CUSAT CAT 2024 Question Paper Chemistry PG

Entrance Exam
2024

QUESTION
PAPER

CHEMISTRY PG

1. The toxic environmental pollutant dioxin contains 44.8% carbon, 1.25% hydrogen
and 44.0% chlorine. Its molecular mass is 320±10. What is the molecular formula of
dioxin?

(A) C10H8O4Cl4
(B) C12H6O2Cl4
(C) C6H2OCl2
(D) C12H4O2Cl4

2. Conversion of 2,5-dimethylfuran to 2,5-dimethylpyrrole (see equation) may be
accomplished in two steps.
(i) Hydrolytic ring opening of the furan in aqueous acid
(ii) Heating the hydrolysis product with excess ammonium carbonate.
What is the intermediate hydrolysis product formed in first step that is subsequently
used in the second step?

(A) 2,5-hexanedione
(B) 3,4-hexanedione
(C) hexanedial
(D) 2,5-dimethylcyclopentanone

3. A C9H10O compound has a strong absorption at 1730 and two smaller but sharp
−1 1
absorption peaks at 2719 and 2818 cm in the infrared. H NMR spectrum of the
compound exhibited a 3 proton doublet at δ1.00 ppm, a 1 proton doublet δ10.00 ppm
along with other multiplets. Which among the following compounds displays these
features?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

4. In the reaction of (R)-3-phenylbutan-2-one with methylmagnesium iodide to
give 2-methyl-3-phenylbutan-2-ol, what happens to the configuration of the
stereogenic center in it?

Ph

O

(A) Nothing, it remains unchanged
(B) Inversion takes place
(C) Racemization occurs
(D) The product is achiral

5. Which two of the following aldohexoses give the same osazone derivative?

(A) 1 and 4
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 and 4

6. Assuming that their conformation is frozen as given below, which among the
following C8H16 isomers should have the lowest heat of combustion?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

7. Which of the following trienes will have the longest wavelength absorption in its
UV-Vis spectrum?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

8. Which of the following is a D-aldopentose?

CH2OH
H OH
(A) HO H
H OH
CHO

(B)

(C)

(D)

9. Which two of the following compounds are reduced to the same chiral alditol by
sodium borohydride?

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 3 and 4

10. Which two of the following compounds, if any, are epimers?

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) None of the above

11. Which among the following reagents is used in color test for amino acids?

(A) ninhydrin
(B) cyanogen bromide
(C) trypsin
(D) chymotrypsin

12. Under identical reaction conditions which among the following compounds will
undergo nitration at the fastest rate? (Hint: Baker Nathan Effect)

H H CH3 CH3
C H C H C H C CH
3
H CH3 CH3 CH3
I II III IV

(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV

13. Which if any of the following compounds will display spin-spin splitting of protons in
1
its H NMR spectrum?

(A) (CH3)3COCH3
(B) Br(CH2)3Br
(C) p-xylene (1,4-dimethylbenzene)
(D) None of the above

1
14. The H NMR spectrum of diethyl ether (CH3CH2OCH2CH3) shows

(A) Two peaks, one a triplet, the other a quartet respectively in a 3:2 ratio
(B) Two peaks, one a triplet, the other a quartet respectively in a 2:3 ratio
(C) Four peaks, two 2 proton triplets and two 3 proton quartets
(D) Four peaks, two 3 proton triplets and two 2 proton quartets

15. Neopentyl chloride, (CH3)3CCH2Cl (C5H9Cl), reacts with the strong base sodium
amide (can pick a C-H proton!) to form a new compound. This compound has a
molecular ion at m/z = 70 amu corresponding to the molecular formula C5H10, and
1
displays two singlets at δ 0.20 and 1.05 ppm (intensity ratio = 2:3) in its H NMR
spectrum. What is a plausible structure for this C5H10 compound?

(A) 2-methyl-2-butene
(B) 1,1-dimethylcyclopropane
(C) Methylcyclobutane
(D) Cyclopentane

16. Which of the following reactions would not be a useful method for preparing 1-
phenylbutan-2-ol?

(A) phenylacetaldehyde + ethylmagnesium bromide
(B) butanal + phenylmagnesium bromine
(C) propanal + benzylmagnesium bromine
(D) 1-phenylbutan-2-one + NaBH4

17. What can be the possible number of isomers of tribromobenzene?

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

18. Among the four aromatic carboxylic acids given below, which one can be resolved
into its enantiomers by reaction with an enantiomerically pure chiral amine?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

