Kerala NMMS 2016 Question Paper SAT

Roll Number

STATE COUNCIL OF EDUCATIONAL RESEARCH AND TRAINING

NATIONAL MEANS-CUM-MERIT SCHOLARSHIP EXAMINATION – 2016
Class – VIII
Part – I
SCHOLASTIC A PTITUDE TEST (SAT)
Time : 90 Minutes Maximum Marks : 90
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES : kq}ƒL¡À]W¥¨Oç j]¡SÇw°¥ :
Read the following instructions before you answer S\Lh|°¥¨V D¾qU IuOfL¢ fOa°OÐf]jO oOÒV
the questions. Answers are to be given in a fLRu RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐ j]¡SÇw°¥ yèÈU
SEPARATE OMR ANSWER SHEET provided vLp]¨OW. D¾qU j¤SWºfV KqO NkSf|W
inside this booklet. Break the seal and start D¾q¨asLy]¤ (OMR) BeV. j]¡SÇw¾]jO SwxU
answering the questions once asked to do so. oLNfRo y}¤ fOr¨OvLjOU, D¾qU IuOfOvLjOU
kLaOçP.
1. Please write your ROLL NUMBER very
clearly (only one digit in one block) as given in 1. j]°tORa SrL¥ jÒ¡ (KqO Wç]p]¤ KqO A¨U
oLNfU) v|©oLp] j]°tORa NkSvwj kNf¾]¤
your Admission Card. fÐ]q]¨OÐfO SkLRs IuOfOW.
2. There are 90 questions in this test. The 2. CT kq}ƒLkOñW¾]¤ 90 S\Lh|°tOºV .
questions are arranged in the following order : S\Lh|°¥ fLRu RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐ NkWLqU
• Questions 1 to 35 belong to Social Science NWoRÕaO¾]p]q]¨OÐO.
Subjects. • 1 oOf¤ 35 vRqpOç S\Lh|°¥ yLoPz|
wLNñ¾]¤ j]ÐV.
• Questions 36 to 70 are on Science
• 36 oOf¤ 70 vRqpOç S\Lh|°¥
Subjects. wLNñ v]xp°t]¤ j]ÐV.
• Questions 71 to 90 are on Mathematics. • 71 oOf¤ 90 vRqpOç S\Lh|°¥
Ye]f¾]¤ j]ÐV.
3. Select the most suitable answer for each
question and completely darken the circle 3. KLSqL S\Lh|¾]jOU D\]foLp D¾qU Rfq
R´aO¾V wq]pLp D¾qR¾ yP\]Õ]¨OÐ vQ¾U
corresponding to the correct alternative as oLNfU fLRu RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐ v]i¾]¤ kP¡¹ oLp]
shown below. WrOÕ]¨OW.
Correct Method Wrong Method wq]pLp q}f] RfãLp q}f]
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
4. All questions carry ONE MARK each.
4. IŠL S\Lh|°¥¨OU KqO oL¡¨V v}fU.
5. There is no negative mark. Every correct
answer will be awarded one mark. 5. j|Pj oL¡¨V CŠ. KLSqL wq] D¾q¾]jOU KqO
oL¡¨V v}fU sn]¨OU.
6. Do not write your name on any part of the 6. j]°tORa SkqV S\Lh| kOñW¾]R£SpL
question booklet or on the answer sheet. D¾q¨asLy]R£SpL KqO nLY¾OU IuOfOvL¢
kLa]Š.
SCERT 2016
The copyright of the contents of this booklet rests with the SCERT and no part of it should be used by
anybody in any manner whatsoever without the prior permission of the SCERT. The items are prepared
with best expertise. In case of any dispute the opinion of the experts appointed by SCERT will be final.

Class – VIII SAT

RE
HE
E
RIT
TW
NO
DO

M-1

Class – VIII SAT

There are 90 questions in all. For each BRW 90 S\Lh|°¥ DºV. KLSqL S\Lh|¾]jOU
1, 2, 3, 4 IÐV AapLtRÕaO¾]p jLsV v|f|ñ
question four alternative answers are given
D¾qU v}fU RWLaO¾]ŸOºV . Avp]¤
marked as 1, 2, 3, 4. From these, find the most wq]pLpSfL JãvOU AjOSpL^|oLpSfL Bp
appropriate answer. The number denoting this D¾qU WºOk]a]¨OW. CT D¾qR¾
answer is there in the answer sheet against WOr]¨OÐ jÒ¡ D¾q¨asLy]¤ AfLfV
the question number concerned. Darken the S\Lh|¾]Rjf]Rq DºV. CT jÒ¡ Aa°]p
circle with Blue/Black Ball Pen only. Record
vQ¾U j}s ARŠË]¤ WrOÕV ox]pOç mL¥
Rk¢ DkSpLY]ˆV WrOÕ]¨OW. D¾q°¥
the answers thus in the OMR answer sheet ANkWLqU OMR D¾q¨asLy]¤ oLNfU SqX
only. Do not write anything in the question RÕaO¾OW. S\Lh|°¥ Aa°]p mO¨]R£
booklet except your Roll Number on the cover Wv¡ Sk^]¤ j]°tORa SrL¥ jÒqOU, rlV
page and rough work in the space provided v¡¨]jO Svº] fÐ]ŸOtt òs¾V Af]jOtt
for the purpose.
WOr]ÕOW¥ Ku]RW oRãLÐOU IuOfqOfV.

1. Match the List I with List II and select
the correct response from the options
1. kŸ]W I , kŸ]W II IÐ]v kq]
given there after. SwLi]ˆV wq]pLp] NWoRÕaO¾OW.

kŸ]W – I kŸ]W – II
List – I List – II
a) Rc¨Lor¦ 1) hLRÍ
a) Decameron 1) Dante

b) Divine Comedy 2) Thomas More b) c]RRv¢ SWLoc] 2) SfLoyVoP¡

c) The Canterbury 3) Boccaccio c) h WL£¡mr] 3) RmL¨Lˆ]SpL
RapV¤yV
Tales
d) DSŸLk| 4) R^Nl]S\Ly¡
d) Utopia 4) Jeffrey Chaucer
(1) 2 – a, 3 – b, 1 – c, 4 – d
(1) 2 – a, 3 – b, 1 – c, 4 – d

(2) 3 – a, 1 – b, 4 – c, 2 – d (2) 3 – a, 1 – b, 4 – c, 2 – d

(3) 4 – a, 1 – b, 3 – c, 2 – d (3) 4 – a, 1 – b, 3 – c, 2 – d

(4) 1 – a, 3 – b, 2 – c, 4 – d (4) 1 – a, 3 – b, 2 – c, 4 – d

M-1 -1- P.T.O.

