataka

22. Assertion: (A) Coffee plants required trees for shade. (DIFFICULT)
Reason: (R) Direct Sun rays and strong winds are harmful to Coffee plants.
a) A only correct b) R only correct
c) Both A & R are correct d) Both A & R not correct

23. Highest Coffee producing state in India. (EASY)
a) Assam b) Tamil Nadu
c) Kerala d) Karnataka

24. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below. (DIFFICULT)
List-I List-II
(Crops) (Family)
A. Wheat 1. Rubiaceae
B. Cotton 2. Theaceae
C. Tea 3. Gramineae (Poaceae)
D. Coffee 4. Malavaceae
Codes:
A B C D
a) 3 4 2 1
b) 4 3 2 1
c) 2 1 4 3
d) 2 3 1 4

25. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below. (DIFFICULT)
List- I List- II
(Crops) (Scientific Name)
A. Wheat 1. Gossypium
B. Rice 2. Saccharam officinarum
C. Cotton 3. Oryza sativa
D. Sugarcane 4. Triticum

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Codes:
A B C D
a) 3 4 2 1
b) 4 3 1 2
c) 2 1 4 3
d) 2 3 1 4

II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the Appropriate words given in the bracket.

(One Mark Questions)
(New Delhi, Rice, India, Assam, China, Kerala)
1. ____________ is an important crop of intensive farming. (EASY)
2. The largest black pepper growing state _________ India. (AVERAGE)
3. Indian Agricultural Research Organization is located at ________. (AVERAGE)
4. _________ is the second largest rice producing country in the world. (AVERAGE)
5. _________ is the largest Tea Producing state in India. (AVERAGE)
III. Match the Following: (EASY) (One Mark Questions)

1. A B
a) Chinees Tea variety i) Norman E Borlaug
b) Dry farming crop ii) Black Papper
c) Father of Green Revolution iii) Bohea
d) Land of Spices iv) Cardamom
e) King of Spices v) Jowar
vi) India

2. A B
a) Ratoon Cropping i) Caffeine
b) Queen of spices ii) Black pepper
c) Basumati iii) Thiene
d) Tea iv) Sugarcane
e) Coffee v) Punjab
vi) Cardamom

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IV. Answer the following questions in a word or a sentence. (One Mark Questions)
1. Define Agriculture. (EASY)
2. In which season does Indian agriculture receive the most rainfall? (AVERAGE)
3. What is Primitive subsistence farming? (EASY)
4. Define Migratory subsistence farming. (EASY)
5. What is Sedentary Subsistence Farming? (EASY)
6. Define Intensive farming. (AVERAGE)
7. What is Commercial farming? (EASY)
8. What is Mixed farming? (EASY)
9. Define Plantation farming. (AVERAGE)
10. What is Dry farming? (EASY)
11. What is Humid farming? (EASY)
12. What is another name of the Humid farming? (EASY)
13. Define Irrigation farming. (EASY)
14. What is Green Revolution? (EASY)
15. Define Organic farming. (EASY)
16. Which is the first state in India to introduce the Policy of Organic Farming? (AVERAGE)
17. Define Tissue culture. (DIFFICULT)
18. What is Horticulture? (EASY)
19. Which is the Highest Fruits producing state in India? (EASY)
20. Which state is the largest producer of Vegetables in India? (EASY)
21. What is Catch crop? (DIFFICULT)
22. Which state is largest producer of cardamon in India? (EASY)
23. What is Floriculture? (EASY)
24. What are Food crops? (EASY)
25. Which is the highest Rice producing state in India? (EASY)
26. Which is the highest Wheat producing state in India? (EASY)
27. What is the Ratoon cropping system? (AVERAGE)
28. Which is Known as Queen of Beverage? (EASY)
29. Which state is the highest producer of Tea in India? (EASY)
30. Who introduced Coffee to India first? (AVERAGE)
31. Which state is the highest producer of Coffee in India? (EASY)

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V. Answer the following questions in 2 to 3 sentences. (Two Mark Questions)
1. Name the states in India where migratory subsistence farming is practice. (DIFFICULT)
2. State the important characteristics of Intensive farming. (AVERAGE)
3. Write the characteristics of Commercial farming. (AVERAGE)
4. Name the major plantation crops of India. (EASY)
5. State the characteristics of horticulture in India. (AVERAGE)
6. Name any four important spice crops of India. (EASY)
7. Mention any four traditional flowers grown in India. (EASY)
8. Write about the uses of Rice. (EASY)
9. What are the methods of Rice cultivation practiced in India? (AVERAGE)
10. What are Aus, Aman and Boro? (DIFFICULT)
11. Name the important countries Basmathi rice is exported from India. (DIFFICULT)
12. State the varieties of wheat in India. (AVERAGE)
13. What are the methods used for Wheat cultivation in India? (AVERAGE)
14. Name the major commercial crops of India. (EASY)
15. What are the uses of sugarcane? (EASY)
16. Name the varieties of cotton. (EASY)
17. List out the uses of Cotton. (EASY)
18. Name two important beverage crops of India. (EASY)
19. What are the varieties of tea Plants? (DIFFICULT)
20. Mention the types of Tea. (EASY)
21. State the varieties of coffee. (DIFFICULT)
22. Which are the highest coffee producing districts in Karnataka? (AVERAGE)

VI. Answer the following questions in 20 to 25 sentences. (Five Mark Questions)
1. Write about the importance of agriculture in India. * (EASY)
2. Briefly explain the types of agriculture practiced in India. * (AVERAGE)
3. What is Intensive farming? Explain its main characteristics. (AVERAGE)
4. Explain the important strategies of Green Revolution. * (AVERAGE)
5. Write a note on Merits and Demerits of Green revolution. * (AVERAGE)
6. Write about the Organic farming in India. (AVERAGE)
7. Write about plant Tissue culture. (DIFFICULT)
8. What is Horticulture? Explain its development in India. * (AVERAGE)
9. Write about Fruits and Vegetable cultivation in India. * (AVERAGE)
10. Write a note on Floriculture in India. * (AVERAGE)

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11. Explain the Geographical conditions Required for the cultivation of Rice. (DIFFICULT)
12. Write a note on production and distribution of Rice in India. * (AVERAGE)
13. Explain the conditions required for the growth of wheat and methods of wheat cultivation in India. *
(AVERAGE)
14. Write about the production and distribution of Wheat in India. * (AVERAGE)
15. Explain the Geographical conditions required for the cultivation of Sugarcane. (AVERAGE)
16. Discus about the production and distribution of Sugarcane in India. * (AVERAGE)
17. What are the Geographical conditions necessary for the cultivation of cotton? Explain the varieties. *
(AVERAGE)
18. Write a note on production and distribution of Cotton in India. *(AVERAGE)
19. Explain the Geographical conditions required for the cultivation of Tea. (AVERAGE)
20. Discuss about the production and distribution of Tea in India. (AVERAGE)
21. Explain the Geographical condition for growth of Coffee and Give reasons for the concentration of
Coffee cultivation in South India. * (AVERAGE)
22. Write a note on production and distribution of Coffee in India. (AVERAGE)

Instruction: Consider ‘*ʼ marked questions for 10 marks.

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CHAPTER-9
MINERAL AND POWER RESOURCES
(ALLOTTED HOURS-14 Hours)

I. Answer the multiple-choice questions given below: (One Mark Questions)

1. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from codes given below. (DIFFICULT)
List- I List- II
(Minerals) (Example)
A. Ferrous mineral 1. Graphite
B. Non-ferrous mineral 2. Natural Gas
C. Mineral fuel 3. Copper
D. Non-fuel mineral 4. Manganese
Codes: A B C D
a) 4 3 2 1
b) 1 2 3 4
c) 4 1 3 2
d) 2 1 4 3
2. The Iron ore that is called “Black Ore”. (EASY)
a) Haematite b) Siderite
c) Magnatite d) Limonite

3. The correct sequencial order of Iron ore on the basis of iron content from higher grade to lower grade.
(DIFFICULT)
a) i. Limonite, ii. Magnetite, iii. Siderite, iv. Haematite
b) i. Magnetite, ii. Haematite, iii. Limonite, iv. Siderite
c) i. Magnetite, ii. Siderite, iii. Limonite, iv. Haematite
d) i. Siderite, ii. Limonite, iii. Haematite, iv. Magnetite

4. The type of Iron ore consists Lime content. (AVERAGE)
a) Limonite b) Siderite
c) Magnetite d) Hematite

5. The type of Iron ore consists highest Magnetic property. (EASY)
a) Magnetite b) Haematite
c) Limonite d) Siderite

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6. The highest Manganese producing state in India. (EASY)
a) Karnataka b) Maharashtra
c) Odisha d) Bihar
7. The “Wonder Metal of 20th Century”. (EASY)
a) Gold b) Aluminium
c) Copper d) Iron ore

8. The Highest Bauxite producing state in India. (EASY)
a) Odisha b) Gujarat
c) West Bengal d) Tamil Nadu

9. Identify the correct pair. (DIFFICULT)
a) Coal based thermal power project - Talcher in Odisha
b) Fuel based thermal power project - Kaiga in Karnataka
c) Natural gas-based electricity project - Cochin in Kerala
d) Hydro-Electricity project – Kalpakkam in Tamil Nadu

10. Consider the following statements. (DIFFICULT)
i. Iron ore is the backbone of modern Civilization.
ii. Manganese is used to make steel tough.
iii. Aluminium is a good conductor of electricity.
Which of the above statement are correct?
a) i and ii only correct b) i and iii only correct
c) ii and iii only correct d) i, ii and iii are correct

11. The largest Gold producing state in India. (EASY)
a) Karnataka b) Rajasthan
c) Kerala d) Andhra Pradesh

12. Statement: (A) Coal is an inflammable organic substance. (DIFFICULT)
Reason: (R) Coal consists of different proportionate of carbon and hydrogen
a) A only correct b) R only correct
c) Both A and R correct d) Both A and R not correct

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13. The correct sequencial order of coal types, based on Carbon content from high grade to low grade.
(DIFFICULT)
a) Lignite- Peat- Anthracite- Bituminous.
b) Peat- Anthracite- Bituminous-Lignite.
c) Anthracite- Bituminous -Lignite-Peat.
d) Bituminous-Lignite- Peat- Anthracite.

14. Consider the following statements. (DIFFICULT)
i. On account of its multiple use Coal is known as 'Black Diamond'.
ii. Jharia region is recognized as “Store house of the best metallurgical Coal”.
iii. Raniganj is the largest and popular Coal field of West Bengal.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) i only correct b) ii only correct
c) iii only correct d) i, ii and iii are correct

15. The year in which Petroleum was first discovered in India. (EASY)
a) 1855 b) 1860
c) 1862 d) 1864

16. In which state the first crude oil well was drilled in India? (EASY)
a) Maharashtra b) Assam
c) Gujarat d) Andhra Pradesh

17. The largest crude oil producing area in India. (EASY)
a) Ankaleshwar b) Cambay
c) Bombay high d) Kalol

18. A power resource that is called as “White Coal” (EASY)
a) Wind energy b) Tidal energy
c) Hydroelectricity d) Solar energy

19. Match the List-I with List-II and Choose the correct answer from codes given below. (DIFFICULT)
List-I List-II
(Atomic Centres) (Located States)
A. Tarapura 1. Gujarat
B. Kalpakkam 2. Maharashtra
C. Narora 3. Tamil Nadu
D. Kakrapara 4. Uttar Pradesh
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Codes: A B C D
a) 1 2 3 4
b) 3 4 2 1
c) 2 3 4 1
d) 4 3 2 1

20. Match the List-I with List-II and Choose the correct answer from codes given below. (DIFFICULT)
List- I List- II
(Atomic Centres) (Located States)
A. Rana Pratap sagar 1. Karnataka
B. Kaiga 2. West bengal
C. Sri Sailam 3. Andhra pradesh
D. Kolkata 4. Rajasthan
Codes: A B C D
a) 4 3 2 1
b) 1 2 3 4
c) 4 1 3 2
d) 2 1 4 3

21. Assertion: (A) India is a tropical country and she is well endowed with plenty of solar energy.
(DIFFICULT)
Reason: (R) Except Southwest monsoon season India’s most areas experience sunny weather
condition throughout the year.
Which of the above statement are correct?
a) A only correct b) R only correct
c) Both A and R correct d) Both A and R not correct

22. The state where the first photovoltaic station was established in India. (EASY)
a) Karnataka b) Rajasthan
c)Tamil Nadu d) Gujarat

II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the Appropriate words given in the bracket.
(One Mark Questions)
1.
(Tarapura, Gondwana, Natural gas, Petroleum, Kaiga, Pre-Palaeozoic)
1. Majority of minerals in India are formed during _____ age. (AVERAGE)
2. ________ region in India that consists of majority coal reserves. (AVERAGE)

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3. The “Fuel of 21st century” with its great importance is _______ (AVERAGE)
4. _____ is the liquid substance which is a mixture of Hydrogen and Carbon. (AVERAGE)
5. India's first nuclear power plant is _______. (AVERAGE)
2.
(Kaiga, Narora, Bio-gas, Natural ga̧s, Maharashtra, Talchar)
1. The major Coal field in Odisha is _____ (AVERAGE)
2. The _______ State produces largest Thermal electricity in India. (AVERAGE)
3. The only Nuclear power plant in Karnataka is __________ (EASY)
4. ______ is The energy produced by Cow dung and Bio-degradable substance. (EASY)
5. The Gaseous form of hydrocarbon, that consisting mainly of methane is ___(AVERAGE)

III. Match the following: (EASY) (One Mark Questions)

1) A B
a) Black diamond i) Manganese
b) Liquid Gold ii) Bomby High
c) White Coal iii) Coal
d) Jack of all traders iv) Bauxite
e) Sagara Samrat v) Petroleum
vi) Hydro Electricity

2) A B
a) Manikaran i) Gold Mines
b) Shivanasamudra ii) Hematite
c) Hatti in Raichur iii) Bio-Gas
d) Red Ore iv) Wind Power
e) Muppandal v) Hydro Electricity
vi) Geo Thermal Energy

3) A B
a) Non-Fuel Mineral i) Oakely
b) Atomic Energy ii) Coal
c) Gold Mine iii) Limestone
d) Metallic Mineral iv) Uranium
e) Mineral Fuel v) Tattapani
vi) Iron Ore

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IV. Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence. (One Mark Questions)
1. What is a Mineral? (EASY)
2. What do you mean by Ore? (EASY)
3. What is Mining? (EASY)
4. Which is the best type of Iron Ore? (AVERAGE)
5. Name the metal made of Bauxite ore. (EASY)
6. Which is called “The Wonder metal of 20th century”? (AVERAGE)
7. Which is the highest Gold producing state in India? (EASY)
8. What is fossil Fuel? (AVERAGE)
9. Which mineral is called “Black Dimond”? (EASY)
10. Which type of coal is the best quality? (AVERAGE)
11. Why Jharia is famous for? (AVERAGE)
12. In which state ‘Talcher’ coal mine is located? (AVERAGE)
13. What is Crude oil? (EASY)
14. What is Thermal electricity? (AVERAGE)
15. What is Nuclear power? (EASY)
16. What is Solar energy? (EASY)
17. What is Bio-gas? (EASY)
18. What is Geo-thermal energy? (AVERAGE)
19. Which state in India is the largest producer of wind energy? (AVERAGE)
20. What is Tidal energy? (EASY)

V. Answer the following questions in 2 to 3 sentences. (Two Mark Questions)
1. Distinguish between Ore and Minerals? (DIFFICULT)
2. What are the main types of Minerals? (AVERAGE)
3. What are the uses of Minerals? (AVERAGE)
4. Name the ferrous Minerals. (AVERAGE)
5. Name the non-ferrous Minerals. (AVERAGE)
6. Give example for metallic Minerals. (AVERAGE)
7. Give Example for non-Metallic Minerals. (AVERAGE)
8. Name the fuel minerals. (AVERAGE)
9. Name the non- fuel minerals. (AVERAGE)
10. Mention the types of iron ore. (DIFFICULT)
11. Manganese called as “The Jack of all traders”. Why? (DIFFICULT)

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12. What are the uses of Manganese? (AVERAGE)
13. State the types of Manganese ore. (DIFFICULT)
14. State the uses of Aluminium metal. (AVERAGE)
15. List out the uses of Gold. (EASY)
16. When and where the first gold production was started in India? (AVERAGE)
17. Name the two major Gold producing states in India. (EASY)
18. Name the major Gold producing regions in Karnataka. (EASY)
19. What are the sources of energy? (AVERAGE)
20. State the importance of Coal. (AVERAGE)
21. Name the types of Coal. (DIFFICULT)
22. In which states of India, the Gondwana Coal fields are located? (DIFFICULT)
23. Why is petroleum called “Liquid Gold”? (AVERAGE)
24. State the uses of Petroleum. (EASY)
25. What are the uses of Natural Gas? (EASY)
26. Name the Atomic minerals of India. (AVERAGE)
27. When and where the first successful Hydroelectric power generation started in India? (AVERAGE)
28. State any four factors necessary for Hydroelectricity development. (AVERAGE)
29. State the factors necessary for the production of Thermal electricity. (AVERAGE)
30. What are the non-conventional energy resources? (AVERAGE)
31. Name the non-conventional energy resources. (AVERAGE)
32. Write about the need of non-conventional energy sources in India. (DIFFICULT)
33. What are the forms of utilization of solar energy? (EASY)
34. What is the importance of solar energy? (EASY)
35. Name the states where the wind forms are located. (EASY)
36. Mention the wind power generating stations in Karnataka. (EASY)
37. Bio-gas is suitable for rural India. How? (EASY)

VI Answer the following questions in 20 to 25 sentences: (Five Mark Questions)
1. What are the Minerals? write about the types and characteristics of minerals. (EASY)
2. Describe the distribution and production of iron ore in India. (AVERAGE)
3. Write about the Uses, Distribution and production of Manganese in India. * (EASY)
4. Explain the Distribution and production of Bauxite ore in India. (AVERAGE)
5. Write a note on Distribution and Production of Gold in India. (EASY)
6. Discuss the Importance, Distribution and Production of Coal in India. * (AVERAGE)
7. Describe the Occurrence, Production and Distribution of Crude oil (petroleum) in India. (AVERAGE)

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8. Explain the Hydroelectricity of India. (EASY)
9. Give an account of Thermal and Nuclear energy of India. * (AVERAGE)
10. List out the Non-conventional energy resources and Explain. (AVERAGE)
11. Discuss the need for conservation and conservative measures of mineral and power resources. *
(DIFFICULT)

Instruction: Consider ‘*ʼ marked questions for 10 marks.

*-*-*-*-*-*

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CHAPTER-10
MANUFACTURING INDUSTRIES
(ALLOTTED HOURS-12 Hours)

I. Answer the following multiple-choice questions. (One Mark Questions)
1. An example of basic industry. (EASY)
a) Aluminium Industry b) Cotton Textile industry
c) Iron and steel industry d) Sugar industry

2. Consider the following pair. (AVERAGE)
i. Agro based industry – Cotton Textile industry
ii. Mineral based industry - Aluminium industry
iii. Knowledge based industry – Chemical Fertilizer industries
Which of the above pairs correctly matched?
a) i only correct b) i and ii only correct
c) i and iii only correct d) i, ii and iii are correct

3. The good example for Market oriented Industry. (EASY)
a) Cement industry b) Cotton Textile industry
c) Sugar industry d) Iron and Steel industry

4. An example of Agro-based industry. (EASY)
a) Cement industry b) Cotton Textile industry
c) Iron and Steel industry d) Aluminium industry

5. The Biggest industrial region in India. (EASY)
a) The Hooghly-Kolkata region b) The Mumbai-Pune region
c) The Delhi-Meerut region d) The Ahmedabad-Vadodara region

6. The oldest industrial region in India. (EASY)
a) Hooghly- Kolkata region b) Ahmedabad -Vadodara region
c) Mumbai -Pune region d) Kollam- Triruvnathapuram region

7. Consider the following pairs. (DIFFICULT)
i. Hooghly-Kolkata industrial region - Bihar
ii. Mumbai-Pune industrial region - Madhya Pradesh
iii. Ahmedabad-Vadodara industrial region - Gujarat

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Which of the above pairs correctly matched?
a) i only correct b) ii only correct
c) iii only correct d) i and ii only correct

8. Consider the following statements. (DIFFICULT)
i. The Hooghly-Kolkata industrial region is the oldest industrial region of India.
ii. Cotton Textile industry is known as Market-oriented industry.
iii. The Mumbai-Pune industrial region developed in Gujarat.
iv. The Cement industry a basic industry
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) i and ii Only correct b) i, ii and iii Only correct
c) i, ii and iv Only correct ` d) i, ii, iii and iv correct

9. The industrial region which is not associated to West Coat of India. (AVERAGE)
a) Mumbai - Pune Industrial region
b) Ahmedabad - Vadodara Industrial region
c) Visakhapatnam-Gunturu Industrial region
d) Kollam- Thiruvananthapuram Industrial region

10. The largest Iron and Steel industry in private sector. (AVERAGE)
a) ESSAR Steel Limited b) Jindal Vijayanagara Steel Limited
c) ISPAT Industries Limited d) Tata Iron and Steel Company

11. The largest Iron and Steel industry under public sector. (AVERAGE)
a) Bhilai Steel Plant b) Bokaro Steel Plant
c) Durgapur Steel Plant d) Salem Steel Plant

12. Bhilai Steel industry is located in this state. (EASY)
a) Chhattisgarh b) West Bengal
c) Bihar d) Jharkhand
13. Assertion: (A) The Chota Nagpur plateau region is known as “Ruhr Valley of India” (DIFFICULT)
Reason: (R) This region has become a hub of Heavy Industries such as Iron and Steel, Railway coaches,
Locomotives, Agriculture equipment’s, Paper, Cement, Chemical industry and others.
a) A Only correct b) R only correct
c) Both A and R correct d) Both A and R not correct.
14. The Manchester of South India. (EASY)
a) Coimbatore b) Bengaluru
c) Thiruvananthapuram d) Hyderabad

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15. Cottonopolis of India. (EASY)
a) Mysore b) Kolkatta
c) Mumbai d) Bangalore
16. The largest Cotton producing state in India. (EASY)
a) Gujarat b) Karnataka
c) Tamil Nadu d) Maharashtra
17. A city known as Manchester of India. (EASY)
a) Mumbai b) Pune
c) Bangalore d) Delhi
18. Largest Sugar producing State in India. (EASY)
a) Uttar Pradesh b) Bihar
c) Karnataka d) Maharashtra
19. Consider the following pairs. (AVERAGE)
i) Manchester of India - Mumbai
ii) Manchester of South India - Coimbatore
iii) Silicon Valley of India – Bangalore
Which of the above pairs correctly matched?
a) i and ii only correct b) ii and iii only correct
c) i and iii only correct d) i, ii and iii are correct
20. The correct sequence of states order in India with respect to sugar production from highest to lowest.
(DIFFICULT)
a) Maharashtra - Uttar Pradesh – Karnataka - Tamil Nadu
b) Uttar Pradesh – Karnataka - Tamil Nadu - Maharashtra
c) Karnataka - Tamil Nadu – Maharashtra - Uttar Pradesh
d) Tamil Nadu – Maharashtra – Karnataka - Uttar Pradesh
21. Assertion: (A) The Gorakhpur district of Uttar Pradesh is known as “Java of India” (DIFFICULT)
Reason: (R) In this region Sugar industries are highly concentrated as that of Java Island of
Indonesia.
a) A only correct b) R only correct
c) Both A and R are correct d) Both A and R not correct
22. Largest Cement producing state in India. (EASY)
a) Gujarat b) Madhya Pradesh
c) Rajasthan d) Chhattisgarh

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23. Consider the following pairs. (DIFFICULT)
i) Maharashtra - largest producer of cotton textile
ii) Rajasthan - largest producer of cement
iii) Uttar Pradesh - largest producer of sugar
Which of the above pairs correctly matched?
a) i and ii only correct
b) ii and iii only correct
c) i and iii only correct
d) i, ii, and iii are correct

II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the Appropriate words given in the bracket.
(One Mark Questions)
1.
(Russia, German, Kulti, Humid, Bhadravthi, Jameshedpur,)
1. The first successful Iron and Steel industry in India was established at _______ in West Bengal.
(AVERAGE)
2. The Mysore Iron and Steel works established at ___________ in Karnataka (EASY)
3. Tata Iron and Steel company is located at ________ of Jharkhand. (AVERAGE)
4. Bokaro Steel plant established in the collaboration with _____ (AVERAGE)
5. _________ weather is favourable for spinning and weaving in cotton textile industry (AVERAGE)
2.
(Ranipet, Jameshedpur, 1973, Ethylene, 1991, Textile industry)
1. Manufacturing of cloths from the Fiber is known as__________. (EASY)
2. The very first cement plant in India established at __________ (AVERAGE)
3. _____ is the important industrial center in Chotanagpura region. (AVERAGE)
4. By-product obtained in the process of refining crude oil is ______________ (AVERAGE)
5. The New Industrial Policy in India was implemented in the year _________ . (AVERAGE)

III. Match the following. (EASY) (One Mark Questions)
1) A B
a) Manchester of India i) Gorakhpur
b) Manchester of South India ii) Bengaluru
c) Java of India iii) New Delhi
d) Silicon Valley of India iv) Coimbatore
e) Synthetic Fiber v) Mumbai
vi) Nylon
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IV. Answer the following in a word or a sentence : (One Mark Questions)
1. What is manufacturing industry? (EASY)
2. What is an industrial region? (EASY)
3. Name the oldest Industrial region of India. (EASY)
4. Which is the biggest industrial region of India. (EASY)
5. Which industry is called Basic industry? (EASY)
6. Which is the Largest Iron and steel Industry under the Private sector in India? (AVERAGE)
7. Name the Steel plant located near the coast in India. (AVERAGE)
8. Give an example for market Oriented Industry. (EASY)
9. What is Textile Industry? (EASY)
10. Which city is called "Java of India"? (EASY)
11. Name the first Naptha based chemical industry of India. (AVERAGE)
12. What is Knowledge based Industry. (EASY)
13. Which city is called ‘Silicon Valley of India’? (EASY)
14. Define Liberalization. (AVERAGE)
15. What is Privatization? (AVERAGE)
16. Write the meaning of Globalization. (AVERAGE)
17. SAIL- Expand (DIFFICULT)
18. TISCO- Expand (DIFFICULT)
19. VISL- Expand (DIFFICULT)
20. IISCO- Expand (DIFFICULT)
21. JVSL- Expand (DIFFICULT)
22. ESL - Expand (DIFFICULT)
23. ACC - Expand (DIFFICULT)
24. HMT- Expand (DIFFICULT)
25. BEL- Expand (DIFFICULT)
26. HAL- Expand (DIFFICULT)
27. ITI- Expand (DIFFICULT)
28. NOCIL - Expand (DIFFICULT)
29. STP- Expand (DIFFICULT)

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V. Answer the following questions in 2 to 3 sentences. (Two Mark Questions)
1. Name the Agro-based industries in India. (EASY)
2. Why is the Chota Nagpur Plateau called "Ruhr valley" of India? (AVERAGE)
3. Name the two Iron and steel Industries of Karnataka. (AVERAGE)
4. When and where the first successful modern Cotton mill started in India? (DIFFICULT)
5. Why the Mumbai is called " Manchester " of India? (AVERAGE)
6. Mention the By-products of sugar industry. (EASY)
7. In recent years, Sugar industries have developed more in the southern states of India, why?
(AVERAGE)
8. What are the Raw material used in Cement Industry? (AVERAGE)
9. Where and When the first Aluminium Industry was established in India? (DIFFICULT)
10. Name the Aluminium producing companies of India. (DIFFICULT)
11. Why Automobile industry is tends to be located near Iron and Steel Industry? (DIFFICULT)
12. State the future of Computer software in India. (DIFFICULT)
13. Name the cities where the Software technology parks are located in Karnataka. (AVERAGE)
14. Why the Bangalore is called “Silicon Valley of India”? (EASY)