19. How many stereoisomers do you expect for the following structural formula?

Ph-CH(Cl)-CH=CH-CH(Cl)-Ph

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 6

20. Arrange in order of C-H bond strength (C-H bond circled)

(A) I > II > III
(B) III > II > I
(C) II > I > III
(D) II > III > I

21. Which among these has highest acidity?

I II III IV

(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV

22. The reagent/reagents used to convert I to II is

(A) PCl5
(B) SOCl2
(C) SOCl2+Pyridine
(D) HCl

23. Designate E/Z notation for the following:

(A) I= E, II=E
(B) I= Z, II=Z
(C) I= E, II=Z
(D) I= Z, II=E

24. Which among the following acids, forms anhydride fastest on heating?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

25. Arrange the following carbanions in stability order (note: some of these carbanions
may have more than one canonical form)

I. CH3COCH2- II. CH3- III. (CH3)3C- IV. PhCH2- (Ph = phenyl)

(A) IV > I > II > III
(B) II > I > IV > III
(C) III > II > I > IV
(D) I > IV > II > III

26. Arrange in the order of stability

(A) I < II < III
(B) II < I < III
(C) I < III < II
(D) II < III < I

27. Which of the following is a meso compound?

(A) (2R,3R)-2,3-Dibromobutane
(B) (2R,3S)-2,3-Dibromopentane
(C) (2R,4R)-2,4-Dibromopentane
(D) (2R,4S)-2,4-Dibromopentane

28. Ozonolysis of cis-but-2-ene followed by work-up and treatment with H2O2 yields

(A) CH3CHO
(B) CH3COCH3
(C) CH3CO2H
(D) CH3CHO + CH3CO2H

29. Reactive intermediate involved in the conversion of bromobenzene to aniline in the
presence of sodamide in liquid ammonia is

(A) carbanion
(B) free-radical
(C) benzyne
(D) carbocation

30. Grignard reagents react efficiently with carbon dioxide and various carbonyl
compounds including acid halides. Products isolated after workup from the reaction of
phenylmagnesium bromide with carbon dioxide and benzoyl chloride are

(A) PhCO2H & Triphenyl carbinol (Ph3C-OH) respectively
(B) PhCO2H (from both)
(C) PhCHO ( from both)
(D) PhCO2H & PhCOBr respectively

31. Acetaldehyde on reduction with NaBH4 yields product M which on treatment with
acetyl chloride yields N. Two molecules of N underwent condensation in presence of
sodium ethoxide and final work-up to yield O. The structure of O is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

32. Benzoic acid can be converted to benzoyl chloride and ethyl benzoate in high yields
using X and Y respectively. X and Y are

(A) X = HCl, Y = EtOH/H+
(B) X = PCl5, Y = EtOH/H+
(C) -
X = HCl, Y = EtOH/OH
(D) -
X = PCl5, Y = Et2O/OH

33. Absorbance of a solution showing 50% transmittance is

(A) 0.5
(B) 2
(C) log 2
(D) log 0.5

34. N,N-Dimethyl-2-aminobutane on successive treatment with excess methyl iodide
followed by base yielded 1-butene as the product. Mechanism involved in the final
elimination step is

(A) E1
(B) E2C
(C) E1cB
(D) Ei

35. Which among the following heteroaromatic compounds is more reactive towards
nucleophiles?

O N S N
H
I II III IV

(A) I
(B) III
(C) IV
(D) II

36. Acetone is treated with the Mannich reagent (HCHO+Me2NH.HCl) to produce
compound X. The latter is then heated to produce Y. The structures of X and Y are

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

37. The common feature of all alkaloids is that

(A) All have aromatic ring residues
(B) All have heterocyclic ring residues
(C) All are polycyclic compounds
(D) All contain N

38. Molecular formula (general) of a sesquiterpene is

(A) C10H16
(B) C5H8
(C) C15H24
(D) C20H32

39. Reaction of a carboxylic acid with one equivalent each of bromine and PBr3 followed
by aqueous workup yields

(A) α-bromoacid
(B) α-bromoester
(C) acyl bromide
(D) alkyl bromide

40. 1,3,5-Trihydroxybenzene is also called

(A) Pyrogallol
(B) Phloroglucinol
(C) Quinol
(D) Resorcinol

41. Which among these is used to catalyze the conversion of propyne to acetone in
presence of 40% H2SO4?

(A) MgSO4
(B) CuSO4
(C) K2SO4
(D) HgSO4

42. Which oxidant is used successfully to convert toluene to benzaldehyde in high yields?

(A) KMnO4
(B) Cu2O
(C) CrO2Cl2
(D) Cr2O3

43. Skraup synthesis of quinoline starts with

(A) Glycol
(B) Glycerol
(C) Benzyl alcohol
(D) Amyl alcohol

44. Which is the chief source of morphine?

(A) Tobacco
(B) Pepper
(C) Cinchona
(D) Poppy

45. Acetic acid on treatment with PCl5 yield P which on reaction with sodium azide
yields Q. The latter on heating yielded R. Compounds P, Q, and R are