Class – VIII SAT
2. What is the chronological order of 2. fLRuR¨LaO¾]q]¨OÐ yo]f]
the foundation of the following WtORa òLkj¾]R£ WLs
associations ? YejLNWoU IÍLeV ?
a) Arya Samaj a) Bq|yoL^U

b) Brahmo Samaj b) NmùyoL^U

c) Prarthana Samaj c) NkL¡Àj yoL^U

d) Ramakrishna Mission c) qLoWQxVeo]x¢
(1) a, c, b, d (1) a, c, b, d
(2) b, c, a, d (2) b, c, a, d
(3) c, b, d, a (3) c, b, d, a
(4) c, a, b, d (4) c, a, b, d

3. Consider the following statements and 3. \OvRa fÐ]ŸOç NkñLvjW¥
identify the correct response from the kq]SwLi]ˆV AjOSpL^|oLp
options given there after. Nkf]WqeU fLRu fÐ]ŸOçvp]¤
j]ÐV WRº¾OW.
Statement I : The British won the
NkñLvj I : KqO pgL¡À SkLqLŸU
battle of Plassey without any real fight. CŠLRfpLeV Nm]Ÿ}xO
Statement II : The battle of Plassey WL¡ †Ly]pOÈU
gave the British a political foot hold in ^p]ˆfV.
Bengal. NkñLvj II : †Ly]pOÈU Nm]Ÿ}xO
WL¡¨V mUYLt]¤
(1) Statement I is true and Statement qLNì}poLp] \OvaOr
II is false. Õ]¨L¢ yzLpWoLp].
(1) NkñLvj I wq]pOU NkñLvj II
(2) Statement I is false and Statement
RfãOoLeV.
II is true.
(2) NkñLvj I RfãOU NkñLvj II
(3) Both Statements are true and wq]pOoLeV.
Statement II is the correct (3) qºV NkñLvjWtOU wq]pOU
explanation of Statement I. NkñLvj II, NkñLvj I R£
wq]pLp v]wh}WqevOoLeV.
(4) Both Statements are true but
Statement II is not the correct (4) qºV NkñLvjWtOU wq]pLeV.
IÐL¤ NkñLvj II, NkñLvj I
explanation of Statement I.
R£ wq]pLp v]wh}WqeoŠ.
M-1 -2-

Class – VIII SAT
4. Who is the founder of ‘Prathyaksha 4. BqLeV "Nkf|ƒ qƒLRRhvyn'
Raksha Daiva Sabha’ ?
pORa òLkW¢ ?
(1) Pandit K. P. Karuppan (1) k¼]ãV RW. k]. WrOÕ¢
(2) Thycaud Ayya (2) RRf¨LaV Aá
(3) Poykayil Yohannan (3) RkLpVWp]¤ SpLzÐL¢
(4) Chattambi Swamikal (4) \ŸÒ]y~Lo]W¥

5. Which one of the following is not 5. fLRu RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐvp]¤
associated with Renaissance ? jSvLÀLjvOoLp] mÌo]ŠL
¾fV JfV ?
(1) Humanism
(1) oLjv]Wf
(2) Rationalism
(2) pO©]\]Í
(3) Development of regional languages
(3) NkLShw]W nLxWtORa v]WLyU
(4) Evangelism
(4) NW]ñOof Nk\LqeU

6. ‘The Doctrine of Lapse’ was 6. h¾LvWLw j]SqLij j]poU
introduced by
jaÕ]sL¨]pfV
(1) Lord Dalhousie (1) c¤zTy] NknO
(2) Robert Clive (2) SrLm¡ŸV RR„vV
(3) Lord Wellesley (3) RvŠþ] NknO
(4) Lord Hastings (4) Szð]‚VyV NknO

7. The ‘Drain Theory’ was propounded by 7. "S\L¡ˆL y]ÈLÍU' Avfq]
(1) R. P. Dutt
Õ]ˆfV BqV ?

(2) C. R. Das
(1) B¡. k]. h¾V
(2) y]. B¡. hLyV
(3) M. N. Roy
(3) IU. I¢. SrLpV
(4) Dadabhai Naoroji
(4) hLhLnLp] jvSrL^]
M-1 -3- P.T.O.

Class – VIII SAT

8. Which of the following is not a 8. fLRu krpOÐvp]¤ kOqLfj
palaeolithic site ? w]sLpOY SWNÎoŠL¾fV JfV ?
(1) Bhimbetka (1) n]USmcVW
(2) Lothal (2) SsL¾¤
(3) Hunsgi (3) z¢yV^]
(4) Nagarjuna Konda (4) jLYL¡^Oj RWLº

9. Lascaux cave paintings of the old 9. kOqLfj w]sLpOY¾]Rs syVSWLWVyV
stone age are located in YOzL\]Nf°¥ Iv]RapLeV ò]f]
(1) India R\áOÐfV ?
(2) Egypt (1) CÍ|

(3) China (2) CT^]kÅV

(4) France
(3) RR\j
(4) NlL¢yV
10. Which among the following is 10. fLRu krpOÐvp]¤ fO¡¨]WtORa
connected with the Turkish conquest SWL¦ðL£]SjLÕ]¥ BNWoevO
of Constantinople ? oLp] mÌR՟SffV ?
(1) Hagia Sophia (1) zLY]p SyLl]p
(2) Divine Comedy (2) c]RRv¢ SWLoc]
(3) Dante (3) hLRÍ
(4) Ninety Five Theses (4) RfL¹Pã] AµV wLyj°¥
11. Which Indian archaeologist
11. zqÕp]¤ Bh|oLp] kOqLvñO
conducted the first excavation
XjjU ja¾]p CÍ|L¨Lq¢
at Harappa ?
BqLeV ?
(1) S. R. Rao
(1) IyV. B¡. rLvO
(2) Daya Ram Sahni (2) hpLrLU yLzVj]
(3) D. D. Kosambi (3) c]. c]. RWLyLUm]
(4) R. D. Banerji (4) B¡. c]. mLj¡^]
M-1 -4-

Class – VIII SAT
12. Who deciphered the ancient 12. kOqLfj W|Pe]SlLU s]k]
Cuneiform script ? vLp]RˆaO¾fV BqLeV ?

(1) Chambollian
(1) \USmLs]p¢
(2) rTs]¢y¦
(2) Rawlinson
(3) Rz¢r] z}qLyV
(3) Henry Heras
(4) SYL¡c¢ RR\¤cV
(4) Gordon Childe
13. nPo]pORa Dkq]fs¾]¤ j]ÐOU
13. What difference in temperature and Dç]Ss¨V SkLWOSÍLrOU vñO¨
density of materials are observed from tORa fLkj]sp]sOU yLNÎfp]sOU
the surface of the earth towards the IÍO v|f|LyoLeOºLvOW ?
interior ? (1) fLkj]s WPaOÐO, yLNÎf
(1) Temperature increases, density WOrpOÐO
decreases (2) fLkj]spOU yLNÎfpOU
WOrpOÐO
(2) Temperature and density decreases
(3) fLkj]s WOrpOÐO, yLNÎf
(3) Temperature decreases, density WPaOÐO
increases (4) fLkj]spOU yLNÎfpOU
(4) Temperature and density increases WPaOÐO

14. Continental crust is made up of 14. v¢Wq nPvåU j]¡Ú]¨R՟]q]
¨OÐfV
(1) Lighter materials, mainly Silicon (1) y]s]¨¦, oYVj}x|U IÐ]v
and Magnesium D¥R՟ nLqU WOr´
khL¡À°¥ RWLºV
(2) Heavier materials, mainly Silicon (2) y]s]¨¦, AsOo]j]pU
and Aluminium IÐ]v D¥R՟ nLq]ˆ
khL¡À°¥ RWLºV
(3) Lighter materials, mainly Silicon (3) y]s]¨¦, AsOo]j]pU
and Aluminium IÐ]v D¥R՟ nLqU
WOr´ khL¡À°¥
(4) Heavier materials, mainly Nickel RWLºV
(4) j]¨¤, CqOÒV IÐ]vpa
and Iron
°]p nLq]ˆ khL¡À°¥
RWLºV
M-1 -5- P.T.O.

