CUSAT CAT 2024 Question Paper Geology

Entrance Exam
2024

QUESTION
PAPER

GEOLOGY

1. …………… is called as the "father" of geology.
(A) John Butler
(B) Art Smith
(C) James Hutton
(D) Alfred Wegner

2. Approximately how long ago did the Big Bang take place

(A) 10-15 thousand years ago
(B) 10-15 million years ago
(C) 100-150 million years ago
(D) 10-15 billion years ago

3. What are the two most abundant elements in nebula (gas clouds) in the universe?

(A) Nitrogen and oxygen
(B) Oxygen and silicon
(C) Hydrogen and helium
(D) Iron and nickel

4. Which of the following is not one of the four inner planets?

(A) Mars
(B) Earth
(C) Neptune
(D) Mercury

5. The moon is

(A) older than the sun
(B) older than most meteorites
(C) older than the Earth
(D) None of the above

6. What powers the Earth's internal heat engine?

(A) Radioactivity
(B) Solar energy
(C) Volcanoes
(D) Ocean tides

7. A __________ plate boundary is illustrated in the figure shown below.

(A) transform fault
(B) divergent
(C) convergent - subduction
(D) convergent - continent/continent collision

8. The Andes Mountains of South America are a result of which type of plate boundary

(A) convergent
(B) divergent
(C) transform
(D) they are not related to a plate boundary

9. Why our vulnerability in natural disasters is growing?

(A) Because the frequency of volcanic eruptions is increasing
(B) Because the human population is increasing
(C) Because the number of earthquakes in each year is increasing
(D) Because the number of floods in each year is increasing

10. Which of the following factors are hypothesised to be involved in plate movement?

(A) Isostasy
(B) Earth’s rotation
(C) Thermal convection cells
(D) Polar wandering

11. The element which is most widespread in the earth’s crust is

(A) Oxygen
(B) Silicon
(C) Aluminium
(D) Iron

12. Which of the following instrument is used to record earthquake waves?

(A) Seismograph
(B) Sonograph
(C) Potentiometer
(D) Scintillometer

13. The ozone layer in the Earth’s atmosphere is limited to

(A) Troposphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Mesosphere
(D) Thermosphere

14. The field of geology that deals with the form, classification, mechanism, and causes
of the rock structures is known as

(A) Rock geology
(B) Structural geology
(C) Basic geology
(D) Lithology

15. The most common rock on the surface of the Earth is

(A) Igneous rock
(B) Sedimentary rock
(C) Metamorphic rock
(D) All are found in equal amounts

16. The basic and fundamental units of lithostratification classification is

(A) Supergroup
(B) Group
(C) Formation
(D) Member

17. What is the temperature estimated at the surface of the inner core of the Earth?

(A) Approximately 4500K
(B) Approximately 5700K
(C) Approximately 6200K
(D) Approximately 6800K

18. Two fold classification of Gondwana was proposed by

(A) C.S. Fox
(B) Pascoe
(C) Meddicott
(D) Feistmantle

19. Referring to the diagram below, path A is

(A) cooling and crystallization
(B) burial and lithification
(C) weathering and deposition
(D) cooling and uplift

20. What is the name of the large supercontinent that existed 200 million years ago when
all of the continents were together?

(A) San Andreas
(B) Andian
(C) Indian
(D) Pangaea

21. Meteorites are generally originated from

(A) the asteroid belt
(B) rocky planets like Venus
(C) comets
(D) moon

22. Volcanoes are more numerous around .…………. ocean.

(A) Indian
(B) Atlantic
(C) Arctic
(D) Pacific

23. Which of the planets is the smallest?

(A) Mars
(B) Mercury
(C) Venus
(D) Earth

24. The upper continental crust is most like ……………..

(A) granite
(B) rhyolite
(C) basalt
(D) gabbro

25. The layer which does not transmit the S-waves is …………..

(A) Outer core
(B) Crust
(C) Mantle
(D) Inner core

26. Which of the following would have thicker crust?

(A) Mountain belt
(B) Mid oceanic ridge
(C) Precambrian shield
(D) Island arc

27. Which of the following is not true about Asthenosphere?

(A) It is present in the upper mantle
(B) It is in solid state
(C) It is the source of volcanic activity
(D) It is in plastic rather than solid state

