CUSAT CAT 2024 Question Paper Bioethics

Entrance Exam
2024

QUESTION
PAPER

BIOETHICS

1. Which sentence contains a misplaced modifier?
(A) John almost ate the whole pizza
(B) Running in the park, the birds chirped loudly
(C) She wore a red dress to the party
(D) The book on the shelf belongs to my sister

2. The students are excited ……….. the school trip

(A) about
(B) for
(C) at
(D) with

3. What does “Ubiquitous” mean?

(A) Rare
(B) Widespread
(C) Elusive
(D) Ephemeral

4. Select the correct antonym for “incessant”

(A) Continuous
(B) Persistent
(C) Intermittent
(D) Uninterrupted

5. Construct a proper sentence: “School/went/morning/every/to/I/early”

(A) Went I every morning to school early
(B) Early morning every I went to school
(C) To school every morning I went early
(D) I went to school early every morning

6. Transform the sentence “The Company awarded her a promotion” into passive voice.

(A) She was awarded a promotion by the Company.
(B) A promotion was awarded to her by the Company.
(C) A promotion was her awarded by the Company.
(D) The Company promoted her with an award.

7. Which sentence is in active voice?

(A) The novel will be read by Sarah.
(B) Sarah will read the novel.
(C) The novel is read by Sarah.
(D) The novel was being read by Sarah.

Direction (Question No. 8 to 10): Read the passage and answer the following question.

In the heart of a distant kingdom, there stood an ancient library shrouded in mystery.
Scholars and seekers from across the realm were drawn to its towering shelves that held
books rumored to possess magical knowledge. The library’s guardian, an enigmatic figure
known as the Keeper, guarded the entrance. The legend had it that those who could answer
the Keeper’s riddles would be granted access to the most mystical books.

One day, a young scholar named Bala arrived at the library. Determined to uncover the
secrets within, she approached the Keeper, who spoke in riddles.

Keeper’s Riddle: “I speak without a mouth and hear without ears. I have no body, but I
come alive with the wind. What am I?”

Bala pondered the riddle, and after a moment of silence, she confidently answered.
Impressed, the Keeper allowed her entry into the ancient library. Bala excited to enter into
the library.

8. Who is the enigmatic figure guarding the ancient library?

(A) Scholar
(B) Seeker
(C) Keeper
(D) Bala

9. What is the answer to the Keeper’s riddle?

(A) Wind
(B) Breath
(C) Echo
(D) Silence

10. What emotion is likely felt by Bala after gaining entry into the library?

(A) Fear
(B) Excitement
(C) Disappointment
(D) Sadness

11. Which preposition should fill in the blank?

“We were delayed …………… traffic.”

(A) at
(B) with
(C) in
(D) through

12. Identify the correct sentence with parallel structure.

(A) She likes to swim, jogging and reading books.
(B) She likes swimming, jogging and reading books.
(C) She likes to swim, jog and read books.
(D) She likes swimming, jogging and reads books.

13. Identify the sentence structure.

Although it rained, they continued the picnic.

(A) Simple
(B) Compound
(C) Complex
(D) Superlative

14. What is a diphthong?

(A) A single vowel sound
(B) A combination of two vowel sounds
(C) A consonant sound
(D) A silent vowel

15. Choose the correct synonym of the word given below:

Quandary

(A) Impasse
(B) Cinch
(C) Clique
(D) Breeze

16. Choose the correctly spelt word given below:

(A) Nupital
(B) Malevalance
(C) Decaffenated
(D) Supplementary

17. Choose the incorrectly spelt word given below:

(A) Observance
(B) Obstinacy
(C) Omnipresence
(D) Occurrance

18. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom:

A fly on the wall

(A) A vigilant security guard
(B) An unperceived observer
(C) Very intelligent person
(D) An unwelcome guest

19. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom:

A cry in wilderness

(A) A cry in vain
(B) An unpleasant situation
(C) A cry in disgrace
(D) A cry with a laughter

20. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word:

Baneful

(A) Loss
(B) Profit
(C) Evil
(D) Benefit

21. Direction: Spot the error in the part of the below sentence.

You must not/have leave very early/ to have reached here/so late

(A) You must not
(B) have leave very early
(C) to have reached here
(D) so late

22. The study which deals with secret writing is known as?

(A) Cryptography
(B) Secretology
(C) Cytography
(D) Cryptology

23. Birds…………… from one place to another during the winter

(A) migrate
(B) emigrate
(C) shift
(D) transfer

24. The students jumped ………….the opportunity of going on a study tour

(A) for
(B) with
(C) on
(D) at

25. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word:

Amble

(A) Bustle
(B) Stare
(C) Wander
(D) Trot

26. Which element has the chemical symbol “Hg”?

(A) Hydrogen
(B) Helium
(C) Mercury
(D) Gold

27. Which is the first fully solar powered airport in India?

(A) Kochi
(B) Calicut
(C) Bangalore
(D) Thiruvananthapuram

28. ‘Namami Gange Project’ was launched in

(A) 2011
(B) 2014
(C) 2012
(D) 2015

29. National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA) functions under which Union Ministry?

(A) Ministry of Education
(B) Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
(C) Ministry of Defence
(D) Ministry of Home Affairs

30. Which country has opened military service to women for the first time after 25 years
in 2023?

(A) Colombia
(B) Cuba
(C) Chad
(D) Chile

31. Who is the author of “The Great Gatsby”?

(A) F. Scott Fitzgerald
(B) Ernest Hemingway
(C) Virginia Woolf
(D) Mark Twain

32. What is the term used to describe a situation where a country’s imports exceeds its
exports?

(A) Trade surplus
(B) Balance of payments
(C) Trade deficit
(D) Current account surplus

33. To combat climate change, which one of the following international agreement aims
to reduce green house gas emissions?

(A) Vienna Protocol
(B) Milan Protocol
(C) British Accord
(D) Paris Agreement

34. Which program focuses on skill development to enhance employability among Indian
youth?

(A) Digital India
(B) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
(C) Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana
(D) Make in India

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35. Which age group of children is covered under the 86 Constitutional Amendment Act
for free and compulsory education?

(A) 6-12 Years
(B) 6-14 Years
(C) 6-15 Years
(D) 0-10 Years

36. The first railway line was constructed during the rule of

(A) Lord Dalhousie
(B) Lord Bentinck
(C) James Cornwallis
(D) Warren Hastings

37. The headquarters of National Research Laboratory for Conservation of Cultural
Property (NRLC) is located at

(A) New Delhi
(B) Lucknow
(C) Kolkata
(D) Bhopal

38. Which of the following are salient features of the Government of India Act, 1935?

1 Provincial autonomy
2 All-India federation
3 Dyarchy in the provinces
4 Separate communal electorate

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4

39. BRICS leaders signed the agreement to establish a New Development Bank at the
summit held in

(A) New Delhi, 2012
(B) Durban, 2013
(C) Fortaleza, 2014
(D) Ufa, 2015

40. Who amongst the following Indian nationals has been the recipient of Ramon
Magsaysay Award for Community leadership?

(A) Arvind Kejriwal
(B) Kiran Bedi
(C) T. N. Seshan
(D) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan

41. National Commission for Backward Classes was set up in

(A) 1991
(B) 1992
(C) 1993
(D) 1994

42. Who amongst the following directed the 2023 Oscar Award winning film “Everything
Everywhere All At Once”?

(A) James Friend
(B) Ke Huy Quan
(C) Daniel Kwan and Daniel Scheinert
(D) Brendan Fraser

43. The Nord Stream 2 pipeline runs between which on the following countries?

(A) Ukraine and Austria
(B) Russia and Germany
(C) USA and Russia
(D) Russia and Turkey

44. Femina Miss India 2023 won by

(A) Ms. Nandini Gupta
(B) Ms. Shreya Poonja
(C) Ms. Thiybaojam Strela
(D) Ms. Sini Shetty

45. In which city, Prime Minister of India has launched the Ayushman Bharat Health
Infrastructure Mission?

(A) Kanpur
(B) Lucknow
(C) Noida
(D) Varanasi

46. India liberated Goa from the Portuguese in

(A) 1948
(B) 1965
(C) 1961
(D) 1960

47. Which is the highest Civilian Award of India?

(A) Veer Chakra
(B) Bharat Bhushan
(C) Padma Shri
(D) Bharat Ratna

48. Amongst the following who won the Man of the Match Award in the recently
concluded final match of ICC Cricket World Cup, 2023?