Class – VIII SAT
15. Identify the method of representing 15. nPka°¥ vsOfL¨OWSpL R\rO
map scale that is helpful while
fL¨OWSpL R\áOÐ yΡn°
enlarging and reducing maps.
t]¤ yzLpWoLWOÐfV JfV q}f]
(1) Graphical scale p]¤ SqXRÕaO¾OÐ SfLfLeV ?
(2) Statement of scale (1) SqXL q}f]
(3) Representative fraction (2) NkñLvjL q}f]
(4) Metric scale (3) n]ÐW q}f]
(4) RoNa]WV SfLfV
16. Red lines in maps indicate
16. nPka°t]¤ \OvÐ vqW¥
(1) Roads yP\]Õ]¨OÐfV
(2) Power lines (1) SrLcOW¥
(2) RRvh|Of RRsjOW¥
(3) Canals
(3) WjLsOW¥
(4) Boundaries
(4) Af]¡¾]W¥

17. The waterdroplets usually found on 17. kOs¡WLs¾V CsWtORa ANY
leafblades and other cold surfaces in °t]sOU oãV feO¾ Nkfs°t]sOU
early mornings are kã]Õ]a]ˆO WLeOÐ Rvç¾Oç]
WtLeV
(1) Frost (2) Dew
(1) z]oU (2) fOxLqU
(3) Mist (4) Fog
(3) o´V (4) kOWo´V

18. Two places are 4 cm apart in a map 18. 1 : 200000 IÐ SfLf]sOç KqO
with the scale 1 : 200000. Find the nPka¾]¤ qºV òs°¥ fÚ]¤
actual ground distance between the 4 Ry. o]. AWsoOºV. CT òs
places.
°¥ fÚ]sOç pgL¡À hPqRoNf ?
(1) 2 Km. (1) 2 W]. o].
(2) 6 Km. (2) 6 W]. o].

(3) 8 Km. (3) 8 W]. o].

(4) 10 Km. (4) 10 W]. o].

M-1 -6-

Class – VIII SAT
19. The thickest layer of the earth is 19. JãvOU WjoOç nTokLt]pLeV
(1) Core
(1) WLÒV
(2) Mantle
(2) oL£]¤
(3) Crust
(3) nPvåU
(4) Lithosphere
(4) w]sLo¼sU

20. The distance between any two 20. JRfË]sOU qºV AƒLUw°¥
latitudes is ¨]ap]sOç AWsU
(1) Maximum at mid latitudes (1) oi| AƒLUw°t]¤ JãvOU
WPaOfsLp]q]¨OU
(2) Decreases towards the poles (2) NiOv°StLaaO¨OSÒL¥
WOrpOÐO
(3) Same everywhere
(3) IŠLp]a¾OU KqO SkLRspL
p]q]¨OU
(4) Increases towards the poles
(4) NiOv°StLaaO¨OSÒL¥
WPaOÐO
21. The areal extent of India is
21. CÍ|pORa nPv]ñQf] INfpLeV ?
(1) 32.8 million km2
(1) 32.8 hwsƒU \. W]. o].
(2) 328 lakh km 2
(2) 328 sƒU \. W]. o].
(3) 3.28 lakh km2 (3) 3. 28 sƒU \. W]. o].

(4) 3.28 million km2 (4) 3. 28 hwsƒU \. W]. o].

22. Basalt is a rock formed by
22. myL¥ŸV IÐ w]s qPkU
RWLçOÐfV
(1) Lithification of sediments (1) AvyLh°¥ hQd}Wq]¨R՟V
(2) ^}v^Ls°¥ o¹]ja]p]¤
(2) The burial of living organisms
AWR՟V
(3) The metamorphism of other rocks (3) oãV w]sWtORa WLpLÍq}Wqe
¾]sPRa
(4) The cooling of lava
(4) sLv feO¾Or´V

M-1 -7- P.T.O.

Class – VIII SAT

23. Which organ of government interprets 23. j]po°¥ v|LX|Lj]¨OÐ Yv¦
laws ? Ro£]R£ ZaWSofV ?

(1) Judiciary (1) j}f]j|Lp v]nLYU

(2) Legislature
(2) j]po j]¡ÚLe yn
(3) Executive (3) WLq|j]¡‹ze v]nLYU
(4) Bureaucracy (4) m|PSrLNWy]

24. Which of the following is not a function 24. fLRu RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐf]¤
of High Court ?
RRzS¨Laf]pORa \Oofsp]¤
RÕaL¾fV
(1) Hear appeals on verdicts of (1) W}uVS¨Laf]WtORa v]i]¨V
subordinate courts AÕ}¤ SW¥¨OW.
(2) Consider cases relating to the (2) oTs]W AvWLw°tOoLp]
violation of Fundamental Rights
mÌR՟ SWyOW¥
kq]Ye]¨OW.
(3) Interpretation of laws
(3) j]po°¥ v|LX|Lj]¨OW.
(4) Consider the cases relating to
(4) y U ò L j ° ¥ fÚ]sOç
the disputes between state
f¡¨°tOoLp] mÌR՟
governments SWyOW¥ kq]Ye]¨OW.
25. Who performs the functions of 25. CÍ|¢ Nky]c£]R£ AyLÐ]È|
President of India in his absence ? ¾]¤ BqLeV ASÇz¾]R£
\OofsW¥ j]¡‹z]¨OÐfV ?
(1) Prime Minister
(1) NkiLjoNÍ]
(2) Governor
(2) Yv¡¹¡
(3) Vice-President

(4) Chief Justice
(3) RRvyV Nky]c£V
(4) \}lV ^yVã]yV

M-1 -8-

Class – VIII SAT

26. The members of Rajya Sabha are 26. qL^|yn AUY°Rt f]qR´aO
elected for ¨OÐfV
(1) 5 years (1) 5 v¡xS¾¨V

(2) 6 years (2) 6 v¡xS¾¨V

(3) Permanently elected (3) ò]qoLp] f]qR´aO¨OÐO
(4) 65 vpôV kP¡¾]pL¨OÐfV
(4) Till the completion of 65 years
vRq
27. Which of the following is a function of 27. \OvRa S\¡¾]q]¨OÐf]¤
the President of India ? CÍ|¢ Nky]c£]R£ \OofsSpfV ?
(1) Presides over the meetings of (1) W|Lm]jãV SpLY°t]¤
the Cabinet AÈ|ƒf vz]¨OW.
(2) Supervises election to the Lok (2) SsLWyn f]qR´aOÕ]jV
Sabha So¤SjLŸU vz]¨OW.
(3) Gives assent to the bills (3) SsLWyn kLôL¨OÐ j]po
passed by the Parliament °¥¨V AUY]WLqU j¤WOW.
(4) Appoints Vice-President of (4) RRvyV Nky]c£]Rj
India j]po]¨OW.