VI. Answer the following question in 20 to 25 sentences. (FIVE Mark Questions)
1. Explain the Importance of Industries. (EASY)
2. Discuss the factors which influence the location of the industries. (EASY)
3. Explain the important Industrial regions of India. * (EASY)
4. Discuss the advantages of Mumbai-Pune industrial regions. (AVERAGE)
5. Explain the development of the Iron and Steel Industry of India. (DIFFICULT)
6. Write about the distribution and production of the Iron and Steel Industry of India. * (AVERAGE)
7. Explain the importance and development of the Cotton textiles Industry in India. (DIFFICULT)
8. Describe the locational factors, distribution and production of Cotton Textile Industry in India. * (EASY)
9. Explain the importance, locational factors, distribution and production of the Sugar Industry. * (EASY)
10. Sugar industry of India is moving Southwards. Explain reasons. (AVERAGE)
11. Explain importance and development of the Cement industry in India. (DIFFICULT)
12. Explain the distribution and production of the Cement industry in India. (AVERAGE)
13. Explain the distribution and production of the Aluminium Industry in India. (AVERAGE)
14. Give a detail explanation about Automobile industry in India. (DIFFICULT)
15. Describe the distribution and production of Petro-chemical Industry of India. (DIFFICULT)
16. Explain the importance, development and future of Software industries in India. (DIFFICULT)
17. Explain the distribution of Software industries and Software export in India. (DIFFICULT)

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18. What are the effects of Globalization on industries in India? Explain. (AVERAGE)
19. Analyse the effects of Liberalization, Privatization and Globalization on Industry. *((EASY)

Instruction: Consider '*ʼ marked questions for 10 marks.
*-*-*-*-*-*

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CHAPTER-11
TRANSPORT, COMMUNICATION AND TRADE
(ALLOTTED HOURS-10 Hours)

I. Answer the following multiple-choice questions. (One Mark Questions)
1. Nagpur Project was implemented in the year. (EASY)
a) 1953 b) 1943
c) 1933 d) 1923

2. The cities connected by Golden Quadrilateral Super Highway in India. (AVERAGE)
a) Srinagar-Kolkata-Cochin-Mumbai b) Delhi-Kanyakumari-Chennai-Mumbai
c) Delhi-Kolkata-Cochin-Kanyakumari d) Delhi-Kolkata-Chennai-Mumbai

3. Border Road Origination was set-up in the Year. (EASY)
a) 1940 b) 1950
c) 1960 d) 1970

4. Match List-I with List-II and identify the correct answer by using the codes given below. (DIFFICULT)
List–I List–II
(Railway Zones) (Head Quarter)
A. Central Railway 1. Hubballi
B. South Western Railway 2. New Delhi
C. Southern Railway 3. Mumbai (C.S.T)
D. North Railway 4. Chennai
Codes: A B C D
a) 4 3 2 1
b) 1 4 3 2
c) 2 1 4 3
d) 3 1 4 2

5. When was the First Railway transport started in India? (EASY)
a) 16 April 1853 b) 18 May 1853
c) 12 June 1854 d) 16 April 1854

6. The port known as the “Gateway of India” is. (EASY)
a) Mumbai port b) Mangalure port
c) Karwar port d) Kandla port

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7. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer. (DIFFICULT)
i) Kandla port was developed to reduce the traffic pressure on Mumbai port.
ii) Kochi port is natural harbour located on the western coast of India in Kerala.
iii) New Mangaluru is a main port of Karnataka serves Karnataka and Kerala states.
iv) Ennore port is the India’s first corporate port.
a) i and ii only correct b) ii and iii only correct
c) iii and iv only correct d) i, ii, iii and iv are correct

8. Match List-I with List-II and identify the correct answer by using the given codes. (DIFFICULT)
List–I List–II
(Airports) (Names)
A. Mumbai 1. Indira Gandhi International Airport
B. Delhi 2. Kempegowda International Airport
C. Bangalore 3. Rajiv Gandhi International Airport
D. Hyderabad 4. Sahara International Airport
Codes:
A B C D
a) 4 1 2 3
b) 1 4 3 2
c) 2 1 4 3
d) 3 1 4 2

9. Radio was invented by. (EASY)
a) Campbell Swinston b) Marconi
c) Hickey's Gazette d) Peter Gold Mark

10. Indian Airlines was nationalized in the year. (EASY)
a) 1953 b) 1946
c) 1985 d) 1995

11. The year in which the Airport Authority of India was established. (EASY)
a) 1953 b) 1946
c) 1985 d) 1995

12. The year in which All India Radio was renamed as AKASHAVANI. (EASY)
a) 1927 b) 1930
c) 1936 d) 1957

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13. The first television broadcast was started in India. (DIFFICULT)
a) September 15, 1947 b) September 15, 1949
c) September 15, 1957 d) September 15, 1959

14. An organization engaged in satellites construction and launching in India. (EASY)
a) NASA b) ISRO
c) Rocosmos d) CNSA

15. The ISRO headquarters is located at. (EASY)
a) Hassan b) Bangaluru
c) Sriharikoota d) Hyderabad

16) Satellites master control centre is located at. (EASY)
a) Hassan b) Bangaluru
c) Sriharikota d) Hyderabad

II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the Appropriate word from the given brackets:
(One Mark Questions)
(Marmagoa, Kolkata, Hassan, Asansol, ISRO, Mumbai)
1. _______ port is known as ‘Gateway of Indiaʼ. (EASY)
2. The natural port located at the estuarian part of river Zuari is __________ (AVERAGE)
3. Shubhash Chandra Bose International Airport is located at ____ city of west bengal (AVERAGE)
4. ________ is the organization carries construction and launching of satellites in India. (EASY)
5. The Master Control Facility (MCF) Centre is located near _________ in Karnataka. (AVERAGE)

III. Match the following: (EASY) (One Mark Questions)
1. A B
a) Chennai Port i) Odisha
b) Kolkata Port ii) Largest port in South India
c) Visakhapatnam Port iii) Pawan Hans limited
d) Paradeep Port iv) Pondicherry
e) Helicopter v) Andhra Pradesh
vi) West Bengal

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2. A B
a) Tuticorin Port i) Goa
b) Navsheva Port ii) Karnataka
c) Marmagoa Port iii) Kerala
d) New Mangalore Port iv) Pondicherry.
e) Kochi Port v) Tamil Nadu
vi) Maharashtra

3. A B
a) North Eastrn Frontier Railway i) Wonder box of 20th century
b) The Bengal Gazette ii) Longest National Highway in India.
c) Television iii) East-West Corridor Road
d) Silcher-Porbandar iv) Maligaon (Guwahati)
e) Hyderabad v) India's first Newspaper
vi) Center for Remote Sensing (NRSA)

IV. Answer the following questions in a word or sentence: (One Mark Questions)
1. What is Transportation? (EASY)
2. What do you mean by Communication? (EASY)
3. Who published the first newspaper in India?
4. What is Trade? (EASY)
5. What is Radio? (AVERAGE)
6. Between which cities did India's first Train run? (EASY)
7. What is water Transport? (EASY)
8. What is Television? (AVERAGE)
9. What is a Port? (EASY)
10. On which river bank is Kolkata port located? (AVERAGE)
11. Where is the headquarters of the Central Railway Zone located? (AVERAGE)
12. Which is the longest gas pipeline route of India? (AVERAGE)

V. Answer the following questions in 2 to 3 sentences. (Two Mark Questions)
1. Mention the three types of railway gauge. (EASY)
2. Mention any four Railway zones with their headquarters. (AVERAGE)
3. List out the advantages of Radio. (EASY)
4. List out the main advantages of Television. (EASY)

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5. State the two types of water ways. (EASY)
6. Differentiate between internal and international airports of India. (AVERAGE)
7. Differentiate between imports and exports of India. (AVERAGE)
8. Write the four important types of roads in India. (EASY)
9. State the significance of air transport in India. (EASY)
10. Name the Green field airports of India. (EASY)

VI. Answer the following questions in 20 to 25 sentences: (Five Mark Questions)
1. Explain about the National Highways of India. (EASY)
2. Write about the development of Railway Transportation in India. * (EASY)
3. Explain the advantages and disadvantages of Pipelines. (EASY)
4. Write a short note on any two major ports on the west coast of India. *(AVERAGE)
5. Write a short note on any two major ports on the east coast of India. *(AVERAGE)
6. Explain Air Transportation of India. (AVERAGE)
7. What is satellite communication? List out the importance of Satellite communication. (DIFFICULT)
8. Discuss about Import and Export Trade of India. (AVERAGE)
9. Explain about composition and direction of India’s foreign trade. *(AVERAGE)

Instruction: Consider ‘*ʼ marked questions for 10 marks.

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CHAPTER-12
GEOGRAPHICAL PERSPECTIVES ON ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES- PLANNING
AND SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT
(ALLOTTED HOURS-07 Hours)
I. Answer the following multiple-choice questions. (One Mark Questions)
1. The element of Natural Environment. (EASY)
a) Agriculture b) Industry
c) Transport d) Landforms

2. The element of Cultural Environment. (EASY)
a) Landforms b) River system
c) Vegetation d) Industries
3. The negative impact of water pollution on human health. (EASY)
a) Deafness b) Respiratory problem
c) Nervous disorder d) Hepatitis

3. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the given codes. (AVERAGE)
List-I List-II
(Type of pollution) (Sources)
A. Air pollution 1. Siren
B. Water pollution 2. Combustion of fuels
C. Noise pollution 3. Pesticides
D. Land Degradation 4. Sewage water
Codes:
A B C D
a) 4 3 2 1
b) 1 4 3 2
c) 2 4 1 3
d) 3 1 4 2

4. The most polluted country in the World on the basis of CO2 emission. (EASY)
a) Japan b) China
c) Russia d) America

5. Intensity of noise for deafness. (AVERAGE)
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a) 40 Decibel b) 65 Decibels
c) 88 Decibel d) 110 Decibels

6. The “concept of Sustainable Development” introduced by. (AVERAGE)
a) Brundtland b) Dr. Mahbub-Ul-Haq
c) Prof. Amarthya Sen d) Charles Darwin

7. ‘Our Common Future’ report is related to. (AVERAGE)
a) Planning b) Regional Planning
c) Sustainable Development d) Hill Area Development Programme.

8. Eco-friendly fuel is. (EASY)
a) Coal b) Petroleum
c) Solar energy d) Fire wood
9. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer by using the given codes. (AVERAGE)
List-I List-II
(Type of Pollution) (Effect)
A. Air pollution 1. Hepatitis
B Water pollution 2. Respiratory problems
C. Noise pollution 3. Low Agricultural yield
D. Land degradation 4. Deafness
Codes:
A B C D
a) 4 3 2 1
b) 1 4 3 2
c) 2 1 4 3
d) 3 1 4 2

II. Fill in the blanks by using the appropriate one given in the bracket
(One Mark Questions)

(Kyoto Protocol, Delhi, Dharavi, Kolkata, Mumbai, Decibel)
1. _____________ Unit used to measure the intensity of Noise pollution. (EASY)
2. Yamuna River is most polluted by the ________ city. (AVERAGE)
3. Dharavi slum is in central part of the ___________ city. (AVERAGE)
4. Asia's largest slum is ________ (AVERAGE)
5. ___________ is an agreement related to control of Green House Gases. (AVERAGE)

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III. Match the following. (EASY) (One Mark Questions)
1. A B
a) Target Area Planning i) Environment Friendly Fuels
b) Our Common Future ii) Hill Area Development Programme

c) Target Group Planning iii) 4th Five Year Plan
d) Solar and Wind Energy iv) A Challenge to Sustainable Development
e) Population and Poverty v) Small Framers Development Programme
vi) Brundtland Report

IV. Answer the following questions in a word or a sentence. (One Mark Questions)
1. Define Environment. (EASY)
2. What do you mean by Environment pollution? (EASY)
3. What is Water pollution? (EASY)
4. What is Air pollution? (EASY)
5. What is Noise pollution? (EASY)
6. What are the Solid wastes? (EASY)
7. What do you mean by Land degradation? (EASY)
8. Define the Deforestation. (EASY)
9. What are Slums? (EASY)
10. State the meaning of word Planning. (EASY)

V. Answer the following questions in 2 to 3 sentences. (Two Mark Questions)
1. Name the two types of Environment. (EASY)
2. What are the Natural Environment factors? (EASY)
3. What are the Cultural Environment factors? (EASY)
4. What are the types of Environment pollution? (EASY)
5. What are the pollutants? (AVERAGE)
6. What are the causes of water pollution? (AVERAGE)
7. What are the effects of water pollution on Human health? (AVERAGE)
8. Name three states where Ganga River is most polluted. (AVERAGE)
9. What are the main causes of pollution of River Ganga(AVERAGE)
10. Name three states of India where Yamuna River is most polluted. (AVERAGE)
11. What are the main causes/sources of Air pollution? (EASY)
12. List out the causes for Noise pollution. (EASY)
13. What are the effects of Noise pollution on human health? (EASY)
14. Mention two sources of Solid wastes. (AVERAGE)
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15. List out the household or domestic Solid wastes? (EASY)
16. What are the harmful effects of solid wastes? (EASY)
17. What are the industrial Solid wastes? (AVERAGE)
18. What are the cause of Land degradation? (AVERAGE)
19. Name different types of degraded lands in India. (DIFFICULT)
20. Mention the four causes of deforestation. (EASY)
21. Mention the effects of deforestation. (EASY)
22. Mention the four measures of conservation of forest. (EASY)
23. What are the approaches of Planning. (EASY)
24. What is Regional Planning? (AVERAGE)
25. What is Target area planning? (AVERAGE)
26. What is Sustainable development? (EASY)
27. In which states Drought prone area Programme are implemented? (AVERAGE)
28. What are the strategies for Sustainable development? (AVERAGE)

VI. Answer the following questions in 20 to 25 sentences. (Five Mark Questions)
1. What are the sources of Water pollution? Explain the impacts of Water pollution. (EASY)
2. How solid wastes can be used for benefits? State any six problems of related to slums in Metropolitan
cities of India. (AVERAGE)
3. What is solid waste? Mention the sources of solid waste and its effects. (EASY)
4. Discuss the problems of people living in Urban slums of India. (EASY)
5. Explain in detail about urban waste disposal in India. (AVERAGE)
6. What do you mean by the Term planning? what are the two approaches to planning? Explain each of
them. (EASY)
7. What is Target area planning? Why it is necessary in India? (DIFFICULT)
8. Explain the concept of Sustainable development. (AVERAGE)
9. Discuss the challenges of Sustainable development. (AVERAGE)

*-*-*-*-*-*

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PART-C
PRACTICAL
GEOGRAPHY

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CHAPTER -13
REPRESENTATION OF GEOGRAPHICAL DATA
(ALLOTTED HOURS-14 Hours)
(Skill Based Questions)
I. SINGLE LINE GRAPH: (Five Mark Questions)
1. Construct a Simple Line Graph using the data given below. (DIFFICULT)
Trend of population growth in India1961-2011
Year 1961 1971 1981 1991 2001 2011
Population
439.23 548.16 683.33 843.93 1027.1 1210.19
(in millions)

2. Construct a Simple Line Graph using the data given below. (DIFFICULT)
India: production of Iron ore.
Production
Year
(in million tonnes)
1960-61 18.7
1970-71 34.3
1980-81 41.6
1990-91 54.9
2000-01 80.6
2010-11 136.4
3. Construct a Simple Line Graph using the following data related to the Production of Rice in selected
states of India (2012). (DIFFICULT)
States West Bengal Uttar Pradesh Andhra Pradesh Punjab Bihar Tamil Nadu
Production
14.24 13.44 12.35 10.11 6.90 6.61
(in percentage)

4. Construct a Simple Line Graph by using the following data. (DIFFICULT)
India: Density of population 1961-2011
Year 1961 1971 1981 1991 2001 2011
Density of Population
142 177 216 267 325 382
(per km sq)

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5. Construct a Simple Line Graph by using the following data. (DIFFICULT)
Literacy trend in India (in percentages) 1951-2011
Year 1951 1961 1971 1981 1991 2001 2011
Literacy (%) 18.33 28.31 34.45 43.56 52.21 65.38 74.40

6. Construct a Simple Line Graph by using the following data. (DIFFICULT)
India: Bauxite production 1961-2011
Year 1961 1971 1981 1991 2001 2011
Production
476 1517 1955 4984 7993 15150
(millions of tonnes)

7. Construct a Simple Line Graph by using the following data. (DIFFICULT)
India: Sugar production of selected states 2011-12
Production
States
(in lakh tons)
Maharashtra 89.8
Uttar Pradesh 69.7
Karnataka 38.7
Tamil Nadu 23.8
Andhra Pradesh 11.4
Gujarat 10.0

8. Construct a simple line graph with the help of following data. (DIFFICULT)
Karnataka: Trends in the literacy rate
Year Literacy rate (percentage)
1961 29.80
1971 36.83
1981 46.21
1991 56.04
2001 66.60
2011 75.36
2021 77.70

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9. Construct a simple line graph with the help of following data. (DIFFICULT)
India: Trend of Male average life expectancy
Year Average life expectancy (in years)
1961 32.5
1971 41.9
1981 52.2
1991 53.6
2001 61.6
2011 65.8
2021 65.7
10. Construct a simple line graph with the help of following data. (DIFFICULT)
India: Trend of Rural Population

YEARS Rural Population (in %)
1951 82.4.
1961 81.7
1971 79.8
1981 76.3
1991 74.3
2001 72.2
2011 76.4

II. SIMPLE BAR GRAPH: (Five Mark Questions)
1. Construct a Simple Bar Graph by using the following data. (DIFFICULT)
Continents wise Population density-2011
Continents Asia Europe Africa North America South America Oceania
Population density
86.7 70 32.7 72.9 21.4 4.25
(per sq km)

2. Construct a Simple Bar Graph by using the following data. (DIFFICULT)
India: Sugarcane production 2011-12
Production
States
(in million tonnes)
Uttar Pradesh 128.82
Maharashtra 81.86
Tamil Nadu 39.28
Karnataka 38.81
Andhra Pradesh 16.73
Gujarat 14.18

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3. Construct a Simple Bar Graph by using the following data. (DIFFICULT)
India: Gold production (1981-2013)
Year 1981 1991 2001 2011 2012 2013
Production
2495 2108 2105 2615 2239 1588
(in Kg)

4. Construct a Simple Bar graph by using the following data. (DIFFICULT)
India: production of Wheat in Selected 2011-12
States Uttar Pradesh Punjab Haryana Madhya Pradesh Rajasthan Bihar

Production
30.29 17.21 12.68 10.58 9.32 4.79
(in million tonnes)

5. Construct a Simple Bar Graph by using the following data related to Male Literacy Trend in
India. (DIFFICULT)
Year 1951 1961 1971 1981 1991 2001 2011
Literacy (%) 27.16 40.40 45.95 56.27 64.13 75.85 82.10

6. Construct a Simple Bar Graph by using the following data. (DIFFICULT)
India: Manganese Production 1961-2011
Production
Year
(in lakh Tonnes)
1961 14.05
1971 18.41
1981 15.32
1991 13.88
2001 15.95
2011 23.22
7. Construct a Simple Bar Graph by using the following data. (DIFFICULT)
India: Length of National Highways (in km)
Length of National
Year
Highways (in km)
1971 23,838
1981 31,671
1991 33,650
2001 57,737
2011 70,934

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8. Construct a ‘Simple Bar Graph’ with the help of following data. (DIFFICULT)
Karnataka: Selected District wise population – 2021
District name Population (in lakhs)
Belgaum 54.4
Mysuru 34.2
Tumakuru 30.5
Gulbarga 29.2
Bellary 27.9
Vijayapura 24.8
9. Construct a ‘Simple Bar Graph’ with the help of following data. (DIFFICULT)
India: production of coal - 2012
States Production (in million tons)
Chhattisgarh 113.9
Jharkhand 109.6
Odisha 105.5
Madya Pradesh 71.1
Andhra Pradesh 52.2
Maharashtra 39.2

10. Construct a Simple Bar Graph by using the following data related to Male Literacy Trend in
Karnataka. (DIFFICULT)
Years 1961 1971 1981 1991 2001 2011
Literacy (in 36.2 41.6 48.8 67.3 76.1 82.9
%)

11. Construct a ‘Simple Bar Graph’ with the help of following data. (DIFFICULT)

Statewise Yield of Sugarcane in India: 2011-12

Sugarcane Yield
States
(Tonne/Hectares)

Tamilnadu 103

Karnataka 90

Andhra Pradesh 82

Maharashtra 80

Uttara Pradesh 60

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3. PIE / WHEEL DIAGRAM: (Ten Marks Questions)
1. Construct a Pie diagram by using the following data. (DIFFICULT)
India: Types of railway gauges.
Types Percentage
Broad gauge 86.8
Metre gauge 9.8
Narrow gauge 3.4
Total 100

2. Construct a Pie diagram by using the following data. (DIFFICULT)
India: Area of selected Monsoon crops-2012
Area
Crops
(in lakh hectares)
Food grains 35.5
Pulses 16.4
Oil seeds 12.0
Commercial crops 11.0
Other crops 5.1
Total 80

3. Construct a Pie diagram by using the following data. (DIFFICULT)
India: Sources of Irrigation - 2011
Irrigation Sources Area (Percentage)
Well 60.7
Canal 31.0
Tank 3.2
Other 5.1
Total 100

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4. Construct a Pie diagram by using the following data. (DIFFICULT)
India: Coffee cultivating area - 2011
States Area (in percent)
Karnataka 56.6
Kerala 21.6
Tamil Nadu 7.8
Other 14.0

5. Construct a Pie diagram by using the following data. (DIFFICULT)
India: Tea production 2011-12
States Production (in percent)
Assam 53.06
West Bengal 24.57
Tamil Nadu 14.88
Other 7.49

6. Construct a Pie diagram by using the following data. (DIFFICULT)
India: Area of Land use pattern 2008-09

Land use pattern Area (in percent)

Net sown area 46.2

Forest area 22.8

Land not available for cultivation 14.2

Uncultivated land 8.7

Fallow land 8.1

7. Construct a PIE DIAGRAM by using the following data. (DIFFICULT)
Karnataka: source of Irrigation - 2011
Sources Irrigation (percentage)
Well, /Tube well 48.3
Canal 31.7
Tank 6.6
Others 13.4

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IV. Answer the following questions in 20 to 25 sentences: (Five Mark Questions)
1. Explain the sources of primary data. (DIFFICULT)
2. Describe the sources of secondary data. (DIFFICULT)
3. Distinguish between Primary and Secondary data. (DIFFICULT)
4. Explain the components of GIS. (DIFFICULT)
5. Systematically analyze the functions of GIS. (DIFFICULT)
6. What is GPS? Explain segments of GPS. (DIFFICULT)
7. Explain the applications of GPS. (DIFFICULT)
8. What is Remote Sensing Technology? Explain the elements of Remote Sensing Technology.
(DIFFICULT)
9. Write in detail about the importance of Remote Sensing Technology. (DIFFICULT)

*-*-*-*-*-*

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Department of School Education (Pre University), 18th Cross, Malleshwaram Bengaluru-560012;
and
Karnataka School Examination and Assessment Board, 6th Cross, Malleshwaram Bengaluru-
560003
2025 – 26 II PUC GEOGRAPHY QUESTION BANK DEVELOPMENT COMMITTEE
SI.
NAME DESIGNATION NAME ADDRESS OF THE COLLEGE
NO.
GOVT PU COLLEGE (AS0110),
SENIOR
SHIVAMADAIAH NEW VANIVILAS, MINARVA CIRCLE,
GEOGRAPHY
1. COORDINATOR V.V. PURAM, BENGALURU URBAN
LECTURER
Mob: 9686556246 SOUTH DIST-560004
Email: [email protected]
GOVT M.G.S.V. PU COLLEGE (NC0019)
MADESHA M SENIOR
KOLLEGAL,
2. COMMITTEE MEMBER GEOGRAPHY
CHAMARAJANAGARA DIST-571440
Mob: 9986373604 LECTURER
Email: [email protected]
GOVT PU COLLEGE (BR0083)
RAMAKRISHNAIAH K KODAMBALLI, CHANNAPATTANA TQ,
GEOGRAPHY
3. COMMITTEE MEMBER BENGALURU SOUTH DIST
LECTURER
Mob: 9844835078 (RAMANAGARA) – 562138
Email: [email protected]

MAHARAJA GOVT PU
Dr. DIVAKARA SENIOR
COLLEGE(NN0024) J.L.B ROAD,
4 COMMITTEE MEMBER GEOGRAPHY
MYSURU - 570005
Mob: 9901599045 LECTURER
Email: [email protected]

PRATHIBA PU COLLEGE (LL0055)
KUBERAPPA SENIOR
ARASIKERE TOWN,
5 COMMITTEE MEMBER GEOGRAPHY
HASSAN DIST - 573103
Mob: 9844622253 LECTURER
Email: [email protected]
GOVT PU COLLEGE (DC0156)
PRASHANT BADIGER
GEOGRAPHY KOKATANUR, ATHANI TQ,
6 ASSISTANT MEMBER
LECTURER EDUCATION DIST CHIKKODI – 591230
Mob: 7975809642
Email: [email protected]
DEEPAK KUMARA GOVT PU COLLEGE FOR GIRLS
GEOGRAPHY
TECHNICAL (NN0049), KRISHNARAJANAGARA,
7 LECTURER
ASSISTANCE MYSORE DIST - 571602
Mob:7411061333 Email: [email protected]

82
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ೕಯ ಅ ಯ ಅಂಕಗಳ ಗ
ಸಮಯ: 3 ಗ 24- ೕಳ ಸ ಗ ಷ ಅಂಕಗ : 80

ಗ ಪ ದ
ಗ ಪ ದ ಟ
ಅ ಯಗ ಅ ಯಗಳ ಸ ೕಧ
ಅಂಕಗ
ಅವ ಗ

ಗ-ಎ ನವ ೕಳ ಸ ದ ಂಶಗ
1 ನವ ೕಳ ಸ ಒಂ ಅಧ ಯನ 05 05 6-9

2 ಪ ಚದ ಜನ 10 10 10-16

3 ನವನ ಆ ಕಚ ವ ಗ 05 05 17-21

4 ಮ ಪಕ 06 06 22-26

5 ನವನ ವಸ ಗ 03 03 27-31

ಗ- ರತದ ನವ ಮ ಆ ಕ
ೕಳ ಸ
6 ರತದ ಜನ 12 11 33-39

7 ರತದ ಮ ಜಲ ಪ ಲಗ 10 09 40-46

8 ವವ ಯ 12 11 47-55

9 ಖ ಜಮ ಶ ಪ ಲಗ 14 13 56-63

10 ಗ 12 11 64-70

11 , ಪಕ ಮ ರ 10 10 71-76

ಪ ಸರ ಸಮ ಗ , ೕಜ , ರ
12 07 07 77-80
ಅ - ೕ ಕ ೕನ

ಗ- ೕ ಕ ೕಳ ಸ
14 20 82-90
13 ೕ ಕದ ಂಶಗಳ ಪ

TOTAL 120 121 90

ಪ ೕ ತ ಸ ಸದಸ ರ ವರ --- --- 91

SUBJECT: 24- GEOGRAPHY 4

Page 82

ಗ-ಎ
ನವ ೕಳ ಸ ದ
ಂಶಗ

SUBJECT: 24- GEOGRAPHY 5

Page 83

ಅ ಯ-1
ನವ ೕಳ ಸ
( ಗ ಪ ದ ಅವ - 05 ಗ )

I. ಳ ನಬ ಆ ಪ ಗ ಉತ : (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ೖ ಒಳ ಂ ವ ನವ ತ ಲ ಣಗ .( ಲಭ)
a) ಮ ಮ ಣ b) ಗ ಮ ಖ ಜಗ
c) ಜಲ ಗಗ ಮ ಕ ಸಸ ವಗ d) ಸೃ ಮ ಸ ಜ
2. ‘ಓ ಜ ಆ ೕ ೕ ’ ಗ ಂಥ ಬ ದವ .( ಲಭ)
a) b) ೕ
c) ಯ d) ಎ ಂಪ
3. ‘ ನವ ೕಳ ಸ ’ ಎಂಬ ಪದವ ಪ ಥಮ ಬಳ ದವ .( ಲಭ)
a) ೕ b) ಎ ವ ಂ ಟ
c) ಯ d)
4. ನವ ೕಳ ಸ ದ ಮಹ. ( ಲಭ)
a) ಯ b)
c) ೕ d) ಎ ವ ಂ ಟ
5. ಳ ನ ಸ ದ ಂ ? (ಕ ಣ)
a) ೕ -ಓ ಜ ಆ ೕ ೕ
b) - ಂ ರ ವ ಪ ಸರ ದ
c) ಯ - ಆಂಥ ೕ ಗ
d) - ಧ ದ
6. ಪ -I ಪ -II ಂ ಂ ಮ ವ ತಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ
ಸ ದ
ಉತ ರವ ಆ . (ಕ ಣ)
ಪ -I ಪ -II
( ಶಗ ) ( ೕಳ ಸ )
A. ಎ ಎ 1 - - -
B. ಇಂ ಂ 2 ೕ ಮ ಂದ
C. 3 ಯ
D. ಆ ೕ 4ಎ . ಂಪ