(A) CH3Cl, CH3N3, CH3NH2
(B) CH3COCl, CH3N3, CH3NH2
(C) CH3COCl, CH3CON3, CH3NCO
(D) CH3Cl, CH2N2, CH4

46. Among the following, how many obey Huckel’s [4n+2] rule for aromaticity?

(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 3

47. Identify the major product formed in the following reaction carried out under
kinetically controlled conditions

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

48. L-DOPA is used for the treatment of

(A) Tuberculosis
(B) Parkinson disease
(C) Diabetes
(D) Cancer

49. Among the following, the natural product which is not an alkaloid is

(A) Reserpine
(B) Piperine
(C) β-Carotene
(D) Papavarine

50. n-π∗ Τransition in acetone will be most blue shifted in which among the following
solvents?

(A) Water
(B) Methanol
(C) Acetonitrane
(D) Haxane

51. Among the following molecules which one shows pure rotation spectra:

(A) N2
(B) CO2
(C) H2S
(D) CH4

52. A particular vibration in a polyatomic molecule is IR active if during vibration,
there is a change in
(A) Polarizability
(B) Dipole moment
(C) Frequency
(D) Potential energy

53. Free radicals may be detected by

(A) Mass spectrometry
(B) IR spectroscopy
(C) ESR spectroscopy
(D) UV- Visible spectroscopy

54. Match items in Column I with the appropriate items in Column II

Column I - Spectral Technique Column II - Selection rule
(P) Rotational transition (I) ∆v = ±1
(Q) Vibrational Transition (II) ∆J = ±1
(R) Electronic Transition in atoms (III) ∆v=0
(IV) ∆l=±1
(V) ∆l=0

(A) (P)-(II), (Q)-(I), (R)-(IV)
(B) (P)-(II), (Q)-(III), (R)-(V)
(C) (P)-(III), (Q)-(II), (R)-(I)
(D) (P)-(V), (Q)-(I), (R)-(II)

55. The packing fraction of a simple cubic lattice is close to

(A) 0.94
(B) 0.76
(C) 0.52
(D) 0.45

56. When Frenkel defects are created in an otherwise perfect ionic crystal, the
density of the ionic crystal

(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) remains same
(D) oscillates with the number of defects

57. A compound is formed by two elements M and N. The element N forms ccp
rd
1
lattice and atoms of M occupy of tetrahedral voids. What is the formula
3
of the compound?

(A) MN2
(B) M2N3
(C) M3N2
(D) M2N2

58. A metal crystallizes in fcc structure with a unit cell side of 500 pm. If the
density of the crystal is 1.33 g/cc, the molar mass of the metal is close to

(A) 23
(B) 24

(C) 25
(D) 26
59. A metal crystallizes in fcc lattice. The edge length of the unit cells is
-8 –3
4.04 × 10 cm and density is 10.5g cm . Calculate the atomic mass of the metal.

(A) 144 g/mol
(B) 125 g/mol
(C) 106.6 g/mol
(D) 213 g/mol

60. Which of the following statements is not true about the hexagonal close packing?

(A) The coordination number is 12
(B) It has 74% packing efficiency
(C) Tetrahedral voids of the second layer are covered by the spheres of the
third layer
(D) In this arrangement spheres of the fourth layer are exactly aligned with
those of the first layer

61. The standard cell potential for the reaction Zn(s) +Cu2+(aq) ⇌Zn2+(aq) +
Cu(s) is +1.10 V. The Gibbs free energy change during the reaction is
(F = 96500 coulomb mol-1)

(A) -21.2 kJ mol-1
(B) +212 kJ mol-1
(C) -212 kJ mol-1
(D) -212 J mol-1

62. An absorbance shift towards a longer wavelength caused by chromophore is
called

(A) Hypochromic shift
(B) Hypsochromic shift
(C) Hyperchromic shift
(D) Bathochromic shift

63. The rate of a chemical reaction doubles for every 10°C rise of temperature.
If the temperature is raised by 50°C, the rate of the reaction increases by
about

(A) 32 times
(B) 64 times
(C) 10 times
(D) 24 times

64. Choose the incorrect property of colloids

(A) Colloidal particles do not settle down when left undisturbed that is
colloidal sols are quite stable
(B) A colloidal solution is homogeneous in nature
(C) The size of colloidal particles lies in the range of 10-5 -10-7 cm
(D) Colloidal particles are stabilized by surface charges

65. When O2 is adsorbed on a metallic surface, electron transfer occurs from the
metal to O2. The true statements regarding the adsorption are

a. O2 is physisorbed
b. Heat is released
c. Occupancy of π * 2 p of O2 is increased
d. Bond length of O2 is increased