28. Which of the following is not included 28. \OvRa S\¡¾]q]¨OÐf]¤
in the electoral college for the election CÍ|¢ Nky]c£]Rj f]qR´aO
of the President of India ?
¨OvLjOç CsWVãr¤ SWLSt^]¤
D¥RÕaL¾SffV ?
(1) Elected members of Rajya (1) qL^|ynp]Rs f]qR´aO¨
Sabha R՟ AUY°¥
(2) yUòLj Rs^]Sþã}vV WT¦
(2) Elected members of the State
Legislative Council y]s]Rs f]qR´aO¨R՟
AUY°¥
(3) Elected members of the Lok (3) SsLWynp]Rs f]qR´aO¨
Sabha R՟ AUY°¥
(4) Elected members of the State (4) yUòLj Rs ^ ] S þ ã }vV
AyU‡]p]Rs f]qR´
Legislative Assembly
aO¨R՟ AUY°¥
M-1 -9- P.T.O.

Class – VIII SAT

29. Which of the following statements are 29. \OvRa S\¡¾]q]¨OÐ NkñLvj
correct in relation to the Prime Wt]¤ CÍ|¢ NkiLjoNÍ]Rp
Minister of India ? yUmÌ]ˆ]aS¾LtU wq]pLpv
a) Presides over the meetings of JRfŠLU ?
the Cabinet a) W|Lm]jãV SpLY°t]¤
b) Informs the President the AÈ|ƒf vz]¨OW.
decisions of the Cabinet b) W|Lm]jãV f}qOoLj°¥
c) Leader of Lok Sabha Nky]c£]Rj Ar]p]¨OW.
d) Presides over the meetings of c) SsLWynpORa SjfLvV
Lok Sabha d) SsLWyn ySÚtj°t]¤
(1) b, c and d AÈ|ƒf vz]¨OÐO.
(2) a, c and d (1) b pOU c pOU d pOU
(2) a pOU c pOU d pOU
(3) a, b and d
(3) a pOU b pOU d pOU
(4) a, b and c
(4) a pOU b pOU c pOU
30. Who presides over the meetings of
Rajya Sabha ? 30. qL^|yn ySÚtj°t]¤
AÈ|ƒf vz]¨OÐfLqV ?
(1) Speaker
(1) yVk}¨¡
(2) President
(3) Vice-President
(2) Nky]c£V
(3) RRvyV Nky]c£V
(4) Prime Minister
(4) NkiLjoNÍ]
31. Which of the following has the power
31. fLRu RWLaO¾]ŸOçvp]¤ yONk}U
to impeach the Judges of the Supreme
SWLaf] ^cV^]oLRq WOãv]\Lqe
Court ? R\áLjOç Ai]WLqU Bq]sLeV
(1) Parliament j]ƒ]kÅoLp]q]¨OÐfV ?
(1) kL¡sRo£V
(2) President
(2) Nky]c£V
(3) Prime Minister
(3) NkiLjoNÍ]
(4) Vice-President
(4) RRvyV Nky]c£V

M-1 -10-

Class – VIII SAT
32. How many members are nominated 32. SWqt j]po j]¡ÚLe ynp]Ss¨V
to the Kerala Legislative Assembly by INf AUY°Rt Yv¡e¡ jLo
the Governor ? j]¡SÇwU R\áOÐO ?
(1) 2 (2) 12 (1) 2 (2) 12

(3) 1 (4) 9 (3) 1 (4) 9

33. Which of the following amendment 33. SWNÎ – yUòLj mÌ°t]¤
procedure is used in India to make oLãU vqO¾OÐf]jLp] fLRu
changes in Centre-State relations ? S\¡¾]q]¨OÐf]¤ JfO nqe
Zaj SnhYf]pLeV CÍ|p]¤
(1) Simple majority of the y~}Wq]ˆ]q]¨OÐfV ?
Parliament (1) kL¡sRo£]R£ SWvs
(2) Special majority of the nPq]kƒU
Parliament (2) kL¡sRo£]R£ NkSf|W
nPq]kƒU
(3) Special majority of the (3) kL¡sRo£]R£ NkSf|W
Parliament with the ratification of nPq]kƒvOU kWOf]
half of the States yUòLj°tORa
(4) Special majority of the AUY}WLqvOU
Parliament with the ratification of (4) kL¡sRo£]R£ NkSf|W nPq]
three fourth of the States kƒvOU jLs]¤ oPÐV yUòLj
°tORa AUY}WLqvOU
34. Which states have unicameral
Legislature ? 34. JWo¼s j]po j]¡ÚLe ynW
tOç yUòLj°¥
(1) Bihar and Uttar Pradesh
(1) m}zLrOU D¾¡NkShwOU
(2) Maharashtra and Karnataka (2) ozLqLNìpOU W¡¹LaWvOU
(3) Andhra Pradesh and Bihar (3) BNÌLNkShwOU m}zLrOU
(4) Kerala and Uttar Khand (4) SWqtvOU D¾¡X¼OU

35. Union Finance Minister of India 35. CÍ|p]Rs SWNÎ ijWLq| vWOÕV
oNÍ]
(1) Raj Nath Singh
(1) qL^VjLgV y]°V
(2) Sushma Swaraj
(2) yOxo y~qL^V
(3) Arun Jaitley
(3) AqO¦ R^pVãVs]
(4) Venkaiah Naidu
(4) RvËá jLp]cO
M-1 -11- P.T.O.

Class – VIII SAT
36. One astronomical unit is the distance 36. KqO AyV S NaLeo]¨¤ pPe]ãV
between IÐfV
(1) nPo]pOU \NÎjOU fÚ]sOç
(1) Earth and Moon AWsU
(2) yPq|jOU \NÎjOU fÚ]sOç
(2) Sun and Moon AWsU
(3) yPq|jOU nPo]pOU fÚ]sOç
(3) Sun and Earth AWsU
(4) yPq|jOU mOijOU fÚ]sOç
(4) Sun and Mercury AWsU

37. The instrument used to measure
37. AÍq}ƒo¡ÇU At¨LjOç
atmospheric pressure DkWqeU
(1) Barometer (1) mLSqLo}ã¡
(2) Glucometer (2) PS¨Lo}ã¡
(3) Lactometer (3) sLWVSaLo}ã¡
(4) Calorimeter (4) WSsLr]o}ã¡
38. If a bar magnet is cut lengthwise into 38. KqO mL¡ oLYVjãV oPÐO nLY°
three parts, the total number of tLp] RjaORW oOr]¨OWpLRe
magnetic poles will be Ë]¤ DºLWOÐ BRW WLÍ]W
NiOv°tORa I¹U
(1) 2 (1) 2
(2) 3 (2) 3
(3) 4 (3) 4