SUBJECT: 24- GEOGRAPHY 6

Page 84

ತಗ

A B C D
a) 4 2 1 3
b) 3 2 1 4
c) 1 3 2 4
d) 4 3 2 1

7. ಳ ನ ೕ ಯ ಪ ಗ ಮ ಸ ದಆ ಯ ಆ . (ಕ ಣ)
i. ಜಮ ಥ - ಪ ಸರಪ ತ ದ
ii. ಂ ಥ- ಧ ದ
iii. ಆ ೕ ದ ೕಳ ಸ – ಂ ರ ವ ಪ ಸರ ದ
a) i ಮ ii ತ ಸ b) i ಮ iii ತ ಸ
c) ii ಮ iii ತ ಸ d) i, ii ಮ iii ಸ
8. ನವ ೕಳ ಸ ”ಅ ರ ಮ ಅ ಂತ ನವನ ತರ
ಬದ ವ ಯ ಧದ ಅಧ ಯನ ”. ಈ ಯ ೕ ದವ .( ರಣ)
a) ಎ ಂಪ b) - - -
c) ಎ ವ ಂ ಟ d) ೕ
9. ನವ ೕಳ ಸ ದ ಗ ಮ ಧ ನ ಕ ನಗ
ಳ ನ ೕ ಗಳ ಪ ಗ . (ಕ ಣ)
i. ಂಸ ೃ ಕ ೕಳ ಸ – ನವ ಸ ,ಸ ಜ ಸ ,ಇ ಸ
ii. ನಗರ ೕಳ ಸ – ನಗರ ಅಧ ಯನ, ನಗರ ೕಜ
iii. ಆ ಕ ೕಳ ಸ –ಆ ಕಚ ವ ಗ ಮ ಕ ಅಧ ಯನ.
ನ ವ ೕ ಗ ಸ ?
a) i ಮ ii ತ ಸ
b) ii ಮ iii ತ ಸ
c) i ಮ iii ತ ಸ
d) i, ii, ಮ iii ಸ
10. : (A)1960ರ ತರದ ಅವ ಯ ನವ ೕಳ ಸ ದ ಅಧ ಯನದ
ದ ಸ ಯ ’ಪ ತಕ ಂ ’ಎ ವ .
ರಣ: (R) ಈ ಅವ ಯ ನವ ೕಳ ಸ ದ ಅಧ ಯನದ ತಕಮ
ಪ ತಕ ನಗಳ ಬಳ . (ಕ ಣ)

SUBJECT: 24- GEOGRAPHY 7

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ತಗ :
a) A ತ ಸ b) R ತ ಸ
c) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ d) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ ಲ

II. ಆವರಣದ ೕ ವ ಕ ದ ಪದವ ಆ ಟ ಸ ಳಗಳ ಂ .
(ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
( ನವ, ಕ ೕಳ ಸ , 1859, ಯ , ನವ ೕಳ ಸ , 1882)
1. ೕಳ ನ ಂಬ ಲ ಂ ಯಇ ೕ ನ ____________ ( ಲಭ)
2. ________ ರ ‘ಓ ೕ ಆ ೕ ’ ಸ ಕವ ಪಕ ದ .( ರಣ)
3. ೕ _________ ರ ’ಆಂಥ ೕ ಗ ’ ಸ ಕವ ಬ ದ .( ರಣ)
4. ’ಆಂಥ ೕ’ ಪದದ ಅಥ ________ ( ರಣ)
5. ’ನ ೕಕ ದ ಪ ಸರಪ ತ ದ’ ಪ ಕಲ ಯ ಪ ಚ ದವ ________( ರಣ)

III. ಂ ಬ .( ಲಭ) (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
ಎ
a. ಎ ವತ ಂ ಟ i) ಇಂ ೕಂ ನ ಕ
b. ii) ಆ ೕ ದ ೕಳ ಸ
c. - - - iii) ಜಮ ಯ ೕಳ ಸ
d. ೕ iv) ಅ ದ ೕಳ ಸ
e. ಯ v) ರತದ ೕಳ ಸ
vi. ಂ ೕಳ ಸ

IV. ಳ ನಪ ಗ ಒಂ ಪದ ಅಥ ಒಂ ಕದ ಉತ . (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )

1. ಂಸ ೃ ಕ ಪ ಸರ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
2. ನವ ೕಳ ಸ ವ ಅ .( ಲಭ)
3. ’ ನವ ೕಳ ಸ ದ ಮಹ’ ?( ಲಭ)
4. ‘ಆಂಥ ೕ ೕಗ ’ ಸ ಕವ ಬ ದವ ?( ರಣ)
5. ನವ ೕಳ ಸ ದ ದ ಒಂ ಬ .( ರಣ)

V. ಳ ನಪ ಗ 2 ಂದ 3 ಕ ಗಳ ಉತ . (ಎರ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )

1. ಯ ೖಯ ವ ಸ ಕ ಲ ಣಗಳ .( ಲಭ)
2. ಯ ೖಯ ವ ಂಸ ೃ ಕ ಲ ಣಗ ?( ಲಭ)
3. ೕಳ ಸ ದ ಎರ ಪ ಖ ಗಗಳ ಸ .( ಲಭ)
SUBJECT: 24- GEOGRAPHY 8

Page 86

4. ನವ ಮ ಪ ಸರ ಧದ ಂತ ಥಗಳ ಸ .( ರಣ)
5. ಪ ಸರಪ ತ ದ ಎಂದ ?( ರಣ)
6. ಧ ದ ಎಂದ ?( ರಣ)
7. ಪ ಸರಪ ತ ದಮ ಧ ದಗಳ ನ ನವ ಸವ ಬ .( ರಣ)
8. ನ ೕಕ ದ ಪ ಸರಪ ತ ದ ಎಂದ ?( ರಣ)
9. ಪ ದ ನವ ೕಳ ಸ ರ ಸ .( ರಣ)
10. ಆ ಕ ೕಳ ಸ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
11. ಜ ೕಯ ೕಳ ಸ ದಪ ಖ ಂಶಗಳ ಉ ೕ .( ರಣ)
12. ನಗರ ೕಳ ಸ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
13. ವಸ ೕಳ ಸ ದಪ ಖ ಂಶಗಳ ಉ ೕ .( ರಣ)
14. ಪ ತಕ ಂ ಎಂದ ? (ಕ ಣ)

VI. ಳ ನಪ ಗ 20 ಂದ 25 ಕ ಗಳ ಉತ . (ಐ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )

1. ನವ ೕಳ ಸ ದ ಅಥ ಮ ೕತ ದ ಬ ವ .( ಲಭ)
2. ನವ ೕಳ ಸ ದ ಗಳ ಪ ,ಅ ಗಳ ವ .( ಲಭ)
3. ನವ-ಪ ಸರ ಧ ನವ ೕಳ ಸ ,ಸ ೕಕ . (ಕ ಣ)

4. ನವ ೕಳ ಸ ದ ಮ ಖ ಯ ವ .( ರಣ)
5. ಬದ ವ ನವ ೕಳ ಸ ದ ಅಧ ಯನ ನಗಳ ಬ ಪ ಬ .
( ರಣ)

*-*-*-*-*-*-*

SUBJECT: 24- GEOGRAPHY 9

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ಅ ಯ-2
ಪ ಚದ ಜನ
( ಗ ಪ ದ ಅವ - 10 ಗ )
I. ಳ ನಬ ಆ ಪ ಗ ಉತ : (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ’ಜನ ೕಳ ಸ ’ ಗ ಂಥವ ರ ದವ .( ಲಭ)
a) . . b) ಅಮತ .
c) d) ಎ . ಂಪ
2. ’ ೕಗ ’(Demography) ಎಂಬ ಪದ ಈ ಂದ ಬಳ .( ಲಭ)
a) b) ಇಂ
c) ೕ d) ಂ
3. 2012ರ ಶ ಯ ಜನ ಅಂ ಅಂಶಗಳ ಪ ರಪ ಚದ ಒ ಜನ .( ಲಭ)
a) 6 ಯ b) 7 ಯ
c) 8 ಯ d) 9 ಯ
4. 2012ರ ಶ ಯ ಜನ ಅಂ ಅಂಶಗಳ ಪ ರಪ ಚದ ಸ ಸ ಜನನ ಪ ಣ
( ಲಭ)
a) 16.14 b) 17.14
c) 18.14 d) 19.14
5. ಪ ಚದ ಜನ ಳ ನ ಗಳ ಪ ಗ . (ಕ ಣ)
i. . . ಯವರ ಪ ರಏ ಡದ ಬ ಗಕ ಜನ ಂದ ,
ಲ ಂ ಪ ಶಗ ತ ಅ ಕ ಜನ ಂ .
ii. ಪ ಚದ ಒ ಜನ ಯ 2/3 ರ ಜನ ವಲ ಕ 7ರ ಗದ
ಬ ತ .
iii. ಪ ಚದ 2/3 ರ ಜನ ಸ ದ ದ ದಡ ಂದ 500 . ೕ ಒಳಗ ಪ ಶದ
ಬ ತ .
ನ ವ ಗ ಸ ?
a) i ತ ಸ b) i ಮ ii ತ ಸ
c) ii ಮ iii ತ ಸ d) i, ii ಮ iii ಸ
6. : (A) ಪ ಚದ ಏ ಡ ಅ ಕ ಜನ ಯ ಂ . (ಕ ಣ)
ರಣ: (R) ಪ ಚದ ಅತ ಂತ ಜನಭ ತ ಷ ಗ ದ ೕ , ರತ, ಇಂ ೕ ,
ನ, ಂಗ ಶ, ದ ದ ಷ ಗ ಏ ಡದ .

SUBJECT: 24- GEOGRAPHY 10

Page 88

ತಗ :
a) A ತ ಸ b) R ತ ಸ
c) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ d) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ ಇಲ
7. ಪ ಚದ ಅ ೕಕ ಜನ ಂ ವ ಡ. ( ಲಭ)
a) ಆ ಕ b) ಆ ೕ ಯ
c) ೕ d) ಏ
8. 2012ರ ಶ ಯ ಜನ ಅಂ ಅಂಶಗಳ ಪ ರಪ ಚದ ಸ ಸ ಂ ತ
( ಲಭ)
a) 984 b) 823
c) 894 d) 832

9. ಪ -I ಪ –II ಂ ಂ ಮ ವ ತಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ
ಸ ದ ಉತ ರವ ಆ . (ಕ ಣ)
ಪ I ಪ II
( ಶಗ ) (ಪ ಣ)
A. ಜ 1. ಅ ಕ ಮರಣ ಪ ಣ
B. ಜ 2. ಅ ಕ ಜನನ ಪ ಣ
C. ರ ೕ 3. ಅ ಕ ರ ಪ ಣ
D. 4. ಕ ಜನನ ಪ ಣ

ತಗ : A B C D

a) 4 3 2 1
b) 4 1 2 3
c) 1 3 4 2
d) 2 4 1 3

10. : (A) ಪ ಚದ ಜನ ೕಘ ಗ ಯ ಳವ . (ಕ ಣ)
ರಣ: (R) ಅ , ಮ ತ ನದ ಳವ , ಂ ಕ ೕಗಗಳ
ಹ ೕ ದ ೕಯ ಲಭ ಗಳ ಅ ಂದ ಜನನ ದರ ಅ ಕ ,
ಮರಣ ದರದ ೕ ಇ .
ತಗ :
a) A ತ ಸ b) R ತ ಸ
c) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ d) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ ಇಲ .

SUBJECT: 24- GEOGRAPHY 11

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11. ಪ ಚದ ಅ ಕ ಜನ ಂದ ಯಪ ಶ. ( ಲಭ)
a) ಆ ೕ b) ಮ
c) ವಪ ಶ d) ಏ ಡದ ದ ಣ ಗ
12. ಳ ನ ಗಳ ಪ ಗ . (ಕ ಣ)
i) ಏ ಡದ ವ ,ದ ಣಮ ಆ ೕಯ ಗದ ಅ ಕ ಜನ ಂದ ಬ ತ .
ii) ಪ ಚದ ಉಷ ವಲಯದ ಗದ , ವ ತ ಸಮ ೕ ೕಷ ವಲಯದ ಪ ಶಗ ದ
ಅ ಂ ,ಆ ದಆ ೕಯ ಗಮ ಆ ೕ ದ ವ ಗಗಳ ಮಧ ಮ
ಜನ ಂದ ಬ ತ .
iii) ಉತ ರ ದ ಣ ವಪ ಶದ ಕ ಜನ ಂದ ಬ ತ .
ನ ವ ಗ ಸ ?
a) i ಮ ii ತ ಸ b) i ಮ iii ತ ಸ
c) ii ಮ iii ತ ಸ d) i, ii ಮ iii ಸ

13. ಪ -I ಪ –II ಂ ಂ ಮ ವ ತಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ
ಸ ದ ಉತ ರವ ಆ . (ಕ ಣ)
ಪ -I ಪ -II
( ಡಗ ) (ಜನ ಕಡಗಳ )
A. ಏ 1. 13
B. ಆ ಕ 2. 12
C. ೕ 3. 5
D. ಉತ ರ ಅ 4. 61

ತಗ : A B C D

a) 4 3 2 1
b) 4 1 2 3
c) 1 3 4 2
d) 2 4 1 3

SUBJECT: 24- GEOGRAPHY 12

Page 90

14. ಜನ ಆವತ ಪ -I ಪ –II ಂ ಂ ಮ
ವ ತಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ ಸ ದ ಉತ ರವ ಆ .
(ಕ ಣ)
ಪ -I ಪ -II
( ತಗ ) (ಲ ಣಗ )
A. ದಲ ತ 1 ರ ಜನ ತ
B. ಎರಡ ತ 2 ರ ವ ಅಂ ಮ ತ
C. ರ ತ 3 ಜನ ಯ ಆ ಭದ ತ
D. ಲ ತ 4ಕ ರ ಯ ತ

ತಗ :
A B C D
a) 3 2 4 1
b) 1 3 2 4
c) 4 3 2 1
d) 2 3 1 4
15. 2012ರ ಶ ಯ ಜನ ಅಂ ಅಂಶಗಳ ಪ ರಪ ಚದ ಸ ಸ ನಗರ ಜನ .
( ಲಭ)
a) 49.5% b) 48.5%
c) 50.5% d) 51.5%
16. ’ ನವ ಅ ಪ ಕಲ ಯ ಪ ಚ ದವ .( ಲಭ)
a) .ಅಮತ b) . ಹ
c) . . d) ಎ ಂಪ

II. ಆವರಣದ ೕ ವ ಕ ದ ಪದವ ಆ ಟ ಸ ಳಗಳ ಂ :
(ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
( -11, ಕ , 19, ಜನವ -11, ಏ , 8.37)
1. ಪ ಚದ ____________ ಡ ಅ ಕ ಜನ ಳವ ಯ ಂ . ( ರಣ)
2. 2011ರ ವರ ಯ ಪ ರ ಶದಸ ಸ ಜನ ಂದ _________ ( ರಣ)
3. 2011ರ ವರ ಯ ಪ ರಪ ಚದ ಸ ಸ ಮರಣ ಪ ಣ _______ ( ರಣ)
4. ಪ ಚದ ಕ ಜನ ಂ ವ ಶ ______________ ( ಲಭ)

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5. ಅಂತ ೕಯ ಜನ ನವ ಪ ವಷ _________
ಆಚ ಸ . ( ರಣ)

III. ಂ ಬ :( ಲಭ) (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. A B
a. ಅ ಕ ಂ ತ i) ಅಂ ಕ
b. ಕ ಂ ತ ii) ಜ
c. ಅ ಕ ರ ಪ ಣ iii)
d. ಅ ಕ ಜನನ ಪ ಣ iv)
e. ಶ ತ ಜನರ ತ ಡ v)
vi) .ಎ.ಇ

IV. ಳ ನಪ ಗ ಒಂ ಪದ ಅಥ ಒಂ ಕದ ಉತ :
(ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ಜನ ೕಳ ಸ ದ ಪಕ ?( ಲಭ)
2. ಪ ಚದ ಜನ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
3. ಜನ ೕಳ ಸ ವ ಅ .( ಲಭ)
4. ಜನ ಳವ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
5. ಜನ ಕ ಳವ ಎಂದ ?( ರಣ)
6. ಜನ ೕಟ ಎಂದ ?( ರಣ)
7. 2012ರ ಪ ರಪ ಚದ ಜನ ಳವ ದರ .( ರಣ)
8. ಪ ಚದ ಅ ಕ ಜನ ಳವ ದರ ಂ ದ ಡವ ಸ .( ಲಭ)
9. ಜನನ ಪ ಣ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
10. ಮರಣ ಪ ಣ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
11. ಪ ಚದ ಅ ಕ ಜನನ ಪ ಣ ಂ ದ ಷ ವ ಸ .( ಲಭ)
12. ಪ ಚದ ಕ ಜನನ ಪ ಣ ಂ ದ ಷ ವ ಸ .( ಲಭ)
13. ಪ ಚದ ಅ ಕ ಮರಣ ಪ ಣ ಂ ದ ಷ ವ ಸ .( ಲಭ)
14. ವಲ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
15. ಆಂತ ಕ ವಲ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
16. ಅಂತ ೕಯ ವಲ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
17. ಜನ ಂದ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
18. ಜನ ಆವತ ದ ದ ಯ ವ ದವ ?( ಲಭ)
19. ಂ ತ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
20. ಪ ಚದ ಅ ಕ ಂ ತ ಂ ದ ಷ ?( ಲಭ)

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21. ರ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
22. ಪ ಚದ ಕಡ ನಗರ ಜನ ಎ ?( ಲಭ)
23. ೕ ತ ೕ ವ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
24. ಪ ಚದ ಸ ಸ ೕ ತ ೕ ವ .( ಲಭ)
25. ಎ . .ಐ (HDI) - ಸ . (ಕ ಣ)
26. ಎ . .ಐ (HPI) - ಸ (ಕ ಣ)

V. ಳ ನಪ ಗ 2 ಂದ 3 ಕ ಗಳ ಉತ : (ಎರ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ಕ ಜನ ಳವ ವ ಳ ಜನ ಳವ ಗಳ ವ ಸಗಳ
.( ರಣ)
2. ಜನ ಳವ ಯ ಘಟಕಗಳ ಬ .( ರಣ)
3. ಕ ಜನ ಳವ ದರ ಬ ವ ಷ ಗಳ ಸ .
( ಲಭ)
4. ೕಘ ಜನ ಳವ ರಣಗಳ ಪ .( ಲಭ)
5. ಜನ ಳವ ಯಪ ಮಗಳ ಪ .( ಲಭ)
6. ವಲ ರಣಗಳ .( ಲಭ)
7. ವಲ ಯ ಪ ರಗಳ ಬ .( ಲಭ)
8. ಜನ ಯ ಪ ವ ೕ ವ ಅಂಶಗಳ ಪ .( ರಣ)
9. ಪ ಚದ ಅ ಕ ಜನ ಂದ ಯಪ ಶಗಳ .( ರಣ)
10. ಪ ಚದ ಕ ಜನ ಂದ ಯಪ ಶಗಳ .( ರಣ)
11. ಜನ ತ ಣ ಕ ಮಗಳ .( ಲಭ)
12. ಪ ಚದ ಅ ಕ ರ ಪ ಣ ಂ ದ ಷ ಗಳ ಸ .( ರಣ)
13. ಅವ ತ ಜನರ ಪ ಣ ಎಂದ ?( ರಣ)
14. ಪ ಜನ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
15. ಜನ ಪ ದ ಸಮ ಗಳ ಬ .( ರಣ)
16. ಜನ ಂಶದ ಅಥ ಬ . (ಕ ಣ)
17. ನವ ಅ ಯ ಪ ಕಲ ಗಳ ಪ . (ಕ ಣ)
18. ನವ ಅ ಚ ಂಕದ ಪ ಖ ಘಟಕಗಳ .( ರಣ)

VI. ಳ ನಪ ಗ 20 ಂದ 25 ಕ ಗಳ ಉತ : (ಐ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ಪ ಚದ ಜನ ಳವ ಯ ವ .( ರಣ)
2. ಪ ಚದ ಜನ ಯಬ ಚ .( ಲಭ)

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3. ಪ ಚದ ಂ ತ ವ ೕ ನ ರಚ ಗಳ ಪ
ಬ .( ರಣ)
4. ಪ ಚದ ಜನ ೕಜ ಯ ಪ ವ .( ರಣ)
5. ಜನ ಆವತ ಎಂದ ? ಜನ ಆವತ ದ ತಗಳ ವ .( ರಣ)
6. ನವ ಅ ಎಂದ ? ನವ ಅ ಯ ಪನವ ಚ .
( ರಣ)
*-*-*-*-*-*-*

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ಅ ಯ-3
ನವನ ಆ ಕಚ ವ ಗ
( ಗ ಪ ದ ಅವ - 05 ಗ )
I. ಳ ನಬ ಆ ಪ ಗ ಉತ . (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ಗ ಈ ಂ ನಆ ಕಚ ವ ಗ ತ .( ಲಭ)
a) ಥ ಕಆ ಕಚ ವ ಗ b) ೕಯ ಆ ಕಚ ವ ಗ
c) ೕಯ ಆ ಕಚ ವ ಗ d) ಚ ಥ ಆ ಕಚ ವ ಗ
2. ನವನ ಅ ೕನ ಆ ಕಉ ೕಗ. ( ಲಭ)
a) ರ b)
c) d)
3. ಸ ದ ೕ ಯ .( ರಣ)
a) ಥ ಕಉ ೕಗ -
b) ೕಯ ಉ ೕಗ - ಮ ೕ ಜ
c) ೕಯ ಉ ೕಗ - ಅಂ
d) ಚ ಥ ಉ ೕಗ - ಗ
4. ಪ -I ಪ -II ಂ ಂ ಮ ವ ತಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ
ಸ ದ ಉತ ರವ ಆ . (ಕ ಣ)
ಪ -I ಪ -II

( ಡಕ ಗ ) (ಪ ಶಗ )

A. ಮ 1 ೕ ಯ

B. 2 ಮಧ ಏ

C. ೕ 3 ವ ಆ

D. 4 ಸಹ ಮ

ತಗ A B C D
a) 2 1 4 3

b) 3 4 2 1

c) 2 3 1 4

d) 4 2 3 1

5. ವ ವ ಯಆ ತ ಉತ ಮ ಉ ಹರ . ( ಲಭ)
a) ಕ ಣಮ ಉ ನ b) ಅ
c) ತ d) ಸಕ

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6. ರತದ ಈ ನ ಜ ಗಳ ಯ ವಸ ಂತರ ಯ ಪದ .( ಲಭ)
a) ೕಮ b) ೕ
c) ೕ d) ಂ
7. ಳ ನ ಗಳ ಪ ಗ . (ಕ ಣ)
i. ಡಕ ಜನ ಉ ಮ ವಸ ಗಳ ತ .
ii. ಅ ದ ಂದ ೕ ಗಳ ತ ಲ ತ .
iii. ಸಮ ೕ ೕಷ ವಲಯದ ಒಂ ಯ ಮರಗ ಬ ತ .
iv. ಂ ಎ ಆ ಕ ಪದ ಯ ಒಂ .
ನ ವ ಗ ಸ ?
a) i ಮ iv ತ ಸ b) ii ಮ iii ತ ಸ
c) i, ii ಮ iii ತ ಸ d) ii, iii ಮ iv ತ ಸ
8. ಚ ೕ ಯಆ ಕಉ ೕಗ ಉತ ಮ ಉ ಹರ . ( ಲಭ)
a) ಮನ ಜ b)
c) d) ಂ ಂ
9. ಪ -I ಪ -II ಂ ಂ ಮ ವ ತಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ
ಸ ದ ಉತ ರವ ಆ . (ಕ ಣ)
ಪ -I ಪ -II
(ಪ ಶಗ ) ( ವ )
A. ಉತ ರ ಅ 1.
B. ದ ಣ ಅ 2.
C. ಏ 3. ೖ ೕ
D. ಆ ೕ ಯ 4.
ತಗ A B C D
a) 2 3 4 1
b) 3 1 4 2
c) 1 4 2 3
d) 4 2 3 1
10. (A): ಉಷ ವಲಯದ ಮರ ಕ ವ ಉದ ಮ ಅ ಲ . (ಕ ಣ)
ರಣ (R): ಧ ಯ ಮರಗ ಶ ಣ ಂದ ೕಗ ನಗ .
ತಗ :
a) A ತ ಸ b) R ತ ಸ
c) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ d) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ ಲ

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11. ವ ಆ ೕ ದಮ ಜನರ ಪ ಖಉ ೕಗ. ( ಲಭ)
a) ೕ b) ಪ ಲ
c) ಗ d) ವ ವ ಯ
12. ಪ -I ಪ -II ಂ ಂ ಮ ವ ತಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ
ಸ ದ ಉತ ರವ ಆ . (ಕ ಣ)
ಪ -I ಪ -II
(ಉ ೕಗ) (ಉ ಹರ )
A. ಥ ಕಆ ಕಉ ೕಗ 1. ಕ
B. ೕಯ ಆ ಕಉ ೕಗ 2. ೕ
C. ೕಯ ಆ ಕಉ ೕಗ 3. ವ ವ ಯ
D. ಚ ೕ ಯಉ ೕಗ 4.