(A) a, b, c
(B) b, c, d
(C) a, c, d
(D) a, b, d

66. Match the Catalysts to the correct Processes:

Catalyst Process
(P) TiCl3 (i) Wacker process
(Q) PdCl2 (ii) Ziegler-Natta polymerisation
(R) CuCl2 (iii) Contact process
(S) V2O5 (iv) Deacon’s process

(A) (P)-(iii), (Q)-(ii), (R)-(iv), (S)-(i)
(B) (P)-(ii), (Q)-(i), (R)-(iv), (S)-(iii)
(C) (P)-(ii), (Q)-(iii), (R)-(iv), (S)-(i)
(D) (P)-(iii), (Q)-(i), (R)-(ii), (S)-(iv)

67. Rate of physisorption increases with

(A) Decrease in temperature
(B) Increase in temperature at low temperatures
(C) Decrease in pressure
(D) Decrease in surface area

68. The process with negative entropy change is

(A) Dissolution of iodine in water
(B) Sublimation of dry ice
(C) Synthesis of ammonia from N2 and H2
(D) Dissociation of CaSO4(s) to CaO(s) and SO3(g)

69. An emulsion consists of

(A) one liquid and one solid
(B) one liquid and one gas
(C) two liquids
(D) two solids

70. Which of the following statements regarding the second law of thermodynamics is
true?

(A) Energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transferred or transformed
(B) The total entropy of an isolated system can decrease over time
(C) Natural processes tend to move toward states of lower entropy
(D) Heat flows spontaneously from a hot body to a cold body

71. The heat given to an ideal gas in isothermal conditions is used to

(A) Increase temperature
(B) Do external work
(C) Increase temperature and do external work
(D) Increase internal energy

72. What is the source temperature of the Carnot engine in K required to get 70%
efficiency? Given: sink temperature = 27 °C

(A) 1000 K
(B) 90 K
(C) 270 K
(D) 727 K

73. A gas undergoes a process in which its volume changes from V1 to V2 at
constant pressure P. During this process, Q amount of heat is added to the
gas, and W amount of work is done by the gas. If ∆U represents the change
in internal energy of the gas, which of the following equations correctly
represents the relationship among Q, W, and ∆U?

(A) Q=W+P(V2−V1)
(B) Q=∆U+W
(C) ∆U=Q+W
(D) Q=W−∆U

74. A PMR spectrometer operates at 300 MHz. Find the value of magnetic field.
Given: gN = 5.585 and BN = 5.05 × 10-27 JT-1

(A) 7.05 T
(B) 6.38 T
(C) 7.58 T
(D) 5.93 T

75. Which of the following statement is false for mass spectroscopy?

(A) Mass spectroscopy is used to identify unknown compounds within
a sample, and to elucidate the structure and chemical properties of
different molecules
(B) Particle are characterized by their mass to charge ratios (m/z) and
relative abundances
(C) This technique basically studies the effect of ionizing energy on
molecules
(D) This technique can be used on all state of matter

76. Which spectroscopy is used for determination of heavy metal contamination in food?

(A) Electrophoresis
(B) X-ray Diffraction
(C) ELISA
(D) Inductively coupled plasma spectroscopy

77. Which of the following statements about IR spectroscopy is true?

(A) IR spectroscopy measures the absorption of visible light by a
compound
(B) IR spectroscopy is commonly used to determine the molecular
weight of a compound
(C) In IR spectroscopy, stretching vibrations typically occur at higher
wave numbers than bending vibrations
(D) IR spectroscopy can distinguish between cis and trans isomers based
on their absorption spectra

78. Choose the correct sequence of process during Atomization in atomic absorption
spectroscopy

(A) Desolvation – Nebulization – Dissociation – Volatilization – Ionization
(B) Nebulization – Desolvation – Volatilization – Dissociation – Ionization
(C) Desolvation – Nebulization – Volatilization – Dissociation – Ionization
(D) Nebulization – Volatilization – Desolvation – Dissociation – Ionization

79. What is the heat of formation of ethane?

(Given that the heat of combustion of ethane (C2H6), hydrogen (H2) and carbon (C)
are –1411 kJ/mol, –393 kJ/mol, –286 kJ/mol respectively.)