28. The East African rift valleys are good example of which one of the following types of
plate boundaries?

(A) Oceanic – Oceanic convergent boundary
(B) Oceanic – Continental convergent boundary
(C) Continent – Continent divergent boundary
(D) Continent – Continent transform boundary

29. Oceanic crust is not older than

(A) Permian
(B) Triassic
(C) Jurassic
(D) Creteaceous

30. According to Bowen's reaction series, which of the following pairs of phases are
likely to be incompatible

(A) Quartz and alkali feldspar
(B) Ca-Plagioclase and olivine
(C) Quartz and olivine
(D) Na-plagioclase and amphibole

31. Which of the following is the best description of a granite?

(A) A light-colored, fine-grained igneous rock rich in silica
(B) A light-colored, fine-grained igneous rock poor in silica
(C) A light-colored, coarse-grained igneous rock rich in silica
(D) A light-colored, coarse-grained igneous rock poor in silica

32. What type of magma forms at mid-ocean ridges?

(A) Basalt
(B) Andesite
(C) Ultramafic
(D) Granite

33. The coarse grained equivalent of a basalt is a

(A) rhyolite
(B) gabbro
(C) andesite
(D) granite

34. When single pyroxene envelope several well developed plagioclase lath, the texture is
called

(A) Ophitic texture
(B) Granoblast
(C) Porphyroblast
(D) Poikiloblast

35. Which of the following mineral would crystallize early from high Mg rich basalt
magma?

(A) Biotite
(B) Plagioclase
(C) Olivine
(D) Pyroxene

36. A coarse grained rock mainly composed of orthopyroxene and plagioclase is called as

(A) Gabbro
(B) Harzburgite
(C) Norite
(D) Lherzolite

37. The shape arch or dome is shown by which type of concordant body?

(A) Sills
(B) Lopolith
(C) Laccolith
(D) Phacolith

38. Which of the following mineral is not a part of the discontinuous reaction series?

(A) Plagioclase
(B) Olivine
(C) Pyroxene
(D) Amphibole

39. Which one of the following is a biogenic sedimentary rock?

(A) Sand stone
(B) Coal
(C) Shale
(D) Conglomerate

40. Which of the following can be used to determine the paleocuurent direction?

(A) Mud crack
(B) Cross bedding
(C) Turbidity current
(D) Graded Bedding

41. Which of the following rock types would have finest size particles?

(A) Conglomerate
(B) Sandstone
(C) Mudstone
(D) Greywacke

42. The least stable mineral in clastic detritus is

(A) Quartz
(B) Amphibole
(C) Olivine
(D) Hornblende

43. Which one of the following features is NOT associated with sedimentary rocks?

(A) Bedding
(B) Foliation
(C) Fossils
(D) Mud crack

44. Which of the following lists is written in order of decreasing particle size?

(A) Sandstone, Siltstone and Conglomerate
(B) Sandstone, Conglomerate and Siltstone
(C) Conglomerate, Sandstone and Siltstone
(D) Siltstone, Sandstone and Conglomerate

45. Detrital rocks refer to which type of sedimentary rocks?

(A) Mechanically formed
(B) Organically formed
(C) Chemically formed
(D) Residual

46. Pick the organically formed sedimentary rock

(A) Shale
(B) Sandstone
(C) Breccia
(D) Limestone

47. Which mineral is commonly responsible for the strong foliation in a schist?

(A) Quartz
(B) Calcite
(C) Mica
(D) Foliate

48. Which of the following index minerals forms at the highest metamorphic grade?

(A) Chlorite
(B) Sillmanite
(C) Biotite
(D) Staurolite

49. Which of the following processes occurs during lithification?

(A) Recrystallization
(B) Compaction
(C) Cementation
(D) All of the above

50. Which of the following sets is arranged in order of increasing metamorphic grade?

(A) Shale - Slate - Phyllite
(B) Phyllite - Gneiss - Schist
(C) Phyllite - Slate - Schist
(D) Schist - Shale - Gneiss

51. In which of the following environments would you expect to find oscillation ripples?

(A) Alluvial
(B) Near-shore
(C) Deep-sea
(D) Desert

52. Marble is a metamorphic rock that forms from a ……….. parent

(A) granite
(B) limestone
(C) sandstone
(D) shale

53. Which rocks show severe degree of metamorphism?

(A) Situated near the plate boundaries
(B) Situated away from plate boundaries
(C) Situated at the centre of the plates
(D) Irrespective of the place, the degree is same everywhere