(4) 6 (4) 6

39. What type of frictional force comes 39. KqO RRNY¢cr]¤ Aq] AqàO
into play when rice is grinded in a SÒL¥ AjOnvRÕaOÐ Z¡xe
kitchen grinder ? msU
(1) j]és Z¡xeU
(1) Static friction
(2) j]q°¤ Z¡xeU
(2) Sliding friction
(3) DqOt¤ Z¡xeU
(3) Rolling friction
(4) CRfLÐOoŠ
(4) None of these

M-1 -12-

Class – VIII SAT
40. 1 parsec = ___________ light year. 40. 1 k¡RyWV = ________ NkWLw
v¡xU.
(1) 6.23
(1) 6.23
(2) 2.36 (2) 2.36

(3) 3.62 (3) 3.62
(4) 3.26
(4) 3.26
41. KqO mL¡ oLYVjã]jOç]SsàO NkSvw]
41. The difference in the number of ¨OWpOU Af]¤ j]ÐO kOrRÕaO
magnetic field lines entering and
WpOU R\áOÐ WLÍ]W msSqX
leaving a bar magnet is always
WtORa I¹¾]sOç v|f|LyU
(1) Infinity ISÕLuOU _______ Bp]q]¨OU.
(1) AjÍU
(2) Zero
(2) kP^|U
(3) > 1
(3) >1
(4) < 1
(4) <1
42. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. At
42. KqO kÍV sUmoLp] oOWt]SsR¨
the maximum height, its
r]pOÐO. kqoLvi] Dpq¾]Rs¾O
(1) Velocity is zero and there is no SÒL¥
acceleration
(1) NkSvYU kP^|oLeV, f~qeo]Š
(2) Acceleration is independent of
velocity (2) f~qeU NkSvYR¾ Bèp]

(3) Acceleration is present and
¨OÐ]Š
velocity is not zero (3) f~qeoOºV, NkSvYU kP^|oŠ
(4) None of these (4) CRfLÐOoŠ
43 A force of 100 N is applied normally
on a table top of area 2m 2. The 43. 2 m2 kqÕtvOç KqO SowpORa
pressure exerted on the table top is Dkq]fs¾]¤ 100 N msU
(1) 100 Nm–2 NkSpLY]¨OÐO. Dkq]fs¾]¤
AjOnvRÕaOÐ o¡ÇU
(2) 50 Nm–2
(1) 100 Nm–2 (2) 50 Nm–2
(3) 25 Nm–2
(3) 25 Nm–2 (4) 5 Nm–2
(4) 5 Nm–2
M-1 -13- P.T.O.

Class – VIII SAT
44. A car covers half the distance with a 44. KqO WL¡ kWOf] hPqU 40 km h –1
speed of 40 kmh–1 and the other half
with a speed of 60 km h–1 . The average
SvYfp]sOU AaO¾ kWOf] hPqU
speed of the car during the whole 60 km h –1 SvYfp]sOU yµq]
journey is ¨OÐO. WLr]R£ wqLwq] SvYf
(1) 48 Km h–1 INf ?
(2) 100 Km h–1 (1) 48 Km h–1 (2) 100 Km h–1
(3) 50 Km h–1
(3) 50 Km h–1 (4) 40 Km h–1
(4) 40 Km h–1
45. CÍ|pORa AeOw©] WÚ}xR£
45. The first Chairman of Indian Atomic
Energy Commission
Bh|R¾ R\p¡oL¢

(1) Vikram Sarabhai (1) v]NWU yLqLnLpV
(2) Homi Jahangir Bhaba (2) SzLo] ^zLUY]¡ nLn
(3) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (3) ScL. I. k]. R^. AýO¥ WsLU
(4) None of these (4) Cvq]sLqOoŠ

46. The velocities of a freely falling body at 46. j]¡mLiU fLSuàO kf]¨OÐ KqO
the end of 1s, 2s, 3s of its fall are in the vñOv]R£ 1s, 2s, 3s yop°¥¨O
ratio SwxoOç NkSvY°¥ fLRuÕr
(1) 1 : 1 :1 (2) 1 : 2 : 3
pOÐ AjOkLf¾]sLp]q]¨OU.
(1) 1 : 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 3
(3) 1 : 4 : 9 (4) 1 : 3 : 5
(3) 1 : 4 : 9 (4) 1 : 3 : 5
47. Which of the following statements is 47. fLRu krpOÐvp]¤ vLfWL
correct for gaseous state ? vòRp yUmÌ]ˆV wq]pLp
(1) Inter molecular forces are
NkñLvj JfV ?
maximum (1) AÍ¡ fÓLNfL ms°¥
JãvOU WPaOf¤
(2) Inter molecular space is
(2) AÍ¡ fÓLNfLòsU JãvOU
maximum
WPaOf¤
(3) Have definite shape and (3) j]pfoLp BWQf]pOU
volume v|LkÅvOU DºV
(4) Have definite volume but no (4) j]pfoLp v|LkÅ o OºV
definite shape IÐL¤ j]pfoLp BWQf]
p]Š
M-1 -14-

Class – VIII SAT
48. Which of the following happens when 48. Nhv|U, fLkU BY]qeU R\áO
matter absorbs heat ? SÒL¥ fLRu krpOÐvp]¤
i) Energy of particles decreases IRÍLR¨ yUnv]¨OU ?
i) We]WWtORa DT¡²U
ii) Distance between particles
increases
WOrpOÐO.
ii) We]WW¥ fÚ]sOç AWsU
iii) Attraction between particles WPaOÐO.
increases
iii) We]WW¥ fÚ]sOç
iv) Movement of particles increases BW¡xeU WPaOÐO.
Select the correct option : iv) We]WWtORa \sjU WPaOÐO.
(1) i) and iv) wq]pLp NkñLvjW¥ RfRq
R´aO¨OW.
(2) ii) and iii)
(1) i) & iv) (2) ii) & iii)
(3) i) and iii)
(3) i) & iii) (4) ii) & iv)
(4) ii) and iv)

49. Which of the following reactions will
49. fLRuÕrpOÐf]¤ JfV qLy
give an inflammable gas ? Nkv¡¾jU ja¨OSÒLuLeV
W¾OÐ vLfWU DºLWOÐfV ?
(1) Copper + dil. H2SO4
(1) SWLÕ¡ + Sj¡Õ]ˆ H2SO4
(2) Zinc + dil. HCl
(2) y]ËV + Sj¡Õ]ˆ HCl
(3) NH3 + H2O (3) NH3 + H2O

(4) Aluminium + dil. HNO3 (4) AsOo]j}pU + Sj¡Õ]ˆ HNO3

50. oPsW°¥¨V Nkf}W°¥ j¤WOÐ
50. The method of assigning symbols for
elements was developed by q}f] Bh|oLp] v]Wy]Õ]RˆaO¾
(1) John Dalton
wLNñ³jLeV
(1) S^L¦ cL¥Ÿ¦
(2) Mendeleev
(2) Ro¢cs}vV
(3) Berzelius
(3) RmuVy}s]pôV
(4) Moseley
(4) SoLyVs]
M-1 -15- P.T.O.

