Page 1
MHT CET 2022 Question Paper
Page 2
91/8
(D)
Maths
95/8
Q.No. 1 Q.No. 3
The function f : R— R defined by f(x) =sin x is: Let A= {1,2,3, 4} and let R= {(2, 2), (3, 3), (4,4), (1, 2)} be a relation on
A. Then R is:
(A)
(A)
into
reflexive
(B)
(B)
onto
symmetric
(C)
(C)
one-one
transitive
(D)
(D)
many one
None of these
Q.No. 2
Q.No. 4
If, 3,9), (5, 2, 1), are coplanar, then the product of all The lines x+2y—5=0,2x-3y+4=0, 6x+4y-13=0
possible values of is :
(A)
(A)
are concurrent.
89/8
(B)
(B)
form aright angled triangle.
56/8
(C)
(C)
form an isosceles triangle.
Page 3
(D) (C)
form an equilateral triangle. 5/4
Q.No. 5 (D)
2/9
The value of the function lies in the interval Q.No. 7
(A) Negation of the Boolean expression is
(A)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(D)
None of these (D)
Q.No. 6
The area bounded by y— 1 = |x|, y= O and [x|= 1/2 will be: Q.No. 8
(A)
If A and B are sets, then is
3/4
(A)
(B)
3/2
(B)
Page 4
A
(C)
B (B)
(D)
None of these
Q.No. 9 (C)
If 'n' is positive integer and three consecutive coefficient in the Both a and c
expansion of (1 + x)n are in the ratio 6 : 33: 110, then n is equal to: (D)
(A) None of these
6 Q.No. 11
(B)
9
If then z is equal to 3 + bi. The value of ‘b’ is
(C)
(A)
12
1
(D)
(B)
0
2
Q.No. 10
(C)
0
The value of is (D)
(A) 3
Q.No. 12
Page 5
(D)
If and y (0) =2, then y (In 2) is equal to :
(A)
Q.No. 14
5
Let the perpendiculars from any point on the line 7x + 56y = 0 upon 3x
(B)
+4y=O and 5x—12y=O be p and p’, then
13
(A)
(C)
2p=p'
-2
(B)
(D)
p=p'
7
(C)
Q.No. 13
p=2p'
The sum of n terms of the series +..... is (D)
(A) None of these
Q.No. 15
(B)
The set of real x satisfying the inequality The
value of ‘a’ is
(A)
(C) 2
(B)
4
Page 6
(C) (A)
6 1/2
(D) (B)
8 2/3
Q.No. 16 (C)
1/5
(D)
3
If is continuous at x=0 2 x= 0, then the
Q.No. 18
value of k is
(A)
If are vectors such that then
1
(B)
(A)
-2
16
(C)
(B)
2
64
(D)
(C)
3
17
Q.No. 17
(D)
If A and B are two events, such that
90
Q.No. 19
where Ac stands for the
complementary event of A, then P(B) is given by:
Page 7
1/6
(C)
The term independent of x in the expansion of is
1/2
(D)
(A)
1/4
Q.No. 21
(B) If the tangent at (1, 7) to the curve x2 = y-6 touches the circle x2 +y2
+16x+12y+c=0 then the value of c is :
(A)
18
(C)
(B)
85
(D)
(C)
95
Q.No. 20 (D)
195
Q.No. 22
If are the roots of the equation x2 + 2x+4=0, then
is equal to
If then the value of r is
(A)
(A)
-1/2
41
(B)
(B)
Page 8
14
(C)
(B)
10
(D)
(C)
51
Q.No. 23
(D)
If , then the value of is
(A) Q.No. 25
y/3
(B) The value of is
y (A)
(C) 1
3 (B)
(D) -1
1/2 (C)
Q.No. 24 0
(D)
equals 2
(A) Q.No. 26
Page 9
Q.No. 28
If are in A.P. then will be in By using principle of mathematical induction for every natural number,
(ab)n =
(A)
(A)
AP.
(B)
(B)
GP.
(C)
(C)
AP &GP.