ತಗ :
A B C D
a) 2 3 4 1
b) 3 4 1 2
c) 1 4 2 3
d) 4 2 3 1

II. ಆವರಣದ ೕ ವ ಕ ದ ಪದವ ಆ ಟ ಸ ಳಗಳ ಂ .
(ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
( 75, , ಆಮ ಜನಕ, ನ- , 60, ಆಂ ಬ )
1. ಜ ೕಯ ಸಸ ಗಳ ಅ ರ ಗ ದ ಂದ ೕ ನ ___________ ಪ ಣ
ಕ ತ .( ರಣ)
2. ಇಂ ೕ ದ ಸ ಂತರ ಯ ವ ಸ __________( ರಣ)
3. ಸ ಂತರ ಯವ _________ ವ ವ ಯ ಂ ಸಹ ಕ .( ರಣ)
4. ಚ ೕ ಯಉ ೕಗಗ __________ ಗ .( ಲಭ)
5. ಅ ಂ ದ ಶಗಳ ___________ ರ ಜನ ೕಯ ಗದ ಗಳ ವ .
( ರಣ)

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III. ಂ ಬ . ( ಲಭ) (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
A B
a) ಅ ಪ ಶ i) ಎ ೕ
b) ಮ ii) ಮ ಪಕ
c) ಕಲಹ ಮ iii) ೕ ಮ ಮನ ಜ
d) ಪ ಶ iv) ಇಂ ಯನ
e) ೕಯ ಉ ೕಗಗ v) ಂ
vi) ಮ
IV. ಳ ನಪ ಗ ಒಂ ಪದ ಅಥ ಒಂ ಕದ ಉತ . (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ನವನ ಆ ಕಉ ೕಗಗ ಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
2. ಥ ಕಆ ಕ ಗಳ ಅ .( ಲಭ)
3. ಆ ರ ಗಹ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
4. ಯ ಅಥ ಬ .( ಲಭ)
5. ಮರ ಕ ವ ಉದ ಮ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
6. ಯ ಅ .( ಲಭ)
7. ಜ ದ ಯ ವ ಧದ ವ ಕ ?( ರಣ)
8. ೕ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
9. ವ ವ ಯ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
10. ಗ ಯ ಅ .( ಲಭ)
11. ೕಯ ಆ ಕ ಗಳ ಅಥ ಬ .( ರಣ)
12. ೕಯ ಆ ಕಉ ೕಗಗ ಂದ ?( ರಣ)

V. ಳ ನಪ ಗ 2 ಂದ 3 ಕ ಗಳ ಉತ . (ಎರ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ಆ ರ ಗಹ ಯ ಲ ಪ ಬ .( ಲಭ)
2. ಪ ಚದ ಪ ಖ ಪ ಶಗಳ ಪ .( ರಣ)
3. ಮರಕ ವ ಉದ ಮ ಸಮ ೕ ೕಷ ವಲಯದ ಏ ಅ ?
( ರಣ)
4. ಪ ಚದ ಯ ಬ .( ಲಭ)
5. ೕ ಯ ಧಗ ?( ಲಭ)
6. ಗ ಯ ಧಗಳ ಬ .( ರಣ)
7. ೕಯ ಆ ಕಉ ೕಗಗಳ ಖ ಗಳ ಬ .( ರಣ)
8. ೕಯ ಮ ೕಯ ಆ ಕ ಗ ವವ ಸಗ ? (ಕ ಣ)
9. ೕಯ ಮ ಚ ೕ ಯಆ ಕ ಗ ವವ ಸಗಳ . (ಕ ಣ)

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VI. ಳ ನ ಪ ಗ 20 ಂದ 25 ಕ ಗಳ ಉತ . (ಐ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ೕ ಯ ವ .( ಲಭ)
2. ವ ವ ಯವ ಪ ದ ಸ ವರ ೕ .( ಲಭ)
3. ಗ ಎಂದ ? ಅದರ ಧಗ ,ಅ ಲ ಅ ಲ ಗಳ ವ .
( ರಣ)
4. ೕಯ ಆ ಕಉ ೕಗಗಳ ಬ .( ರಣ)
*-*-*-*-*-*-*

SUBJECT: 24- GEOGRAPHY 21

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ಅ ಯ-4
ಮ ಪಕ
( ಗ ಪ ದ ಅವ - 06 ಗ )
I. ಳ ನಬ ಆ ಪ ಗ ಉತ . (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ಅ ರ ಂದ ಂ ವ ಡ. ( ಲಭ)
a) ಉತ ರ ಅ b) ಏ
c) ಆ ೕ d) ೕ

2. ಅ ಂದ ಂ ವ ಡ. ( ಲಭ)
a) ಏ b) ೕ
c) ಉತ ರ ಅ d) ಆ ೕ

3. ಶದಅ ಉದ ದ ಂತರ ಗ .( ರಣ)
a) ೕ ಯ b) ನ ಯ
c) ಆ ೕ ಯ ಂ ಂಟ d) ೕ

4. : (A) ಉತ ರ ಅ ಂ ಗರ ಗ ವ “ ಟಂ ” ಎಂ ಕ ವ .
ರಣ: (R) ಉತ ರ ಅ ಂ ಗರ ಗ ಶ ದ ಅತ ಂತ ದಟ ಯ ಹಡ ರ
ಗ . (ಕ ಣ)
ತಗ :
a) A ತ ಸ b) R ತ ಸ
c) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ d) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ ಇಲ

5. ಪ ಚದ ಅತ ಂತ ಹ ಯ ಜಲ ಗ .( ರಣ)
a) ಉತ ರ ಅ ಂ ಗರ ಗ b) ಟ ಯ ಗರ ಗ
c) ೕ ರ ಗ d) ಉತ ರ ಗರ ಗ

6. ಶದ ಪ ಥಮ ನವ ದವ .( ಲಭ)
a) ಸ ೕದರ b)
c) ಂ d) ೕ

7. ಶದ ಪ ಥಮ ಜ ನ ನ ಭ ದ ವಷ . ( ಲಭ)
a) 1825 b) 1826
c) 1925 d) 1926

8. ಶ ದ ಪ ಥಮ ತಕ ಉಪಗ ಹ ಉ ವ ದ ಶ. ( ಲಭ)
a) ರತ b) ರ
c) ಜ d) .ಎ .ಎ

SUBJECT: 24- GEOGRAPHY 22

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9. ಶ ದ ಪ ಥಮ ತಕ ಉಪಗ ಹ. ( ಲಭ)
a) b) ಆಯ ಭಟ
c) ಇ d) ಎ

10. ರತದ ಪ ಥಮ ತಕ ಉಪಗ ಹ. ( ಲಭ)
a) ಎ b)
c) ಆಯ ಭಟ d) ಇ
11.METSAT ಉಪಗ ಹದ ಪ ಖಉ ೕಶ. ( ರಣ)
a) ರದಶ ನ ಪ ರ b) ಹ ನ ಚ
c) ಕ ಯ ಕಮ d) ೕಪ ರ
12. ತಕ ಉಪಗ ಹಗ ಳ ನ ಗಳ ಪ ಗ ,ಸ ದ ಉತ ರವ
ಆ . (ಕ ಣ)
i) ಆಯ ಭಟ ತಕ ಉಪಗ ಹವ ರ ಶ ಉ .
ii) ಇ ಉಪಗ ಹ ಮ ರದಶ ನ ಪಕ ೕ ವ ಸ ಯಕ.
iii) ಉಪಗ ಹ ಹ ನ ಇ ಮ ಹ ನ ಚ
ೕ ವ ಸ ಯಕ.
iv) ಎ ಉಪಗ ಹ ಣ ೕತ ೕ ವ ಸ ಯಕ.
ನ ವ ಗ ಸ ಇ ?
a) i ಮ iii ತ ಸ b) iii ಮ iv ತ ಸ
c) ii, iii ಮ iv ತ ಸ d) i, ii, iii ಮ iv ಸ

13. ಪ -I ಪ -II ಂ ಂ ಮ ವ ತಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ
ಸ ದ ಉತ ರವ ಆ . (ಕ ಣ)
ಪ -I ಪ -II
(ಹಡ ನ ಧಗ ) ( )
A. ನ 1. ಸರ ಗಳ ತ ವ ಹಡ
B. ೕ 2. ಗ ತಹ ವ ಗಳ ಸ .
C. ಂಕ 3. ಪ ಕರ ವ ಹಡ
D. ರ 4. ೕ ವ ಗಳ ವ ಹಡ
ತಗ
A B C D
a) 1 3 2 4
b) 3 1 4 2
c) 2 4 3 1
d) 4 1 2 3

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14. ಸ ದ ೕ ಯ ಆ . (ಕ ಣ)
a) ಇ- - ೕ ಕ ಕವವ
b) . .ಎ - ಟ ಲ
c) .ಐ.ಎ – ೕ ಕ ವವ
d) ಬ ೕ - ನ ಅಂ

II. ಆವರಣದ ೕ ವಸ ದ ಉತ ರವ ಆ ಟ ಸಳ ಂ .
(ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
(ಪ ಮ, , ೕ ಏ , ಂಗ , -ಅ ಂ , )
1. ಉ ತವ ದವ _____________ ( ರಣ)
2. ___________ ಅ ಂ ಗರವ ಗರ ಡ ಪ ತ .
( ರಣ)
3. _____________ ಟ ಯ ಸ ದ ಮ ಂ ಸ ದವ
ಪ .( ರಣ)
4. _____________ ಶದಎ ಶಗಳ ಪ ವ ನ ನ .
( ರಣ)
5. ಇ ೕದ ಂದ ಕ ____________ ನ .( ಲಭ)

III. ಂ ಬ .( ಲಭ). (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. A B
a) ಕ ಗ i) ಶದಅ ಡ ಪ ಎ
b) ಇಂ ೕ ಕಡ ii) ಗರ ಗ ಗ
c) ಟ . iii) ನ ಟನ
d) ಇ- iv) ಂತರ ಗ ಗ
e) ಮ ಮ v) ಗ ಕ ಕವವ
vi) ಆ ಕ ಪಕ ಧಮ
2. A B
a) i) ೕ ರ ್
b) ರ ii) ಸ ೕದರ
c) ರದಶ ನ iii) ೕ
d) iv) ಯ ೕ
e) ಬಣ ದ ರದಶ ನ v) ಅ ಂಡ ಂ
vi) ೕಟ

SUBJECT: 24- GEOGRAPHY 24

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IV. ಳ ನಪ ಗ ಒಂ ಪದ ಅಥ ಒಂ ಕದ ಉತ .
(ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
2. ಯ ಅ .( ಲಭ)
3. ಶದ ವ ಡಅ ಯ ಂದ ಯ ಂ ?( ಲಭ)
4. ಜಲ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
5. ಗರ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
6. ಪ ಮ ಯ ಒ ತನ ವ ಶ ?( ಲಭ)
7. ಯ ಒ ತನ ವ ಶ ?( ಲಭ)
8. ಶದ ಅ ಯ ವ ವ ಹಡ ?( ಲಭ)
9. ಒಳ ನ ಜಲ ಗ ಗ ಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
10. ಳ ಗ ಗ ಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
11. ಪಕ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
12. ಶದಅ ಡ ಏ ?( ಲಭ)
13. ಅಂತ ಲದ ಅಥ ಬ .( ಲಭ)
14. ಉಪಗ ಹ ಪಕ ಎಂದ ?( ರಣ)
15. ರ ಶ ಉ ದ ಪ ಥಮ ತಕ ಉಪಗ ಹವ ಸ .( ಲಭ)
16. ISRO- ಸ . (ಕ ಣ)
17. ಇ- ಎಂದ ? (ಕ ಣ)
18. ಇ- ಮ ಎಂದ ? (ಕ ಣ)
19. ಇ-ಲ ಂ ಎಂದ ? (ಕ ಣ)
20. ಇ- ವ ಎಂದ ? (ಕ ಣ)
21. ಬ ೕ ಎಂದ ? (ಕ ಣ)
22. ರ ತ ನವ ಅ .( ರಣ)

V. ಳ ನಪ ಗ 2 ಂದ 3 ಕ ಗಳ ಉತ . (ಎರ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ಯ ಧಗಳ .( ಲಭ)
2. ಯ ಧಗ ವ ?( ಲಭ)
3. ಉತ ರ ಅ ಕದ ವ ದ ಎರ ಗಳ ಸ .( ರಣ)
4. ಶದ ದಲ ಗ ಎ ಮ ಗ ಭ ?( ರಣ)
5. ನ ದ ಎರ ಖ ಂತರ ಗ ಗಳ ಸ .( ರಣ)
6. ಜಲ ಯ ಧಗಳ .( ಲಭ)

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7. ಶ ದ ಎರ ಹಡ ಗಳ ಸ .( ರಣ)
8. ಪ ಚದ ಪ ಖ ಒಳ ನ ಜಲ ಗ ಗಳ ಪ ( ರಣ)
9. ದ ಣ ಅ ದ ಪ ಖ ಅಂ ೕಯ ನ ಣಗಳ
ಪ .( ರಣ)
10. ಆ ಕ ಪಕ ಧ ಮಗಳ ಪ .( ಲಭ)

VI. ಳ ನಪ ಗ 20 ಂದ 25 ಕ ಗಳ ಉತ . (ಐ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ಯ ಸಮ ಮಹತ ದ ಬ ಸ ವರ ೕ .( ಲಭ)
2. ಪ ಚದ ರ ಯ ಯ ವ .( ರಣ)
3. ಪ ಚದ ಯ ಯ ವ .( ರಣ)
4. - ೕ ಯ ಮ - ನ ಯ ಗ ದಬ ಬ .( ರಣ)
5. ಶ ದ ಜಲ ಸ ವರ ಪ ಬ .( ರಣ)
6. ಟ ಯ ಜಲ ಗ ದಬ ಪ ಬ .( ರಣ)
7. ಮ ಪ ಮ ಗ ಗಳ ಬ .( ರಣ)
8. ಪ ಚದ ಆಂತ ಕ ಜಲ ಗ ಗಳ ಬ ಬ .( ರಣ)
9. ಪ ಚದ ಗ ಗಳ ಬ ಬ .( ರಣ)
10. ಪ ಚದ ಳ ಗ ಯ ಪ ಬ .( ರಣ)
11. ಯ ಮಹತ ವ ವ .( ಲಭ)
12. ಸ ಹ ಧ ಮಗಳ ಖ ಗಳ ಪ .( ಲಭ)
13. ಅಂತ ಲ, ರ , ಇ- ಮ ಉಪಗ ಹ ಪಕ ಗಳ ಪ
ವ . (ಕ ಣ)
*-*-*-*-*-*-*

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ಅ ಯ-5
ನವನ ವಸ ಗ
( ಗ ಪ ದ ಅವ - 03 ಗ )
I. ಳ ನಬ ಆ ಪ ಗ ಉತ : (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )

1. ೕ ವಸಳ ಸ ೕಪದ ಣ ಂಡ ವಸ ಗ .( ಲಭ)
a) ಒಣ ಂದ ವಸ ಗ b) ರ ತ ಕ ವಸ ಗ
c) ಜಲ ಂದ ವಸ ಗ d) ೕ ಂ ಂ ವಸ ಗ

2. ಳ ನ ಗಳ ಪ ಗ . (ಕ ಣ)
i. ರದ ವಸ ಗ - , ಗಳ ತ ಣ ತ .
ii. ೕ ರದ ವಸ ಗ -ಎರ ನ ಗಳ ಗಮದ ಸ ಳಗಳ ಎರ
ಗ ಗ ವ ಣ ಂ ತ .
iii. ನ ರದ ವಸ ಗ -ಅ ಕ ರ ಗ ಗ ಪರಸ ರ ವ ಸ ಳಗಳ
ಣ ಂ ತ .
iv. ೕ ಹ ವಸ ಗ -ನ ರದ ಎರ ದಡಗಳ ಇ ವ
ಣ ಂ ತ .
ನ ವ ಗ ಸ ?
a) i ಮ ii ತ ಸ . b) iii ಮ iv ತ ಸ
c) i, ii ಮ iii ತ ಸ d) i, ii, iii ಮ iv ಸ

3. ಸ ದ ೕ ಯ . (ಕ ಣ)
a) ಸಪ ೕ – ರತ
b) ಂ ನ ಕ – ೕ
c) ಂ ನ ಕ –ಇ
d) ನ ಕ –ಈ

4. ಸ ದ ೕ ಯ . (ಕ ಣ)
a) ಕ ನಗರ – ಧ
b) ಆಡ ತ ನಗರ – ನವ ಹ
c) ಕ ನಗರ – ಂ
d) ಪ ನಗರ – ಆ ಗ

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5. ಪ -I ಮ ಪ -II ಂ ಂ ಮ ವ ತಗಳ
ಉಪ ೕ ಸ ದ ಉತ ರವ ಆ . (ಕ ಣ)
ಪ -I ಪ -II
(ನಗರಗಳ ಧಗ ) (ಉ ಹರ ಗ )
A ಆಡ ತ ನಗರಗ 1. ಧನ , ೕ ಬ , ಂಬ
Bಪ ಂದ ಗ 2. ರ ,ಮ ,ಮ
C ಕ ನಗರಗ 3. ನವ ಹ , ಡ ,
Dಗ ನಗರಗ 4. , ಂ , ( .ಎ .ಎ)
ತಗ :
A B C D
a) 2 1 4 3
b) 4 3 2 1
c) 3 4 2 1
d) 4 3 1 2

6. ನಗರ ವಸ ಗಳ ವ ೕ ಕ ಸ ಪ ಗ ವಪ ಖ ಅಂಶ. ( ಲಭ)
a) ಆ ಯ b) ಜನ ತ
c) ವಸ ಗಳ ಆ ರ d) ಫಲವತ
7 ನಗ ೕಕರಣ ಪ ಯಸ ದ ಕ ಮವ . (ಕ ಣ)
a) ಪಟ ಣ-ನಗರ- ನ ಷ -
b) ನಗರ-ಪಟ ಣ- - ನ ಷ
c) ನ ಷ - -ಪಟ ಣ-ನಗರ
d) -ನಗರ- ನ ಷ -ಪಟ ಣ

8. ಶ ದ ಪ ಥಮ ಯ ನಗರ. ( ಲಭ)
a) b) ಡ

c) ೕ ಂ d) ನವ ಹ

9. : (A) ಡ ಪ ಚದ ಪ ಪ ಥಮ ಯ ನಗರ .
ರಣ: (R) 1800ರ ಡ ನಗರ ಪ ಪ ಥಮ ಒಂ ಯ ಜನ ಯ
ತ . (ಕ ಣ)

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ತಗ :
a) A ತ ಸ b) R ತ ಸ
c) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ d) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ ಇಲ .

10. ಶ ದ ಪ ಪ ಥಮ .( ಲಭ)
a) ಡ b) .
c) d) ಂ

11. : (A) ನಗರ ಪ ಚದ ಪ ಪ ಥಮ . (ಕ ಣ)
ರಣ: (R) ನಗರ 1950ರ 12.5 ಯ ಜನ ಯ ತ .
ತಗ :
a) A ತ ಸ b) R ತ ಸ
c) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ d) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ ಇಲ .
II. ಆವರಣದ ೕ ವ ಕ ದ ಪದವ ಆ ಟ ಸ ಳಗಳ ಂ :
(ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
( ಂ ಫ ,ರ ತ ಕ, ಅಲ ,ಆ ಗ , ರ , ರ)
1. ೕ ದ ಅ ಧ ಬ ವ ೕಪಗ ________ ವಸ ಗಳ ಂದ .
( ರಣ)
2. ____________ ನಗರ ಮ ಯ ನ ಗಳ ಗಮ ಸ ಳದ , ೕ ರದ
ವಸ .( ರಣ)
3. ಂ ಮ ಹಣ ನ ಕ ಯ ನಗರ ________ ( ರಣ)
4. ರತದ ಪ ಖ ನಗರ _________ ( ರಣ)
5. ಏ ದಅ ಡ ಳ ಪ ಶ _______ ( ಲಭ)

III. ಂ ಬ .( ಲಭ) (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
A B
a) ಪ i) ೕ ೕ ಮ
b) ಕ ii) ೕ
c) ನಗರ iii) ಂಬ
d) ನ ಷ iv) ೕ ಹ
e) ಗ ೕ ೕ v) ಸಣ ಹ
vi)

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IV. ಳ ನಪ ಗ ಒಂ ಪದ ಅಥ ಒಂ ಕದ ಉತ .
(ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ನವ ವಸ ಗ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
2. ೕಣ ವಸ ಗ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
3. ಪ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
4. ೕ ಹ ಯ .( ರಣ)
5. ಏಕ ೕ ಯ ೕಣ ವಸ ಗ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
6. ಒ ದ ವಸ ಗ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
7. ೕ ರದ ವಸ ಗಳ ಅ .( ಲಭ)
8. ರ ದ ಯ ವಸ ಗ ಎ ಣ ತ ?( ಲಭ)
9. ಚ ವ ವಸ ಗಳ ಅಥ ಬ .( ಲಭ)
10. ಆಯ ರದ ವಸ ಗಳ ಅ .( ಲಭ)
11. ನ ರದ ವಸ ಗಳ ಅಥ ೕ .( ಲಭ)
12. ಜಲ ಂದ ವಸ ಗ ಂದ ?( ರಣ)
13. ಒಣ ( ಷ) ಂದ ವಸ ಗಳ ಅಥ ಬ .( ರಣ)
14. ನಗರ ವಸ ಗ ಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
15. ಪಟ ಣ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
16. ಶ ದ ಪ ಪ ಥಮ ಯ ನಗರ ?( ಲಭ)
17. ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
18. ಶ ದ ಪ ಥಮ ?( ಲಭ)
19. ನ ಷ ಪದವ ಅ . (ಕ ಣ)
20. ಏ ದಅ ಡ ಳ ಪ ಶ ?( ಲಭ)

V. ಳ ನಪ ಗ 2 ಂದ 3 ಕ ಗಳ ಉತ . (ಎರ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )

1. Y ಮ Xಆ ರದ ವಸ ಗ ಎ ಣ ತ ?( ರಣ)
2. ನಗರ ಮ ೕಣ ವಸ ಗಳ ಅ .( ಲಭ)
3. ರತದ ಜನಗಣ ಯ ಪ ರ ನಗರ ಎಂ ಪ ಗ ಸ ಇ ವ ನ ಡಗಳ ಪ
.( ರಣ)
4. ನಗ ೕಕರಣ ಖ ರಣಗಳ .( ರಣ)
5. ’ ೕ ಂ ಂ ’ ಎಂದ ?ಉ ಹರ . (ಕ ಣ)

6. ನಗರ ಮ ಯ ನಗರ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
7. ದ ಎರ ಂಸ ೃ ಕ ಮ ಕ ನಗರಗಳ ಸ .( ಲಭ)

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8. ಕ ನಗರ ಎಂದ ?ಉ ಹರ .( ಲಭ)
9. ಜ ಮ ರ ಪಟ ಣಗ ಉ ಹರ .( ಲಭ)
10. ಆಡ ತ ನಗರಗ ಎಂದ ?ಉ ಹರ .( ಲಭ)
11. ಪ ಂದ ಗ ಎಂದ ?ಉ ಹರ .( ಲಭ)

VI. ಳ ನಪ ಗ 20 ಂದ 25 ಕ ಗಳ ಉತ . (ಐ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ೕಣ ವಸ ಗಳ ನವ ಧ ವ ಅಂಶಗಳ ಚ .( ಲಭ)
2. ೕಣ ವಸ ಗಳ ದ ಗಳ ವ .( ರಣ)
3. ೕಣ ವಸ ಗಳ ಧಆ ರಗಳ ಬ .( ರಣ)
4. ೕಣ ವಸ ಗಳ ಸಮ ಗಳ ಪ , ವ .( ಲಭ)
5. ನಗರ ವಸ ಗಳ ಜನ ಗ ಣ ಂಗ ಮ ವ .( ರಣ)
6. ನಗರ ವಸ ಗಳ ಅ ಗಳ ಯ ಗಳ ಆ ರಕ ಣ ಂಗ ಮ
ವ . (ಕ ಣ)
7. ನಗರ ವಸ ಗಳ ಸಮ ಗಳ ಪ , ವ .( ಲಭ)
*-*-*-*-*-*-*

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ಗ-
ರತದ ನವ ಮ ಆ ಕ
ೕಳ ಸ

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ಅ ಯ-06
ರತದ ಜನ
( ಗ ಪ ದ ಅವ - 12 ಗ )
I. ಳ ನಬ ಆ ಪ ಗ ಉತ . (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. 2011ರ ಜನಗಣ ಯ ಪ ರ ರತದ ಒ ಜನ .( ಲಭ)
a) 122.03 ೕ b) 121.01 ೕ
c) 123.15 ೕ d) 124.16 ೕ
2. ಪ ಚದ ಒ ಪ ಶದ ರತದ ಕಡ ಪ ಣ. ( ಲಭ)
a) 2.2 b) 2.3
c) 2.4 d) 2.5
3. 2011ರ ಜನಗಣ ಯ ಪ ರಪ ಚದ ಒ ಜನ ಯ ರತದ .( ಲಭ)
a) 13.5 b) 14.5
c) 16.5 d) 17.5
4. ಪ -I ಪ –II ಂ ಂ ಮ ವ ತಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ
ಸ ದ ಉತ ರವ ಆ . (ಕ ಣ)
ಪ –I ಪ –II
(ಜನ ಳವ ಯ ತಗ ) (ಜನ ಳವ ಯ ಅವ )
A. ರ ಜನ ಳವ 1. 1981-2011
B. ತರ ಜನ ಳವ 2. 1951-1981
C. ೕಘ ಅ ಕ ಜನ ಳವ 3. 1921-1951
D. ಅ ಕ ಳವ ಂ ಇ ಯಸ ಷ ಚಕ 4. 1901-1921
ತಗ
A B C D
a) 3 4 1 2
b) 1 2 3 4
c) 4 3 2 1
d) 2 1 4 3
5. : (A) 1911-21ರ ದಶಕವ “ ರ ೕಯ ಜನಗಣ ಯ ಇ ಸದ ಮ ಜಕ” ಂ
ಕ ಯ .
ರಣ: (R) ಈ ಅವ ಯ ತ ೕ ದ ೕ , ಲರ, ಮ , ಷಮ ೕತಜ ರ ಂ ದ
ಂ ಕ ೕಗಗ ಋ ತ ಕ ಜನ ಳವ ರಣಗ . (ಕ ಣ)

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ತಗ :
a) A ತ ಸ b) R ತ ಸ
c) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ d) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ ಲ
6. ರತದ ಪ ಥಮ ಜನಗಣ ಭ ದ ವಷ . ( ಲಭ)
a) 1801 b) 1872
c) 1850 d) 1891
7. 2011ರ ಜನಗಣ ಯ ಪ ರ ರತದ ಸ ಸ ಮರಣ ಪ ಣ. (ಕ ಣ)
a) . 6.1 b) . 6.4
c) . 6.2 d) . 6.3
8. 2011ರ ಜನಗಣ ಯ ಪ ರ ರತದ ಸ ಸ ಜನನ ಪ ಣ. ( ರಣ)
a) . 49.22 b) .22.22
c) . 6.40 d) . 42.60
9. ರತದ ಂಬ ಕ ಣ ೕಜ ಯ ದ ವಷ . ( ಲಭ)
a) 1947 b) 1952
c) 1956 d) 1962
10. 2011ರ ಜನಗಣ ಯ ಪ ರ ರತದ ಸ ಸ ಂ ತ. ( ಲಭ)
a) 910 b) 920
c) 930 d) 940
11. 2011ರ ಜನಗಣ ಯ ಪ ರ ರತದ ಸ ಸ ಜನ ಂದ .( ಲಭ)
a) 275 ಪ .ಚ. . ೕ b) 380 ಪ .ಚ. . ೕ
c) 382 ಪ .ಚ. . ೕ d) 375 ಪ .ಚ. . ೕ
12. ಪ -I ಪ –II ಂ ಂ ಮ ವ ತಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ
ಸ ದ ಉತ ರವ ಆ . (ಕ ಣ)
ಪ –I ಪ – II
(ಜನ ಂದ ) ( ಜಗ / ಂ ಡ ತಪ ಶಗ )
A. ಕ ಜನ ಂದ ಯ ಜ 1. ಅಂಡ ಮ ೕ
B. ಅ ಕ ಜನ ಂದ ಯ ಜ 2. ಹ
C. ಕ ಜನ ಂದ ಯ ಂ ಡ ತಪ ಶ 3. ಅ ಚಲ ಪ ಶ
D. ಅ ಕ ಜನ ಂದ ಯ ಂ ಡ ತಪ ಶ 4. ರ

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ತಗ
A B C D
a) 4 1 2 3
b) 3 4 1 2
c) 1 2 3 4
d) 2 1 4 3

13. ರತದ ಜನ ಂದ ,ಈ ಳ ನ ೕ ಗಳ ಪ ಗ . (ಕ ಣ)
i. ಅ ಕ ಜನ ಂದ ಯ ವಲಯ - ರ, ಪ ಮ ಳ, ರಳ ಮ ಉತ ರ ಪ ಶ
ii. ರಣ ಜನ ಂದ ಯ ವಲಯ – ಖ ಂಡ, ಅ ಂ, ೕವ ಮ ಮ ಷ
iii. ರಳ ಜನ ಂದ ಯ ವಲಯ - ಅ ಚಲ ಪ ಶ, ೕ , ಂಮ
ಗ ಂ
ನ ವ ೕ ಗ ಸ ?
a) i ತ ಸ b) ii ತ ಸ
c) iii ತ ಸ d) i, ii ಮ iii ಸ
14. 2011ರ ಜನಗಣ ಯ ಪ ರ ರತದ ಜನ ಧಪಟ ಂ ಳ ನ ಗಳ
ಪ ಗ . (ಕ ಣ)
i) ಉತ ರ ಪ ಶ ಶದ ಅತ ಂತ ಜನಭ ತ ಜ .
ii) ಂ ಶದ ಅ ಕ ಜನ ಯ ಂ ವ ಜ .
iii) ಹ ಅ ಜನ ಯ ಂ ದ ಂ ಡ ತಪ ಶ .
ನ ವ ಗ ಸ ?
a) i ಮ ii ತ ಸ b) ii ಮ iii ತ ಸ
c) i ಮ iii ತ ಸ d) i, ii ಮ iii ಸ
15. ಪ -I ಪ –II ಂ ಂ ಮ ವ ತಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ
ಸ ದ ಉತ ರವ ಆ . (ಕ ಣ)
ಪ –I ಪ –II
(ಜನ ೕಜ ) ( ಜಗ )
A. ಕ ಂ ತ ಂ ವ ಜ 1. ರ
B. ಅ ಕ ಂ ತ ಂ ವ ಜ 2. ಅ ಚಲ ಪ ಶ
C. ಕ ರ ಂ ವ ಜ 3. ಹ ಣ
D. ಕ ಜನ ಂದ ಂ ವ ಜ 4. ರಳ

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ತಗ
A B C D
a) 3 1 4 2
b) 4 1 2 3
c) 1 2 3 4
d) 3 4 1 2