54. Which of the following metamorphic facies is characterized by maximum temperature
and minimum pressures?

(A) Greenschist
(B) Blueschist
(C) Sanidinite
(D) Hornblende-hornfels

55. The petrogenetic process involving formation of new minerals by chemical
replacement of pre-existing minerals by high-temperature fluids is

(A) Metagenesis
(B) Holomorphism
(C) Metasomatism
(D) Homosomatism

56. Which of the following is a high-grade metamorphic rock?

(A) Graptolites
(B) Granulites
(C) Granilites
(D) Granites

57. Mobile belts are formed under what conditions?

(A) Local metamorphism
(B) Regional metamorphism
(C) Displacement metamorphism
(D) Contact metamorphism

58. What type of metamorphism is caused by high temperature and high pressure imposed
over a large volume of crust?

(A) burial
(B) contact
(C) regional
(D) cataclastic

59. Which of the following is the criterion for defining an Anticline?

(A) The strata are uparched
(B) Geologically older rocks occupy a position in the interior of the fold
(C) The limbs dip away from each other at the crest
(D) They are convex downwards

60. Folds characterized by well-defined, sharp hinge points are called

(A) Conjugate folds
(B) Chevron folds
(C) Cuspate folds
(D) Cylindrical folds

61. Faulting is a …………. process

(A) Tectonic
(B) Non-tectonic
(C) Both tectonic and non-tectonic
(D) Precipitation

62. The block which lies below the fault plane or zone is called

(A) Hanging wall
(B) Sub-wall
(C) Foot wall
(D) Lower wall

63. Identify the fault in the figure below

(A) Strike-slip
(B) Dip-slip
(C) Thrust
(D) Reverse

64. Joints parallel to bedding planes are called

(A) Strike joints
(B) Bedding joints
(C) Dip joints
(D) Oblique joints

65. The part of a fold between two adjacent hinges is called

(A) anticline
(B) syncline
(C) limb
(D) axial plane

66. An overturned fold is characterized by

(A) two limbs at right angles to one another
(B) two limbs dipping in the same direction - with one tilted beyond vertical
(C) two limbs dipping in opposite directions
(D) two limbs not parallel to each other - with vertical axial plane

67. What type of fault is a thrust fault?

(A) Low-angle normal fault
(B) Low-angle reverse fault
(C) High-angle reverse fault
(D) Low-angle strike-slip fault

68. Joints in metamorphic rocks are due to

(A) indirect stresses
(B) local stresses
(C) regional stresses
(D) local and regional stresses

69. Clay minerals are common examples of …………. silicate structures

(A) framework
(B) single chains
(C) sheet
(D) isolated tetrahedral

70. The property "cleavage" refers to

(A) development of crystal faces during mineral growth
(B) the tendency of a crystal to split along planar surfaces
(C) development of irregular fractures when a mineral is broken
(D) the density or specific gravity of a mineral

71. Chemical substances that have exactly the same chemical formula but different crystal
structures are called

(A) ions
(B) polymorphs
(C) electrons
(D) isotopes

72. The crystal lattice has a ………….. arrangement

(A) One-dimensional
(B) Two-dimensional
(C) Three-dimensional
(D) Four-dimensional

73. Type of shine or lustre associated with diamond is

(A) Adamantine
(B) Metallic
(C) Pearly
(D) Vitreous

74. Hardness of human nail varies between

(A) 0.5 to 1.5
(B) 3 to 4
(C) 1.5 to 2.5
(D) 2.5 to 3.5

75. Quartz exhibit …………… fracture

(A) Conchoidal
(B) Hackly
(C) Uneven
(D) Even

76. Which of the following accessory plates is used to obtain interference figure?

(A) Gypsum plates
(B) Bertrand lenses
(C) Mica Plate
(D) Quartz wedge

77. The SI unit of specific gravity is

(A) Ohm
(B) g/cc
(C) N/cc
(D) No unit

78. Which of the following minerals can scratch Topaz?

(A) Corundum
(B) Apatite
(C) Gypsum
(D) Quartz

79. The chemical composition of the feldspar group is

(A) Oxides
(B) Aluminates
(C) Carbonates
(D) Aluminosilicates

80. The chemical formula (Mg, Fe)2SiO4 describes which of the following minerals?

(A) Feldspar
(B) Mica
(C) Olivine
(D) Pyroxene

81. Which of the following minerals is a common clay mineral used in pottery?

(A) feldspar
(B) kaolinite
(C) olivine
(D) pyroxene

82. Which of the following is not an essential condition for hydrothermal deposits?

(A) Highly active fluids
(B) Highly enriched fluids
(C) Highly inactive fluids
(D) Suitable pathways