1
(D)
(D)
None of these
0
Q.No. 27
Q.No. 29
Find the coordinates of the point which divides the line segment joining
If f(x) =x sin x, then is equal to the points (1,—2, 3) and (3, 4,—5) in the ratio 2 : 3 (i) internally and
(A) (A)
0
(B)
1 (B)
(C)
-1
(D)
(C)
2
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The constraints define on
(A)
(D)
Bounded feasible space
(B)
Unbounded feasible space
Q.No. 30
(C)
Equation of the ellipse whose axes are along the coordinate axes,
Both bounded and unbounded feasible space
vertices are and foci at is
(D)
(A)
None of these
Q.No. 32
(B) The equation of set points P such that PA2 + PB2 = 2K2, where A and B
are the points (3, 4, 5) and (-1, 3, —7), respectively is
(A)
K2 - 109
(C) (B)
2K2 - 109
(C)
(D)
3K2 - 109
(D)
Q.No. 31 4K2 - 109
Page 11
Q.No. 33 (D)
4/3 sq. unit
The normal to the hyperbola at a the point on Q.No. 35
it passes through the point :
(A)
If matrix then K is
(B)
(A)
7
(C) (B)
-7
(C)
(D)
15
(D)
Q.No. 34 11
The area bounded by the curves x+2y2=O and 46. x+3y2=1 is Q.No. 36
(A) If vertex of a parabola is (2, —1) and the equation of its directrix is 4x
-3y = 21, then the length of its latus rectum is
1 sq. unit
(A)
(B)
2
1/3 sq. unit
(B)
(C)
8
2/3 sq. unit
Page 12
(C)
12
(D) (B)
16
Q.No. 37
(C)
Eccentricity of ellipse if it passes a p through point (9, 5)
and (12, 4) is
(D)
(A)
Q.No. 39
(B)
If the direction cosines of a line are then
(C) (A)
c>0>2
(B)
(D)
c>0
(C)
Q.No. 38
c<0
(D)
The interval in which the function is decreasing is :
(A)
Page 13
Q.No. 40 (D)
If Aij denotes the cofactor of the element aij of the determinant
then value of is Q.No. 42
(A)
0
(B) (A)
5 e-2
(C) (B)
10 et+2
(D) (C)
-5 2
Q.No. 41 (D)
Which of the following functions is NOT one- one ? e
(A) Q.No. 43
(B) Evaluate:
(A)
(C)
(B)
Page 14
(C) (A)
6
(B)
(D) 7.3
(C)
8
Q.No. 44
(D)
Let f(x) = 1+x, g(x) =x2 +x +1, then (f+g) (x) at x = 0 is
6.32
(A)
Q.No. 46
2
Bag I contains 3 red, 4 black and 3 white balls and Bag II contains 2 red,
(B) 5 black and 2 white balls. One ball is transferred from Bag I to Bag IT
and then a ball is draw from Bag II. The ball so drawn is found to be
5 black in colour. Then the probability, that the transferred ball is red, is:
(C) (A)
6 1/2
(D) (B)
9 5/18
Q.No. 45 (C)
Find the mean deviation about the mean for the data. 7/18
(D)
Page 15
9/18 (C)
Q.No. 47
(D)
If then find
Q.No. 49
If
(A)
I+2P then the ordered
(B) triplet is
2I+P (A)
(C) (2,-1,-1)
I+P (B)
(D) (-2,1,1)
None of these (C)
Q.No. 48 (-2,-1,1)
(D)
The equation of a circle with centre at (1, 0) and circumference
units is (2,1,-1)
(A) Q.No. 50
(B)
The principal value of is:
(A)
Page 16
Q.No. 11 (C)
Q.No. 12 (D)
(B)
Q.No. 13 (B)
Q.No. 14 (B)
Q.No. 15 (D)
Q.No. 16 (C)
(C) Q.No. 17 (B)
Q.No. 18 (A)
Q.No. 19 (A)
Q.No. 20 (D)
(D)
Q.No. 21 (C)
2/7 Q.No. 22 (A)
Q.No. 23 (B)
Answer Sheet Q.No. 24 (B)
Q.No. 25 (A)
Q.No Answer Q.No. 26 (A)
Q.No. 1 (D) Q.No. 27 (B)
Q.No. 2 (D) Q.No. 28 (A)
Q.No. 3 (C) Q.No. 29 (B)
Q.No. 4 (B) Q.No. 30 (B)
Q.No. 5 (B) Q.No. 31 (B)
Q.No. 6 (C) Q.No. 32 (B)
Q.No. 7 (D) Q.No. 33 (C)
Q.No. 8 (A) Q.No. 34 (D)
Q.No. 9 (C) Q.No. 35 (C)
Q.No. 10 (A) Q.No. 36 (B)
Page 17
Q.No. 37 (D)
Q.No. 38 (A)
Q.No. 39 (D)
Q.No. 40 (A)
Q.No. 41 (B)
Q.No. 42 (A)
Q.No. 43 (A)
Q.No. 44 (A)
Q.No. 45 (D)
Q.No. 46 (B)
Q.No. 47 (C)
Q.No. 48 (C)
Q.No. 49 (A)
Q.No. 50 (A)
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(C)
1/5
Physics
(D)
Q.No. 1 7/10
A flask contains argon and oxygen in the ratio of 3 : 2 in mass and the Q.No. 3
mixture 1s kept at 27°C. The ratio of their average kinetic energy per
molecule respectively will be: At a certain place the angle of dip is 30° and the horizontal component
of earth's magnetic field is 0.5 G. The earth's total magnetic field (in G),
(A) at that certain place, is :
3:2 (A)
(B)
9:4
(C) (B)
2:3 1/2
(D) (C)
1:1
Q.No. 2
(D)
Solid spherical ball is rolling on a friction less horizontal plane surface