(A) –240 kJ/mol
(B) 240 kJ/mol
(C) –340 kJ/mol
(D) 440 kJ/mol

80. Which of the following is true for the process of spontaneous adsorption of a gaseous
component?

(A) ∆G < 0, ∆S < 0, ∆H > 0
(B) ∆G < 0, ∆H < 0, ∆S > 0
(C) ∆H > 0, ∆S > 0, ∆G < 0
(D) ∆H < 0, ∆G < 0, ∆S < 0

81. Which of the following is Langmuir adsorption isotherm?

(NOTE: x = amount of substance adsorbed, m = mass of adsorbent, p = pressure, a
and b = constants)

m 1 + bp
(A) =
x ap
x ap
(B) =
m 1 + bp
x ap
(C) =
m 1 + ap
m ap
(D) =
x 1 + bp

90
82. The isotope Sr emits radiation by a first order process and has a half-life of 23
years. When ingested by humans, it becomes permanently incorporated in bone tissue.
If 1 µg is administered to a person, how much of this isotope remains in the body after
34 years?

(A) 0.86 µg
(B) 0.36 µg
(C) 0.61 µg
(D) 0.55 µg

83. For the reaction A + B → products, it is observed that
(i) On doubling the concentration of B only, the rate of reaction is also doubled.
(ii) On doubling the initial concentration of both A and B, there is change by a factor
of 8 in the rate of reaction.
The rate of reaction is given by
2
(A) rate = k [A] [B]
2
(B) rate = k [A] [B]
2 2
(C) rate = k [A] [B]
(D) rate = k [A] [B]

84. Which of the following plots yields a straight line graph for a second order reaction?

2A B

[A]0 = initial concentration of A; [A]t = concentration of A at time = t

(A) Half-life vs.1/[A]0
(B) Half-life vs. [A]0
(C) Half-life vs. ln[A]0
(D) Half-life vs. [A]t

85. The rise of liquid in a capillary does NOT depend upon

(A) Angle of contact
(B) Radius of the capillary
(C) Atmospheric pressure
(D) Density of the liquid

86. Calculate the ionic strength in a solution that contains 0.0100 mol KCl,
0.0050 mol MgCl2, 0.0020 mol MgSO4 and 100 g H2O.

(A) 0.68
(B) 0.17
(C) 0.33
(D) 0.19

87. Calculate Ecell for the given cell at 25°C and 1 bar given that activity coefficient of
CuSO4 is 0.043:

Cu|CuSO4 (1.0 mol/kg)|Hg2SO4(c)|Hg|Pt

(NOTE: Standard reduction potential for the Cu|CuSO4 electrode is 0.339 V and for
the Hg|Hg2SO4(c) electrode is 0.615 V at 298 K.)

(A) 0.122 V
(B) 0.243 V
(C) 0.542 V
(D) 0.316 V

88. For a given amount of an ideal gas the volume was increased by four times and the
temperature was increased by two times. What will be the change in pressure of the
gas?

(A) Increases 2 times
(B) Increases 4 times
(C) Remains same
(D) Reduces to half

89. The area under the curve ∫TdS is equal to

(A) Change in entropy
(B) Work done in reversible conditions
(C) Total heat transferred reversibly
(D) Change in internal energy

90. Of the following, which will effectively lower the activation energy?

(A) Increasing concentrations of reactants
(B) Adding a catalyst for the reaction
(C) Raising the temperature of the reaction
(D) Removing products as reaction proceeds

91. The reaction A + B P is endothermic and has an activation energy of 75 kJ/mol.
Which of the following statements are correct?

I. The reverse reaction has an activation energy equal to 75 kJ/mol.
II. The reverse reaction has an activation energy greater than 75 kJ/mol.
III. The reverse reaction has an activation energy less than 75 kJ/mol.
IV. The change in internal energy is greater than zero.
V. The change in internal energy is less than zero.

(A) I and IV
(B) II and V
(C) III and V
(D) III and IV

92. Which of the following is the correct set of quantum numbers for outermost electron
of potassium (Z = 19)?

(A) n = 4, l = 3, m = 2, s = – ½
(B) n = 4, l = 2, m = 0, s = – ½
(C) n = 4, l = 1, m = 0, s = ½
(D) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = –½

2 2 2 1
93. If the electronic configuration of nitrogen (Z = 7) is written as (1s , 2s , 2px , 2py ),
which of the following rules would be violated?

(A) Pauli exclusion principle
(B) Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity
(C) Aufbau’s principle
(D) Bohr’s atomic rule

h
94. The relation ∆x.∆p = represents
4π

(Note: symbols ‘x’ and ‘p’ carry their conventional meaning in quantum mechanics)

(A) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
(B) de Broglie equation
(C) Pauli exclusion principle
(D) Schodinger wave equation

2
95. In dsp hybridisation, what is the general geometry of the newly formed molecular
orbitals expected to be?

(A) Tetrahedral
(B) Square planar
(C) Trigonal pyramidal
(D) Trigonal bipyramidal

96. The solubility of a salt is ‘s’ and its solubility product is ‘4s3’. What is the ratio of
cations and anions in the salt?