83. Chromite is mostly of which origin?

(A) Igneous
(B) Sedimentary
(C) Metamorphic
(D) None of the above

84. Zawar mines are famous for

(A) Gold
(B) Iron
(C) Lead and Zinc
(D) Copper

85. Which is the most common ore of lead?

(A) Sphalerite
(B) Galena
(C) Chromite
(D) Bauxite

86. Which is the red variety of corundum?

(A) Emerald
(B) Ruby
(C) Sapphire
(D) Coral

87. Which one of the following locations doesn’t have copper mines?

(A) Rakha
(B) Malanjkhand
(C) Kolihan
(D) Byrapur

88. Mineral often referred to as fool’s gold

(A) Pyrite
(B) Magnetite
(C) Chromite
(D) Ilmenite

89. Which of the following rocks could be important source of diamonds?

(A) Komatite
(B) Gabbro
(C) Eclogite
(D) Kimberlite

90. Which of the following is the oldest oil field in India?

(A) Bombay High
(B) Krishna Godavri
(C) Cambay Basin
(D) Digboi

91. The earliest fossils of foraminifera are found in

(A) Permian rocks
(B) Carboniferous rocks
(C) Silurian rocks
(D) Upper Cambrian rocks

92. Shells with ammonite suture first appeared in

(A) Permian
(B) Devonian
(C) Cretaceous
(D) None of the above

93. We usually find fossils in

(A) Igneous rock
(B) Volcanic rocks
(C) Metamorphic rock
(D) Sedimentary Rock

94. What time Era do we live in?

(A) Triassic
(B) Cenozoic
(C) Paleozoic
(D) Tertiary

95. The study of faunal succession allows

(A) matching of similarly-aged rocks from different outcrops
(B) absolute dating of fossil-bearing strata
(C) recognition of the kings of the beasts in past times
(D) the study of habits of extinct mammals

96. Tongue-like structure that is used by Bivalvia for feeding is called

(A) Tongue
(B) Siphuncle
(C) Nautilus
(D) Radula

97. The second-largest class of the phylum Mollusca is

(A) Bivalvia
(B) Gastropoda
(C) Cephalopoda
(D) Annelida

98. Which of the following radioactive isotopes has the longest half-life?

(A) Rubidium-87
(B) Potassium-40
(C) Carbon-14
(D) Uranium-238

99. Large reptiles became abundant during the ……………. Era.

(A) Cenozoic
(B) Mesozoic
(C) Paleozoic
(D) Precambrian

100. Which of the following will not make a fossil?

(A) Decomposed organic material
(B) Plant impressions (casts)
(C) Animal footprints
(D) Loose animal bones

101. Which of the following is used by geologists to determine the absolute ages in a rock
sequence?

(A) Magnetic method
(B) Fossils
(C) Cross-cutting relationships
(D) Radiometric dating

102. What is the isolated water table held by a small extension of impervious rock called?

(A) Underlying water
(B) Secret water
(C) Perched water
(D) Underwater

103. What is the volume of voids in a rock mass expressed in percentage of total volume of
rock called?

(A) Porosity
(B) Voids ratio
(C) Permeability
(D) Specific yield

104. Which types of rocks are highly porous?

(A) Igneous
(B) Sedimentary
(C) Metamorphic
(D) Igneous and metamorphic

105. The best groundwater reservoirs have

(A) low permeability and low porosity
(B) low permeability and high porosity
(C) high permeability and low porosity
(D) high permeability and high porosity

106. The boundary between the saturated zone and the unsaturated zone of ground water is
called the

(A) water table
(B) aquifer
(C) aquiclude
(D) porosity

107. Pick the wrong statement about groundwater.

(A) It is mostly turbid
(B) It is odourless
(C) It is free from pathogens
(D) It is coloured