about is axis of symmetry. The ratio of rotational kinetic energy of the 1
ball to its total kinetic energy is :-
Q.No. 4
(A)
A block of mass M placed inside a box descends vertically with
2/5 acceleration ‘a’. The block exerts a force equal to one-fourth of its
weight on the floor of the box. The value of 'a' will be :
(B)
(A)
2/7
g/4
Page 19
(B) of the coil is 5 ohm, then the induced current through the coil at t= 2 sec
will be:
g/2
(A)
(C)
15.6 A
3g/4
(B)
(D)
16..6 A
g
(C)
Q.No. 5
16.6 A
A solid metallic cube having total surface area 24 m2 is uniformly
heated. If its temperature is increased by 10°C, calculate the increase in (D)
volume of the cube. (Given: a=5.0 x 10-4°C-1) 18.6 A
(A) Q.No. 7
2.4 x 106 cm3 In Young’s double slit experiment, the fringe width is 12 mm. If the
entire arrangement is placed in water of refractive index 4/3, then the
(B) fringe width becomes (in mm) :
1.2 x 105 cm3 (A)
(C) 16
6.0 x 106 cm3 (B)
(D) 9
(C)
7.2 x 106 cm3
48
Q.No. 6
(D)
The magnetic flux through a coil perpendicular to its plane is varying
according to the relation Weber. If the resistant 12
Page 20
Q.No. 8 (B)
The Q-value of a nuclear reaction and kinetic energy of the projectile
particle, Kp are related as:
(A) (C)
Q = Kp
(B) (D)
(Kp + Q) < 0
(C) Q.No. 10
Q < Kp The escape velocity of a body on a planet ‘A’ is 12 kms-1. The escape
velocity of the body on another planet 'B', whose density is four times
(D) and radius is half of the planet 'A’, is :
(Kp +Q)> 0 (A)
Q.No. 9 12 kms-1.
In the figure, a very large plane sheet of positive charge is shown. P1 (B)
and P2 are two points at distance land 2l from the charge distribution. If
is the surface charge density, then the magnitude of electric fields E1 24 kms-1.
and E2 at P1 and P2 respectively are :
(C)
36 kms-1.
(D)
6 kms-1.
(A) Q.No. 11
What will be the effect on the root mean square velocity of oxygen
molecules if the temperature is doubled and oxygen molecule dissociates
Page 21
into atomic oxygen? Q.No. 13
(A) A vertical electric field of magnitude 4.9 x 105 N/C just prevents a water
droplet of a mass 0.1 g from falling. The value of charge on the droplet
The velocity of atomic oxygen remains same
will be : (Given g= 9.8 m/s2)
(B)
(A)
The velocity of atomic oxygen doubles
1.6 x 10-9C
(C)
(B)
The velocity of atomic oxygen becomes half
2.0 x 10-9C
(D)
(C)
The velocity of atomic oxygen becomes four times
3.2 x 10-9C
Q.No. 12
(D)
A proton, a deuteron and an a-particle with same kinetic energy enter
into a uniform magnetic field at right angle to magnetic field. The ratio
of the radii of their respective circular paths is : 0.5 x 10-9C
(A) Q.No. 14
The total charge on the system of capacitors
connected in
parallel is : (Assume a battery of 20 V is connected to the combination)
(B)
(A)
(C)
(B)
200 C
(D)
(C)
Page 22
(D)
10 C
Q.No. 15 (C)
A hydrogen atom in is ground state absorbs 10.2 eV of energy. The
angular momentum of electron of the hydrogen atom will increase by the
value of: (Given, Planck’s constant = 6.6 x 10-34 Js)
(A) (D)
2.10x 10-34 Js
(B)
Q.No. 17
1.05 x 10-34 Js
The momentum of an electron revolving in n® orbit is given by:
(C)
(A)
3.15x 10-34 Js
(D)
4.2x 10-34 Js (B)
Q.No. 16
If p is the density and is coefficient of viscosity of fluid which flows
with a speed v in the pipe of diameter d, the correct formula for
Reynolds number Rc is (C)
(A) nh
(D)
2r
(B)
Q.No. 18
Page 23
The equations of two waves are given by : (D)
64P
Q.No. 20
These waves are simultaneously passing through a string. The amplitude
of the resulting wave is In two different experiments, an object of mass 5 kg moving with a
speed of 25 ms-1 hits two different walls and comes to rest within (1) 3
(A) second, (ii) 5 seconds, respectively. Choose the correct option out of the
following :
2 cm
(A)
(B)
Impulse and average force acting on the object will be same for both the
4cm cases.