16. 2011ರ ರತದ ಜನಗಣ ಈ ಳ ನ ೕ ಗಳ ಪ ಗ . (ಕ ಣ)
i. ಅ ಕ ಂ ತ ಂ ವ ಜ -ತ
ii. ಕ ಂ ತ ಂ ವ ಜ -ಹ ಣ
iii. ಅ ಕ ರ ಂ ವ ಜ - ರ
ನ ವ ೕ ಗ ಸ ?
a) i ಮ ii ತ ಸ b) ii ಮ iii ತ ಸ
c) i ಮ iii ತ ಸ d) i, ii ಮ iii ಸ

17. 2011ರ ಜನಗಣ ಯ ಪ ರ ರತದ ಸ ಸ ರ ಪ ಣ. ( ಲಭ)
a) 74.04 b) 78.03
c) 84.04 d) 65.03
18. 2011ರ ಜನಗಣ ಯ ಪ ರಅ ರ ಂ ವ ರತದ ಜ .( ಲಭ)
a) ರಳ b) ಹ ಣ
c) ರ d) ಕ ಟಕ
19. ಪ -I ಪ –II ಂ ಂ ಮ ವ ತಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ
ಸ ದ ಉತ ರವ ಆ . (ಕ ಣ)
ಪ –I ಪ – II
( ೕಣ/ನಗರ ಜನ ) ( ಜಗ )
A. ಕ ನಗರ ಜನ 1. ಉತ ರ ಪ ಶ
B. ಅ ಕ ನಗರ ಜನ 2. ೕ ಂ
C. ಕ ೕಣ ಜನ 3. ಂ
D. ಅ ಕ ೕಣ ಜನ 4. ಮ ಷ

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ತಗ :
A B C D
a) 3 4 1 2
b) 4 1 2 3
c) 1 2 3 4
d) 3 4 2 1
20. 2011ರ ನವ ಅ ವರ ಯ ಪ ರ ರತದ ಅ ನವ ಅ
ಂಕ ಂ ದ ಜ.( ಲಭ)
a) ರಳ b) ಮಧ ಪ ಶ
c) ಉತ ರಪ ಶ d) ಕ ಟಕ

II. ಆವರಣದ ೕ ವ ಕ ದ ಪದವ ಆ ಟ ಸ ಳಗಳ ಂ :
(ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
(ಛ ೕ ಗ , 940, ೕ , 1952, ರತ, ಹ ಣ)
1. ಪ ಚದ ಪ ಥಮ ಂಬ ಕ ಣ ೕಜ ಯ ದ ಶ ___________
( ಲಭ)
2. ರತದ ______ ರ ಂಬ ಕ ಣ ೕಜ ಯ ತರ .( ರಣ)
3. 2011ರ ಜನಗಣ ಯ ಪ ರ ರತದ ಸ ಸ ಂ ತ _________ ( ರಣ)
4. ರತದ ಕ ಂ ತ ಂ ದ ಜ __________ ( ರಣ)
5. ___________ ರತದ ಅ ಕ ನವ ಅ ಂಕ ಂ ದ ಜ.
( ರಣ)

III. ಂ ಬ :( ಲಭ) (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
A B
a. ಅ ದಕ ಜನ i) ೕ ವಲ
b. ಮರಣ ತಣ ii) ಕ
c. ಷ ನಹರಣ ಶಸ iii) ಮಕ ಮ ದ
d. ಮ ನಹರಣ ಶಸ iv) ಜನ ರ ೕಜ
e. ಹ ಂದ-ಹ ವಲ v) ಕ ವಲ
vi) ಕ
IV. ಳ ನಪ ಗ ಒಂ ಪದ ಅಥ ಒಂ ಕದ ಉತ : (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. 2011 ರ ಜನಗಣ ಯ ಪ ರ ರತದ ಒ ಜನ ಎ ?( ಲಭ).
2. ರತದ ಜನಗಣ ಯ ಇ ಸದ ವ ದಶಕವ ’ಜನ ಮ ಜಕ’ ಎಂ
ಕ ?( ಲಭ).
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3. ರತದ ತ ದತ ಯ ವ ದಶಕ ಅ ಕ ಜನ
ಳವ ಯ ಖ ?( ರಣ)
4. 2011ರ ಜನಗಣ ಯ ಪ ರ ರತದ ಸ ಸ ಜನ ಂದ ಎ ?( ಲಭ).
5. ರತದ ಅ ರ ಯ ಂ ವ ಜವ ಸ .( ಲಭ).
6. ರತದ ವ ಜ ಅ ಜನ ಂದ ಯ ಂ ?( ಲಭ).
7. ರತದ ವ ಜ ಅ ಕ ಂ ತವ ಂ ?( ಲಭ).
8. ರತದ ವ ಂ ಡ ತಪ ಶ ಅ ಜನ ಂದ ಯ ಂ ?
( ಲಭ).
9. ವ ವಷ ರತದ ಂಬ ಕ ಣ ೕಜ ಯ ತರ ?( ಲಭ).
10. 2011ರ ಜನಗಣ ಯ ಪ ರ ರತದ ಸ ಸ ರ ಯಪ ಣಎ ?( ಲಭ).
11. ವಲ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ).
12. ಆಂತ ಕ ವಲ ಯ ವಪ ರವ ' ೕವಲ ' ಎಂ ಕ ವ ?( ರಣ)
13. ಕ ವಲ ಎಂದ ?( ರಣ)
14. 2011ರ UNDP ವರ ಯ ಪ ರ ನವ ಅ ಂಕದ ರತ ವ
ೕ ಯ ?( ರಣ)
15. UNDP - ಸ . (ಕ ಣ)
16. HDI - ಸ . (ಕ ಣ)
17. GHI - ಸ . (ಕ ಣ)

V. ಳ ನಪ ಗ 2 ಂದ 3 ಕ ಗಳ ಉತ : (ಎರ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ಜನ ೕಟ ಎಂದ ?( ರಣ)
2. ಜನ ಂದ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
3. ರತದ ಸ ಸ ಜನನ ಮ ಮರಣ ಪ ಣವ .( ರಣ)
4. ರತದ ಅ ಕ ಜನನದರ ದ ರಣಗಳ .( ಲಭ)
5. ರತದ ಕ ಮರಣದರ ದ ರಣಗಳ .( ಲಭ)
6. ಒಳವಲ ಮ ರವಲ ಗ ವವ ಸ ?( ರಣ)
7. ಆಂತ ಕ ಜ ವಲ ಮ ಅಂತರ ಜ ವಲ ಗ ವವ ಸ ? (ಕ ಣ)
8. ಆಂತ ಕ ವಲ ಯ ಪ ರಗ ?( ಲಭ)
9. ವಲ ಯ ಧ ತಕಪ ಮಗಳ ಪ .( ರಣ)
10. ವಲ ಯ ಋ ತಕಪ ಮಗಳ ಪ .( ರಣ)
11. ರತದ ಜನ ಳವ ಯ ತಗಳ ಪ .( ರಣ)
12. ರತದ ೕವ ಜನ ಳವ ಪ ಖ ರಣಗಳ ಪ .( ಲಭ)

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13. ರತದ ಅ ಕಮ ಕ ಜನ ಂದ ಯ ಂ ವ ಜ ಗಳ
ಸ .( ರಣ)
14. ರತದ ಮರಣದರ ಇ ದ ರಣಗಳ .( ಲಭ)
15. 2011ರ ಜನಗಣ ಯ ಪ ರ ರತದ ಷ ಮ ಮ ಯರ ರ ಯ
ಪ ಣವ . (ಕ ಣ)
16. ರತ ಸ ರ ಮ ಯರ ನದ ರ ಂ ವ ಯ ಕ ಮಗಳ
ಸ . (ಕ ಣ)
17. ರತದ ಗ ಷ ಮ ಕ ಷ ಎ . .ಐ ಯ ಂ ವ ಜ ಗಳ ಸ .
( ರಣ)
18. ರತದ ನವ ಅ ಚ ಂಕದ ಪ ವ ೕ ವ ಅಂಶಗಳ .
( ರಣ)

VI. ಳ ನಪ ಗ 20 ಂದ 25 ಕ ಗಳ ಉತ : (ಐ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ರತದ ಜನ ಳವ ಯಪ ಯ ವ .( ರಣ)
2. ರತದ ೕವ ಗ ಯ ಜನ ಳವ ರಣ ವ ಅಂಶಗಳ ೕ .
( ಲಭ)
3. ರತದ ಜನ ಅಸ ನ ಗ ರಣ ವ ಅಂಶಗಳ
ಚ .( ಲಭ)
4. ರತದ ೕವ ಜನ ಳವ ಂದ ಉಂ ವ ಸಮ ಗಳ ಪ ,
ವ . *( ಲಭ)
5. ರತದ ಜನ ಳವ ಯ ಸ ಂ ವ ಕ ಮಗಳ
ವ .( ಲಭ)
6. ರತದ ಜನ ೕಜ ಯ ೕ .* (ಕ ಣ)
7. ವಲ ಎಂದ ? ವಲ ಯ ಧಗಳ ವ .* ( ಲಭ)
8. ವಲ ಯ ಧ ತಕಮ ಋ ತ ಕಪ ಮಗಳ ೕ .* ( ರಣ)
9. ವಲ ಯ ಸ ಂ ವ ಕ ಮಗಳ ಚ .( ರಣ)
10. ರತದ ನವ ಅ ಚ ಂಕದ ಪ ವ ೕ ವ ಅಂಶಗ ?
ೕ . (ಕ ಣ)

ಚ : ’*’ ವಪ ಗಳ 10 ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ ಪ ಗ .

*-*-*-*-*-*

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ಅ ಯ-7
ಮ ಜಲ ಪ ಲಗ
( ಗ ಪ ದ ಅವ - 10 ಗ )
I. ಳ ನಬ ಆ ಪ ಗ ಉತ . (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ೕತ ದ ಆ ರದ ರತದ ಬಳ ದ ಯಸ ದಇ ಕ ಮ. (ಕ ಣ)
a) ಅರಣ ಪ ಶ-ವ ವ ಯ ಯದ - ೕ - ವಳ ತ ಪ ಶ.
b) ವ ವ ಯ ಯದ - ಅರಣ ಪ ಶ- ೕ - ವಳ ತ ಪ ಶ.
c) ೕ - ಅರಣ ಪ ಶ-ವವ ಯ ಯದ - ವಳ ತ ಪ ಶ.
d) ವಳ ತ ಪ ಶ - ಅರಣ ಪ ಶ-ವವ ಯ ಯದ - ೕ .
2. ಬಳ ರತದ ಒ ೕ ಕ ೕಣ . ( ರಣ)
a) 228.7 . . b) 258.7 . .
c) 328.7 . . d) 358.7 . .
3. ಪ -I ಪ -II ಂ ಂ ಮ ವ ತಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ
ಸ ದ ಉತ ರವ ಆ . (ಕ ಣ)
ಪ -I ಪ -II
( ಬಳ ದ ) ( ಕಡ ೕತ )
A ಅರಣ ಪ ಶ 1. 8.6
B. ತರ . 2. 8.1
C. ೕ 3. 46.2
D ವಳ ತ ಪ ಶ 4. 22.8
ತಗ :
A B C D
a) 1 2 3 4
b) 4 3 2 1
c) 4 1 2 3
d) 1 4 3 2
4. ರತದ ಅ ವಳ ತ ಪ ಶ ಂ ವ ಜ.( ಲಭ)
a) ಕ ಟಕ b) ಹ ಣ
c) ಉತ ರ ಪ ಶ d) ರ
5. ರತದ ೕ ವ ಯ ಂ ವ ಜ .( ಲಭ)
a) ಮ ಷ b) ಹ ಣ
c) ಉತ ರಪ ಶ d) ತ

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6. ರತದ ಕಸ ಸ ಮ ಯಪ ಣ. ( ಲಭ)
a) 98 ಂ ೕಟ b) 108 ಂ ೕಟ
c) 118 ಂ ೕಟ d) 128 ಂ ೕಟ
7. ಇ ೕ ನ ವಷ ಗಳ ತನ ಖ ಯ ಕ ವ ೕ ವ ಪದ .( ಲಭ)
a) ೕ ವ b) ೕ ವ
c) ೕ ವ d) ಂ ೕ ವ
8. ರತದ ಪ ಥಮ ೕಶ ನ ಕ ೕಜ . ( ಲಭ)
a) ೕಜ b) ಕ- ಗ ೕಜ
c) ಂಗಭದ ೕಜ d) ೕದರ ೕಜ
9. ರತದ ಅ ಉದ ದಅ ಕ .( ಲಭ)
a) ಅ ಕ b) ಕ ಅ ಕ
c) ಗ ಅ ಕ d) ಂಗಭದ ಅ ಕ
10. ಕ- ಗ ೕಜ ಈ ಳ ಡ ಜ ಗಳ ಕ ೕಜ . (ಕ ಣ)
a) , ಉತ ರಪ ಶ, ಜ ನ b) ,ಹ ಣ, ಜ ನ
c) ಜ ನ, ಮದ ಪ ಶ, ಉತ ರಪ ಶ, d) ಹ ಣ, ಉತ ರಪ ಶ, ಜ ನ

11. ಳ ನ ಗಳ ಪ ಗ , (ಕ ಣ)
i. ರತದ ಪ ಮಕ ವ ಮ ಈ ನ ಗಗಳ ಅತ ಕಮ ತ .
ii. ಜ ನದ ಮ ಮ ಲ ಗಳ ಕ ಮ ತ .
iii. ರತದ ನ ಗ ಂದ ಪ ಂಬ ಅವ ಯ ಅ ಕಮ ತ .
iv. ರತದ ನ ಗ ಅ ೕಬ ಂದ ಂಬ ಅವ ಯ ಅ ಕಮ ತ .

ನ ಗಳ ಸ ?
a) i ಮ ii ತ ಸ b) i ಮ iv ತ ಸ
c) ii ಮ iii ತ ಸ d) i, ii ಮ iii ಸ
12. : (A) ರ ೕಯ ೕ ವ ಲಭ ಅತ ವಶ ಕ.
ರಣ: (R) ರತದ ಅ ಯ ತ, ಅ ತ, ಅ ಕಮ ಯಸ ಪಮ ಬರ ಲದ
ಭವ ೕಯ ನ . (ಕ ಣ)
ತಗ :
a) A ತ ಸ b) R ತ ಸ
c) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ d) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ ಲ

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13. ಪ -I ಪ -II ಂ ಂ ಮ ವ ತಗಳ
ಉಪ ೕ ಸ ದ ಉತ ರವ ಆ . (ಕ ಣ)
ಪ -I ಪ -II
( ೕ ವ ಲಗ ) ( ೕ ವ ೕತ ಕಡ)
A. 1. 3.2
B. 2. 5.1
C. 3. 31.0
D. ಇತ 4. 60.7
ತಗ :
A B C D
a) 4 3 2 1
b) 4 3 1 2
c) 4 1 2 3
d) 4 2 1 3

14. : (A) ೕದರ ನ ಯ ಳದ ಃಖ ನ ಎಂ ಕ ಯ .
ರಣ: (R) ೕದರ ನ ಯ ಆ ಭ ದ ಪ ಹ ಂದ ಸ ಮ ನ
ಸಮ , , ೕವ ಸಮ ಗಳ . (ಕ ಣ)
ತಗ :
a) A ತ ಸ b) R ತ ಸ
c) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ d) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ ಲ
15. ರ ಒಡ ಈನ ಅಡ ಸ .( ಲಭ)
a) ಬ ಕ ನ b) ೕದರ ನ
c) ಪ ಯ ನ d) ನ
16. ಳ ನ ಸ ಂ . (ಕ ಣ)
ಅ ಕ ಜ
ಶಯ
a) ಆಲಮ ಪ ಗರ
b) . ೕ ಂದ ಗರ
c) ಯಣ ರ ೕ ಗರ
d) ಂಗಭದ ಬಸವ ಗರ
17. ಳ ನ ಗಳ ಸ ದ ೕ ಆ . (ಕ ಣ)
i. ಕ ಅ ಕ - ೕ ಂದ ಗರ
ii. ಯಣ ರಅ ಕ - ಬಸವ ಗರ
iii. ಂಗಭದ ಅ ಕ – ಪ ಗರ

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ತಗ :
a. i ತ ಸ b. ii ತ ಸ
c. iii ತ ಸ . d. i, ii ಮ iii ಸ

18. ಸ ದ ೕ ಯ . (ಕ ಣ)
a) ಜ – ಮ ನ b) ಗ ೕಜ – ೕದರನ
c) ೕದರ ೕಜ –ಸ ೕ d) ಷ ಲಂ ೕಜ – ಂಗಭದ ನ

19. .ಎ .ಎ ಯ ನ ಕ ೕಜ ದ ಯ ಆಧ ಣ ದ ರತದ
ೕಜ . ( ಲಭ)
a) ಜ b) ಂಗಭಧ ೕಜ
c) - ಗ ೕಜ d) ೕದರ ನ ಕ ೕಜ

II. ಆವರಣದ ೕ ವ ಕ ದ ಪದವ ಆ ಟ ಸ ಳಗಳ ಂ :
(ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1.
(ಇ ೕ , ಮಧ ಪ ಶ, ಉತ ರಪ ಶ, 1948, ಚಲ ಪ ಶ, 1967)
1. ರತದ ಅ ಅರಣ ಪ ಶ ಂ ವ ಜ _________ ( ಲಭ)
2. ೕದರ ನ ಕ ಪ ಂಡ ವಷ _________ ( ರಣ)
3. _________ ಜದ ಅ ಕ ಯ ಸ .( ರಣ)
4. ರತದ ಅ ಳ ಗಳ ಂ ವ ಜ _________ ( ರಣ)
5. ಹ ೕ ವ ಲ _________ ಶದ ಅ ಂ .( ರಣ)

2.

( , ೕದರ, ಉತ ರಪ ಶ, ಚಲಪ ಶ, ಸ ೕ ,ಒ )
1. ನ ಯ ಉಪನ ________ ( ಲಭ)
2. ರತದ ಅ ೕ ವ ಪ ಶ ಂ ವ ಜ ________ ( ರಣ)
3. ೕಜ ಯ ವ ಜ ___________ ( ರಣ)
4. ಯಣ ರಅ ಕ ಯ _______ ನ ಸ .( ರಣ)
5. ಕ ಗ ಅ ಕ ಯ ___________ ನ ಸ .( ರಣ)

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III. ಂ ಬ . ( ಲಭ) (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. A B
a) ಅ ಕ i. ೕ ನ
b) ಅ ಕ ii. ಬ ಕ ನ
c) ಚ ಅ ಕ iii. ಸ ೕ ನ
d) ಆಲಮ ಅ ಕ iv. ೕದರ ನ
e) ಅ ಕ v. ನ
vi. ಮ ನ

2. A B
a) .ಎ .ಎ i. ೕ ಳ
b) ಮ ೕ ೕ ii. ಂದ ಂ
c) ಟ iii. ನ ಕ ೕಜ
d) ಆಲಮ ಅ ಕ iv. ನ ಕ ೕಜ
e) ಯಣ ರಅ ಕ v. ಬಸವನ
vi. ಸ ನ ಪದ

IV. ಳ ನಪ ಗ ಒಂ ಪದ ಅಥ ಒಂ ಕದ ಉತ . (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ಬಳ ದ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
2. ೕ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
3. ರತದ ವಳ ತ ಪ ಶದ ಕಡ ಪ ಣಎ ?( ರಣ)
4. - ಮಥ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
5. ೖ ಜಲ ಪ ಲದ ಪ ಖ ಲವ .( ಲಭ)
6. ೕ ವ ಯ ಅಥ ಬ .( ಲಭ)
7. ೕ ವ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
8. ೕ ವ ಯ .( ರಣ)
9. ೕ ವ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
10. ಹ ೕ ವ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
11. ಂಪಡ ೕ ವ ಯ .( ರಣ)
12. ೕ ೕಶ ನ ಕ ೕಜ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
13. DVC- ಸ . (ಕ ಣ)
14. ೕ ನ ರ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
15. ಮ ೕ ನ ಅಥ ಬ .( ಲಭ)

V. ಳ ನಪ ಗ 2 ಂದ 3 ಕ ಗಳ ಉತ . (ಎರ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
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1. ಬಳ ದ ಯ ಧ ವಪ ಖ ಕ ಲ ಣಗ ?
( ರಣ)
2. ಜಲ ಪ ಲದ ಎರ ಧಗ ?( ಲಭ)
3. ೖ ಜಲ ಪ ಲಗ ಉ ಹರ .( ಲಭ)
4. ೕ ವ ಲಗಳ ಧ ವ ಅಂಶಗ ?( ರಣ)
5. ರತದ ೕ ವ ಯಪ ಖ ಲಗ ?( ಲಭ)
6. ಪ ಹ ಸವ ಕ ಗಳ ವ ಸ .( ರಣ)
7. ೕ ವ ಯಪ ಖ ಸಮ ಗಳ ಪ .( ರಣ)
8. ೕ ವ ಯಪ ಖ ಸಮ ಗಳ ಪ .( ರಣ)
9. ೕ ವ ಪ ಯಪ ಸ ಯ ಂ ೕಕರಣ ಳ
ರಣ ? (ಕ ಣ)
10. ೕ ೕಶ ನ ಕ ೕಜ ಯ ಉ ೕಶಗಳ ಬ .( ಲಭ)
11. ೕದರನ ಕ ೕಜ ಯ ಪ ಖಉ ೕಶಗಳ ಬ .( ರಣ)
12. ೕದರ ನ ಕ ೕಜ ಯ ಪ ಖಅ ಕ ಗ ?( ರಣ)
13. ೕಜ ಅ ಯ ಸ ವಅ ಕ ಗಳ ಸ .( ರಣ)
14. ಲಂ ೕಜ ಅ ಯ ಸ ವಅ ಕ ಗಳ ಸ .
( ರಣ)
15. ಕ ಟಕದ ಲಂ ೕಜ ಂದ ಭಪ ವ ಗಳ ಸ .
( ರಣ)
16. ೕ ನ ರ ಎಂದ ?ಉ ಹರ .( ಲಭ)
17. ಜಲ ಜಕದ ದ ಖ ಯ ಬ .( ರಣ)
18. ಜಲ ಜಕ ವ ಹ ಯ ದ ಎರ ನಗಳ .( ರಣ)
19. ಜಲ ಜಕ ವ ಹ ಯ ಅವಶ ಕ ಯ .( ರಣ)
20. ಮ ೕ ನಪ ಖಉ ೕಶಗಳ ಪ .( ರಣ)
21. ಮ ೕ ನ ತ ಗಳ .( ರಣ)
22. ಸ ನ ಪದ ಮ ಪರ ನ ಪದ ಗಳ ನ ನವ ಸಗಳ . (ಕ ಣ)

VI. ಳ ನಪ ಗ 20 ಂದ 25 ಕ ಗಳ ಉತ . (ಐ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ರತದ ಧ ಬಳ ದ ಗಳ ಸ ವರ ೕ . *( ರಣ)
2. ಮಥ ದ ಖ ಯ ಚ .( ರಣ)
3. ರತದ ಜಲ ಪ ಲಗಳ ಪ ವ .( ಲಭ)
4. ರತದ ೕ ವ ಯ ಅವಶ ಕ ಯ ಚ .( ಲಭ)
5. ರತದ ೕ ವ ಯ ಚ .( ರಣ)
6. ರತದ ೕ ವ ಯ ವ .( ರಣ)
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7. ರತದ ೕ ವ ಯಪ ತಪ ಯ ಚ .( ರಣ)
8. ರತದ ಂಪಡ ಹ ೕ ವ ಯಅ ಮ ಯ
ವ .( ರಣ)
9. ೕ ೕಶ ನ ಕ ೕಜ ಎಂದ ? ರತದ ಅದರ ಖ ಯ
ವ .( ರಣ)
10. ೕದರ ನ ಕ ೕಜ ಯ ಪ ಖ ಲ ಣಗ ಮ ಉ ೕಶಗಳ ವ .*
( ರಣ)
11. - ಗ ೕಜ ಯ ಪ ಖ ಲ ಣಗ ಮ ಉ ೕಶಗಳ ವ .*
( ರಣ)
12. ೕಜ ಯ ಪ ಖ ಲ ಣಗ ಮ ಉ ೕಶಗಳ ವ . *( ರಣ)

13. ಲಂ ೕಜ ಯ ಪ ಖ ಲ ಣಗ ಮ ಉ ೕಶಗಳ ವ .*
( ರಣ)
14. ೕ ನ ರ ಮ ಮಹತ ವ ಪ ಬ .( ಲಭ)
15. ಜಲ ಜಕ ವ ಹ ಯ ಚ . *( ರಣ)
16. ಮ ೕ ನಬ ಸ ವರ ೕ .*( ರಣ)

ಚ : ’*’ ವಪ ಗಳ 10 ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ ಪ ಗ .

