Kerala NMMS 2018 Question Paper SAT






Roll Number

Question Booklet Number
NMMSE – 2018

Class – VIII
Part – I
Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)
Time : 90 Minutes Maximum Marks : 90
Instructions To Candidates : kq}ƒL¡À]W¥¨Oç j]¡SÇw°¥ :
S\Lh|°¥¨V D¾qU IuOfL¢ fOa°OÐf]jO oOÒV
Read the following instructions before you answer the fLRu RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐ j]¡SÇw°¥ yèÈU
questions. Answers are to be given in a Separate vLp]¨OW. D¾qU j¤SWºfV KqO NkSf|W
OMR Answer Sheet provided inside this D¾q¨asLy]¤ (OMR) BeV . j]¡SÇw¾]
booklet. Break the seal and start answering the jOSwxU oLNfSo y}¤ fOr¨OvLjOU, D¾qU
questions once asked to do so. IuOfOvLjOU kLaOçP.
1. j]°tORa SrL¥ jÒ¡ (KqO Wç]p]¤ KqO A¨U
1. Please write your Roll Number very clearly oLNfU) v|©oLp] j]°tORa NkSvwj kNf
(only one digit in one block) as given in your ¾]¤ fÐ]q]¨OÐfO SkLRs IuOfOW.
Admission Card. 2. CT kq}ƒLkOñW¾]¤ 90 S\Lh|°tOºV.
2. There are 90 questions in this test. The S\Lh|°¥ fLRu RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐ NkWLqU
questions are arranged in the following order : NWoRÕaO¾]p]q]¨OÐO.
Questions 1 to 35 belong to Social Science • 1 oOf¤ 35 vRqpOç S\Lh|°¥ yLoPz|
Subjects. wLNñ¾]¤ j]ÐV.
Questions 36 to 70 are on Science • 36 oOf¤ 70 vRqpOç S\Lh|°¥ wLNñ
Subjects.
v]xp°t]¤ j]ÐV.
• 71 oOf¤ 90 vRqpOç S\Lh|°¥ Ye]f
Questions 71 to 90 are on Mathematics. ¾]¤ j]ÐV.
3. Select the most suitable answer for each 3. KLSqL S\Lh|¾]jO D\]foLp D¾qU Rfq
question and completely darken the circle R´aO¾V wq]pLp D¾qR¾ yP\]Õ]¨OÐ
corresponding to the correct alternative as vQ¾U oLNfU fLRu RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐ v]i¾]¤
shown below. kP¡¹oLp] WrOÕ]¨OW.
Correct Method Wrong Method wq]pLp q}f] RfãLp q}f]
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4

4. All questions carry one mark each. 4. IsæL S\Lh|°¥¨OU KqO oL¡¨V v}fU.
5. There is no negative mark. Every correct 5. j|Pj oL¡¨V Csæ. KLSqL wq] D¾q¾]jOU KqO
answer will be awarded one mark. oL¡¨V v}fU sn]¨OU
6. Do not write your name on any part of the 6. j]°tORa SkqV S\Lh| kOñW¾]R£SpL D¾q
¨asLy]R£SpL KqO nLY¾OU IuOfOvL¢ kLa]sæ.
question booklet or on the answer sheet.
NMMSE (S) – 2018
The copyright of the contents of this booklet rests with the institution and no part of it should be used
by anybody in any manner whatsoever without the prior permission of the institution. The items are
prepared with best expertise. In case of any dispute the opinion of the experts appointed by institution
will be final.