(C) (B)
8 cm Impulse will be same for both the cases but the average force will be
different.
(D)
(C)
10 cm
Average force will be same for both the cases but the impulse will be
Q.No. 19 different.
A mono-atomic gas at pressure P and volume V is suddenly compressed (D)
to one eights of its original volume. The final pressure at constant
entropy will be : ( Average force and impulse will be different for both the cases.
(A) Q.No. 21
P
The torque of a force about the origin is . If the force acts
(B)
on a particle whose position vector is then the value of
8P will be:
(C) (A)
32P
Page 24
Two vectors have equal magnitudes. If magnitude of
(B) , is equal to two times the magnitude of , then the angle between
will be:
(A)
(C)
(D)
(B)
Q.No. 22
A fly wheel is accelerated uniformly from rest and rotates through 5 rad (C)
in the first second. The angle rotated by the fly wheel in the next second,
will be:
(A)
7.5rad (D)
(B)
15rad
(C) Q.No. 24
20rad A proton, a neutron, an electron and an a- particle have same energy. If
are the de Broglie’s wavelengths of proton, neutron,
(D)
electron and a particle respectively, then choose the correct relation from
30rad the following :
Q.No. 23 (A)
Page 25
A water drop of diameter 2 cm is broken into 64 equal droplets. The
surface tension of water is 0.075 N/m. In this process the gain in surface
(B) energy will be:
(A)
(C) 2.8 x 10-4 J
(B)
(D) 1.9 x 10-4 J
(C)
Q.No. 25 1.5 x 10-3 J
(D)
Bx and By are the magnetic fields at the centre of two coils X and Y
respectively each carrying equal current. If coil X has 200 turns and 20
9.4 x x 10-5 J
cm radius and coil Y has 400 turns and 20 cm radius, the ratio of Bx and
By is: Q.No. 27
(A) If you are provided a set of resistances 2 ohm 4 ohm, 6 ohm and 8 ohm.
Connect these resistances so as to obtain an equivalent resistance of 46/3
1:1 ohm
(B) (A)
1:2 4 ohm and 6 ohm are in parallel with 2 ohm and 8 ohm in series
(C) (B)
2:1 6 ohm and 8 ohm are in parallel with 2 ohm and 4 ohm in series
(D) (C)
4:1 2 ohm and 6 ohm are in parallel with 4 ohm and 8 ohm in series
Q.No. 26 (D)
Page 26
2 ohm and 4 ohm are in parallel with 6 ohm and 8 ohm in series (B)
Q.No. 28
Consider a light ray travelling in air is incident into a medium of (C)
refractive index . The incident angle is twice that of refracting
angle. Then, the angle of incidence will be :
(A) (D)
Q.No. 30
(B)
A bag of sand of mass 9.8 kg is suspended by a rope. A bullet of 200 g
travelling with speed 10 ms! gets embedded in it, then loss of kinetic
energy will be
(A)
(C)
4.8J
(B)
9.8J
(D)
(C)
1.2J
(D)
Q.No. 29 7.2J
The dimension of mutual inductance is : Q.No. 31
(A) An expression for oscillating electric field in a plane electromagnetic
wave is given as Then, the
Page 27
value of magnetic field amplitude will be: (Given: speed of light in 0.14 x 109m
Vacuum c= 3 x 108 ms-1)
Q.No. 33
(A)
Two identical thin metal plates has charge q1 and q1 yespectively such
1 x 10-6T that q1 > q2. The plates were brought close to each other to form a
parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C. The potential difference
(B) between them is :
5 x 10-6T (A)
(C) (q1+q2)/C
(B)
18 x 109 T
(q1-q2)/2C
(D)
(C)
21 x 109T
Both are correct
Q.No. 32
(D)
The distance of the Sun from earth is 1.5 x 1011m and its angular
diameter is (2000) s when observed from the earth. The diameter of the None of the above
Sun will be:
Q.No. 34
(A)
2.45 x 1010m Potential energy as a function of r is given by , where r
(B) is the inter atomic r distance, A and B are positive constants. The
equilibrium distance between the two atoms will be:
1.45 1010m (A)
(C)
1.45 * 109m
(D)
(B)
Page 28
(D)
(C)
Q.No. 36
The interference pattern is obtained with two coherent light sources of
(D)
intensity ratio 4 : 1 And the ratio is 5/x. Then, the value of
x will be equal to :
(A)
3
Q.No. 35
(B)
Two buses P and Q start from a point at the same time and move in a
4
straight line and their positions are represented by and
=ft—t2, At what time, both the buses have same velocity ? (C)
(A) 2
(D)
1
(B) Q.No. 37
Four spheres each of mass m form a square of side d (as shown in
figure). A fifth sphere of mass M is situated at the centre of square. The
total gravitational potential energy of the system is:
(C)
Page 29
(A)
0
(B)
E/2
(C)
(A) E/4
(D)
E/6
(B) Q.No. 39
Two planets A and B of equal mass are having their period of revolutions
TA and TB such that TA= 2TB These planets are revolving in the circular
orbits of radii rA and rB respectively. Which out of the following would
(C) be the correct relationship of their orbits?