Class – VIII SAT
51. For which of the following elements 51. fLRu RWLaO¾]ŸOçvp]¤
the basis of naming is their colour ?
JRfLR¨ oPsW°RtpLeV Av
i) Chromium pORa j]rU Aa]òLjoL¨]
jLoWqeU R\pÅ]ŸOçfV ?
ii) Curium i) SNWLo]pU
iii) Chlorine ii) W|Pr]pU
iii) S„Lr]¢
iv) Copper
iv) SWLÕ¡
Select the correct option : wq]pLpfV f]qR´aO¨OW.
(1) i) and iii) (1) i) & iii)
(2) i) and iv) (2) i) & iv)
(3) ii) & iv)
(3) ii) and iv)
(4) i) & ii)
(4) i) and ii)
52. I¢ScL I¡^]WV (DT¡^SwLxW)
52. Which of the following is the most Nkv¡¾j°Rt yUmÌ]ˆV
correct for endoergic reactions ? JãvOU wq]pLpSffV ?
(1) Chemical reactions which (1) fLkU BY]qeU R\áOÐ qLy
absorb heat Nkv¡¾j°¥
(2) Chemical reactions which (2) NkWLwU BY]qeU R\áOÐ
absorb light qLyNkv¡¾j°¥
(3) Chemical reactions which (3) RRvh|OSfL¡²U BY]qeU
absorb electrical energy R\áOÐ qLyNkv¡¾j°¥
(4) Chemical reactions which
(4) fLkU, NkWLwU, RRvh|O
absorb heat, light or electrical
SfL¡²U IÐ]vp]SsRf
energy Ë]sOU BY]qeU R\áOÐ
qLyNkv¡¾j°¥
53. Which of the following is a 53. fLRu RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐvp]¤ r}
rechargeable cell ? \L¡²V R\áLvOÐ Ry¤ JfV ?
(1) Dry Cell (1) RRNc Ry¤
(2) Leclanche Cell (2) Rs„L¢Rx Ry¤
(3) Nickel-Cadmium Cell (3) j]¨¤&WLcVo]pU Ry¤
(4) Mercury Cell (4) Ro¡¨Or] Ry¤
M-1 -16-

Class – VIII SAT

54. Which of the following pairs of 54. fLRu RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐvp]¤
elements have polyatomic molecules ? mzO ASãLo]W fÓLNfWtOç
oPsW S^Lc] JfV ?
(1) P & Ar
(1) P & Ar
(2) H & S
(2) H &d S
(3) O & Xe
(3) O & Xe
(4) P & S
(4) P & S
55. Which of the following metals has the
lowest melting point ?
55. fÐ]q]¨OÐ SsLz°t]¤ Jf]
jLeV NhveLËU JãvOU WOrvV ?
(1) Potassium
(1) RkLŸLy|U
(2) Lithium
(2) s]g]pU
(3) Gallium
(3) YLs]pU
(4) Zinc
(4) y]ËV
56. For an element with atomic number
56. ASãLo]W yUX| 19 Bp
19, the 19th electron will occupy which
shell ?
o P s W ¾ ] ¤ 1 9& L o R ¾
CsWVSNaL¦ JfV RxŠ]¤ BeV
(1) K Shell ò]f] R\áOÐfV ?
(2) L Shell (1) K Rx¤

(3) M Shell (2) L Rx¤
(3) M Rx¤
(4) N Shell
(4) N Rx¤
57. How many H-atoms are present in 5
57. RNkLRÕpVR£ 5 fÓLNfWt]¤
molecules of propane ?
INf H Bã°¥ DºV ?
(1) 8
(1) 8
(2) 40
(2) 40
(3) 30 (3) 30

(4) 20 (4) 20

M-1 -17- P.T.O.

Class – VIII SAT
58. Identify the wrong statement. 58. RfãLp NkñLvj f]q]ˆr]
(1) Teflon is used in the manufacture
R´uOfOW.
of nonstick cookware (1) RaSlæL¦ SjL¦ð]¨V kLNf
°¥ DºL¨L¢ DkSpLY]
(2) Rayon is known as artificial silk ¨OÐO
(2) rSpL¦ B¡Ÿ]l]x|¤ y]¤¨V
(3) Terylene is an example for IÐr]pRÕaOÐO
polyester (3) Rar]s]¢ SkLt]ðr]jV KqO
DhLzqeoLeV
(4) Melamine is a thermoplastic
(4) RosLo]¢ KqO Rf¡SoL
†Lð]¨V BeV
59. Which is the anhydride of HNO3 ?
59. HNO 3 pORa A¦RRzRRNccV
(1) NO2
JfLeV ?
(2) N2O5 (1) NO2

(2) N2O5
(3) N2O3
(3) N2O3
(4) NO
(4) NO

60. Select the correct statement from the 60. fÐ]q]¨OÐvp]¤ j]ÐOU wq]
following. pLp NkñLvj f]qR´aO¨OW.
(1) Mitochondrion produces (1) RRoSãLSWL¦Na]SpL¦
hormones SzL¡SoLeOW¥ DsVÕLh]Õ]
¨OÐO.
(2) Golgi complex are called power
(2) SWLw°tORa DT¡^j]spoLeV
house of the cell
SYL¥Y] SWLU†WõV
(3) Ribosomes synthesise proteins (3) RRrSmLSyLoOW¥ SWLw°
in cells t]¤ oLUy|j]¡oLeU ja¾OÐO.
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum stores (4) I¢ScL†LyVo]WV RrŸ]¨OsU
water, minerals and waste ^sU, sve°¥, v]y¡^| vñO
products in a cell ¨¥ IÐ]v yUnq]¨OÐO.
M-1 -18-

Class – VIII SAT

61. Adulteration of dal with Kesari dal 61. kq]Õ]¤ SWyq]kq]ÕV S\¡¨OÐfV
mainly causes NkiLjoLpOU JfV SqLYLvòàV
WLqeoLWOU ?
(1) Diabetes
(1) NkSozU
(2) Liver diseases
(2) Wq¥ SqLY°¥
(3) Heart attack
(3) zQhpLZLfU
(4) Paralysis
(4) jLc}ñUnjU

62. The expansion and contraction of the 62. w~LySWLwU v]Wy]¨OÐfOU
lungs is controlled by kP¡vò]f] NkLk]¨OÐfOU j]p
NÍ]¨OÐfV
(1) Oesophagus
(1) AÐjLtU
(2) Diaphragm
(2) cpNlU
(3) Bronchi
(3) w~yj]
(4) Thorax (4) RfLrLWõV

63. Which of the following pair of 63. fLRu RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐ ^}v]W t]¤
organisms can respire through skin ? f~¨]sPRa w~y]¨L¢ Wu]vOç
^}v]WtORa S^Lc] JfLeV ?
(1) Earthworm and insect
(1) o¹]q, xcVkhU
(2) Fish and insect
(2) oÃ|U, xcVkhU
(3) Frog and earthworm
(3) fvt, o¹]q
(4) Bird and frog
(4) kƒ], fvt

M-1 -19- P.T.O.