(A) 1:2
(B) 1:1
(C) 2:2
(D) 1:3

97. Let λ be the equivalent conductance of an electrolyte at a given concentration and λ∞
be the equivalent conductance at infinite dilution. What would be the correct
expression for degree of dissociation (α) of the electrolyte?

(A) α = λ∞ – λ
(B) α = λ∞ / λ
(C) α = λ – λ∞
(D) α = λ / λ∞

98. The equilibrium constant for the reaction 3C2H2 ⇌ C6H6 at 298 K is 4. If the
equilibrium concentration of C2H2 is 0.5 mol/L, what would be the concentration of
C6H6 at that point?

(A) 1.2 M
(B) 0.1 M
(C) 2.3 M
(D) 0.5 M

ax  d2 
99. The function Φ = e is an eigenfunction of the operator  2  . What would be the
 dx 
 
resulting eigenvalue?

(A) 2a
2
(B) a
(C) a
2
(D) 2a

100. The Daniel cell is

(A) Zn(s) | Zn2+(aq) || Cu2+(aq) | Cu(s)
(B) Zn(s) | Zn2+(aq) || Ag2+(aq) | Ag(s)
(C) Fe(s) | Fe2+(aq) || Cu2+(aq) | Cu(s)
(D) H2(s) | H2SO4(aq) || Cu2+(aq) | Cu(s)

101. The bond orders in N2 and [N2]− are

(A) 3 and 2.5
(B) 3 and 3
(C) 2.5 and 3
(D) 2.5 and 2.5

102. Identify the geometry of the following species
I = :N(SiH3)3 II = :N(CH3)3 III = •CF3 IV = •CH3
(A) I & II pyramidal, III & IV planar
(B) I & III pyramidal, II & IV planar
(C) I, II & III pyramidal, IV is planar
(D) I & IV planar, II & III pyramidal

103. The number of metal-metal bonds present in Co4 (CO)12 is

(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7

104. Among Si(CH3 )4 , NCl3 , trans-  SnCl4 ( py )2  (py = pyridine), P(O)Cl3, those with
zero dipole moment are

(A) Si(CH3)4 & NCl3
(B) POCl3 & trans-[SnCl4(py)2]
(C) Si(CH3)4 & trans-[SnCl4(py)2]
(D) POCl3 & Si(CH3)4

57 −7
105. The half-life of the first excited state of Fe is 1.5×10 s. The line width of the
resonance is

(A) 4.85 J
(B) 4.86 ×10−28 J
(C) 4.55 J
(D) 4.58 ×10−20 J

106. The correct order of second ionization energy (IE2) values of C, N, O and F is

(A) O>F>N>C
(B) F>O>N>C
(C) F>O>C>N
(D) N>C>F>O

107. How many signals will you observe in the ESR spectrum of 2H-atom?

(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 1

108. Which of the following pair is not iso-structural?

(A) XeO & S O 2−
4 2 3
(B) •CH3 (radical) & •CF3 (radical)
(C) SOCl2 & NH3
(D) ICl4− & XeF4

109. Unit less property among the following is

(A) Electron potential
(B) Electron affinity
(C) Ionization enthalpy
(D) Electronegativity

110. When NaCl crystal is heated in Na vapour, it develops a yellow colour, owing to
trapping of an electron in an anion vacancy. The colour centre is called

(A) M - centre
(B) R- centre
(C) FA- centre
(D) F- centre

111. The increasing order of Brönsted acidity of boron hydrides is

(A) B5H9< B4H10< B10H14
(B) B4H10 < B10H14 < B5H9
(C) B4H10 < B5H9 < B10H14
(D) B10H14 < B5H9 < B4H10

112. An insulator NiO when heated in air to 1000 °C produce a black colored defect NiO
which behaves as a semiconductor. The semiconductor is

(A) Metal excess semiconductor
(B) Controlled valency semiconductor
(C) p-type
(D) n-type

113. The structure of O3 and N3– are

(A) Linear and bent respectively
(B) Both linear
(C) Both bent
(D) Bent and linear respectively

114. Which of the following is the correct meaning of an improper rotational axis of
symmetry?

(A) Rotation followed by reflection
(B) Rotation followed by translation
(C) o
Rotation by 180
(D) Reflection followed by translation

3+
115. Which of the following is the ground state spectroscopic term symbol for free V ion?

(A) 3
F
(B) 3
P
(C) 4
F
(D) 4
P

116. In Mn3O4, the number of manganese ions in tetrahedral and octahedral sites are
respectively

(A) 3+ 2+
One Mn and two Mn
(B) 2+ 3+
One Mn and two Mn
(C) 3+ 2+
Two Mn and one Mn
(D) 2+ 3+
Two Mn and one Mn

2+
117. Which of the following is responsible for higher µ eff value of [Co(H2O)6] than that
2−
of [CoCl4] ?