(A)
(D)
(B)
Q.No. 38 (C)
A ball is projected with kinetic energy E, at an angle of 60° to the
horizontal. The kinetic energy of this ball at the highest point of its flight
will become :
(D)
Page 30
(A)
10 K
Q.No. 40 (B)
8K
Let is the efficiency of an engine at T1 = 447°C and T2 = 147°C
(C)
while is the efficiency at T1=947°C and T2=47°C. The ratio 12.5 K
will be:
(D)
(A)
2K
0.41
Q.No. 42
(B)
A particle is moving with speed along positive x-axis.
0.56
Calculate the speed of the particle at time (assume that the particle
(C) is at origin at t=0).
0.73 (A)
(D)
0.70
Q.No. 41 (B)
Two metallic blocks M1 and M2 of same area of cross-section are
connected to each other (as shown in figure). If the thermal conductivity
of M1 is K then the thermal conductivity of M2 will be : [Assume steady
state heat conduction} (C)
(D)
Page 31
(D)
180-3A
Q.No. 45
Q.No. 43
Whats the half-life period of a radioactive material if its activity drops to
Which is the correct ascending order of wavelengths? 1/16th of its initial value of 30 years?
(A) (A)
9.5 years
(B) (B)
8.5 years
(C)
(C)
7.5 years
(D)
(D)
10.5 years
None of the above
Q.No. 46
Q.No. 44
In a series LR circuit XL = R and power factor of the circuit is P1. When
The refracting angle of a prism is A and refractive index of the material
capacitor with capacitance C such that XL =XC is put in series, the
of the prism is cot (A/2). Then the angle of minimum deviation will be -
power factor becomes P2. The ratio P1/P2 is:
(A)
(A)
180-2A
1/2
(B)
(B)
90-A
(C)
180+2A
Page 32
(C) (B)
1:1 4.5 x 1016
(D) (C)
2:1
4.5 x 1017
Q.No. 47
(D)
The equation of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is given
4.5 x 1020
by the speed of particle will be (Given : pi = 3.14) Q.No. 49
(A) Two cells of same emf but different internal resistances r1 and r2 are
connected in series with a resistance R. The value of resistance R, for
0 cm/s which the potential difference across second cell is zero, is
(B) (A)
157 cm/s r2 - r1
(C)
272 cm/s
(B)
(D)
r1 - r2
314 cm/s
(C)
Q.No. 48
r1
A parallel beam of light of wavelength 900 nm and intensity 100 Wm-2is
incident on a surface perpendicular to the beam. The number of photons (D)
crossing 1 cm2 area perpendicular to the beam in one second is :
r2
(A)
Q.No. 50
3x 1016
Page 33
Two projectiles thrown at 30° and 45° with the horizontal respectively,
Q.No. 11 (B)
reach the maximum height in same time. The ratio of their initial
velocities is : Q.No. 12 (D)
(A) Q.No. 13 (B)
Q.No. 14 (A)
Q.No. 15 (B)
(B) Q.No. 16 (C)
Q.No. 17 (A)
1:2
Q.No. 18 (A)
(C) Q.No. 19 (C)
2:1 Q.No. 20 (B)
(D)
Q.No. 21 (C)
Q.No. 22 (B)
1:1
Q.No. 23 (C)
Q.No. 24 (B)
Answer Sheet Q.No. 25 (B)
Q.No. 26 (A)
Q.No Answer
Q.No. 27 (D)
Q.No. 1 (A)
Q.No. 28 (D)
Q.No. 2 (B)
Q.No. 29 (C)
Q.No. 3 (A)
Q.No. 30 (B)
Q.No. 4 (C)
Q.No. 31 (C)
Q.No. 5 (B)
Q.No. 32 (C)
Q.No. 6 (A)
Q.No. 33 (B)
Q.No. 7 (B)
Q.No. 34 (C)
Q.No. 8 (D)
Q.No. 35 (D)
Q.No. 9 (C)
Q.No. 36 (B)
Q.No. 10 (A)
Page 34
Q.No. 37 (A)
Q.No. 38 (C)
Q.No. 39 (C)
Q.No. 40 (B)
Q.No. 41 (B)
Q.No. 42 (B)
Q.No. 43 (B)
Q.No. 44 (A)
Q.No. 45 (C)
Q.No. 46 (B)
Q.No. 47 (B)
Q.No. 48 (B)
Q.No. 49 (A)
Q.No. 50 (A)
Page 35
(C)
Chemistry
(D)
Q.No. 1
Lactose is made of
(A) Q.No. 3
In which of the following, Tyndall effect is not observed ?