(A) Rohit Sharma
(B) Travis Head
(C) Virat Kohli
(D) Glenn Maxwell

49. Match the following:

List-I List-II
(i) International Biodiversity Day (a) 15th February
(ii) International Wetlands Day (b) 14th March
(iii) International Day for Action of Rivers (c) 2nd February
(iv) International Childhood Cancer Day (d) 22nd May

(A) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d)
(B) (i)-(c), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(a)
(C) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)
(D) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)

50. Which one of the Port is the deepest landlocked and well-protected port in India?

(A) Kandla Port
(B) Visakhapatnam port
(C) Tuticorin Port
(D) Mumbai Port

51. A set of statements is given, followed by some conclusions. You have to choose the
correct code according to the given options.

Statements:
D≤E
E>F
F =G
Conclusions:
I. G < D
II. F < D
III. E > G

(A) Only II
(B) Only I and III
(C) Only II and III
(D) Only I

52. Read the statement and find out which conclusion is correct beyond.

Statement:
No mammals are reptiles
Conclusions:
I. Some reptiles are not mammals.
II. No reptiles are mammals.
III. Some non-mammals are reptiles.

(A) Only conclusion I is correct
(B) Only conclusion II is correct
(C) Only conclusion III is correct
(D) None of the above

53. A flight takes off from New Delhi at 11:30 PM (Indian Standard Time) and lands in
New York at 9:15 AM (Eastern Time). How long is the flight in hours and minutes?

(A) 14 hours and 45 minutes
(B) 16 hours and 45 minutes
(C) 13 hours and 15 minutes
(D) 15 hours and 15 minutes

54. Two trains start from two different stations towards each other. Train A travels at a
speed of 60 km/h and Train B travels at a speed of 90 km/h. If the distance between
the two stations is 300 km, how long will it take for the two trains to meet?

(A) 2 hours
(B) 3 hours
(C) 4 hours
(D) 5 hours

55. A person walks 3 km north and then 4 km west. What is the person’s final position
with respect to the starting point?

(A) 7 km north
(B) 1 km south
(C) 5 km west
(D) 5 km northwest

56. In a family, M is the sister of N and O is the brother of N. If P is the father of M and
O, what is the relationship between M and O?

(A) Cousins
(B) Brother and sister
(C) Step-siblings
(D) No direct relationship

57. If dancers are denoted by ‘circle’, doctor by ‘rectangle’ and female by ‘triangle’ and
their proportionate numbers are depicted by the numbers given within the diagram in
the area they are present, find out how many persons are female doctors but are not
dancers?

(A) 23
(B) 45
(C) 15
(D) 34

58. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Profit, Dividend
and Bonus?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

59. Which description is correct match for the diagram?

(A) Newspaper, English, Marati
(B) Newspaper, English, Malayalam
(C) Newspaper, English, Hindi
(D) Newspaper, English, Liquid

60. Complete the following sequence with correct answer.

5, 10, 17, 26, 37, ……….

(A) 50
(B) 48
(C) 54
(D) 46

61. Direction: In the question given below a statement labeled as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R).

Assertion (A):
All squares are rectangles.
Reason (R):
Squares have equal sides and rectangles can have equal sides.

In the context of the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) which of the following is correct?

(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion
(C) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false

62. Which decision-making approach involves assessing potential risks before making a
decision?

(A) Reactive decision-making
(B) Proactive decision-making
(C) Delayed decision-making
(D) Impulsive decision-making

63. You are a marketing manager evaluating two advertising campaigns. Campaign X
has a higher cost but a proven track record of success, while Campaign Y is more
affordable but is untested. What decision-making criterion would be most relevant in
this scenario?

(A) Emotional appeal
(B) Cost-benefit analysis
(C) Market demand analysis
(D) Random selection

64. Identify the odd one out.

(A) Symphony, Sonata, Concerto
(B) Novel, Poem, Lyric
(C) Canvas, Sculpture, Melody
(D) Drama, Comedy, Tragedy

65. Identify the odd one out.

(A) 4, 8, 12, 16
(B) 3, 7, 11, 15
(C) 10, 14, 18, 22
(D) 6, 9, 12, 17

66. Complete the series.

CAT, DOG, RABBIT, ……………

(A) ELEPHANT
(B) MOUSE
(C) SNAKE
(D) LION

67. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

(A) (i)
(B) (ii)
(C) (iii)
(D) (iv)

68. KWPH : GTLD :: JYTF : ?

(A) ABCD
(B) FUPB
(C) DAEK
(D) AQEI

69. Find the correct alternative which will replace the question mark.

(A) 20
(B) 7
(C) 14
(D) 21

70. Which of the following is the odd number from the given alternative?

(A) 1090
(B) 962
(C) 626
(D) 841

71. Given below are pairs of events A and B. You have to read both the events A and B
and decide their nature of relationship.

