SLIET SET 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key M.Tech ECE SET-VII

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SLIET SET 2025
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M.Tech ECE SET-VII
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SLIET SET 2025 Question Paper M.Tech ECE SET-VII Answer Key

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SLIET SET 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key M.Tech ECE SET-VII

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PaperCode: 3003 Paper Name: 3003-M.TECH. (SET-VII) ELEC & COMM. ENGG.(PG-ECE) Set Name: Original

Q-1 What is the unit of impedance?

A Ohm B Henry

C Farad D Siemens
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Q-2 Which theorem states that a linear two-terminal network can be replaced by an equivalent circuit with a voltage source
and a series resistance?
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A Norton’s theorem
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Maximum power transfer theorem D Superposition theorem

Q-3 In an AC circuit, the power factor is given by:

A sin(θ) B cos(θ)

C tan(θ) D None of these
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Q-4 The Laplace transform of a unit step function is:
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A 1/s B s

C 1/s² D None of these

Q-5 A parallel RLC circuit at resonance behaves as:

A A pure resistor B A pure inductor

C A pure capacitor D A short circuit

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A 10V DC voltage source is connected to a 10Ω resistor. What is the power dissipated in the resistor? m
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Q-6

A
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C 15W D 20W

Q-7 The majority charge carriers in an N-type semiconductor are:

A Holes B Electrons

C Ions D None of these

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The function of a Zener diode in a circuit is:
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A Rectification
s B NotesAmplification
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C Voltage regulation DSLIETOscillation
SET 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key M.Tech ECE SET-VII

Q-9 A 1mH inductor and 1μF capacitor are connected in parallel. Find the resonant frequency.

A 5.03 kHz B 10 kHz

C 1 kHz D 500 Hz

Q-10 The primary function of a clipper circuit is to:

A Amplify signals B Suppress noise

C Limit voltage D None of these

Q-11 The gain of an inverting op-amp is given by:

A B

C D

Q-12 A Schmitt trigger is used to:

A Convert analog signals to digital B Increase gain

C Reduce power consumption D None of these

Q-13 A 555 timer in astable mode generates:

A Square wave B Triangular wave

C Sine wave D None of these

Q-14 The Fourier Transform of a delta function is:

A Constant B Sine wave

C Cosine wave D Exponential function

Q-15 The z-transform is used for:

A Continuous-time systems B Discrete-time systems

C Analog filters D None of these

Q-16 If an RLC circuit has R = 5Ω, L = 2H, and C = 0.5F, determine the damping factor.

A 1.58 s⁻¹ B 2.5 s⁻¹

C 0.5 s⁻¹ D 3 s⁻¹
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SLIET SET 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key M.Tech ECE SET-VII

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a Q-17 Which of the following amplifiers has the highest input impedance?
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A Common base B Common collector

C Common emitter D Cascode

Q-18 The Barkhausen criterion is used to determine:

A Amplifier stability B Oscillator operation
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C Filter design
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D Feedback gain
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Q-19 In a MOSFET, the threshold voltage is the voltage required to:

A a
Turn off the MOSFET B Initiate conduction

C Saturate the MOSFET D None of these

Q-20 A system is said to be stable if:

A Its output is bounded for bounded input B It oscillates indefinitely

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C It has negative feedback D Its poles are in the right half-plane

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Q-21 Which transform is used to analyze discrete-time signals?

A Laplace Transform B Fourier Transform

C Z-Transform D None of these

Q-22 In a transmission line, the characteristic impedance depends on:

A Resistance and capacitance B Inductance and capacitance

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C Conductance and resistance D None of these

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Q-23 For a signal sampled at 10 kHz, what is the Nyquist frequency?
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agA 5 kHz B 10 kHz

C 20 kHz D 15 kHz

Q-24 What is the purpose of a high-pass filter?

A Allow low frequencies B Allow high frequencies

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C Block all frequencies D None of these
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Q-25 A sinusoidal oscillator produces:
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A Square wave B SLIETTriangular wave
SET 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key M.Tech ECE SET-VII
C Sine wave D Sawtooth wave

Q-26 For a Hertzian dipole, the far-field electric field varies as:

A 1/r B 1/r²

C 1/r³ D Constant with distance

Q-27 In a Smith chart, the normalized impedance and its corresponding normalized admittance are

A 0° out of phase B 180° out of phase

C 90° out of phase D 270° out of phase

Q-28 On a lossless transmission line, a quarter-wavelength (λ/4) transformer is used to match a load impedance of 100 Ω to
a characteristic impedance of 50 Ω. The required impedance of the transformer section is:

A 50 Ω B 25 Ω

C 70.7 Ω D 100 Ω

Q-29 In a two-wire transmission line in air, the adjacent voltage minimum are at 2.7 and 17.7 cm. The operating frequency
is