(A)
(B)
Suspensions
(B)
(C)
Emulsions
(C)
(D)
Sugar solution
(D)
Q.No. 2 Goldsol
Q.No. 4
Consider the ions/molecule For increasing bond
order the correct option is :
The number of geometrical isomers from [ is
(A)
(A)
2
(B) (B)
3
Page 36
(C) Pb
4 (D)
(D) Si
0 Q.No. 7
Q.No. 5 Which of the following molecule does not have a linear arrangement of
atoms ?
Commonly used antiseptic 'Dettol' is a mixture of
(A)
(A)
H2S
o-chlorophenozylenol + terpeneol
(B)
(B)
CO2
o-cresol + terpeneol
(C) (C)
phenol + terpeneol BeH2
(D) (D)
chloroxylenol + terpeneol H2
Q.No. 6 Q.No. 8
The most stable +2 oxidation state is exhibited by The one that is NOT suitable for the removal of permanent hardness of
water is :
(A)
(A)
Fe
Clark's method
(B)
(B)
Sn
Ion-exchange method
(C)
(C)
Page 37
Calgon's method Loss of both primary and secondary structures
(D) (D)
Treatment with sodium carbonate Loss of both secondary and tertiary structures
Q.No. 9 Q.No. 11
From the following bond energies: The dissociation constant of two acids HA1 and HA2 are 3.14 x 10-4 and
(A) 1.96 x 10-5 respectively. The relative strength of the acids will be
approximately
H-H bond energy: 431.37 kJ mol-1
(A)
(B)
1:4
C=C bond energy: 606.10 kJ mol-1 (B)
(C) 4:1
C-C bond energy: 336.49 kJ mol-1 (C)
(D) 1:16
C-H bond energy: 410.50 kJ mol-1 (D)
Q.No. 10 16:1
Denaturation of proteins leads to loss of its biological activity by Q.No. 12
(A) 1.00 g of a non-electrolyte solute (molar mass 250 g mol-1) was
dissolved in 51.2 g of benzene. If the freezing point depression constant,
Formation of amino acids Kf of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol-1, the freezing point of benzene will be
(B) lowered by
Loss of primary structure (A)
(C) 0.3K
(B)
Page 38
0.5K Sc2+
(C) (C)
0.4K
Hg2+
(D)
(D)
0.2K
Ti4+
Q.No. 13
Q.No. 15
Henry’s law constant of oxygen is 1.4 x 10-3 mol-1 lit, atm-1 at 298 K.
How much of oxygen is dissolved in 100 ml at 298 K when the partial According to Le-chatelier ’s principle, adding heat to a solid
pressure of oxygen is 0.5 atm? liquid equilibrium will cause the
(A) (A)
14g temperature to increase
(B) (B)
32g temperature to decrease
(C) (C)
224mg amount of liquid to decrease
(D) (D)
224mg amount of solid to decrease
Q.No. 14 Q.No. 16
Which of the following is paramagnetic? In Duma’s method 0.52 g of an organic compound on combustion gave
68.6 mL N2 at 27°C and 756 mm pressure. What is the percentage of
(A) nitrogen in the compound?
Zn2+ (A)
(B) 12.22%
Page 39
(B)
14.93%
(C) (B)
15.84%
(D)
(C)
16.23%
Q.No. 17
Which of the following statements regarding fuel cell is incorrect?