Event (A): The residents of Kopet in Gold Mining Fields woke to see a 300 ft deep
sinkhole, which had formed overnight in their neighbourhood.

Event (B): The sinkhole appeared in a private layout being developed in the area
after three days of heavy rain.

(A) If A is the effect and B its immediate and principal cause.
(B) If A is the immediate and principal cause and B its effect.
(C) If A is an effect but B not its immediate and principal cause.
(D) If B is an effect but A is not its immediate and principal cause.

72. If the clock shows 7:25, what is the mirror image of the clock?

(A) 4:35
(B) 2:25
(C) 5:35
(D) 5:25

73. Which scenario below best exemplifies an informal gathering, defined as a relaxed
and casual gather of people?

(A) The humour club meets on the first Wednesday evening of every month.
(B) Upon learning about his promotion, Kamy and some colleagues opt to go for
the dinner after their workday.
(C) Ruby sends 15 invitations for the wedding she is giving for her sister.
(D) Whenever she eats at the Continental restaurant, Mari seems to run into Paul.

74. E is 5 m to the north of J. F is 5 m to the west of E. C is 5 m to the south of F. I is
9 m to the east of C. H is 5 m to the north of I. K is 12 m to the east of F. I is in
which direction from K?

(A) South
(B) North-West
(C) North
(D) South-West

75. Match the following.

(a) Picasso (i) Pride and prejudice
(b) Universal Law of Gravitation (ii) Chloroplasts
(c) Photosynthesis (iii) Guernica
(d) Jane Austen (iv) Albert Einstein

(A) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(B) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)
(C) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(D) (a) – (i), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)

76. There are five trains A, B, C, D and E that run between the following stations.

Chennai and Kochi
Bangalore and Chennai
Kochi and Hyderabad
Hyderabad and Chennai
Kochi and Bangalore
Trains A and D do not go to Chennai
Trains B and C do not go to Bangalore
Trains C and D no not touch Hyderabad.

Train E goes from …………… to …………… and vice-versa?

(A) Kochi and Bangalore
(B) Chennai to Hyderabad
(C) Chennai to Bangalore
(D) Hyderabad to Kochi

77. 36% of 103 kg is ……………

(A) 18.75 kg
(B) 3.75 kg
(C) 37.8 kg
(D) 37.08 kg

78. If 4 persons work for 16 days to complete a work. How many persons will it take to
complete the work in 6 days?

(A) 11.67
(B) 10.67
(C) 9.67
(D) 7.76

79. A book always has ……………

(A) story
(B) binding
(C) content
(D) pages

80. What is the number missing from the third target?

5 9 15
16 29 ?
49 89 147

(A) 45
(B) 48
(C) 51
(D) 54

81. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question

14785 – 358 – 4158 – 9514 = ?

(A) 755
(B) 825
(C) 721
(D) 785

82. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question

102 99 104 97 106 ?

(A) 100
(B) 96
(C) 95
(D) 94

83. Find out the Odd one out?

(A) 144
(B) 289
(C) 312
(D) 625

84. Select the correct one to complete the series

E O I S M W Q A ?

(A) V E
(B) Z F
(C) X F
(D) UE

85. Select the correct one to complete the series

D K P ? B

(A) W
(B) R
(C) X
(D) Z

86. A can do a work in 10 days. Q can do the same work in 15 days. If they work together
for 5 days, how much of the work will they complete?

1
(A)
2
2
(B)
3
1
(C)
3
5
(D)
6

87. Mr and Mrs Nishant borrow `5000 for 2 years at the rate of 4% per annum of simple
interest and lends it to another person for 6 years at an annual rate of 6.25%. Find the
profit received by him every year?

(A) `150
(B) `112.50
(C) `167.50
(D) `125

88. Rita invested a sum at 2.5% rate for 4 years. Sita invested the same amount at the
same rate for 6 years. What is the ratio of the simple interest earned by Sita that
earned by Rita?