Class – VIII SAT

64. Select the scientific name of 64. We]R¨LÐpORa wLNñ}p jLoU
Kanikonna (golden shower). f]qR´aO¨OW.

(1) Corvus splendens (1) SWL¡vyV yVR†¢c¢yV

(2) Cassia fistula
(2) WLy]p l]ðOs

(3) SmLyV SaLryV
(3) Bos taurus

(4) RWLS¨LyV j|Py]Rlr
(4) Cocos nucifera

65. kP¨¥¨OU ls°¥¨OU o´
65. Identify the pigments that give yellow
colour and red colour to flowers and j]rvOU \OvÐ j]rvOU j¤WOÐ
fruits. v¡eW°tLeV

(1) Xanthophyll and anthocyanin (1) yLSÍLl]ŠOU BSÍLy
pLj]jOU
(2) Anthocyanin and chlorophyll
(2) BSÍLypLj]jOU
(3) Carotene and chlorophyll S„LSrLl]ŠOU
(3) WSqLŸ]jOU S„LSrLl]ŠOU
(4) Xanthophyll and carotene
(4) yLSÍLl]ŠOU WSqLŸ]jOU

66. The part of human digestive system 66. sveU Aa°]p]q]¨OÐ ^sU
where absorption of water containing BY]qeU R\áOÐfV ojOx|
minerals takes place
hzSjNÎ]p v|vòpORa JfV
(1) Stomach nLYoLeV ?

(2) Small intestine
(1) BoLwpU
(2) R\rOWOa¤
(3) Mouth
(3) vLp
(4) Large intestine
(4) v¢WOa¤

M-1 -20-

Class – VIII SAT
67. The bacterium that lives in the roots 67. kprOR\a]pORa SvqOWt]¤ WLe
of leguminous plants is
RÕaOÐ mLû}q]p BeV
(1) Mycoplasma (1) RRoSWL†LyÜ
(2) Rhizobium (2) RRrSyLm]pU
(3) Nitrobacter (3) RRjSNaLmLû¡
(4) Lactobacillus (4) sLWVSaLmLy]syV

68. Which of the following is not related 68. fLRu krpOÐvp]¤ Sy~hNYÏ]
to sweat glands ? pOoLp] mÌo]ŠL¾fVV JfLeV ?
(1) Ai]W^svOU sve°tOU
(1) Excess water and salts are kOrÍçOÐO
eliminated
(2) wq}q fLkj]s j]pNÍ]¨OÐO
(2) Regulate body temperature (3) f~¨]¤ WLeRÕaOÐO
(4) WL¡m¦ cSpLWVRRyc]Rj
(3) Present in skin
kOrÍçOÐO.
(4) Elimination of CO2
69. SWLt¢RRWopOoLp] mÌR՟V
wq]pLp NkñLvj JfV ?
69. Which one of the following statement
is correct about collenchyma ? (1) SW L w n ] ¾ ] p O R a I Š L
nLY¾OU KSqSkLRs WŸ]
(1) Uniformly thick all over the cell WPa]pfV
wall
(2) SW L w n ] ¾ ] p O R a oPsWt]¤
(2) Corners of the cell wall are oLNfU WŸ] WPa]pfV
thickened
(3) oQhOvLp yy|nLY°t]¤
(3) Found in soft plant parts WLeRÕaOÐO
(4) BzLqyUnqe¾]jV
(4) Helps in storage of food
yzLp]¨OÐO

70. The percentage of water in human 70. ojOx|R£ oPNf¾]Rs ^s¾]R£
urine is about JWShw wfoLjU

(1) 9.6% (2) 96% (1) 9.6% (2) 96%

(3) 0.96% (4) 0.096%
(3) 0.96% (4) 0.096%

M-1 -21- P.T.O.

Class – VIII SAT

71. A¨°tORa YOejlsU AnL^|
71. How many two-digit numbers are
yUX| BWOÐ INf qº¨ yUX|
there with their product of digits a
WtOºV ?
prime number ?

(1) 5 (1) 5

(2) 6 (2) 6
(3) 7 (3) 7
(4) 8
(4) 8
72. What is the sum of all odd numbers
72. 100 jOU 200 jOU CaàOç IŠL Kã
between 100 and 200 ?
yUX|WtORapOU fOW IÍLeV ?
(1) 7500
(1) 7500

(2) 10000 (2) 10000
(3) 15050
(3) 15050
(4) 20000
(4) 20000
73. Which of the numbers below has an
73. \OvRa RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐ yUX|
odd number of factors ?
Wt]¤, ZaW°tORa I¹U
KãyUX|pLpfV Jf]jLeV ?
(1) 97
(1) 97
(2) 98
(2) 98
(3) 99
(3) 99
(4) 100
(4) 100

M-1 -22-

Class – VIII SAT

74. What is the least number by which the 74. 1 oOf¤ 10 vRqpOç I¹¤
product of the natural numbers from 1 yUX|WtORa YOejlsR¾
to 10 is to be multiplied to get a perfect JãvOU R\r]p JfO yUX|
square ? RWLºO YOe]ˆL¤ KqO kP¡¹
v¡YoLWOU ?
(1) 2 (2) 3
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 5 (4) 7
(3) 5 (4) 7
75. If 2n(2n+1 – 1) = 2016 , then what is n ?
75. 2n(2n+1 – 1) = 2016 BReË]¤ n
(1) 4 (2) 5 IÍLeV ?
(1) 4 (2) 5
(3) 6 (4) 7
(3) 6 (4) 7

76. (6 – 1) (62 – 1) (63 – 1) . . . (6100 – 1)
76. If the product (6 – 1) (62 – 1) (63 – 1) . . . IÐ YOejlsU We¨L¨]
(6100 – 1) is calculated, what would be
the digit in the one’s place ?
pL¤, KÐ]R£ òLjR¾ A¨U
IÍLp]q]¨OU ?
(1) 3 (2) 4 (1) 3 (2) 4

(3) 5 (4) 6 (3) 5 (4) 6

77. AaO¾aO¾ oPÐV I¹¤yUX|
77. For three consecutive natural
numbers, the squares of the first two
Wt]¤ Bh|R¾ qRº¹¾]R£
are 308025 and 309136. What is the v¡YU 308025 DU 309136 DU BeV.
square of the third ? oPÐLoR¾ yUX|pORa v¡YU
IÍLeV ?
(1) 310245
(1) 310245

(2) 310247 (2) 310247

(3) 310249 (3) 310249

(4) 310251 (4) 310251
M-1 -23- P.T.O.