108. Water present in rocks from the time of their deposition is

(A) Meteoric water
(B) Connate water
(C) Juvenile water
(D) Secondary water

109. Juvenile water is also called

(A) Meteoric water
(B) Connate water
(C) Magmatic water
(D) Secondary water

110. Which among the following is not an example of the good aquifer?

(A) Granite
(B) Gravels
(C) Limestones
(D) Sandstones

111. In confined aquifers, where is the piezometric surface with respect to the ground
level?

(A) Below
(B) Same level
(C) Above
(D) Inclined to ground level

112. Example for best aquiclude is

(A) Granites
(B) Gravels
(C) Compacted clay
(D) Sandstone

113. Identify the part labelled as “A” in the below diagram.

(A) Weathered rock
(B) Parent rock
(C) Rolled down rock
(D) Powdered rock

114. What is the term for the general process by which rocks are broken down at the
Earth's surface?

(A) deposition
(B) erosion
(C) lithification
(D) weathering

115. Which of the following minerals has a low solubility and therefore is least susceptible
to chemical weathering at the Earth's surface?

(A) Calcite
(B) Plagioclase
(C) Quartz
(D) Olivine

116. Minerals like Orthoclase and Felspar undergo which method of chemical
decomposition?

(A) Hydration
(B) Hydrolysis
(C) Oxidation
(D) Reduction

117. Which among the following is called “Mushroom rocks”?

(A) Pedestal rocks
(B) Yardangs
(C) Ventifacts
(D) Desert pavements

118. What is the term used for wind-blown deposits of silt and clay grade particles?

(A) Dunes
(B) Loess
(C) Hills
(D) Ventifacts

119. Fe3+ refers to

(A) iron metal
(B) ferrous iron
(C) ferric iron
(D) hematite

120. Which of the following minerals is most abundant in granite?

(A) Biotite
(B) Feldspar
(C) Magnetite
(D) Quartz

121. Laterite soils

(A) are red in color
(B) are formed in tropical climates
(C) often contain high concentrations of aluminum
(D) All of the above

122. The highest concrete gravity dam of India which is also the second highest such dam
of the world is

(A) Indira Sagar Dam
(B) Cheruthoni Dam
(C) Bhakra Nangal dam
(D) Tehri Dam

123. Heavy load of sediments to reservoirs would reduce

(A) flow of water in that area
(B) effective storage
(C) total life of reservoir
(D) total life and effective storage of reservoir

124. Which type of geological structure can be rectified by grouting?

(A) Joints
(B) Folds
(C) Faults
(D) Inclined strata

125. Which rock possesses very high compressive strength?

(A) Igneous
(B) Sedimentary
(C) Metamorphic
(D) Sedimentary and metamorphic

126. What is the depth of focus in the shallow earthquakes?

(A) Up to 100 km
(B) Up to 200 km
(C) Up to 60 km
(D) Up to 150 km

127. Which theory is acclaimed as a satisfactory explanation about the cause of
earthquakes?

(A) Elastic Rebound theory
(B) Clastic theory
(C) Tremors theory
(D) Seismology theory

128. Which of the following sequences correctly lists the different arrivals from first to
last?

(A) P waves ... S waves .... Surface waves
(B) Surface waves ... P waves .... S waves
(C) P waves ... Surface waves ... S waves
(D) S waves ... P waves .... Surface waves

129. Which of the following is not a desirable of a road construction stone?

(A) Hydrophobic in nature
(B) Sufficient hardness and toughness
(C) Durability at the place of use
(D) Hydrophilic in nature

130. Which of the following is not a method of control of mass movement?

(A) Afforestation
(B) Retaining wall
(C) Chemical treatment of rocks
(D) Deforestation

131. Which of the following is used by geologists to determine the relative ages in a rock
sequence?

(A) Stratigraphy
(B) Fossils
(C) Cross-cutting relationships
(D) All of the above

132. A nonconformity is

(A) a rock unit that is different than units above or below it
(B) a gap in the geologic record bounded below by metamorphic or igneous rocks
and bounded above by sedimentary rocks
(C) a rock unit that does not contain fossils
(D) a sequence of rocks that does not contain any gaps in the geologic record

133. Which of the following statements is true about remote sensing imagery?

(A) It can only be collected during the day
(B) It can only be collected during clear weather conditions
(C) It can be collected during any time of the day or night and under any weather
conditions
(D) It can only be collected during the night