(A) 2+
spin-orbit coupling in [Co(H2O)6]
(B) 2−
spin-orbit coupling in [CoCl4]
(C) 2−
orbital contribution in [CoCl4]
(D) 2+
orbital contribution in [Co(H2O)6]

3+
118. A Cr metal complex has strong transitions at λmax at 431 nm, 781 nm, and 1,250 nm
in an octahedral field. What will be the ∆oct for this complex?

(A) 23, 200 cm-1
(B) 12,805 cm−1
(C) 8,000 cm−1
(D) 4, 805 cm−1

119. What kind of indicator is Ferroin?

(A) acid-base indicator
(B) complexometric indicator
(C) pH indicator
(D) redox indicator

120. A transition metal forms two octahedral complexes in the same oxidation state. One
of them is having a magnetic moment 4.9 B.M., while that of another is 0.0 B.M. The
metal ion that fit this description is

(A) Cr(II)
(B) Mn(II)
(C) Fe(II)
(D) Ni(II)

121. The complex which follows the 18-electron rule is

(A)  (η5 - C5 H 5 )Fe(CO) 2 
(B)  (η5 - C5 H 5 )Mo(CO)3 
(C)  (η5 - C 5 H 5 ) 2 Co 
(D)  (η5 - C 5 H 5 )Re(η6 - C 6 H 6 ) 

122. The orbital hybridization involved in CrO42- is

(A) sp3
(B) sd3
(C) spd2
(D) sp2d

123. The point group of ClF3 is

(A) C2v
(B) Cs
(C) D3h
(D) C3v

124. The correct order of electron transfer rate in the reaction is

[Co(NH3)5X]2+ + [Cr(OH2)6]2+ → [Co(OH2)6]3+ + [Cr(OH2)5X]2+ + 5NH3
- -
X = F , Cl , Br- and I-

(A) - - - -
I < F < Cl < Br
(B) - - - -
F > Cl > Br > I
(C) - - - -
F < Cl > Br < I
(D) - - - -
F < Cl < Br < I

125. Which of the following doesn’t contribute to crystal field splitting parameter 10Dq?

(A) Nuclear charge
(B) Spin-orbit coupling
(C) Electron and neutron interaction
(D) Electron and nucleus distance

126. Which of the following is considered as cellular storehouse of iron?

(A) Ceruloplasmin
(B) Transferrin
(C) Ferroportin
(D) Ferritin

127. Kroll process is adopted for the extraction of

(A) Sc
(B) Zr
(C) V
(D) Hf

128. Which of the following is meant for, the orbitals on the metal ion are smeared out
over a larger region of space whenever the ligands bind to a metal ion?

(A) j-j coupling effect
(B) nephelauxetic effect
(C) lanthanide contraction effect
(D) LS coupling effect

129. Which of the following is NOT a reducing agent?

(A) NaBH4
(B) LiAlH4
(C) NH2NH2
(D) Na2S2O8

130. Which of the following are the products formed when XeF4 reacts with water

(A) XeOF2 + 2HF2
(B) XeO3 + Xe + HF + O2
(C) XeOF4 + XeF2 + HF
(D) XeO3 + HF

2-
131. The structure of Ni(CO)4 and [Ni(CN)4] complexes are

(A) both square planar
(B) square planar and tetrahedral respectively
(C) tetrahedral and square planar respectively
(D) both tetrahedral

3+
132. The correct electronic configuration and magnetic moment of Gd is
7
(A) [Xe]4f and 7.9 B.M.
7
(B) [Xe]5f and 7.9 B.M.
6
(C) [Xe]4f and 8.9 B.M.
9
(D) [Xe]4f and 11.9 B.M.