(A) 3:2
(B) 2:3
(C) 1:3
(D) 1:4

89. There were 28 boys and some girls in a class. In an exam the average marks obtained
by boys was 12.5, while the girls obtained 14.5. If the total average was 13.1, then
what was the total number of students in the class?

(A) 38
(B) 40
(C) 42
(D) 44

90. Ankit leads the church by bicycle and return to the starting point by car. He takes a
total of 5 hours for the journey. Using the car on both sides will save him 3 hours in
this journey, if he uses bicycle on both sides, how much time will it take him?

(A) 5 hours
(B) 7 hours
(C) 8 hours
(D) 9 hours

91. Train P and Q are moving on a parallel track in the same direction. Train P crosses
train Q completely in 60 seconds and a passenger present in train P crosses train Q in
40 seconds. If the speed of the train in the 2 : 1 ratio, then calculate the ratio of their
lengths?

(A) 3:4
(B) 1:2
(C) 3:1
(D) 3:2

92. EARN is related to RANE and BOND is related to NODB in the same way TEAR is
related to

(A) AERT
(B) ATRE
(C) ARET
(D) REAT

93. Find out the number of odd days in 123 days

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

94. An accurate clock shows 8 o'clock in the morning. Through how many degrees will
the hour hand rotate when the clock shows 2 o'clock in the afternoon?

(A) 150°
(B) 144°
(C) 180°
(D) 168°

95. The age of Sowmya’s father today is four times as that of her age. After 8 years, the
age of her father will be three times that of her age. What is Sowmya’s age today?

(A) 16 years
(B) 18 years
(C) 20 years
(D) 24 years

96. Anwar is taller than Aniruth but not as tall as Anwin. Anwin is shorter that Aludeen
who is not as tall as Anwardeen. The tallest in this group is

(A) Anwardeen
(B) Aniruth
(C) Anwar
(D) Aludeen

97. A, P, R, X, S and Z are sitting in a row. S and Z are in the Center. A and P are at the
ends. R is sitting to the left of A. Who is the right of P?

(A) A
(B) X
(C) S
(D) Z

98. Mr. Mithilesh had to arrange his books in uniform groups. He makes groups of
4 books each. But 3 books are left. He tries it with groups of 5 books each. But still
3 books are left. 3 books are still left when he tried with groups of 9 or 10 books
each. How many books does he have?

(A) 90
(B) 183
(C) 420
(D) 900

99. Find out the Odd one out.

(A) 9
(B) 17
(C) 23
(D) 37

100. Chalk and Blackboard are related in the manner as

(A) Ink and paper
(B) Door and handle
(C) Paint and brush
(D) Student and books

101. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and
the States falls under its

(A) advisory jurisdiction
(B) appellate jurisdiction
(C) original jurisdiction
(D) discretionary jurisdiction

102. Which of the following is the oldest High Court in India?

(A) Delhi
(B) Allahabad
(C) Calcutta
(D) Madras

103. Who is the Ex-Officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?

(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Vice President
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha

104. In the Indian Parliament, who is known as the “Father of the House”?

(A) Prime Minister
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) President
(D) Longest serving member of Lok Sabha

105. Who is the Executive head of the State?

(A) Chief Minister
(B) Minister
(C) Mayor
(D) Governor

106. The tort of negligence requires the plaintiff to prove

(A) intent to harm
(B) reckless behaviour
(C) breach of duty of care
(D) strict liability

107. What is the age of criminal liability for boys under the Juvenile Justice (Care and
Protection of Children) Act, 2015?

(A) 14 years
(B) 16 years
(C) 18 years
(D) 20 years

108. Which one of the following principle means that a person cannot be punished for an
act that was not a crime when committed?

(A) Ex post facto
(B) Nullum crimen sine lege
(C) Actus reus
(D) Res judicata

109. What is the purpose of an anticipatory bail under the CrPC?

(A) To release a person after arrest
(B) To prevent arrest in anticipation of false charges
(C) To secure bail for non-bailable offenses
(D) To prevent arrest

110. In international law, what is the term for an agreement between two or more countries
that is less formal than a treaty?