A 2 GHz B 1 GHz

C 500 MHz D 4 GHz

Q-30

A 0 B 0.5

C 1 D 2

Q-31 In a super heterodyne receiver, the purpose of the intermediate frequency (IF) stage is to:

A Convert RF signals to lower frequency for B Amplify the signal before demodulation
easier processing

C Remove noise from the signal D Increase the bandwidth of the signal

Q-32 In CDMA, each user is assigned a unique:

A Frequency band B Time slot
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SET 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key M.Tech ECE SET-VII

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Which logic family has the highest speed of operation?
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Q-33
A TTL B CMOS

C DTL D ECL
Correct Answer : D

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Q-34 How many selection lines are required for a 16:1 multiplexer?

A 2
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B 3
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C 4
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Q-35 ag
The resolution of a 4-bit DAC with a reference voltage of 5V is:

A 0.125V B 0.3125V

C 0.5V D 1V

Q-36 Which type of ROM allows multiple reprogramming?

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A Mask ROM B PROM

C EPROM D Flash Memory

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The 8085 microprocessor has …. general-purpose registers

A 2 B 4

C 6 D 8

Q-38 The INX instruction in 8085 performs:

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A Increment memory location B Increment register content

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C Increment register pair D Increment accumulator

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a Q-39 For a unity feedback system with an open-loop transfer function:
G(s)=K/s(s+2)(s+4)
What is the number of branches in the root locus?

A 1 B 2

C 3 D 4

Q-40
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Which of the following effects is introduced by the integral term in a PID controller?
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A Increases system damping c. o B Reduces steady-state error
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C Increases transient overshoot
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SLIET SET 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key M.Tech ECE SET-VII

Q-41

A Stable B Marginally stable

C Unstable D Cannot be determined

Q-42 A 4-bit ripple counter is operating at a clock frequency of 16 MHz. What is the frequency of the output at the most
significant bit (MSB)?

A 1 MHz B 2 MHz

C 4 MHz D 8 MHz

Q-43

A It decreases by a factor of 2 B It decreases by a factor of 4

C It decreases by a factor of 10 D It decreases by a factor of 100

Q-44 In an FM system, the SNR at the output is 20 dB. If the modulation index is doubled, what is the new SNR?

A 23 dB B 26 dB

C 29 dB D 32 dB

Q-45 A system has a transfer function
G(s)H(s)=10/s(s+1)(s+3)
The Nyquist plot encircles the point −1+j0 once in the clockwise direction. What is the number of unstable poles?

A 0 B 1

C 2 D 3

Q-46 A dipole antenna has a gain of 2.15 dBi. If the input power is 10 W, what is the effective radiated power (ERP)?

A 10 W B 15 W

C 20 W D 25 W

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SLIET SET 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key M.Tech ECE SET-VII

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Q-47

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A 0.015 B 0.79
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C 0.23

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D 0.99
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Q-48
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In a transmission line, the reflection coefficient at the load end is given by 0.25∠-27°. What is the reflection coefficient

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at a distance 0.15λ towards the source?

A 0.25∠81° B 0.25∠135°

C 0.25∠-81° D 0.25∠225°

Q-49 To reduce the cross-sectional area, the shape chosen for a waveguide is

A rectangular B circular
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C ridge D elliptical

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Q-50
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A 1/16
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Q-51 An amount is invested at 10% per annum compound interest for 2 years, and the interest earned is Rs. 840. What is
the principal amount?

A Rs. 3500 B Rs. 4500

C Rs. 4000 D Rs. 5000

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Q-52 c. o
In covering a distance of 30 km, A takes 2 hours more than B. If A doubles his speed, then he would take 1 hour less
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than B. A's speed is:
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A 5 km/h B SLIET7SET
km/h
2025 Question Paper with Answer Key M.Tech ECE SET-VII
C 9 km/h D 10 km/h

Q-53 Fill the blank in the middle of the following series.
SCD, TEF, UGH, ____, WKL

A CMN B UJI

C VIJ D IJT

Q-54 The Chandrayaan 3 mission’s rover is known as

A PSLV B Pragyaan

C Dhruv D Vikram

Q-55 We were very tired, So we _______ early.

A Leave B Leaving

C Left D Lost

Q-56

A If λ=5, then system has unique solution B If λ=5, then system has infinitely many
solutions

C If λ=5, then system has no solution D System is inconsistence for any value of λ

Q-57

A 0 B 1

C -2 D 2

Q-58

A 2.40 B 2.33

C 2.12 D 2.50
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SLIET SET 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key M.Tech ECE SET-VII

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Q-59

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A 31/3 B 35/3

C 37/3 D 38/3

Q-60
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A
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C D

Correct Answer : D

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