3−
133. The spin-only magnetic moment (in B.M.) value of [Fe(CN)6] ion is

(A) 5.916
(B) 1.73
(C) 0
(D) 1.414

134. Predict the bond order variation in the following
O 2 ,O +2 ,O −2 ,O 22−

(A) O +2 > O 2 > O −2 > O 22−
(B) O 22− > O 2− > O 2 > O 2+
(C) O 22− > O 2 > O 2− > O 2+
(D) O 22− > O 2− > O 2+ > O 2

135. The correct order of electron gain enthalpies of P, S, Cl and F is

(A) F > Cl > S > P
(B) Cl > F > P > S
(C) F > Cl > P > S
(D) Cl > F > S > P

136. Three centre two electron bond is present in

(A) BF3
(B) B2H6
(C) H3BO3
(D) AlCl3

137. Which among the following doesn’t obey 18-electron rule?

(A) V(CO)6
(B) Mn2(CO)10
(C) Fe(CO)5
(D) Ni(CO)4

138. Among the oxides of nitrogen, N2O3, N2O4, N2O5 the compound(s) having N–N
bond(s) is/are

(A) N2O4 and N2O5
(B) N2O3 and N2O5
(C) N2O4 and N2O3
(D) N2O5 only

139. Which of the following is not considered as an organometallic compound?

(A) Ferrocene
(B) Cis-platin
(C) Ziese’s salt
(D) Grignard reagent

140. A stable oxidation state of +4 is shown by

(A) La
(B) Yb
(C) Sm
(D) Ce

141. Which of the following does not exist?

(A) XeOF4
(B) XeF4
(C) ArF3
(D) XePtF6

142. The indicator used in the complexometric titration of ZnSO4 and EDTA is

(A) Diphenylamine
(B) N-Phenylanthranilic acid
(C) Thymol blue
(D) Eriochrome black –T

2−
143. The crystal field stabilization energy of [Fe(CN)6] is (∆o is the splitting energy and
P is the pairing energy.

(A) 2.4 ∆o−3P
(B) 1.2 ∆o−3P
(C) 2.4 ∆o−P
(D) 0

144. Dimethylglyoxime (DMG) is used in spot test for confirming which cation?
2+
(A) Ni
2+
(B) Zn
+
(C) K
4+
(D) Pt

145. Which of the following complex ions is diamagnetic in nature?

(A) [CoF3]3−
(B) [Ni(CN)4]2−
(C) [NiCl4]2−
(D) [Fe(CN)4]−

146. The complexes, [Co(NH3)3] [Cr(CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)3] [Co(CN)6] are the examples
of

(A) Geometrical isomerism
(B) Linkage isomerism
(C) Ionisation isomerism
(D) Coordination isomerism

147. The magnetic moment of a transition metal ion is 15 BM. Therefore the number of
unpaired electrons present in it is

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

4−
148. Name the type of structure of silicate in which only one oxygen atom of [SiO4] is
shared.

(A) Three dimensional silicate
(B) Ambhibole
(C) Sheet silicate
(D) Pyrosilicate

149. In which of the following set is the bond order 3 for all species?

(A) NO, N2 and CO
−
(B) NO, N2, CN
+
(C) NO , N2, CO
+ −
(D) NO , N2, CN

+ −
150. In the reaction 2X + B2H6 → [BH2(X)2] [BH4] , the amine X is

(A) (CH3)3N
(B) (CH3)2NH
(C) CH3NH2
(D) NH3

ANSWER KEY
Subject Name: 604 CHEMISTRY
SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key
1 D 31 B 61 C 91 D 121 D
2 A 32 B 62 D 92 D 122 B
3 C 33 C 63 A 93 B 123 A
4 A 34 C 64 B 94 A 124 D
5 B 35 C 65 B 95 B 125 C
6 C 36 B 66 B 96 A 126 D
7 D 37 D 67 A 97 D 127 B
8 B 38 C 68 C 98 D 128 B
9 A 39 A 69 C 99 B 129 D
10 C 40 B 70 D 100 A 130 B
11 A 41 D 71 B 101 A 131 C
12 A 42 C 72 A 102 D 132 A
13 B 43 B 73 B 103 C 133 B
14 A 44 D 74 A 104 C 134 A
15 B 45 C 75 D 105 B 135 D
16 B 46 A 76 D 106 A 136 B
17 C 47 A 77 C 107 C 137 A
18 C 48 B 78 C 108 B 138 C
19 D 49 C 79 C 109 D 139 B
20 B 50 A 80 D 110 D 140 D
21 A 51 C 81 C 111 C 141 C
22 B 52 B 82 B 112 C 142 D
23 C 53 C 83 A 113 D 143 A
24 A 54 A 84 A 114 A 144 A
25 D 55 C 85 C 115 A 145 B
26 D 56 C 86 C 116 B 146 D
27 D 57 B 87 D 117 D 147 C
28 C 58 C 88 D 118 C 148 D
29 C 59 C 89 C 119 D 149 C
30 A 60 D 90 B 120 C 150 D

Entrance Exams
Agricultural Entrance Exams
Architecture Entrance Exam
Arts and Humanities Entrance Exams
Commerce Entrance Examinations
Common Entrance Examinations
Computer Application Entrance Exams
Design Entrance Exams
Education Entrance Exams
Engineering Entrance Exams
Hotel Management Entrance Exams
Law Entrance Exams
MBA Entrance Exams
Media & Journalism Entrance Exams
Medical Entrance Exams
Nursing Entrance Exams
Pharmacy Entrance Exams
Science Entrance Exams
Diploma & Polytechnic
Lateral Entry