(D)
(A)
These cells are eco-friendly.
(B) Q.No. 19
These cells convert energy of combustion of fuels like H2, CH2, CH2OH A solution of copper sulphate (CuSO4) is electrolysed for 10 minutes
etc., directly into electrical energy. with a current of 1.5 amperes. The mass of copper deposited at the
cathode (at. mass of Cu = 63 u) is
(C)
(A)
H2 — O2 fuel cell is used in Apollo space programme
0.3892 g
(D)
(B)
Fuel cells produce electricity with an efficiency of about 100%.
0.2938 g
Q.No. 18
(C)
Which of the following compound can be best prepared by Wurtz
reaction? 0.2398 g
(A) (D)
0.3928 g
Page 40
Q.No. 20 Q.No. 22
Which one of the following reactions is a true first order reaction? Beryllium shows diagonal relationship with aluminium. Which of the
following similarity is incorrect ?
(A)
(A)
Alkaline hydrolysis of ethyl acetate
Be forms beryllates and Al forms aluminates
(B)
(B)
Acid catalyst hydrolysis of ethyl acetate
Be(OH)2, like Al(OH)3, is basic.
(C)
(C)
Decomposition of N2O
Be like Al is rendered passive by HNO3
(D)
(D)
Decomposition of gaseous ammonia on a hot platinum surface
Be2C like Al4C3 yields methane on hydrolysis.
Q.No. 21
High basicity of Me2NH relative to Me3N in aqueous solution is Q.No. 23
attributed to: A metal has an fcc lattice. The edge length of the unit cell is 404 pm.
(A) The density of the metal is 2.72 g cm-3. The molar mass of the metal is :
(NA Avogadro’s constant = 6.02 x 1023 mol-1) (a) 30 gmol™! (b) 27 g
effect of solvent mol!
(B) (A)
inductive effect of Me2NH 30 g mol-1
(C) (B)
shape of Me3N
27 g mol-1
(D) (C)
shape of MeN
20 g mol-1
Page 41
(D) 2-methyl-4-hexanamine
40 g mol-1 (B)
Q.No. 24 5-methyl-3-hexanamine
(C)
2-methyl-4-amino hexane
(D)
5-methyl-3-amino hexane
Consider the given reaction, percentage yield of :
Q.No. 26
(A)
Which among the following has lowest surface tension ?
C>B>A
(A)
(B)
Hexane
C>A>B
(B)
(C)
Soil
B>C>A
(C)
(D)
Water
A>C>B
(D)
Q.No. 25
Salt
What is the IUPAC name of the following compound ?
Q.No. 27
The third line of the Balmer series, in the emission spectrum of the
hydrogen atom, is due to the transition from the
(A)
(A)
fourth Bohr orbit to the first Bohr orbit
Page 42
(B) (B)
fifth Bohr orbit to the second Bohr orbit 10
(C) (C)
sixth Bohr orbit to the third Bohr orbit 2
(D) (D)
seventh Bohr orbit to the third Bohr orbit 3.5
Q.No. 28 Q.No. 30
The major product formed when 2-bromobutane is treated with alcoholic Consider the following reaction :
KOH is
(A)
2-Butanol
The value’s of x, y and z in the reaction are, respectively:
(B)
(A)
1-Butene
5,2 and 16
(C)
(B)
1-Butanol
2,5 and 8
(D)
(C)
trans-2-butene
2,5 and 16
Q.No. 29
(D)
100 g of an ideal gas is kept in a cylinder of 416 L volume at 27°C
under 1.5 bar pressure. The molar mass of the gas is ...... gmol-1 5,2 and 8
(A) Q.No. 31
4
Page 43
The value of the ‘spin only’ magnetic moment for one of the following Q.No. 33
configurations is 2.84 BM. The correct one is
Which oxide of nitrogen is obtained on heating ammonium nitrate at
(A) 250°C?
d5 (in strong ligand field) (A)
(B) Nitric oxide
(B)
d3 (in weak as well as in strong fields)
Nitrous oxide
(C)
(C)
d4 (in weak ligand fields)
Nitrogen dioxide
(D)
(D)
d4 (in strong ligand fields)
Dinitrogen tetraoxide
Q.No. 32
Q.No. 34
he osmotic pressure exerted by a solution prepared by dissolving 2.0 g of
protein of molar mass 60 kg mol-1 in 200 mL of water at 27°C is Pa. The molar heat capacity of water at constant pressure is 75 JK-1mol-1.