*-*-*-*-*-*

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ಅ ಯ-8
ವವ ಯ
( ಗ ಪ ದ ಅವ - 12 ಗ )
I. ಳ ನಬ ಆ ಪ ಗ ಉತ . (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ರತದ ೕವ ೕ ಯ ವವ ಯವ ಅವ ವ ಜನ .( ಲಭ)
a) 30 b) 35
c) 65 d) 70
2. ಉಷ ವಲಯದ ಮ ೕ ವ ಅರಣ ಗಳ ನ ಡಕ ಜ ಂಗ ಂ ವ
ಯ ಪದ .( ಲಭ)
a) ರ ೕವ ರ ಯ b) ವಲ ೕವ ರ ಯ
c) ಶ ಯ d) ಂದ ಯ
3. ಸ ಂತರ ಯದ ಪ -I ಪ –II ಂ ಂ ಮ
ವ ತಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ ಸ ದ ಉತ ರವ ಆ . (ಕ ಣ)
ಪ –I ಪ –II
(ಸ ೕಯ ಸ ಗ ) ( ಜಗ )
A. ಂ 1. ಆಂದ ಪ ಶ
B. ೕಮ 2. ರಳ
C. ೕನ 3. ಓ
D. ೕ 4. ಆ ಂ
ತಗ :
A B C D
a) 4 3 2 1
b) 1 4 3 2
c) 2 1 4 3
d) 3 2 1 4

4. ರತದ ಶ ಯವ ಪ ಚ ಸ ದ ವಷ . ( ಲಭ)
a) 1951 b) 1952
c) 1960 d) 1961
5. ಒಣ ಯ ಕ ದ ಗ .( ಲಭ)
a) ಭತ ಮ ೕ b) ಚಹ ಮ
c) ಮ ೕಳ d) ಕ ಮ ಣ

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6. ರತದ ಪ ಖ ೕಟದ ಗ . ( ಲಭ)
a) ಚ , ಮ ರಬ b) ಭತ , ಮ ಹ
c) ೕ , ೕಳ ಮ ಕ d) , ಣ ಮ ೕಳ
7. ಳ ನ ಗಳ ಪ ಗ . (ಕ ಣ)
i. ’ ರತದ ಆಯ-ವ ಯ ನ ಟ’ .
ii. ರತದ ವ ವ ಯ ಮ ಯ ಅವ .
iii. ವ ವ ಯ ೕಯ ಆ ಯದ ಪ ಖ ಲ .
ನ ಗಳ ಸ ?
a) i ತ ಸ b) ii ತ ಸ
c) iii ತ ಸ d) i, ii ಮ iii ಸ
8. ರತದ ಹ ಂ ಪ ಚಯ ದ ವಷ . ( ಲಭ)
a) 1950 b) 1960
c) 1970 d) 1980
9. ರತದ ಅ ೕ ತರ ಉ ವ ಜ .( ಲಭ)
a) ಆಂಧ ಪ ಶ b) ಮಧ ಪ ಶ
c) ಉತ ರಪ ಶ d) ಪ ಮ ಳ
10. ರತದ ಕ ಯ ಪ ಥಮ ಅಳವ ಂಡ ಜ .( ಲಭ)
a) ಕ ಟಕ b) ಆಂಧ ಪ ಶ
c) ಜ ನ d) ಮ ಷ

11. ಪ ಚದ ಅ ೕ ನ ಹಣ ಉ ವಮ ರ ವ ಶ. ( ಲಭ)
a) .ಎ .ಎ b) ರತ
c) ಟ d) ೕ

12. ರತದ ಅ ಕ ಣ ಉ ವ ಜ .( ಲಭ)
a) ಆಂಧ ಪ ಶ b) ಕ ಟಕ
c) ರಳ d) ತ

13. ಸ ದ ೕ ಯ .( ರಣ)
a) ಆ ರ ಗ –ಹ ಮ ಣ
b) ೕಯ ಗ – ಭತ ಮ ೕ
c) ಜ ಗ –ಕ ಮ
d) ನ ಗ – ಚಹ ಮ

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14. ಪ -I ಪ –II ಂ ಂ ಮ ವ ತಗಳ
ಉಪ ೕ ಸ ದ ಉತ ರವ ಆ . (ಕ ಣ)
ಪ -I ಪ –II
(ಪ ಖ ಗ ) (ಉ ಹರ ಗ )
A. ಆ ರ ಗ 1. ಹ ಮ ಣ
B. ೕಯ ಗ 2. ಕ ಮ
C. ಜ ಗ 3. ಭತ ಮ ೕ
D. ನ ಗ 4. ಚಹ ಮ

ತಗ :
A B C D
a) 3 4 2 1
b) 4 3 2 1
c) 2 1 4 3
d) 2 3 1 4
15. ಬ ಮ ಅ ಯಉ ದ ಸ ದ ಜ .( ಲಭ)
a) ಆಂಧ ಪ ಶ b) ಉತ ರ ಪ ಶ
c) ಪ ಮ ಳ d)

16. ರತದ ಅ ೕ ಭತ ಉ ವ ಜ .( ಲಭ)
a) ಉತ ರ ಪ ಶ b) ಛ ೕ ಗ
c) ಪ ಮ ಳ d) ಆಂಧ ಪ ಶ

17. ಭತ ದ ಳ ನ ಗಳ ಸ ದ ಂ .
(ಕ ಣ)
i) “ಆ /ಶರ ಲದ ಭತ ”- - ನ ತ , ಪ ಂಬ -ಅ ೕಬ ನ ಕ
ಡ .
ii) “ಆಮ /ಚ ಲದ ಭತ ”- - ನ ತ , ನ ಂಬ - ಂಬ ನ
ಕ ಡ .
iii) “ ೕ / ಲದ ಭತ ”– ನ ಂಬ - ಂಬ ನ ತ , -ಏ
ನ ಕ ಡ .
a) i ತ ಸ b) i ಮ ii ತ ಸ
c) ii ಮ iii ತ ಸ d) i, ii ಮ iii ಸ

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18. ’ ಯ ಪದ ’ ವ ?( ಲಭ)
a) ೕ b)
c) ಭತ d) ಕ

19. : (A) ಕ ಮ ಹ ಯ ಕ .
ರಣ: (R) ಕ ಮ ೕ ವ ಯವ ಂಶವ ವ ಮಥ
ಂ . (ಕ ಣ)
ತಗ :
a) A ತ ಸ b) R ತ ಸ
c) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ d) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ ಲ

20. ಪ ಚದ ಅ ಕ ಉ ವ ಷ .( ಲಭ)
a) ಂ ಶ b) ೕ
c) ರತ d)

21. 2011-12 ರ ವರ ಯ ಪ ರ ರತದ ಅ ಹ ಉ ವ ಜ .( ಲಭ)
a) ಜ b) ಮ ಷ
c) ಮಧ ಪ ಶ d) ಕ ಟಕ

22. : (A) ಡಗ ರ ೕ ವ ಮರಗ ಅತ ವಶ ಕ.
ರಣ: (R) ಯ ನ ರ ದ ರಣಗ ಮ ರಭಸ ೕ ವ ತಗ
ಡಗ ರಕ. (ಕ ಣ)
ತಗ :
a) A ತ ಸ b) R ತ ಸ
c) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ d) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ ಲ

23. ರತದ ಅ ಉ ವ ಜ .( ಲಭ)
a) ಅ ಂ b) ತ
c) ರಳ d) ಕ ಟಕ

24. ಪ -I ಪ –II ಂ ಂ ಮ ವ ತಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ
ಸ ದ ಉತ ರವ ಆ . (ಕ ಣ)
ಪ -I ಪ -II
( ಗ ) ( ಂಬ)
A. ೕ 1.
B. ಹ 2.
C. ಚಹ 3. ( )
D. 4. ಮ ೕ

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ತಗ :
A B C D
a) 3 4 2 1
b) 4 3 2 1
c) 2 1 4 3
d) 2 3 1 4

25. ಪ -I ಪ –II ಂ ಂ ಮ ವ ತಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ
ಸ ದ ಉತ ರವ ಆ . (ಕ ಣ)
ಪ -I ಪ -II
( ಗ ) ( ಕ ಸ )
A. ೕ 1.
B. ಭತ 2. ಸ ರ ಅ ರ
C. ಹ 3. ಒ ಸಸ
D. ಕ 4.
ತಗ :
A B C D
a) 3 4 2 1
b) 4 3 1 2
c) 2 1 4 3
d) 2 3 1 4

II. ಆವರಣದ ೕ ವ ಕ ದ ಪದವ ಆ ಟ ಸ ಳಗಳ ಂ :
(ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
(ನವ ಹ , ಭತ , ರತ, ಅ ಂ, ೕ , ರಳ)
1. ____________ ಂದ ಯದ ಒಂ ಪ ಖ .( ಲಭ)
2. ಅ ಕ ಣ ವ ರತದ ಜ _________ ( ರಣ)
3. ರ ೕಯ ೕಧನ ಇ ವ ಸ ಳ ________ ( ರಣ)
4. ____________ ಪ ಚದ ಎರಡ ಅ ಭತ ಉ ವ ಷ .( ರಣ)
5. ರತದ __________ ಜ ಅ ಚಹ ಉ ತ .( ರಣ)

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III. ಂ ಬ :( ಲಭ) (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )

1. A B
a) ೕ ದ ಚಹ ಪ ದ i) ಮ ಇ ೕ ಂ
b) ಒಣ ಯದ ii) ಕ ಣ
c) ಹ ಂ ಯ ಮಹ iii) ೕ
d) ಂ ರಪ ಥ ಗಳ iv) ಏಲ
e) ಂ ರಪ ಥ ಗಳ ಜ v) ೕಳ
vi) ರತ

2. A B
a) ಯ i) ೕ
b) ತ ಂ ರಗಳ ii) ಕ ಣ
c) ಬ ಮ iii)
d) ಚಹ iv) ಕ
e) v)
vi) ಏಲ

IV. ಳ ನಪ ಗ ಒಂ ಪದ ಅಥ ಒಂ ಕದ ಉತ : (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ವ ವ ಯವ ಅ .( ಲಭ)
2. ರತದ ವಋ ನದ ಮ ಯ ಪ ತ .( ರಣ)
3. ೕನ ೕವ ರ ಯ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
4. ವಲ ೕವ ರ ಯವ ಅ .( ಲಭ)
5. ರ ೕವ ರ ಯ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
6. ಂದ ಯದ ಅಥ .( ರಣ)
7. ಜ ಯ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
8. ಶ ಯ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
9. ೕಟದ ಯವ ಅ .( ರಣ)
10. ಒಣ ಯ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
11. ಆದ ಯ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
12. ಆದ ಯ ವಮ ಂ ಸ ?( ಲಭ)
13. ೕ ವ ಯವ ಅ .( ಲಭ)
14. ಹ ಂ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
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15. ಕ ಯ ಅ .( ಲಭ)
16. ರತದ ಕ ೕ ಯ ಪ ಚ ದ ಪ ಥಮ ಜ
?( ರಣ)
17. ಅಂ ಂಶ ಯ ಅ . (ಕ ಣ)
18. ೕಟ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
19. ರತದ ಅ ಹ ಗಳ ಉ ವ ಜ ?( ಲಭ)
20. ರತದ ಅ ತರ ಗಳ ಉ ವ ಜ ?( ಲಭ)
21. ನ ಫಸ ಎಂದ ? (ಕ ಣ)
22. ರತದ ಅ ಏಲ ಉ ವ ಜ ?( ಲಭ)
23. ಷ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
24. ಆ ರದ ಗ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
25. ರತದ ಅ ಭತ ಉ ದ ವ ಜ ?( ಲಭ)
26. ರತದ ಅ ೕ ಉ ವ ಜ ?( ಲಭ)
27. ಪದ ಎಂದ ?( ರಣ)
28. ೕಯಗಳ ಎಂ ದ ಕ ?( ಲಭ)
29. ರತದ ಅ ಚ ಉ ವ ಜ ?( ಲಭ)
30. ರತ ಟ ದ ಯ ಪ ಚ ದವ ?( ರಣ)
31. ರತದ ಅ ಉ ವ ಜ ?( ಲಭ)

V. ಳ ನಪ ಗ 2 ಂದ 3 ಕ ಗಳ ಉತ : (ಎರ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ರತದ ವಲ ೕವ ರ ಯ ಯ ವ ಜ ಗಳ ಸ . (ಕ ಣ)
2. ಂದ ಯ ಪದ ಯಪ ಖ ಣಲ ಣಗಳ .( ರಣ)
3. ಜ ಯದ ಣಲ ಣಗಳ ಬ .( ರಣ)
4. ರತದ ಪ ಖ ೕಟದ ಗಳ ಸ .( ಲಭ)
5. ರತದ ೕಟ ಯದ ಣಲ ಣಗಳ .( ರಣ)
6. ರತದ ದ ಪ ಖ ಂ ರಪ ಥ ಗಳ ಗಳ ಸ .
( ಲಭ)
7. ರತದ ವ ದ ಂಪ ಕ ಷ ಗಳ .( ಲಭ)
8. ಭತ ದ ಉಪ ೕಗಗಳ ಬ .( ಲಭ)
9. ರತದ ಯ ವ ಭತ ದ ವ ಯ ನಗ ?( ರಣ)
10. ಆ , ಆಮ ಮ ೕ ಎಂದ ? (ಕ ಣ)
11. ರತ ಂದ ’ಬ ಮ ’ಅ ರ ವಪ ಖ ಷ ಗಳ ಸ . (ಕ ಣ)

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12. ರತದ ೕ ಯಪ ರಗಳ .( ರಣ)
13. ರತದ ೕ ಯ ವ ಅ ಸ ವ ನಗ ?( ರಣ)
14. ರತದ ಪ ಖ ಜ ಗಳ ಸ .( ಲಭ)
15. ಕ ನ (Sugarcane) ಉಪ ೕಗಗ ?( ಲಭ)
16. ಹ ಯ ಧಗಳ ಸ .( ಲಭ)
17. ಹ ಯ ಉಪ ೕಗಗಳ ಪ .( ಲಭ)
18. ರತದ ಎರ ಪ ಖ ೕಯ ಗಳ ಸ .( ಲಭ)
19. ಚಹ ಡದ ಪ ದಗ ? (ಕ ಣ)
20. ಚಹದ ಧಗಳ .( ಲಭ)
21. ಯಪ ದಗಳ . (ಕ ಣ)
22. ಕ ಟಕದ ಅ ಉ ವ ಗ ?( ರಣ)

VI. ಳ ನಪ ಗ 20 ಂದ 25 ಕ ಗಳ ಉತ : (ಐ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ರತದ ವವ ಯದ ಮಹತ ವ ಬ .*( ಲಭ)
2. ರತದ ಯ ವಪ ಖ ಯ ಧಗಳ ಪ ವ .*
( ಲಭ)
3. ಂದ ಯ ಎಂದ ? ಅದರ ಖ ಣಲ ಣಗಳ ವ .( ರಣ)
4. ಹ ಂ ಯ ಮಹತ ದ ಶಲ ಗಳ ವ .*( ರಣ)
5. ಹ ಂ ಯಅ ಲಮ ಅ ಲಗಳ ಪ ಬ .*
( ರಣ)
6. ರತದ ಕ ಯಬ ಬ .( ರಣ)
7. ಸಸ ಅಂ ಂಶ ಯ ಬ . (ಕ ಣ)
8. ೕಟ ಎಂದ ? ರತದ ಅದರ ಳವ ಯ ವ .*( ರಣ)
9. ರತದ ಹ ಮ ತರ ಯವ ಬ .*( ರಣ)
10. ರತದ ನ ಷ ಯ ಪ ಬ .*( ರಣ)
11. ಭತ ದ ಯ ವ ೕ ಕ ಅಂಶಗಳ ವ .( ರಣ)
12. ರತದ ಭತ ದ ಮ ಉ ದ ಯ ಪ ಬ . *( ರಣ)
13. ೕ ಯ ಳವ ಅವಶ ಕ ೕ ಕ ಅಂಶಗ ಮ ರತದ ೕ ವ
ನಗಳ ವ .*( ರಣ)
14. ರತದ ೕ ಯ ಮ ಉ ದ ಯ ಬ .*( ರಣ)
15. ಕ ನ ಯ ವ ೕ ಕ ಅಂಶಗಳ ವ .( ರಣ)
16. ರತದ ಕ ನ (Sugarcane) ಮ ಉ ದ ಯ ಚ . *( ರಣ)

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17. ಹ ಯ ವ ಅವಶ ಕ ವ ೕ ಕ ಅಂಶಗ ?
ಪ ಧಗಳ ವ .*( ರಣ)
18. ರತದ ಹ ಯ ಮ ಉ ದ ಯ ಪ ಬ .*( ರಣ)
19. ಚಹ ಯ ವ ೕ ಕ ಅಂಶಗಳ ವ .( ರಣ)
20. ರತದ ಚಹದ ಮ ಉ ದ ಯ ಚ .( ರಣ)
21. ವ ದ ಣ ರತದ ಂ ತ ದ ರಣಗಳ
ಮ ೕ ಕ ಅಂಶಗಳ ವ .*( ರಣ)
22. ರತದ ಯ ಮ ಉ ದ ಯ ಪ ಬ .( ರಣ)

ಚ : ’*’ ವಪ ಗಳ 10 ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ ಪ ಗ .
*-*-*-*-*-*

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ಅ ಯ-9
ಖ ಜಮ ಶ ಪ ಲಗ
( ಗ ಪ ದ ಅವ - 14 ಗ )

I. ಳ ನಬ ಆ ಪ ಗ ಉತ : (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ಪ -I ಪ –II ಂ ಂ ಮ ವ ತಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ
ಸ ದ ಉತ ರವ ಆ . (ಕ ಣ)
ಪ –I ಪ -II
(ಖ ಜಗ ) (ಉ ಹರ )
A. ಕ ಂಶ ಳ ಖ ಜ 1.
B. ಕ ತರ ಖ ಜ 2. ಸ ಕಅ ಲ
C. ಇಂಧನ ಖ ಜ 3. ಮ
D. ಇಂಧ ತರ ಖ ಜ 4. ಂಗ ೕ

ತಗ :
A B C D
a) 4 3 2 1
b) 1 2 3 4
c) 4 1 3 2
d) 2 1 4 3

2. “ಕ ಅ ” ಎಂ ಕ ಯಲ ವಕ ಣದ ಅ .( ಲಭ)
a) ಮ b) ಡ
c) ಗ . d)

3. ಕ ಣದ ಅ ನ ಕ ಂಶವ ಆಧ ಉನ ತ ದ ಂದ ಕ ದ ೕ ವ
ಸ ದ ಕಮ . (ಕ ಣ)
a) i. , ii. ಗ , iii. ಡ , iv. ಮ
b) i. ಗ , ii. ಮ , iii. , iv. ಡ
c) i. , ii. ಡ , iii. , iv. ಮ
d) i. ಡ , ii. , iii. ಮ , iv. ಗ

4. ಣ ದ ಅಂಶ ಂ ವಕ ಣದ ಅ ನಪ ರ. ( ರಣ)
a) b) ಡ
c) ಗ d) ಮ

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5. ಅ ಆಯ ಂತ ಣ ಂ ವ ಕ ಣದ ಅ . ( ಲಭ)
a) ಗ b) ಮ
c) d) ಡ

6. ರತದ ಅ ಂಗ ೕ ಉ ವ ಜ .( ಲಭ)
a) ಕ ಟಕ b) ಮ ಷ
c) ಒ d) ರ

7. ’20 ಶತ ನದ ಅ ತ ೕಹ’. ( ಲಭ)
a) ನ b) ಅ
c) ಮ d) ಕ ಣದ ಅ

8. ರತದ ಅ ೖ ಉ ವ ಜ.( ಲಭ)
a) ಒ b) ಜ
c) ಪ ಮ ಳ d) ತ .

9. ಸ ದ ೕ ಯ . (ಕ ಣ)
a) ಕ ದ ಆ ತ ಥಮ ೕಜ -ಒ ದತ
b) ಲಆ ತ ಥಮ ೕಜ -ಕ ಟಕದ
c) ಸ ಕಅ ಲಆ ತ ೕಜ - ರಳದ
d) ಜಲ ೕಜ –ತ ನ ಕಲ
10. ಳ ನ ಗಳ ಪ ಗ . (ಕ ಣ)
i. ಕ ಣದ ಅ ಆ ಕ ಗ ಕ ಯ .
ii. ಂಗ ೕ ಉ ನ ಣ ಸ ಬಳ ವ .
iii. ಅ ಒಂ ಉತ ಮ ಹಕ .
ನ ವ ಗ ಸ ?
a) i ಮ ii ತ ಸ b) i ಮ iii ತ ಸ
c) ii ಮ iii ತ ಸ d) i, ii ಮ iii ಸ
11. ರತದ ಅ ನ ಉ ವ ಜ .( ಲಭ)
a) ಕ ಟಕ b) ಜ ನ
c) ರಳ d) ಆಂಧ ಪ ಶ

12. : (A) ಕ ದ ಒಂ ಲಭ ಉ ವ ವಯವ ವ .
ರಣ : (R) ಕ ದ ದ ತಹ ಇಂ ಲಮ ಜಲಜನಕಗಳ ಧಪ ಣದ
ಂ ತ . (ಕ ಣ)

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ತಗ :
a) A ತ ಸ b) R ತ ಸ
c) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ d) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ ಲ
13. ಕ ದ ನ ವ ಇಂ ಲದ ಅಂಶವ ಆಧ ಉನ ತ ದ ಂದ ಕ ದ
ೕ ವಸ ದ ಕಮ . (ಕ ಣ)
a) ೖ - ೕ - ಆಂತ - ನ
b) ೕ - ಆಂತ - ನ - ೖ
c) ಆಂತ - ನ - ೖ - ೕ
d) ನ - ೖ - ೕ - ಆಂತ
14. ಳ ನ ಗಳ ಪ ಗ . (ಕ ಣ)
i. ಬ ಉಪ ೕ ಣಗಳ ಧ ಕ ದಲ ’ಕ ವಜ ’ ಎಂ ಕ ಯ .
ii.ಝ ಪ ಶವ “ಅ ತಮ ೕ ಂಶಭ ತ ಕ ದ ನ ಉ ಣ” ಂ
ಪ ಗ ಸ .
iii. ಪ ಮ ಳದ ಅ ಡ ಮ ಪ ದ ದಕ ದ ಗ ಪ ಶ .
ನ ವ ಗ ಸ ?
a. i ತ ಸ b. ii ತ ಸ
c. iii ತ ಸ d. i, ii ಮ iii ಸ
15. ರತದ ಪ ಥಮ ೕ ೕ ದ ವಷ . ( ಲಭ)
a) 1855 b) 1860
c) 1862 d) 1864
16. ರತದ ವ ಜದ ಪ ಥಮ ೕ ಯ ಯ ?
( ಲಭ)
a) ಮ ಷ b) ಅ ಂ
c) ಜ d) ಆಂಧ ಪ ಶ
17. ರತದ ಅ ಕಪ ಣದ ಕ ಲವ ಉ ವಪ ಶ. ( ಲಭ)
a) ಅಂಕ ಶರ b) ಂ
c) ಂ d) ಕ ೕ
18. “ ಯಕ ದ ” ಎಂ ಕ ಯಲ ವಶ ಪ ಲ. ( ಲಭ)
a) ಪವನಶ b) ಉಬ ರ ತಶ
c) ಜಲ ಚ d) ರಶ

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19. ಪ -I ಪ –II ಂ ಂ ಮ ವ ತಗಳ
ಉಪ ೕ ಸ ದ ಉತ ರವ ಆ . (ಕ ಣ)
ಪ -I ಪ -II
(ಪರ ಂದ ಗ ) ( ಜಗ )
A. ರ. 1. ಜ
B. ಕ . 2. ಮ ಷ
C. ನ ೕರ. 3. ತ
D. ರ. 4. ಉತ ರಪ ಶ
ತಗ A B C D
a) 1 2 3 4
b) 3 4 2 1
c) 2 3 4 1
d) 4 3 2 1

20. ಪ -I ಪ –II ಂ ಂ ಮ ವ ತಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ
ಸ ದ ಉತ ರವ ಆ . (ಕ ಣ)
ಪ –I ಪ -II
(ಪರ ಂದ ಗ ) ( ಜಗ )
A. ಪ ಪ ಗರ 1. ಕ ಟಕ
B. 2. ಪ ಮ ಳ
C. ೕ 3. ಆಂಧ ಪ ಶ
D. ೕಲ ತ 4. ಜ ನ
ತಗ A B C D
a) 4 3 2 1
b) 1 2 3 4
c) 4 1 3 2
d) 2 1 4 3
21. : (A) ರತ ಉಷ ವಲಯದ ಶ ದ ಂದ ಅ ರ ದ ರಶ ಯ
ಉ ವ ಅವ ಶವ ಂ .
ರಣ: (R) ತಗಳ ಲವ ರ ಪ ವಷ ದ ಎ ಲದ
ಶದ ಬಹಳ ಗದ ನ ವರಣ ತ . (ಕ ಣ)

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ತಗ :
a) A ತ ಸ b) R ತ ಸ
c) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ d) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ ಲ
22. ರತದ ಪ ಪ ಥಮ ೕ ೕ ೕ ಂದ ಪ ಂಡ ಜ.( ಲಭ)
a) ಕ ಟಕ b) ಜ ನ
c) ತ d) ಜ

II ಆವರಣದ ೕ ವ ಕ ದ ಪದವ ಆ ಟ ಸಳ ಂ . (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ
ಪ ಗ )
1.
( ರ, ಂ ನ, ಕ ಅ ಲ, ೕ , , )
1. ರತದ ಬ ಕ ಖ ಜಗ __________ ಗದ ಉತ .( ರಣ)
2. ರತದ _____________ ಪ ಶದ ರ ದಕ ದ ೕಪ .( ರಣ)
3. “21 ಶತ ನ ಮಹತ ದ ಇಂಧನ” __________. ( ರಣ)
4. ಜಲಜನಕ ಮ ಇಂ ಲಗಳ ಳ ಲ ಪದ ಶಣ ವ ________. ( ರಣ)
5. ರತದ ಪ ಪ ಥಮ ಪರ ಉ ದ ಂದ __________. ( ರಣ)

2.

( ,ನ ೕರ, ಕ ಅ ಲ, ಕ ಅ ಲ, ಮ ಷ ,ತ )
1. ______________ ಒ ಜದಪ ಖಕ ದ ಪ ಶ .( ರಣ)
2. ರತದ ಅ ಥಮ ಚ ಯ ಉ ವ ಜ ____.( ರಣ)
3. ____________ ಕ ಟಕದ ಏ ಕ ಪರ ಉ ದ ಂದ .( ಲಭ)
4. ಸಗ ಮ ವಥ ಕವ ಗಳ ಬಳ ಉ ವಶ __________. ( ಲಭ)
5. _________________ ೕ ಪ ನ ಒಳ ಂಡ ಅ ಲ ಪದ ೕ ಬ
ಆ .( ರಣ)
III. ಂ ಬ :( ಲಭ) (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. A B
a) ಕ ವಜ i) ಂಗ ೕ
b) ದ ವ ನ ii) ಂ
c) ಯಕ ದ iii) ಕ ದ
d) Jack of all traders iv) ೖ
e) ಗರ v) ೕ
vi) ಜಲ ಚ

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2. A B
a) ಮ ಕರ i) ನ ದಗ
b) ವನಸ ದ ii) ಮ
c) ಯ ನಹ iii) ಕಅ ಲ
d) ಂ ಅ iv) ಪವನ ಶ
e) ಪ ಂ v) ಜಲ ಚ
vi) ಉ ೕಯ ಶ

3. A B
a) ಇಂಧ ತರ ಖ ಜ i) ಓ
b) ಪರ ಶ ii) ಕ ದ
c) ನ ದಗ iii) ಣ ಕ
d) ೕಹ ಖ ಜ iv)
e) ಇಂಧನ ಖ ಜ v) ತಟ
vi) ಕ ಣದ ಅ

IV. ಳ ನಪ ಗ ಒಂ ಪದ ಅಥ ಒಂ ಕದ ಉತ . (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ಖ ಜ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
2. ಅ ರ ಅ .( ಲಭ)
3. ಗ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
4. ಉತ ಮ ದ ಯಕ ಣದ ಅ ?( ರಣ)
5. ೖ ಅ ಂದ ತ ವ ೕಹವ ಸ .( ಲಭ)
6. ದ “20 ಶತ ನದ ಅ ತ ೕಹ” ಎಂ ಕ ಯ ?( ರಣ)
7. ರತದ ಅ ನ ಉ ವ ಜ ?( ಲಭ)
8. ಪ ಇಂಧನ ಎಂದ ?( ರಣ)
9. ವ ಖ ಜವ “ಕ ವಜ ” ಎಂ ಕ ಯ ?( ಲಭ)
10. ವ ಧದ ಕ ದ ಉತ ಮ ದ ಯ ?( ರಣ)
11. ಝ ಏತ ಪ ?( ರಣ)
12. ವ ಜದ ತ ಕ ದ ಗ ಇ ?( ರಣ)
13. ಕ ಲ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
14. ಥಮ ಚ ಎಂದ ?( ರಣ)
15. ಪರ ಶ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
16. ರಶ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)

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17. ಕ ಅ ಲ ಎಂದ ? ( ಲಭ)
18. ಉ ೕಯ ಶ ಎಂದ ?( ರಣ)
19. ರತದ ವ ಜ ಪವನ ಶ ಉ ತ ?( ರಣ)
20. ಉಬ ರ ತಶ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)

V. ಳ ನಪ ಗ ಎರ ಂದ ಕ ಗಳ ಉತ . (ಎರ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ಖ ಜ ಮ ಅ ಗ ವವ ಸಗ ? (ಕ ಣ)
2. ಖ ಜಗಳ ಪ ಖ ಧಗ ?( ರಣ)
3. ಖ ಜಗಳ ಪ ಖ ಉಪ ೕಗಗ ?( ರಣ)
4. ಕ ಂಶ ಳ ಖ ಜಗಳ ಸ .( ರಣ)
5. ಕ ತರ ಖ ಜಗಳ ಸ .( ರಣ)
6. ೕಹ ಖ ಜಗ ಉ ಹರ .( ರಣ)
7. ಅ ೕಹ ಖ ಜಗ ಉ ಹರ .( ರಣ)
8. ಇಂಧನ ಖ ಜಗಳ ಸ .( ರಣ)
9. ಇಂಧ ತರ ಖ ಜಗಳ ಸ .( ರಣ)
10. ಕ ಣದ ಅ ನಪ ರಗಳ . (ಕ ಣ)
11. ಂಗ ೕ “Jack of all traders” ಎಂ ಏ ಕ ? (ಕ ಣ)
12. ಂಗ ೕ ನ ಉಪ ೕಗಗ ?( ರಣ)
13. ಂಗ ೕ ಅ ನಪ ರಗಳ . (ಕ ಣ)
14. ಅ ೕಹದ ಉಪ ೕಗವ .( ರಣ)
15. ನ ದ ಉಪ ೕಗಗಳ ಪ .( ಲಭ)
16. ರತದ ಟ ದ ನ ದಉ ದ ಎ ಮ ಗಆ ಭ ಂ ?
( ರಣ)
17. ರತದ ನ ಉ ವ ಎರ ಪ ಖ ಜ ಗಳ ಸ .( ಲಭ)
18. ಕ ಟಕದ ನ ಉ ವಪ ಖಪ ಶಗಳ ಸ .( ಲಭ)
19. ಶ ಯ ಲಗ ?( ರಣ)
20. ಕ ದ ನ ಮಹತ ವ .( ರಣ)
21. ಕ ದ ನಪ ರಗಳ ಸ . (ಕ ಣ)
22. ರತದ ವ ಜ ಗಳ ಂ ನಕ ದ ನಪ ಶಗ ? (ಕ ಣ)
23. ೕ “ದ ವ ನ ” ಎಂ ಏ ಕ ?( ರಣ)
24. ೕ ನ ಉಪ ೕಗಗಳ .( ಲಭ)
25. ಕ ಅ ಲದ ಉಪ ೕಗಗ ?( ಲಭ)
26. ರತದ ಪರ ಖ ಜಗಳ ಸ .( ರಣ)

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27. ರತದ ಟ ದ ಯಶ ಜಲ ಚ ಉ ದ ಯ ಎ
ಮ ಗ ?( ರಣ)
28. ಜಲ ಚ ಅ ಅಗತ ದ ದ ಅಂಶಗಳ
.( ರಣ)
29. ಥಮ ಚ ಉ ದ ಅಗತ ದ ಅಂಶಗಳ .( ರಣ)
30. ಅ ಂಪ ಕಶ ಪ ಲಗ ಎಂದ ?( ರಣ)
31. ಅ ಂಪ ಕಶ ಪ ಲಗಳ ಸ .( ರಣ)
32. ರತದ ಅ ಂಪ ಕಶ ಲಗಳ ಅಗತ ಯ ಬ . (ಕ ಣ)
33. ರಶ ಯ ಉಪ ೕ ವ ನಗಳ .( ಲಭ)
34. ರಶ ಯ ಮಹತ ?( ಲಭ)
35. ಪವನಶ ಮ ಗಳ ವ ಜ ಗಳ ಸ .( ಲಭ)
36. ಕ ಟಕದ ವ ಪವನ ಶ ಉ ದ ಂದ ಗಳ .( ಲಭ)
37. ಕಅ ಲ ರತದ ೕಣ ಪ ಶಗ ಕ. ?( ಲಭ)

VI. ಳ ನಪ ಗ 20 ಂದ 25 ಕ ಗಳ ಉತ : (ಐ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ಖ ಜಗ ಎಂದ ?ಅ ಗಳ ಪ ರಗ ಮ ಣಲ ಣಗಳ ಬ .
( ಲಭ)
2. ರತದ ಕ ಣದ ಅ ನ ಮ ಉ ದ ಯ ವ .( ರಣ)
3. ರತದ ಂಗ ೕ ನ ಉಪ ೕಗ, ಮ ಉ ದ ಯ ಬ .*
( ಲಭ)
4. ರತದ ೖ ಅ ನ ಮ ಉ ದ ಯ ವ .( ರಣ)
5. ರತದ ನ ದ ಮ ಉ ದ ಯ ಪ ಬ .( ಲಭ)
6. ರತದ ಕ ದ ನ ಖ , ಮ ಉ ದ ಯ ಚ .*
( ರಣ)
7. ರತದ ಕ ಲದ( ೕ ) ಉತ , ಮ ಉ ದ ಯ ವ .*
( ರಣ)
8. ರತದ ಜಲ ಚ ಯ ಬ .( ಲಭ)
9. ರತದ ಥಮ ಮ ಪರ ಶ ಗಳ ಸ ವರ ೕ .*( ರಣ)
10. ಅ ಂಪ ಕಶ ಪ ಲಗಳ ಪ ಮ ವ .( ರಣ)
11. ಖ ಜ ಮ ಶ ಪ ಲಗಳ ರ ಯ ಅವಶ ಕ ಮ ರ ಕ ಮಗಳ
ಚ . *( ರಣ)

ಚ : ’*’ ವಪ ಗಳ 10 ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ ಪ ಗ .