(A) Convention
(B) Protocol
(C) Memorandum of Understanding (MoU)
(D) Accord

111. What is the waiting period for obtaining a divorce by mutual consent under the Hindu
Marriage Act?

(A) 6 months
(B) 1 year
(C) 2 years
(D) 3 years

112. In humanitarian law, what does the principle of proportionality address?

(A) The size of armed forces
(B) The necessity of using force
(C) The legality of armed conflicts
(D) The acceptable level of collateral damage

113. What is the primary duty of an advocate according to the Bar Council of India Rules?

(A) Upholding the interests of the client at a lower cost and upholding the dignity
(B) Upholding the dignity of the legal profession and maintaining professional
integrity
(C) Advocating for personal beliefs and opinion
(D) Winning the cases and maintain professional integrity

114. Under the Advocates Act, which of the following is a ground for professional
misconduct?

(A) Aggressive representation of clients
(B) Declining cases on personal grounds
(C) Advertising legal services
(D) Accepting court orders

115. What is the obligation of an advocate concerning client confidentiality?

(A) Can disclose information if it benefits the case
(B) Can disclose information for personal gain
(C) Must maintain confidentiality before the completion of the client’s case
(D) Must maintain confidentiality even after the termination of the client’s case

116. In the context of the Indian Contract Act, what is the legal status of a minor in a
contract?

(A) Fully competent
(B) Partially competent
(C) Incompetent
(D) Competent only with consent

117. What is the maximum number of members allowed in a private company under the
Companies Act, 2013?

(A) 50
(B) 100
(C) 200
(D) No maximum limit

118. The Miranda warning is associated with

(A) Right to privacy
(B) Right to a fair trial
(C) Right to remain silent
(D) Right to speedy trial

119. What is the maximum punishment for age fraud in India sports, as per the National
Sports Code?

(A) Suspension for 6 months
(B) Fine of `1 lakh
(C) Ban for 2 years
(D) Written warning

120. Which constitution of India schedule contains the list of official languages?

(A) th
7 Schedule
(B) th
8 Schedule
(C) th
9 Schedule
(D) th
10 Schedule

121. Under law of torts, exceptions to the strict liability

(A) Inevitable accident
(B) Inevitable mistake
(C) Consent of the plaintiff
(D) Act of God

122. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under

(A) seven years
(B) eight years
(C) ten years
(D) twelve years

123. Who among the following hold(s) office during pleasure of the President of India?

(i) The Governor of the State
(ii) The Chief Election Commissioner
(iii) The Controller and Auditor General of India
(iv) The Attorney General of India

Choose the Correct answer from the following options

(A) (i) and (iv)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (ii)
(D) (iv) and (ii)

124. Which of the following language not included in the VIII Schedule of the Indian
Constitution?

(A) English
(B) Hindi
(C) Bengali
(D) Punjabi

125. Delegatus non protest delegare means

(A) The delegate not protest against the authority
(B) The delegate does not have potential for making laws
(C) The delegate cannot further delegate
(D) The delegate can further delegate

BIOETHICS (LIFE SCIENCE)

126. The Antibody predominantly found in human saliva is

(A) IgD
(B) IgG
(C) IgM
(D) IgA

127. All vitamins act as antioxidants EXCEPT

(A) Vitamin K
(B) Vitamin C
(C) Vitamin A
(D) Vitamin E

128. The gland responsible for calcium metabolism is

(A) Thyroid
(B) Pancreas
(C) Thymus
(D) Parathyroid

129. During embryonic frog development, the cleavage ends with the formation of

(A) Morula
(B) Neurula
(C) Blastula
(D) Gastrula

130. Turner’s syndrome is represented by

(A) XO
(B) XXY
(C) XXX
(D) XYY

131. Codons UAA, UAG and UGA specify

(A) Alanine
(B) STOP codons
(C) Leucine
(D) START codon

132. Nucleosome is a/an

(A) Tetramer
(B) Hexamer
(C) Pentamer
(D) Octamer

133. RNA polymerase III is required for the transcription of

(A) tRNA
(B) mRNA
(C) rRNA
(D) miRNA

134. During meiosis, crossing over takes place in

(A) Zygotene
(B) Pachytene
(C) Leptotene
(D) Diplotene

135. Multicoloured maize kernel is produced due to the genetic effect of

(A) Insertion
(B) Duplication
(C) Transposition
(D) Deletion

136. Hexaploidy is observed in

(A) Grapes
(B) Watermelon
(C) Tomatoes
(D) Wheat

137. Transcription of eukaryotic DNA is carried out in the presence of

(A) RNA Polymerase and sigma factor
(B) Sigma factor and transcription factors
(C) Transcription factors and regulatory elements
(D) RNA Polymerase and Transcription factors complex