(Use R=0.083 L bar mol-1 K-1) When 1kJ of heat is supplied to 100 g of water, which is free to expand,
the increase in temperature of water is
(A)
(A)
415
6.6K
(B)
(B)
812
1.2K
(C)
(C)
812
2.4K
(D)
(D)
0.812
Page 44
4.8K (C)
Q.No. 35 CO2
Which one of the following 1s Swarts reaction? (D)
(A) Both (b) and (c)
Q.No. 37
Which one is amphoteric oxide?
(B) (A)
LeO
(B)
(C)
BeO
(C)
MgO
(D) (D)
BaO
Q.No. 38
Q.No. 36 Which of the following compound will show positive silver mirror test ?
The gas(es) not responsible for ozone depletion : (A)
(A) HCOOH
NO and freons (B)
(B) CH3 (CHOH)3CHO
SO2 (C)
Page 45
CH3CO(CHOH)CH3
(D)
Both (a) and (b)
Q.No. 39 (B)
After partial roasting, the sulphide of copper is reduced by
(A)
cyanide process
(B) (C)
electrolysis
(C)
reduction with carbon
(D) (D)
self reduction
Q.No. 40
Q.No. 41
How many significant figures are in each of the following. (1) 4.003; (ii)
6.023 x 1023; (iii) 5000
In the above reaction product 'P' is (A)
(A) 3,4,1
(B)
Page 46
4,3,2
(C) (C)
4,4,4
(D) (D)
3,4,3 None of these
Q.No. 42 Q.No. 44
Percentages of free space in cubic close packed structure and in body The compound which reacts fastest with Lucas reagent at room
centered packed structure are respectively temperature is
(A) (A)
30% and 26% butan-1-ol
(B) (B)
26% and 32% butan-2-ol
(C) (C)
32% and 48% 2-methyl propan-1-ol
(D) (D)
48% and 26% 2-methylpropan-2-ol
Q.No. 43 Q.No. 45
The products obtained when chlorine gas reacts with cold and dilute The major product of the reaction between tert-butyl chloride and
aqueous NaOH are : sodium ethoxide is
(A) (A)
2-methylprop-1-ene
(B) (B)
Page 47
1-butene
(C) (C)
2-butene CHCl=CHCl
(D) (D)
ethene CHF=CHCI
Q.No. 46 Q.No. 48
If the rate constant for a first order reaction is k, the time (t) required for The order of re activities of the following alkyl halides for a SN2
the completion of 99% of the reaction is given by:
reaction is
(A)
(A)
t=0.693/k
RF>RCI>RBr>RI
(B)
(B)
t=6.909/k
RF>RBr>RCI>RI
(C)
(C)
t=4.606/k
RCI>RBr>RF>RI
(D)
(D)
t=2.303/k
RI>RBr>RCI>RF
Q.No. 47
Q.No. 49
The monomer of teflon is
The covalent bond length is the shortest in which one of the following
(A) bonds?
(A)
C—O
(B)
(B)
Page 48
C—C Q.No. 2 (A)
(C) Q.No. 3 (C)
Q.No. 4 (A)
C=N
Q.No. 5 (D)
(D)
Q.No. 6 (C)
O—H Q.No. 7 (A)
Q.No. 50 Q.No. 8 (A)
Q.No. 9 (B)
Element with electronic configuration Q.No. 10 (D)
belongs to the following group of the Q.No. 11 (B)
periodic table Q.No. 12 (C)
(A) Q.No. 13 (D)
5th Q.No. 14 (B)
Q.No. 15 (D)
(B)
Q.No. 16 (B)
15th Q.No. 17 (D)
(C) Q.No. 18 (A)
3rd
Q.No. 19 (B)
Q.No. 20 (C)
(D)
Q.No. 21 (A)
17th Q.No. 22 (B)
Q.No. 23 (B)
Answer Sheet Q.No. 24 (A)
Q.No. 25 (B)
Q.No Answer Q.No. 26 (A)
Q.No. 1 (D) Q.No. 27 (B)
Page 49
Q.No. 28 (D)
Q.No. 29 (A)
Q.No. 30 (C)
Q.No. 31 (D)
Q.No. 32 (A)
Q.No. 33 (B)
Q.No. 34 (C)
Q.No. 35 (B)
Q.No. 36 (D)
Q.No. 37 (B)
Q.No. 38 (D)
Q.No. 39 (D)
Q.No. 40 (B)
Q.No. 41 (C)
Q.No. 42 (B)
Q.No. 43 (C)
Q.No. 44 (D)
Q.No. 45 (A)
Q.No. 46 (C)
Q.No. 47 (B)
Q.No. 48 (D)
Q.No. 49 (D)
Q.No. 50 (B)
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