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ಅ ಯ 10
ಗ
( ಗ ಪ ದ ಅವ - 12 ಗ )
I. ಳ ನಬ ಆ ಪ ಗ ಉತ . (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ಲ ಒಂ ಉ ಹರ . ( ಲಭ)
a) ಅ . b) ಹ ಬ
c) ಕ ಣಮ ಉ ನ . d) ಸಕ
2. ಳ ನ ೕ ಗಳ ಪ ಗ .( ರಣ)
i. ವ ವ ಯಆ ತ –ಹ ಬ
ii. ಖ ಜ ಆ ತ –ಅ
iii. ತ – ರಸ ಬರ
ನ ವ ೕ ಗ ಸ ಂ ?
a) i ತ ಸ b) i ಮ ii ತ ಸ
c) i ಮ iii ತ ಸ d) i, ii ಮ iii ಸ
3. ಕ ಆ ತ ಉತ ಮ ಉ ಹರ . ( ಲಭ)
a) ಂ b) ಹ ಬ
c) ಸಕ d) ಕ ಣಮ ಉ ನ
4. ತ ಉ ಹರ . ( ಲಭ)
a) ಂ b) ಹ ಬ
c) ಕ ಣಮ ಉ d) ಅ
5. ರತದ ನಅ ಡ ಪ ಶ. ( ಲಭ)
a) - ಲ ಪ ಶ b) ಂ - ಪ ಶ
c) ಹ - ೕರ ಪ ಶ d) ಅಹ -ವ ೕದರ ಪ ಶ
6. ರತದ ಅತ ಂತ ಹ ಯ ಪ ಶ. ( ಲಭ)
a) - ಲ ಪ ಶ b) ಅಹ -ವ ೕದರ ಪ ಶ
c) ಂಬ - ಪ ಶ d) ಲಂ - ವ ತ ಪ ಶ
7. ಳ ನ ೕ ಗಳ ಪ ಗ . (ಕ ಣ)
i. - ಲ ಪ ಶ- ರ
ii. ಂ - ಪ ಶ - ಮಧ ಪ ಶ
iii. ಅಹ -ವ ೕದರ ಪ ಶ- ಜ

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ನ ವ ೕ ಗ ಸ ಂ ?
a) i ತ ಸ b) ii ತ ಸ
c) iii ತ ಸ d) i ಮ ii ತ ಸ
8. ಳ ನ ಗಳ ಪ ಗ . (ಕ ಣ)
¡) - ಲ ಪ ಶ ರತದ ಹ ಯ ಪ ಶ .
¡¡) ಹ ಬ ಕ ಆ ತ ಎಂ ಸ .
¡¡¡) ಂ - ಪ ಶ ಜ ನ ಅ ಂ .
iv) ಂ ಲ ಗಳ ಒಂ .
ನ ವ ಗ ಸ ಇ ?
a) i ಮ ii ತ ಸ b) i, ii ಮ iii ತ ಸ
c) i, ii ಮ iv ತ ಸ d) i, ii, iii ಮ iv ಸ
9. ರತದ ಪ ಮಕ ವ ೕರ ರ ದ ಪ ಶ. ( ರಣ)
a) ಂ - ಪ ಶ b) ಅಹ -ವ ೕದರ ಪ ಶ
c) ಖಪಟ ಣ- ಂ ಪ ಶ d) ಲ ಂ- ವ ತ ಪ ಶ
10. ಸ ೕತ ದ ಅ ಡ ಕ ಣಮ ಉ .( ರಣ)
a) ಎ ೕ b) ಂ ಜಯನಗರ ೕ
c) ಇ ಇಂಡ ೕ d) ಟಕ ಣಮ ಉ ನ
11. ವ ಜ ಕ ೕತ ದ ಅ ಡ ಕ ಣಮ ಉ .( ರಣ)
a) ಉ b) ೕಉ
c) ರಉ d) ಉ
12. ಕ ಣಮ ಉ ೕಕರಣ ಂ ವ ಜ .( ಲಭ)
a) ಛ ೕ ಗ b) ಪ ಮ ಳ
c) ರ d) ಖ ಂ
13. : (A) ೕ ಗ ರ ಪಸ ಪ ಶವ “ ರತದ (Rhur) ಕ ” ಎಂ
ಕ ಯ .
ರಣ: (R) ಈ ಪ ಶ ಹ ವಲಯ , ಇ ಕ ಣ ಮ
ಉ , ೕ , ೕ ೕ ೕ , ಸಲಕರ ಗ , ಗದ, ಂ ಮ
ಯ ಕ ಗ . (ಕ ಣ)
a) A ತ ಸ b) R ತ ಸ
c) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ d) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ ಲ

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14. ದ ಣ ರತದ ಂ ಸ . ( ಲಭ)
a) ಯಮ b) ಂಗ
c) ವ ತ ರ d) ದ
15. ರತದ ಟ ೕ ( ಲಭ)
a) b) ಲ
c) ಂಬ d) ಂಗ
16. ಅ ಹ ಬ ಯ ಉ ವ ರತದ ಜ .( ಲಭ)
a) ಜ b) ಕ ಟಕ
c) ತ d) ಮ ಷ
17. ರತದ ಂ ಸ ಎಂ ಕ ಯಲ ವ ನಗರ. ( ಲಭ)
a) ಂ b)
c) ಂಗ d) ಹ
18. ರತದ ಅ ಸಕ ಉ ಸಲ ವ ಜ .( ಲಭ)
a) ಉತ ರ ಪ ಶ b) ರ
c) ಕ ಟಕ d) ಮ ಷ
19. ಳ ನ ೕ ಗಳ ಪ ಗ .( ರಣ)
i) ರತದ ಂ ಸ - ಂ
ii) ದ ಣ ರತದ ಂ ಸ - ಯಮ
iii) ರತದ - ಂಗ
ನ ವ ೕ ಗ ಸ ಂ ?
a) i ಮ ii ತ ಸ b) ii ಮ iii ತ ಸ
c) i ಮ iii ತ ಸ d) i, ii ಮ iii ಸ
20. ರತದ ಸಕ ಉ ದ ಅ ಕಉ ದ ಂದ ಕ ಉ ದ ಯ
ಜ ಗಳ ಸ ದ ಕಮ . (ಕ ಣ)
a) ಮ ಷ - ಉತ ರ ಪ ಶ–ಕ ಟಕ - ತ .
b) ಉತ ರ ಪ ಶ–ಕ ಟಕ - ತ -ಮ ಷ .
c) ಕ ಟಕ - ತ –ಮ ಷ - ಉತ ರ ಪ ಶ.
d) ತ –ಮ ಷ –ಕ ಟಕ - ಉತ ರ ಪ ಶ.
21. : (A) ಉತ ರಪ ಶದ ೕರ ರ ಯ ’ ರತದ ವ’ ಎಂ ಕ .
ರಣ: (R) ಈ ಪ ಶದ ಇಂ ೕ ದ ವ ೕಪಗ ಸಕ ಗ
ಂ ತ . (ಕ ಣ)

a) A ತ ಸ b) R ತ ಸ

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c) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ d) A ಮ R ಎರ ಸ ಲ.
22. ರತದ ಅತ ಕ ಂ ಉ ವ ಜ .( ಲಭ)
a) ಜ b) ಮಧ ಪ ಶ
c) ಜ ನ d) ಛ ಗ
23. ಳ ನ ೕ ಗಳ ಪ ಗ . (ಕ ಣ)
i) ಮ ಷ -ಅ ಕಹ ಬ ಉ ದ
ii) ಜ -ಅ ಕ ಂ ಉ ದ
iii) ಉತ ರ ಪ ಶ - ಅ ಕ ಸಕ ಉ ದ
ನ ವ ೕ ಗ ಸ ಂ ?
a) i ಮ ii ತ ಸ b) ii ಮ iii ತ ಸ
c) i ಮ iii ತ ಸ d) i, ii ಮ iii ಸ

II. ಆವರಣದ ೕ ವ ಕ ದ ಪದವ ಆ ಟ ಸ ಳಗಳ ಂ :
(ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1.
(ರ , ಜಮ , , ಆದ , ಭ ವ , ರ)
1. ರತದ ಪ ಥಮ ಯಶ ಕ ಣಮ ಉ ನ ಪ ಮ ಳದ _______ ಎಂಬ
ತ ಂ .( ರಣ)
2. ಐರ ಆಂ ೕ ವ ಕ ಟಕದ ______ ಎಂಬ ಸ .( ಲಭ)
3. ಕ ಣಮ ಉ ಖ ಂ ಜ ದ _______ ನಗರದ .( ರಣ)
4. ಉ ________ ಶದ ಸಹ ೕಗ ಡ ಭ ಂ .
( ರಣ)
5. _______ ಹವ ನ ಹ ಬ ಯ ವಮ ವ ಯ ಗ
ರಕ .( ರಣ)

2.

( , ರ, 1973, ಈ , 1991, ಜವ ಉದ ಮ)
1. ನ ಎ ಗ ಂದ ಬ ಗಳ ತ ದ ______ ಎ .( ಲಭ)
2. ರತದ ಟ ದಲ ಂ ತ ಘಟಕ ________ ಎಂಬ ಭ .
( ರಣ)
3. ೕಟ ಗ ರಪ ಶದ ______ ಬ ಖ ದ ಂದ ( ರಣ)
4. ಲ ೕಕ ವಪ ಯ ವ ಉಪ ವ ___________ ( ರಣ)
5. ರತದ ಸ ೕ ಯ __________ ರ ಅ ನ ಸ .
( ರಣ)

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III. ಂ ಬ : ( ಲಭ) (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. A B
a) ರತದ ಂ ಸ i) ೕರ ರ
b) ದ ಣ ರತದ ಂ ಸ ii) ಂಗ
c) ರತದ iii) ನವ ಹ
d) ರತದ iv) ಯಮ
e) ತಕ v) ಂ
vi)

IV. ಳ ನಪ ಗ ಒಂ ಪದ ಅಥ ಒಂ ಕದ ಉತ : (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
2. ಪ ಶ ಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
3. ರತದ ಅತ ಂತ ಹ ಯ ಪ ಶವ ಸ .( ಲಭ)
4. ರತದ ಅತ ಂತ ಡ ದ ಪ ಶ ?( ಲಭ)
5. ವ ಯ ಲ ಎ ವ ?( ಲಭ)
6. ರತದ ಸ ೕತ ದ ನಅ ಡ ಕ ಣಮ ಉ ?( ರಣ)
7. ರತದ ಕ ವ ಸ ೕಪದ ಂ ವಉ ವರವ ಸ .( ರಣ)
8. ಕ ಆ ತ ಉ ಹರ .( ಲಭ)
9. ಜವ ಉದ ಮ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
10. ’ ರತದ ’ ಎಂ ವ ನಗರವ ಕ ವ ?( ಲಭ)
11. ರತದ ಪ ಥಮ ಆ ತ ಯ ಕ ಯ ಸ .( ರಣ)
12. ತ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
13. ರತದ ವ ನಗರವ ’ ’ ಎಂ ಕ ವ ?( ಲಭ)
14. ಉ ೕಕರಣವ ಅ .( ರಣ)
15. ಸ ೕಕರಣ ಎಂದ ?( ರಣ)
16. ಗ ೕಕರಣದ ಅಥ ಬ .( ರಣ)
17. SAIL - ಸ . (ಕ ಣ)
18. TISCO - ಸ . (ಕ ಣ)
19. VISL - ಸ . (ಕ ಣ)
20. IISCO - ಸ . (ಕ ಣ)
21. JVSL - ಸ . (ಕ ಣ)
22. ESL – ಸ . (ಕ ಣ)
23. ACC - ಸ . (ಕ ಣ)
24. HMT - ಸ . (ಕ ಣ)
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25. BEL - ಸ . (ಕ ಣ)
26. HAL - ಸ . (ಕ ಣ)
27. ITI - ಸ . (ಕ ಣ)
28. NOCIL - ಸ . (ಕ ಣ)
29. STP - ಸ . (ಕ ಣ)

V. ಳ ನಪ ಗ 2 ಂದ 3 ಕ ಗಳ ಉತ : (ಎರ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ರತದ ಆ ತ ಗಳ ಸ .( ಲಭ)
2. ೕ ಗ ರ ಪಸ ಯ “ ರತದ ಕ ” ಎಂ ಕ .ಏ ?
( ರಣ)
3. ಕ ಟಕದ ಎರ ಕ ಣಮ ಉ ನ ಗಳ ಸ .( ರಣ)
4. ರತದ ದಲ ಯಶ ಆ ಕಹ ರ ಎ ಮ ಗ ಭ ?
(ಕ ಣ)
5. ಂ ಯ ರತದ “ ಂ ಸ ” ಎಂ ಕ ಯ ರಣ ?( ರಣ)
6. ಸಕ ಯ ಉಪ ಉತ ನ ಗಳ .( ಲಭ)
7. ಇ ೕ ನ ವಷ ಗಳ ಸಕ ಗ ದ ಣ ರತದ ಜ ಗಳ
ಅ ಂ .ಏ ?( ರಣ)
8. ಂ ಯ ಬಳ ವಕ ವ ಗ ?( ರಣ)
9. ರತದ ದಲ ಅ ಎ ಮ ಗ ಪ ?
(ಕ ಣ)
10. ರತದ ಅ ಉ ವ ಪ ಗಳ ಸ . (ಕ ಣ)
11. ಆ ೕ ಉದ ಮ ಕ ಣಮ ಉ ನ ಗ ಸ ೕಪ ಳ
ರಣ ? (ಕ ಣ)
12. ರತದ ಟ ನಭ ಷ ದಬ . (ಕ ಣ)
13. ಕ ಟಕದ ಲ ಗ ಸ ವ ನಗರಗಳ ಸ .
( ರಣ)
14. ಂಗ ರ “ ರತದ ” ಎಂ ಕ ಯ ರಣ ?( ಲಭ)

VI. ಳ ನಪ ಗ 20 ಂದ 25 ಕ ಗಳ ಉತ : (ಐ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ಗಳ ಖ ಯ ವ .( ಲಭ)
2. ಗಳ ೕಕರಣದ ಪ ವ ೕ ವ ಅಂಶಗಳ ವ .( ಲಭ)
3. ರತದ ಪ ಖ ಪ ಶಗಳ ವ . *( ಲಭ)
4. ಂ - ಪ ಶಗಳ ಅ ಲಗಳ ಚ .( ರಣ)

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5. ರತದ ಕ ಣ ಮ ಉ ನ ಯಅ ಯ ವ . (ಕ ಣ)
6. ರತದ ಕ ಣಮ ಉ ನ ಯ ಮ ಉ ದ ಯ
ಬ . *( ರಣ)
7. ರತದ ಹ ಬ ಯ ಕರಣದ ಅಂಶಗ , ಮ ಉ ದ ಯ
ವ . *(ಕ ಣ)
8. ರತದ ಹ ಬ ಯ ಖ ಮ ಅ ಯ ವ .( ಲಭ)
9. ಸಕ ಯ ಖ , ಕರಣದ ಅಂಶಗ , ಮ ಉ ದ ಯ
ವ . *( ಲಭ)
10. ಸಕ ಗ ದ ಣ ರತದ ಜಗ ಸ ಂತರ ಳ ರಣಗಳ ವ .
( ರಣ)
11. ರತದ ಂ ಯ ಖ ಮ ಅ ಯ ವ . (ಕ ಣ)
12. ರತದ ಂ ಯ ಮ ಉ ದ ಯ ವ .( ರಣ)
13. ರತದ ಅ ಯ ಮ ಉ ದ ಯ ವ .( ರಣ)
14. ರತದ ಆ ೕ ಉದ ಮವ ಸ ವರ ೕ . (ಕ ಣ)
15. ರತದ ೕ- ಯ ಕ ಯ ಮ ಉ ದ ಯ ವ . (ಕ ಣ)
16. ರತದ ಗಳ ಖ ,ಅ ಮ ಭ ಷವ ವ .
(ಕ ಣ)
17. ರತದ ನ ಗಳ ಮ ರ ವ . (ಕ ಣ)
18. ರತದ ಗಳ ಗ ೕಕರಣದ ಪ ಮಗ ? ವ .( ರಣ)
19. ಯ ಉ ೕಕರಣ, ಸ ೕಕರಣ ಮ ಗ ೕಕರಣದ ಪ ಮಗಳ
ೕ . *( ಲಭ)

ಚ : ’*’ ವಪ ಗಳ 10 ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ ಪ ಗ .

*-*-*-*-*-*

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ಅ ಯ: 11
, ಪಕ ಮ ರ
( ಗ ಪ ದ ಅವ - 10 ಗ )
I. ಳ ನಬ ಆ ಪ ಗ ಉತ . (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ಗ ರ ೕಜ ದ ವಷ . ( ಲಭ)
a) 1953 b) 1943
c) 1933 d) 1923

2. ರತದ ವಣ ಚ ೕನ ಪ ವ ನಗರಗ .( ರಣ)
a) ೕನಗರ- ಲ - - ಂಬ b) ಹ -ಕ - ೖ- ಂಬ
c) ಹ - ಲ - -ಕ d) ಹ - ಲ - ೖ- ಂಬ

3. ಗ ರ ಪ ದ ವಷ . ( ಲಭ)
a) 1940 b) 1950
c) 1960 d) 1970

4. ಪ -I ಪ –II ಂ ಂ ಮ ವ ತಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ
ಸ ದ ಉತ ರವ ಆ . (ಕ ಣ)
ಪ –I ಪ –II
( ವಲಯಗ ) ( ಂದ ಕ )
A. ಂದ 1. ಬ
B. ಋತ 2. ನವ ಹ
C. ದ ಣ 3. ಂಬ ( .ಎ . )
D. ಉತ ರ 4. ೖ
ತಗ :
A B C D
a) 4 3 2 1
b) 1 4 3 2
c) 2 1 4 3
d) 3 1 4 2

5. ರತದ ಪ ಥಮ ರ ಗ ಭ ?( ಲಭ)
a) 16 ಎ 1853 b) 18 1853
c) 12 1854 d) 16 ಎ 1854

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6. “ ರತದ ” ಎಂ ಕ ಯಲ ವ ದ . ( ಲಭ)
a) ಂ ದ b) ಗ ದ
c) ರ ರ ದ d) ಂ ದ

7. ಳ ನ ಗಳ ಪ ಗ .ಸ ದ ಉತ ರವ ಆ ಬ . (ಕ ಣ)
i) ಂಡ ದರ ಂ ದ ನ ರ ಒತ ಡವ ಕ ಸ
ಅ ಪ ಸ .
ii) ದ ರತದ ಪ ಮಕ ವ ೕರದ ವ ರಳದ ಕ ದ .
iii) ನವ ಗ ಕ ಟಕದ ಪ ಖ ದ ಕ ಟಕ ಮ ರಳ ಜಗ
ೕ .
iv) ಎ ೕ ದ ರತದ ಪ ಥಮ ೕ ದ .
a) i ಮ ii ತ ಸ b) ii ಮ iii ತ ಸ
c) iii ಮ iv ತ ಸ d) i, ii, iii ಮ iv ಸ

8. ಪ -I ಪ –II ಂ ಂ ಮ ವ ತಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ
ಸ ದ ಉತ ರವ . (ಕ ಣ)
ಪ –I ಪ –II
( ನ ಣಗ ) ( ಸ ಗ )
A. ಂ 1. ಇಂ ಂ ಅಂತ ೕಯ ನ ಣ
B. ಹ 2. ಂ ಡ ಅಂತ ೕಯ ನ ಣ
C. ಂಗ 3. ೕ ಂ ಅಂತ ೕಯ ನ ಣ
D. ದ 4. ಸಹ ಅಂತ ೕಯ ನ ಣ

ತಗ :
A B C D
a) 4 1 2 3
b) 1 4 3 2
c) 2 1 4 3
d) 3 1 4 2

9. ರದಶ ನವ ದವ .( ಲಭ)
a) ಂ ಂಟ b) ೕ
c) d) ೕಟ ೕ

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10. ರ ೕಯ ನ ನ ೕಕರಣ ಂಡ ವಷ . ( ಲಭ)
a) 1953 b) 1946
c) 1985 d) 1995

11. ’ಏ ೕ ಅ ಆ ಇಂ ’ ಪ ದ ವಷ ( ಲಭ)
a) 1953 b) 1946
c) 1985 d) 1995

12. ಆ ಇಂ ೕವ ಆ ಶ ಎಂ ಸ ದ ವಷ . ( ಲಭ)
a) 1927 b) 1930
c) 1936 d) 1957
13. ರತದ ದಲ ರದಶ ನ ಪ ರ ದ . (ಕ ಣ)
a) ಪ ಂಬ 15, 1947 b) ಪ ಂಬ 15, 1949
c) ಪ ಂಬ 15, 1957 d) ಪ ಂಬ 15, 1959
14. ರತದ ಉಪಗ ಹಗಳ ತ ವಮ ಉ ವ ಯ ವ ವ .
( ಲಭ)
a) b) ಇ ೕ
c) d) ಎ ಎ ಎ
15. ISRO ದ ಂದ ಕ ಇ ವ ಸ ಳ. ( ಲಭ)
a) ಸನ b) ಂಗ
c) ೕಹ ೕ d) ದ
16. ಉಪಗ ಹಗಳ ವ ಸ ಂಟ ಂದ ಇ ವ ಸ ಳ. ( ಲಭ)
a) ಸನ b) ಂಗ
c) ೕಹ ೕ d) ದ

II. ಆವರಣದ ೕ ವ ಕ ದ ಪದವ ಆ ಟ ಸ ಳಗಳ ಂ :
(ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
(ಮಮ ೕ , ಲ , ಸನ, ಅ ೕ ,ಇ ೕ, ಂ )
1. _______________ ದ ’ ರತದ ’ ಎಂ ಸ .( ಲಭ)
2. ನ ಯಅ ಯ ತ ವ ಕ ದ __________( ರಣ)
3. ದ ೕ ಅಂತ ೕಯ ನ ಣ ಪ ಮ ಳದ ___________
ನಗರದ .( ರಣ)
4. ರತದ ಉಪಗ ಹಗಳ ವ ಮ ಉ ವ ಯ ವ ವ ವ
__________( ಲಭ)

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5. ಉಪಗ ಹಗಳ ವ ಸ ೕ ಂಟ (MCF)
ಕ ಟಕದ _________ ದ ಬ .( ರಣ)

III. ಂ ಬ :( ಲಭ) (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. A B
a) ದ i) ಒ
b) ಲತ ದ ii) ದ ಣ ರತದ ಅ ಡ ದ
c) ಖಪಟ ದ iii) ಪವ ಹ
d) ರ ೕ ದ iv) ಂ
e) ಪ ೕ ಷ v) ಆಂಧ ಪ ಶ
vi) ಪ ಮ ಳ

2. A B
a) ೕ ದ i) ೕವ
b) ನವ ವ ದ ii) ಕ ಟಕ
c) ಮಮ ೕವ ದ iii) ರಳ
d) ನವ ಗ ದ iv) ಂ .
e) ದ v) ತ
vi) ಮ ಷ

3. A B
a) ಈ ನ ಗ i) “20 ಶತ ನದ ಅ ತ ”
b) ಂ ii) ರತದ ಅ ಉದ ದ ೕಯ .
c) ರದಶ ನ iii) ಪ ಮ- ವ ರ
d) - ೕ ದ iv) ಮ ಂ( ವ )
e) ದ v) ರತದ ದಲ ತ ಪ
vi) ರ ಂದ (NRSA)

IV. ಳ ನಪ ಗ ಒಂ ಪದ ಅಥ ಒಂ ಕದ ಉತ : (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
2. ಪಕ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
3. ರ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)

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4. ಆ ಶ ಎಂದ ? ( ಲಭ)
5. ರತದ ದಲ ವ ನಗರಗಳ ನ ಚ ?( ರಣ)
6. ಜಲ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
7. ರದಶ ನ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
8. ರತದ ಪ ಥಮ ತ ಪ ಯ ಪಕ ದವ ?( ರಣ)
9. ದ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
10. ಲ ದ ವನ ದಡದ ?( ರಣ)
11. ಂದ ವಲಯದ ಂದ ಕ ಎ ?( ರಣ)
12. ರತದ ಅ ಉದ ದಅ ಲ ಳ ಗ ?( ರಣ)

V. ಳ ನಪ ಗ 2 ಂದ 3 ಕ ಗಳ ಉತ . (ಎರ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ನ ಧಗಳ .( ಲಭ)
2. ರತದ ವಲಯಗಳ ಅ ಗಳ ಂದ ಕ ಗ ಡ .( ರಣ)
3. ಆ ಶ ಯ ಉಪ ೕಗಗಳ ಪ .( ಲಭ)
4. ರದಶ ನದ ಖ ಉಪ ೕಗಗಳ ಪ .( ಲಭ)
5. ಜಲ ಯ ಎರ ಖ ಧಗಳ .( ಲಭ)
6. ರತದ ಆಂತ ಕ ಮ ಅಂತ ೕಯ ನ ಣಗ ವವ ಸವ .
( ರಣ)
7. ರತದ ಆಮ ಮ ರ ಗಳ ವ ಸ ?( ರಣ)
8. ರತದ ರ ಗಳ ಪ ಖ ಧಗಳ ಬ .( ಲಭ)
9. ರತದ ಯ ಖ ಯ .( ಲಭ)
10. ರತದ ೕ ೕ ನ ಣಗಳ ಸ .( ಲಭ)

VI. ಳ ನಪ ಗ 20 ಂದ 25 ಕ ಗಳ ಉತ : (ಐ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ರತದ ೕಯ ಗಳ ವ .( ಲಭ)
2. ರತದ ಯಅ ಬ . *( ಲಭ)
3. ಳ ಗ ಗಳ ಅ ಲ ಅ ಲಗಳ ವ .( ಲಭ)
4. ರತದ ಪ ಮಕ ವ ಯ ದ ಎರ ದ ಗಳ ಪ
ಬ . *( ರಣ)
5. ರತದ ವ ಕ ವ ಯ ದ ಎರ ದ ಗಳ ಪ
ಬ . *( ರಣ)
6. ರತದ ಯ ವ .( ರಣ)
7. ಉಪಗ ಹ ಪಕ ಎಂದ ? ಉಪಗ ಹ ಪಕ ದ ಖ ಗಳ ಪ . (ಕ ಣ)

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8. ರತದ ಅಮ ಮ ರ ರವ ಚ .( ರಣ)
9. ರತದ ರದ ೕಜ ಮ ಕ ವ .*
( ರಣ)

ಚ : ’*’ ವಪ ಗಳ 10 ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ ಪ ಗ .