134. Remote sensing uses which of the following in its procedure?

(A) Electric waves
(B) Sonar waves
(C) Gamma rays
(D) Electromagnetic waves

135. What is the averge silica content of basaltic lava?

(A) 30%
(B) 40%
(C) 50%
(D) 60%

136. The altitudinal distance of a geostationary satellite from the earth is about

(A) 26,000 km
(B) 30,000 km
(C) 36,000 km
(D) 44,000 km

137. The basic requirement of any sensor system is

(A) Radiometric resolution
(B) Spatial resolution
(C) Spectral resolution
(D) All of the above

138. The GPS space segment consists of Navigation Satellite Timing and Ranging whose
number is

(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 16
(D) 24

139. Longitude values are used to represent which of the following direction from the
Prime Meridian?

(A) West
(B) South
(C) North
(D) East

140. The infrared portion of EMR lies between

(A) 0.4 - 0.7 µm
(B) 0.5 mm to 1 µm
(C) 0.7 - 1.3 µm
(D) 0.7 to 14 µm

141. What is ‘Dun’?

(A) A plain land within mountain
(B) A transverse valley cut by river
(C) A recent valley
(D) A wide longitudinal valley

142. The rock used for the construction of "Gateway of India" (in Mumbai) is

(A) Light coloured variety of trap rocks
(B) Granite of South India
(C) Charnockite of South India
(D) None of the above

143. About 98% of coal annually produced in India comes from

(A) Gondwana formations
(B) Tertiary fromations
(C) Precambrian formations
(D) None of the above

144. The huge Cuddapah basin is more or less crescentic in shape. The name of Cuddapah
system has been derived from the Cuddapah basin of

(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) None of the above

145. On the basis of chemical characteristics Granite, Basalt and Trap can be classified as

(A) Calcareous rocks
(B) Argillaceous rocks
(C) Siliceous rocks
(D) None of the above

146. Ionosphere is the

(A) Solid part of the earth
(B) Lowermost atmospheric zones
(C) Uppermost atmospheric zones
(D) None of the above

147. The idea of wandering continents was first pictured by Wegner in 1912 as

(A) Convection current hypothesis
(B) Planetesimal hypothesis
(C) Continental drift theory
(D) None of the above

148. A part of any stone or rock that is exposed at the surface is known as

(A) Fault
(B) Fold
(C) Outcrop
(D) Dyke

149. The process of wear and tear of exposed country rock is defined as

(A) Attrition
(B) Abrasion
(C) Deflation
(D) Suspension

150. Which of the following is least in quantity?

(A) Proved reserve
(B) Indicated reserve
(C) Inferred reserve
(D) Mineable reserve

ANSWER KEY
Subject Name: 609 GEOLOGY
SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key
1 C 31 C 61 A 91 D 121 D
2 D 32 A 62 C 92 B 122 C
3 C 33 B 63 B 93 D 123 D
4 C 34 A 64 B 94 B 124 A
5 D 35 C 65 C 95 A 125 A
6 A 36 C 66 B 96 D 126 C
7 B 37 C 67 B 97 A 127 A
8 A 38 A 68 D 98 D 128 A
9 B 39 B 69 C 99 B 129 D
10 C 40 B 70 B 100 A 130 D
11 A 41 C 71 B 101 D 131 D
12 A 42 C 72 C 102 C 132 B
13 B 43 B 73 A 103 A 133 C
14 B 44 C 74 C 104 B 134 D
15 B 45 A 75 A 105 D 135 C
16 C 46 D 76 A 106 A 136 C
17 B 47 C 77 D 107 D 137 D
18 A 48 B 78 A 108 B 138 D
19 B 49 D 79 D 109 C 139 D
20 D 50 A 80 C 110 A 140 D
21 A 51 B 81 B 111 C 141 D
22 D 52 B 82 C 112 C 142 A
23 B 53 A 83 A 113 B 143 A
24 A 54 C 84 C 114 D 144 C
25 A 55 C 85 B 115 C 145 C
26 A 56 B 86 B 116 B 146 C
27 B 57 B 87 D 117 A 147 C
28 C 58 C 88 A 118 B 148 C
29 B 59 B 89 D 119 C 149 B
30 C 60 B 90 D 120 B 150 D

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