Class – VIII SAT

2 2
⎛ 1⎞ ⎛ 1⎞
78. What is ⎜ 25 ⎟ ? 78. ⎜ 25 ⎟ IÍLeV ?
⎝ 2⎠ ⎝ 2⎠

1 1
(1) 625 (1) 625
4 4

1 1
(2) 626 (2) 626
4 4

1 1
(3) 637 (3) 637
4 4

1
1 (4) 650
(4) 650 4
4

79. KqO yUX|Rp 4 RWLºO zq]ˆ
79. A number divided by 4 gives
remainder 3. What would be the SÕL¥ w]ìU 3 W]Ÿ]. yUX|pORa
remainder if the square of the number v¡Y¾]Rj 4 RWLºV zq]ˆL¤
is divided by 4 ? w]ìU IÍO W]ŸOU ?
(1) 0 (1) 0
(2) 1 (2) 1

(3) 2 (3) 2

(4) 3 (4) 3
1 1 1 1
80. If all multiples of 4 , 6, 10 by 80. 4 , 6, 10 IÐ} yUX|WtORa
2 2 2 2
natural numbers are taken, which is I¹¤ yUX|W¥RWLºOç
the smallest natural number common IŠL YOe]f°tORoaO¾L¤,
to all ?
IŠLã]sOU RkLfOvLp JãvOU
(1) 36 R\r]p I¹¤yUX| IÍLeV ?
(1) 36
(2) 63
(2) 63
(3) 126
(3) 126
(4) 252
(4) 252

M-1 -24-

Class – VIII SAT
81. The price of a book and a pen is 81. KqO kOñW¾]jOU SkjàOU WPa]
20 rupees. The price of the book is 20 qPkpLeV v]s. kOñW¾]jV
4 rupees more than the price of the
SkjSp¨L¥ 4 qPk WPaOfsLeV.
pen. If one more pen is bought, what
KqO Skj WPa] vL°]pL¤ BRW
would be the total cost ?
INf qPkpLWOU ?
(1) 24
(1) 24
(2) 26
(2) 26
(3) 28

(4) 30 (3) 28

(4) 30

82. The sum of thrice a number and two
82. KqO yUX|pORa oPÐO oa°]SjLaV
is equal to twice the sum of the
qºO WPŸ]pfOU, oPÐO WPŸ]pf]R£
number and three. What is the
number ?
qºO oa°OU fOs|oLeV . yUX|
IÍLeV ?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 3 (4) 4

83. KqO „Ly]¤ 30 B¦WOŸ]WtOU 20
83. There are 30 boys and 20 girls in a Rk¦WOŸ]WtOoOºV . B¦WOŸ]
class. The average weight of the boys WtORa wqLwq] nLqU 45 W]SsL
is 45 kilograms and the average NYLoOU, Rk¦WOŸ]WtORa wqLwq]
weight of the girls is 35 kilograms. nLqU 35 W]SsLNYLoOU BeV. RoL¾U
What is the average of the entire class ?
„Ly]Rs WOŸ]WtORa wqLwq] nLqU
INf W]SsLNYLoLeV ?
(1) 40
(1) 40
(2) 41
(2) 41
(3) 42
(3) 42
(4) 43
(4) 43
M-1 -25- P.T.O.

Class – VIII SAT

84. In a polygon, there are 12 diagonals 84. KqO mzOnO^¾]R£ KqO oPsp]¤
through a vertex. How many diagonals
¨Pa] 12 v]W¡e°tOºV. mzOnO^
are there in all ?
¾]jV BRW INf v]W¡e
°tOºV ?
(1) 72
(1) 72
(2) 90
(2) 90

(3) 144
(3) 144

(4) 180
(4) 180

85. 85.

If this pattern of figures is continued,
\]Nf°tORa CT NWoU fOa¡ÐL¤
in the 10th picture what fraction of the
k¾LoR¾ \]Nf¾]¤ WrOÕ]¨L
whole square is the unshaded part ?
¾fV, RoL¾U yo\fOq¾]R£
1 INf nLYoLeV ?
(1)
1024
1
(1)
1 1024
(2)
512
1
(2)
512
1
(3)
256 1
(3)
256

1 1
(4) (4)
128 128

M-1 -26-

Class – VIII SAT
86. In the trapezium shown below, the 86. \]Nf¾]Rs sUmW¾]R£
longer of the parallel sides is three
times the shorter. yoLÍqvw°t]¤ R\rOf]R£
oPÐO oa°LeV vsOfV

What fraction of the area of the WrOÕ]ˆ Nf]SWLe¾]R£ kqÕ
trapezium is the area of the shaded
triangle ?
tvV, sUmW¾]R£ kqÕtv]R£
INf nLYoLeV ?
1 2
(1) (2) 1 2
2 3
(1) (2)
2 3
3 4
(3) (4) 3 4
4 5 (3) (4)
4 5

87. The left and right sides of the triangle 87. \]Nf¾]Rs Nf]SWLe¾]R£
shown are of the same length
CafOU vsfOU vw°¥¨V KSq
j}toLeV.
Ry.o}

Ry.o}

What is the perpendicular distance
from one of the bottom vertices to the Nf]SWLe¾]R£ fLuR¾ KqO
opposite side, in centimeters ? oPsp]¤ j]ÐV If]¡vwS¾
àOç sUm¾]R£ j}tU INf
(1) 4.8
Ry£]o}ãrLeV ?
(1) 4.8
(2) 6.4
(2) 6.4
(3) 8
(3) 8
(4) 9.6 (4) 9.6

M-1 -27- P.T.O.

Class – VIII SAT

88. How many non-congruent triangles 88. KqO vwU 10 Ry£]o}ãrOU, KqO
can be drawn with one side SWL¦ 100 pOU Bp fOs|o



10 centimeters and one angle 100° ? ŠL¾ INf yokL¡w~Nf]SWLe
°¥ vqàLU ?
(1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
(3) 3 (4) 4

89. The volume of a rectangular box is 89. KqO \fOqR՟]pORa v|LkÅU 60
60 cubic centimeters. What is the ZjRy£]o}ãrLeV . vw°
volume of a box with each side
RtŠLU Cf]R£ qºO oa°Lp
double that of this box, in cubic
centimeters ? \fOqR՟]pORa v|LkŠU INf
ZjRy£]o}ãrLeV ?
(1) 120 (2) 180
(1) 120 (2) 180
(3) 240 (4) 480
(3) 240 (4) 480

90. \]Nf¾]¤ oPÐO yokµnO^
90. In the picture, three regular pentagons
and a triangle are joined together. °tOU KqO Nf]SWLevOU S\¡¾O
vˆ]q]¨OÐO

What is the ratio of the angles of the
triangle ? Nf]SWLe¾]Rs SWLeOW¥
(1) 1 : 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 2 : 2 fÚ]sOç AUwmÌU IÍLeV ?
(3) 1 : 3 : 3 (4) 2 : 3 : 3 (1) 1:1:2 (2) 1:2 :2

(3) 1:3 :3 (4) 2:3:3
––––––––––––––
M-1 -28-

Class – VIII SAT
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

M-1 -29- P.T.O.

Class – VIII SAT
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

M-1 -30-