*-*-*-*-*-*

SUBJECT: 24- GEOGRAPHY 76

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ಅ ಯ-12
ಪ ಸರ ಸಮ ಗ , ೕಜ , ರಅ - ೕ ಕ ೕನ
( ಗ ಪ ದ ಅವ -07 ಗ )
I. ಳ ನಬ ಆ ಪ ಗ ಉತ . (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ಕ ಪ ಸರದ ಅಂಶ. ( ಲಭ)
a) b)
c) d) ಸ ಪ
2. ಂಸ ೃ ಕ ಪ ಸರದ ಅಂಶ. ( ಲಭ)
a) ಸ ಪ b) ನ ವ ವ
c) ಸಸ ವಗ d) ಗ
3. ಜಲ ನ ಂದ ನವನ ಆ ೕಗ ದ ಉಂ ವವ ಕ ಪ ಮ. ( ಲಭ)
a) ತನ b) ಉ ಟದ ಸಮ
c) ನರ ಬ ಲ d) ( ಪ ೕ )
4. ಪ -I ಪ –II ಂ ಂ ಮ ವ ತಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ
ಸ ದ ಉತ ರವ ಆ .( ರಣ)
ಪ –I ಪ –II
( ನ ದಪ ರಗ ) ( ಲಗ )
A. ನ 1) ರ
B. ಜಲ ನ 2) ಇಂಧನಗಳ ದ
C. ಶಬ ನ 3) ೕಟ ಶಕಗ
D. ಮ ನ ನ 4) ಚ ೕ
ತಗ :
A B C D
a) 4 3 2 1
b) 1 4 3 2
c) 2 4 1 3
d) 3 1 4 2

5. CO2 ಗ ಪ ಣವ ಧ ಜಗ ನಅ ಮ ೕನ ಂ ವ ಶ. ( ಲಭ)
a) ಜ b) ೕ
c) ರ d) ಅ ಕ

6. ಡತನದ ಶಬ ದ ೕವ .( ರಣ)

SUBJECT: 24- GEOGRAPHY 77

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a) 40 ಬ b) 65 ಬ
c) 88 ಬ d) 110 ಬ
7. “ ರಅ ” ಪ ಕಲ ಯ ೕ ದವ .( ರಣ)
a) ಬ ಂ ಂ b) . -ಉ -ಹ
c) || ಆಮ d)
8. ’ಅವ ಮ ಚ ’ ವರ .( ರಣ)
a) ೕಜ b) ಕ ೕಜ
c) ರಅ d) ಡ ಪ ಶಗಳ ಅ ಯ ಕಮ
9. ಪ ಸರ ೕ ಇಂಧನ. ( ಲಭ)
a) ಕ ದ b) ೕ
c) ರಶ d) ಉ ವ
10. ಪ -I ಪ –II ಂ ಂ ಮ ವ ತಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ
ಸ ದ ಉತ ರವ ಆ .( ರಣ)
ಪ –I ಪ –II
( ನದಪ ರ) (ಪ ಮ)
A. ನ 1. ಪ
B ಜಲ ನ 2. ಉ ಟದ ಂದ
C. ಶಬ ನ 3. ಕ ಇ ವ
D. ಮ ನ 4. ತನ
ತಗ :
A B C D
a) 4 3 2 1
b) 1 4 3 2
c) 2 1 4 3
d) 3 1 4 2

III. ಆವರಣದ ೕ ವ ಕ ದ ಪದವ ಆ ಟ ಸ ಳಗಳ ಂ .
(ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
( ೕ ೕ ೕ , ಹ , ರ , ಲತ, ಂಬ , ಬ )

1. ಶಬ ದ ೕವ ಯ ಅ ಯ ಬಳ ವ ನ _____________( ಲಭ)
2. __________ ನಗರ ಂದ ಯ ನ ನ ಂ .( ರಣ)
3. ರ ಳ ಪ ಶ _____________ ನಗರದ ಂದ ಗದ .( ರಣ)
4. ಏ ದ ಅತ ಂತ ರ ದ ಳ ಪ ಶ _____________( ರಣ)

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5. _________ ಣ ಯ ಹ ಮ ಅ ಲಗಳ ತಣ .
( ರಣ)

III. ಂ ಬ .( ಲಭ) (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. A B
a) ಷ ಯ ೕತ ೕಜ i) ಪ ಸರ ೕ ಇಂಧನಗ
b) ಅವ ಮ ಚ ii) ಡ ಪ ಶಅ ಯ ಕಮ
c) ಷ ಂ ನ ೕಜ iii) 4 ಚ ಕ ೕಜ
d) ರಶ ಮ ಪವನಶ iv) ರಅ ಸ
e) ಜನ ಮ ಬಡತನ v) ಸಣ ವ ತರ ಅ ಯ ಕಮ
vi) ಬ ಂ ಂ ೕ

IV. ಳ ನಪ ಗ ಒಂ ಪದ ಅಥ ಒಂ ಕದ ಉತ . (ಒಂ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ಪ ಸರವ ಅ .( ಲಭ)
2. ಪ ಸರ ನ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
3. ಜಲ ನ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
4. ನ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
5. ಶಬ ನ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
6. ಘನ ಜಗ ?( ರಣ)
7. ಮ ನ ನವ ಅ .( ಲಭ)
8. ಅರಣ ಶವ ಅ .( ಲಭ)
9. ಳ ಗ ಂದ ?( ರಣ)
10. ೕಜ ಪದದ ಅಥ ವ .( ರಣ)

V. ಳ ನಪ ಗ 2 ಂದ 3 ಕ ಗಳ ಉತ . (ಎರ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ಪ ಸರದ ಎರ ಧಗಳ ಸ .( ಲಭ)
2. ಕ ಪ ಸರದ ಅಂಶಗ ವ ?( ಲಭ)
3. ಂಸ ೃ ಕ ಪ ಸರದ ಅಂಶಗ ವ ?( ಲಭ)
4. ಪ ಸರ ನದ ಧಗ ?( ಲಭ)
5. ನ ರಕಗ ?( ರಣ)
6. ಜಲ ನ ರಣಗ ?( ಲಭ)
7. ನವನ ಆ ೕಗ ದ ಜಲ ನ ಂದ ಉಂ ವಪ ಮಗ ?( ರಣ)
8. ನ ಜ ಗಳ ಪ ಣದ ಮ ನ ಂ .ಆ ಜ ಗಳ
ಸ .( ರಣ)
9. ನ ಯ ನ ಪ ಖ ರಣಗ ?( ಲಭ)
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10. ಯ ನ ಜ ಗಳ ಮ ನ ಂ .ಆ ಜ ಗಳ
ಸ .( ರಣ)
11. ನ ರಣಗ ?( ಲಭ)
12. ಶಬ ನ ರಣಗಳ ಪ .( ಲಭ)
13. ಶಬ ನ ಜನರ ಆ ೕಗ ದ ೕ ವಪ ಮಗ ?( ಲಭ)
14. ಘನ ಜ ಉತ ವ ಎರ ಲಗಳ .( ರಣ)
15. ಹ ಜ ವ ಗಳ ಪ .( ಲಭ)
16. ಘನ ಜ ಗ ಂದ ಉಂ ವ ಷ ಮಗ ?( ಲಭ)
17. ಗ ಂದ ಉಂ ವ ಜಗ ?( ರಣ)
18. ಸ ತ ಉಂ ಗ ರಣಗ ?( ರಣ)
19. ರತದ ಸ ತ ಳ ೕ ವ ಯ ಧಗಳ ಸ . (ಕ ಣ)
20. ಅರಣ ಶ ರಣಗಳ .( ಲಭ)
21. ಅರಣ ಶ ಂ ವಪ ಮಗಳ .( ಲಭ)
22. ಅರಣ ರ ಯ ಕ ಮಗಳ .( ಲಭ)
23. ೕಜ ನಗ ?( ಲಭ)
24. ಕ ೕಜ ಎಂದ ?( ರಣ)
25. ಷ ೕಜ ಎಂದ ?( ರಣ)
26. ರಅ ಎಂದ ?( ಲಭ)
27. ಬರ ೕ ತ ಪ ಶಗಳ ಅ ಯ ಕ ಮಗಳ ವ ಜ ಗಳ
ಅ ನ ಸ ?( ರಣ)
28. ರಅ ಯ ಧ ಅಳವ ಳ ದ ತಗ ವ ?( ರಣ)

VI. ಳ ನಪ ಗ 20 ಂದ 25 ಕ ಗಳ ಉತ . (ಐ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ಜಲ ನದ ಲಗ ? ಜಲ ನದಪ ಮಗಳ ವ .( ಲಭ)
2. ಘನ ಜ ಗಳ ಧ ಉಪ ೕಗಗ ಬಳ ಳಬ ? ರತದ
ಮ ನಗರಗಳ ಳ ಪ ಶಗಳ ಆ ಸಮ ಗಳ .( ರಣ)
3. ಘನ ಜ ಎಂದ ? ಘನ ಜ ಲಗ ಮ ಪ ಮಗಳ .( ಲಭ)
4. ರತದ ನಗರ ಳ ಗಳ ವ ಜನರ ಸಮ ಗಳ ಚ .( ಲಭ)
5. ರತದ ನಗರ ಪ ಶಗಳ ಜ ಸ ವರ ಬ .( ರಣ)
6. ೕಜ ಎಂಬ ಪದದ ಅಥ ? ೕಜ ನದ ಎರ ಧಗ ? ಅ ಗಳ
ಬ .( ಲಭ)
7. ಷ ೕಜ ಎಂದ ? ರತದ ಇ ಏ ಅವಶ ಕ? ಚ . (ಕ ಣ)
8. ರಅ ಯ ಪ ಕಲ ಯ ವ .( ರಣ)
9. ರಅ ಯಸ ಗಳ ಚ .( ರಣ)
SUBJECT: 24- GEOGRAPHY 80

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ಗ-
ೕ ಕ ೕಳ ಸ

SUBJECT: 24- GEOGRAPHY 81

Page 159

ಅ ಯ -13
ೕ ಕದ ಂಶಗಳ ಪ
( ಗ ಪ ದ ಅವ - 14 ಗ )
( ಶಲ ಆ ತಪ ಗ )
I. ಸರಳ ಖ: (ಐ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ಳ ನ ಅಂ ಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ ಂ ಸರಳ ಖವ ರ . (ಕ ಣ)
ರತ: ಜನ ಳವ ಯಪ (1961-2011)

ವಷ ಗ 1961 1971 1981 1991 2001 2011

ಜನ
439.23 548.16 683.33 843.93 1027.01 1210.19
(ದಶ ಲ ಗಳ )

2. ಈ ಳ ನ ಅಂ ಅಂಶಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ ಂ ಸರಳ ಖವ ರ . (ಕ ಣ)
ರತ: ಕ ಣಅ ನಉ ದ .

ಉ ದ
ವಷ ಗ
(ದ ಲ ಟ ಗಳ )

1960-61 18.7

1970-71 34.3

1980-81 41.6

1990-91 54.9

2000-01 80.6

2010-11 136.4

3. ರತದ ಆಯ ಜ ಗಳ ಭತ ದ ಉ ದ ಳ ನ

ದ ಂಶಗಳ ಬಳ ಂ ಸರಳ ಖವ ರ . (ಕ ಣ)

ಪ ಮ
ಜಗ ಉತ ರಪ ಶ ಆಂಧ ಪ ಶ ಬ ರ ತ
ಳ

ಉ ದ
( ಕಡ 14.24 13.44 12.35 10.11 6.90 6.61
ಪ ಣದ )

SUBJECT: 24- GEOGRAPHY 82

Page 160

4. ಳ ನ ಅಂ ಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ ಂ ಸರಳ ಖರ . (ಕ ಣ)
ರತ: ಜನ ಂದ (1961-2011)

ವಷ ಗ 1961 1971 1981 1991 2001 2011

ಜನ ಂದ
142 177 216 267 325 382
(ಪ ಚ ೕ )

5. ಳ ನ ಅಂ ಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ ಂ ಸರಳ ಖರ . (ಕ ಣ)
ರತ: ರ ಯಪ (1951-2011)

ವಷ 1951 1961 1971 1981 1991 2001 2011

ರ (%) 18.33 28.31 34.45 43.56 52.21 65.38 74.40

6.. ಳ ನ ಅಂ ಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ ಂ ಸರಳ ಖರ . (ಕ ಣ)
ರತ: ೖ ಉ ದ (1961-2011)

ವಷ ಗ 1961 1971 1981 1991 2001 2011

ಉ ದ
476 1517 1955 4984 7993 15150
(ದಶ ಲ ಟ )

7. ಳ ನ ಅಂ ಅಂಶಗಳ ಬಳ ಂ ಸರಳ ಖವ ರ . (ಕ ಣ)
ರತ: ಆಯ ಜ ಗಳ ಸಕ ಉ ದ (2011-12)

ಉ ದ
ಜಗ (ಲ
ಟ ಗಳ )

ಮ ಷ 89.8

ಉತ ರ ಪ ಶ 69.7

ಕ ಟಕ 38.7

ತ 23.8

ಆಂಧ ಪ ಶ 11.4

ಜ 10.0

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Page 161

8. ಳ ವ ಅಂ -ಅಂಶಗಳ ಸ ಯ ಂದ ಒಂ ಸರಳ
ಖವ ರ . (ಕ ಣ)
ಕ ಟಕ: ರ ಪ ಣದ ಪ
ವಷ ಗ ರ ಪ ಣ
( ಕ ಗಳ )
1961 29.80
1971 36.83
1981 46.21
1991 56.04
2001 66.60
2011 75.36
2021 77.70

9. ಳ ವ ಅಂ -ಅಂಶಗಳ ಸ ಯ ಂದ ಒಂ ಸರಳ ಖವ
ರ . (ಕ ಣ)
ರತ: ಷರ ಸ ಸ ೕ ವ ಯಪ
ವಷ ಗ ಸ ಸ ೕ ವ
(ವಷ ಗಳ )
1961 32.5
1971 41.9
1981 52.2
1991 53.6
2001 61.6
2011 65.8
2021 65.7
10. ಳ ವ ಅಂ -ಅಂಶಗಳ ಸ ಯ ಂದ ಒಂ ಸರಳ ಖವ
ರ . (ಕ ಣ)
ರತ: ೕಣ ಜನ ಪ
ವಷ ಗ ೕಣ ಜನ
( ಕಡ )
1951 82.4.
1961 81.7
1971 79.8
1981 76.3
1991 74.3
2001 72.2
2011 76.4

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II. ಸರಳ ಸ ಂ ಖ. (ಐ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ಈ ಳ ನ ಅಂ ಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ ಂ ಸರಳ ಸ ಂ ಖರ . (ಕ ಣ)
ಡ ಜನ ಂದ -2011

ಉತ ರ ದ ಣ ಗ ೕಕ
ಡಗ ಏ ೕ ಆ ಕ
ಅ ಕ ಅ ಕ ಪ ಶ

ಜನ ಂದ
86.7 70 32.7 72.9 21.4 4.25
(ಪ ಚ ೕ )

2. ಈ ಳ ನ ಅಂ ಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ ಂ ಸರಳ ಸ ಂ ಖವ ರ . (ಕ ಣ)
ರತ: ಕ ಉ ದ (2011-12)

ಉ ದ
ಜಗ
(ದಶ ಲ ಟ ಗಳ )

ಉತ ರ ಪ ಶ 128.82

ಮಹ ಷ 81.86

ತ 39.28

ಕ ಟಕ 38.81

ಆಂದ ಪ ಶ 16.73

ಜ 14.18

3. ಈ ಳ ನ ಅಂ ಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ ಂ ಸರಳ ಸ ಂ ಖವ ರ . (ಕ ಣ)
ರತ: ನ ದಉ ದ ಯ (1981-2013)

ವಷ ಗ 1981 1991 2001 2011 2012 2013

ಉ ದ
2495 2108 2105 2615 2239 1588
( . ಗಳ )

4. ಳ ನ ಅಂ ಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ ಂ ಸರಳ ಸ ಂ ಖವ ರ . (ಕ ಣ)
ರತದ ಆಯ ಜ ಗಳ ೕ ಉ ದ (2011-12)

ಉತ ರ
ಜಗ ಬ ಹ ಣ ಮಧ ಪ ಶ ಜ ನ ರ
ಪ ಶ

ಉತ ದ
30.29 17.21 12.68 10.58 9.32 4.79
(ದಶ ಲ ಟ ಗಳ )

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5. ರತದ ರಷರ ರ ಯಪ ಳ ನ ಅಂ ಅಂಶಗಳ
ಉಪ ೕ ಂ ಸರಳ ಸ ಂ ಖವ ರ . (ಕ ಣ)

ವಷ 1951 1961 1971 1981 1991 2001 2011

ರ (%) 27.16 40.40 45.95 56.27 64.13 75.85 82.1

6. ಳ ನ ಅಂ ಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ ಂ ಸರಳ ಸ ಂ ಖವ ರ . (ಕ ಣ)
ರತ: ಂಗ ೕ ಉ ದ (1961-2011)

ಉ ದ
ವಷ
(ಲ ಟ ಗಳ )

1961 14.05

1971 18.41

1981 15.32

1991 13.88

2001 15.95

2011 23.22

7. ಈ ಳ ನ ಅಂ ಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ ಂ ಸರಳ ಸ ಂ ಖವ ರ . (ಕ ಣ)
ರತ: ೕಯ ಗಳ ಉದ ( . ೕ.)

ೕಯ ಗಳ ಉದ
ವಷ
( . ೕಗಳ )

1971 23,838

1981 31,671

1991 33,650

2001 57,737

2011 70,934

8. ಳ ವ ಅಂ ಅಂಶಗಳ ಸ ಯ ಂದ ’ಸರಳ ಸ ಂ ಖ’ ವ ರ . (ಕ ಣ)
ಕ ಟಕ: ಆಯ ಜನ -2021
ಯ ಸ ಜನ ( ಲ ಗಳ )
ಳ 54.4
34.2
ಮ 30.5
ಕಲ ರ 29.2
ಬ 27.9
ಜಯ ರ 24.8

SUBJECT: 24- GEOGRAPHY 86

Page 164

9. ಳ ವ ಅಂ ಅಂಶಗಳ ಸ ಯ ಂದ ’ಸರಳ ಸ ಂ ಖ’ ವ
ರ . (ಕ ಣ)
ರತ: ಜ ಕ ದ ನಉ ದ - 2012
ಜಗ ಉ ದ
(ದಶಲ ಟ ಗಳ )
ಛ ೕ ಗ 113.9
ಖ ಂ 109.6
ಒ 105.5
ಮಧ ಪ ಶ 71.1
ಆಂಧ ಪ ಶ 52.2
ಮ ಷ 39.2

10. ಕ ಟಕದ ರಷರ ರ ಯಪ ಳ ನ ಅಂ ಅಂಶಗಳ
ಉಪ ೕ ಂ ಸರಳ ಸ ಂ ಖವ ರ . (ಕ ಣ)

ವಷ ಗ 1961 1971 1981 1991 2001 2011

ರ (%) 36.2 41.6 48.8 67.3 76.1 82.9

11. ಈ ಳ ನ ಅಂ ಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ ಂ ಸರಳ ಸ ಂ ಖವ ರ . (ಕ ಣ)

ರತದ ಜ ಕ ನಇ ವ : 2011-12

ಕ ನಇ ವ
ಜಗ
ಟ / ೕ ಗಳ )

ತ 103

ಕ ಟಕ 90

ಆಂದ ಪ ಶ 82

ಮ ಷ 80

ಉತ ರ ಪ ಶ 60

III. ತ ಆ ಖ/ ತ ನ : (ಹ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )

1. ಳ ನ ಅಂ ಅಂಶಗಳ ಬಳ ಂ ಒಂ ಖವ ರ . (ಕ ಣ)
ರತ: ಗ ಗಳ ಧಗ ( ಕಡ ಪ ಣ)

ಧಗ ಕಡ
ಪ ಣ

86.8

ೕಟ 9.8

ೕ 3.4

ಒ 100

SUBJECT: 24- GEOGRAPHY 87

Page 165

2. ಳ ನ ಅಂ ಅಂಶಗಳ ಸ ಯ ಂದ ಒಂ ಖವ ರ . (ಕ ಣ)
ರತ: ಆಯ ಂ ಗಳ ೕಣ -2012

ಗ ೕಣ (ಲ
ೕ ಗಳ )

ಆ ರ ನಗ 35.5

ದಳ ನಗ 16.4

ಎ ಗ 12.0

ಜ ಗ 11.0

ಇತ ಗ 5.1

ಒ 80

3. ಳ ನ ಅಂ ಗಳ ಸ ಯ ಂದ ಖವ ರ . (ಕ ಣ)
ರತ: ೕ ವ ಲಗ -2011

ೕ ವ ೕತ
ಲಗ ( ಕಡಗಳ )

60.7

31.0

3.2

ಇತ 5.1

ಒ 100

4. ಳ ನ ಅಂ ಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ ಂ ಖವ ರ . (ಕ ಣ)
ರತ: ಯ ೕತ -2011

ಜಗ ೕತ
( ಕಡಗಳ )

ಕ ಟಕ 56.6

ರಳ 21.6

ತ 7.8

ಇತ 14.0

SUBJECT: 24- GEOGRAPHY 88

Page 166

5. ಳ ನ ಅಂ ಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ ಂ ಖವ ರ . (ಕ ಣ)
ರತ: ಚಹ ಉ ದ (2011-12)

ಉ ದ
ಜಗ
( ಕಡಗಳ )

ಅ ಂ 53.06

ಪ ಮ ಳ 24.57

ತ 14.88

ಇತ 7.49

6. ಳ ನ ಅಂ ಗಳ ಉಪ ೕ ಂ ಒಂ ಖವ ರ . (ಕ ಣ)
ರತ: ಬಳ ದ (2008-09)

ೕತ
ಬಳ ದ
( ಕಡಗಳ )

ವಳ ತ ಪ ಶ 46.2

ಅರಣ 22.8

ವವ ಯ ಯದ 14.2

ಬಳ ಗದ ೕಗ 8.7

ೕ 8.1

7. ಳ ನ ಅಂ ಅಂಶಗಳ ಸ ಯ ಂದ ಒಂ ಖವ ರ . (ಕ ಣ)
ಕ ಟಕ: ೕ ವ ಲಗ - 2011
ಲಗ ೕ ವ ( ಕಡ )
/ ಳ 48.3

31.7
6.6
ಇತ 13.4

IV. ಳ ನಪ ಗ 20 ಂದ 25 ಕ ಗಳ ಉತ : (ಐ ಅಂಕದ ಪ ಗ )
1. ಥ ಕದ ಂಶಗಳ ಲಗಳ ವ . (ಕ ಣ)
2. ೕಯ ದ ಂಶಗಳ ಲಗಳ ವ . (ಕ ಣ)
3. ಥ ಕಮ ೕಯ ದ ಂಶಗಳ ವ ಸಗಳ . (ಕ ಣ)

SUBJECT: 24- GEOGRAPHY 89

Page 167

4. .ಐ.ಎ ಅಂಗ ಗಗಳ ವ . (ಕ ಣ)
5. .ಐ.ಎ ಯ ಗಳ ಕಮ ೕ . (ಕ ಣ)
6. . .ಎ ಎಂದ ? . .ಎ ನ ಗಗಳ ವ . (ಕ ಣ)
7. . .ಎ ಅನ ಕಗಳ ವ . (ಕ ಣ)
8. ರ ತ ನ ಎಂದ ? ರ ತ ನದ ಂಶಗಳ
ವ . (ಕ ಣ)
9. ರ ತ ನದ ಮಹತ ವ ವರ ಬ . (ಕ ಣ)
*-*-*-*-*-*

SUBJECT: 24- GEOGRAPHY 90

Page 168

ಣಇ (ಪದ ವ ), 18 ಅಡ ರ ,ಮ ೕಶ , ಂಗ -560012
ಮ
ಕ ಟಕ ಪ ೕ ಮ ಲ ಣ ಯ ಡ ,6 ಅಡ ರ ,ಮ ೕಶ , ಂಗ -
560003
2025 – 26 ನ ೕಯ ೕಳ ಸ ಷಯದ ಪ ೕ ತ ಸ

ಕ. . ಸ ನ ಸ ಮ ಸ

ಸ ಪದ ವ (AS0110),
ವ ದಯ ಯ
ತನ ಸ, ನವ ಸಕ ,
01. ೕಜಕ ೕಳ ಸ
. . , ಂಗ -560004
. -9686556246 ಉಪ ಸಕ
Email: [email protected]
ಸ ಎಂ. .ಎ . ಪದ ವ
ಶ. ಎಂ ಯ
(NC0019), ೕ ಲ,
02. ಸ ಸದಸ ೕಳ ಸ
ಮ ಜನಗರ -571440
. -9986373604 ಉಪ ಸಕ
Email:[email protected]
ಸ ಪದ ವ (BR0083),
ಮ ಷ ಯ.
ೕಳ ಸ ೕ ಬ , ಚನ ಪಟ ಣ ,( ಮನಗರ),
03. ಸ ಸದಸ
ಉಪ ಸಕ ಂಗ ದ ಣ -562138
. - 9844835078
Email: [email protected]
. ಕರ ಯ ಮ ಜಸ ಪದ ವ
04 ಸ ಸದಸ ೕಳ ಸ (NN0024), .ಎ . ರ , -570005
. -9901599045 ಉಪ ಸಕ Email: [email protected]
ಪ ಅ ತ ಪದ ವ
ರಪ ಯ
(LL0055),
05 ಸ ಸದಸ ೕಳ ಸ
ಅರ ೕ , ಸನ -573103
. -9844622253 ಉಪ ಸಕ
Email: [email protected]
ಸ ಪದ ವ (DC0156),
ಪ ಂತ ಬ ರ ೕಳ ಸ
ಕಟ ರ, ಅಥ ,
06 ಸ ಯಕ ಸದಸ ಉಪ ಸಕ
ಕ ೕ -591230
. -7975809642
Email: [email protected]

ಲ ಯರ ಸ ಪದ ವ
ೕಪ ರ
ೕಳ ಸ (NN049), ಷ ಜ.ನಗರ,
07 ಂ ಕಸ ಯ
ಉಪ ಸಕ -571602
. -7411061333
Email: [email protected]

SUBJECT: 24- GEOGRAPHY 91

Page 169

Study Materials
Notes

Model Papers Class 6 Notes

Sample Papers Class 7 Notes
Half Yearly Sample Papers Class 8 Notes

Class 9 Notes
Important Resources
Class 10 Notes
Periodic Table
Class 11 Notes
Writing Skills / Formats

Maps of India / World Class 12 Notes

Books and Solutions

NCERT Books
NCERT Book Solutions
HC Verma Chapter Wise Solutions
RD Sharma Solutions
CGBSE Solutions

Document Details

Board / Org	Karnataka Board
Exam	Class 12
Type	Question Bank
Pages	169
Updated	15 Jul 2026

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