138. Sickle Cell Anaemia is caused due to

(A) Single point mutation
(B) Inversion
(C) Deletion
(D) Frame shift mutation

139. The most prevalent biodiversity hotspot in India is

(A) Western Ghats
(B) Eastern Ghats
(C) Gangetic Plains
(D) Himalaya

140. Parathyroid hormone is important in the regulation of

(A) Cellular metabolic rates
(B) Diabetes mellitus
(C) Mitochondrial respiration
(D) Calcium uptake

141. A sequence of DNA with a known physical location on a chromosome is called as

(A) Probes
(B) Marker
(C) Centimorgan
(D) Template

142. Two flies mate and have the following 1000 number of progeny:
JjRr =404; jjrr = 100; Jjrr = 98; jjRr = 398.
Find the recombination frequency (centimorgan) of jjrr with Jjrr

(A) 19.8
(B) 50.4
(C) 49.8
(D) 49.6

143. The developmental potential of Blastomere is due to

(A) Totipotency
(B) Pluripotency
(C) Multipotency
(D) Division of a non-cleavage cell

144. The gene responsible for inflorescence meristem in Arabidopsis thaliana is

(A) AGO 1
(B) AP1
(C) TFL1
(D) LFY 1

145. A clone carrying the gene of interest can be identified with a radioactively-labeled
nucleic acid probe that has a sequence complementary to the gene, a process called
Nucleic acid hybridization. Which one of the following is not related to the above
statement?

(A) Southern hybridization
(B) Western hybridization
(C) Northern hybridization
(D) Colony hybridization

146. If a protein’s environment is altered, the protein may change its shape or even unfold
completely and hence, the process is called

(A) Chaperone
(B) Denaturation
(C) renaturation
(D) Reduced ribonuclease

147. Gametocytes, Sporozoites and Merozoites are the phases in the life cycle of

(A) Entamoeba
(B) Plasmodium
(C) Paramecium
(D) Leishmania

148. The p53 protein is crucial in preventing cancer because it

(A) ensures that the chromosomes are properly aligned for anaphase
(B) integrates signals in the cell leading to the production of cyclins
(C) functions as a phosphatase, removing phosphates to regulate Cdk
(D) checks for DNA damage before allowing replication during the S-phase

149. The mycotoxin sporodesmin is produced by

(A) Fusarium roseum
(B) Pithomyces chartarum
(C) Aspergillus orchraceus
(D) Claviceps purpurea

150. An atom with a net positive charge carries more

(A) protons than neutrons
(B) protons than electrons
(C) electrons than neutrons
(D) electrons than protons

ANSWER KEY
Subject Name: 626 BIOETHICS
SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key
1 B 31 A 61 B 91 B 121 D
2 A 32 C 62 B 92 A 122 A
3 B 33 D 63 B 93 D 123 A
4 C 34 C 64 C 94 C 124 A
5 D 35 B 65 D 95 A 125 C
6 B 36 A 66 B 96 A 126 D
7 B 37 B 67 C 97 B 127 A
8 C 38 C 68 B 98 B 128 D
9 C 39 C 69 C 99 A 129 A
10 B 40 D 70 D 100 A 130 A
11 C 41 C 71 D 101 C 131 B
12 C 42 C 72 A 102 C 132 D
13 C 43 B 73 B 103 C 133 A
14 B 44 A 74 D 104 D 134 B
15 A 45 D 75 A 105 D 135 C
16 D 46 C 76 C 106 C 136 D
17 D 47 D 77 D 107 C 137 D
18 B 48 B 78 B 108 B 138 A
19 A 49 C 79 D 109 B 139 A
20 C 50 B 80 B 110 C 140 D
21 B 51 C 81 A 111 A 141 B
22 D 52 B 82 C 112 D 142 A
23 A 53 C 83 C 113 B 143 A
24 D 54 A 84 D 114 C 144 C
25 C 55 D 85 A 115 D 145 C
26 C 56 B 86 D 116 C 146 B
27 A 57 B 87 B 117 C 147 B
28 B 58 D 88 A 118 C 148 D
29 B 59 D 89 B 119 C 149 B
30 A 60 A 90 C 120 B 150 B

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