Class – VIII SAT

E
ER
EH
RIT
TW
NO
DO

M-1

Class – VIII SAT

There are 90 questions in all. For each
BRW 90 S\Lh|°¥ DºV . KLSqL S\Lh|
¾]jOU (1), (2), (3), (4) IÐV AapLtRÕaO
question four alternative answers are given ¾]p jLsV v|f|ñ D¾qU v}fU RWLaO¾]
marked as (1), (2), (3), (4). From these, find ŸOºV . Avp]¤ wq]pLpSfL JãvOU
the most appropriate answer. The number AjOSpL^|oLpSfL Bp D¾qU WºOk]
denoting this answer is there in the answer a]¨OW. CT D¾qR¾ WOr]¨OÐ jÒ¡
D¾q¨asLy]¤ AfLfV S\Lh|¾]Rj
sheet against the question number concerned.
f]Rq DºV . CT jÒ¡ Aa°]p vQ¾U j}s
Darken the circle with Blue/Black Ball Pen ARsæË]¤ WrOÕV ox]pOç mL¥ Rk¢
only. Record the answers thus in the OMR D k S p L Y ] \ ÿ V WrOÕ]¨OW. D¾q°¥
answer sheet only. Do not write anything in ANkWLqU OMR D¾q¨asLy]¤ oLNfU
SqXRÕaO¾OW. S\Lh|°¥ Aa°]p mO¨]
the question booklet except your Roll Number
R£ Wv¡ Sk^]¤ j]°tORa SrL¥ jÒqOU,
on the cover page and rough work in the rlV v¡¨]jO Svº] fÐ]ŸOç òs¾V
space provided for the purpose. Af]jOç WOr]ÕOW¥ Ku]RW oRãLÐOU
IuOfqOfV.

1. Nagarjunakonda in Andhra Pradesh 1. BNÌNkShw]Rs jLYL¡²Oj&
represents RWLº Nkf]j]i}Wq]¨OÐfV
(1) Palaeolithic age and Chalcolithic (1) NkL\}j w]sLpOYS¾pOU
age
fLNow]sLpOYS¾pOU
(2) Palaeolithic age and Neolithic (2) NkL\}j w]sLpOYS¾pOU
age
jv}j w]sLpOYS¾pOU
(3) Mesolithic age
(3) oi| w]sLpOYR¾
(4) Mesolithic age and Chalcolithic (4)
oi| w]sLpOYS¾pOU fLNo&
age
w]sLpOYS¾pOU

2. Lascaux cave is situated in 2. sLSØL YOz ò]f] R\áOÐfV
(1) Spain (1) Ry×p]¢

(2) Turkey (2) fO¡¨]

(3) England (3) CUYæºV

(4) France (4) NlL¢yV

M-1 -1- P.T.O.

Class – VIII SAT

3. The term ‘Kalibangan’ means 3. "WLs]mUY¢' IÐ khU
A¡ÀoL¨OÐfV
(1) Black mound
(1) WrO¾ WOÐV
(2) Mound of the dead
(2) oq]\ÿvqORa WOÐV
(3) Black bangles (3) WrO¾ vtW¥

(4) Large fort (4) RRh¡Z|oOç SWLŸ

4. Uruk was a city in 4. DrO¨V jYqU ò]f] R\pÅ]qOÐfV
(1) Egypt (1) CT^]kÅV

(2) Mesopotamia (2) RoRyLRÕLSŸo]p
(3) Greece (3) NY}yV
(4) China (4) RR\j

5. The megalithic age of South India 5. hƒ]SeÍ|p]Rs ozLw]sL WLsZŸU
represents Nkf]j]i}Wq]¨OÐfV

(1) Iron age (1) CqOÒOpOYU

(2) Neolithic age (2) jv}jw]sLpOYU

(3) Chalcolithic age (3) fLNow]sLpOYU

(4) Bronze age (4) RvËspOYU

6. The Muvendars of South India did not 6. hƒ]SeÍ|p]Rs oPSvÍÓLq]¤
include D¥RÕaLf]qOÐfV
(1) The Cheras (1) S\q¡
(2) The Pandyas (2) kL¼|¡
(3) The Chalukyas (3) \LsPW|¡
(4) The Cholas (4) S\Lt¡
M-1 -2-

Class – VIII SAT

7. The Tripitakas are related to
7. Nf]k]aW°tOoLp] mÌRÕŸ]q]
(1) The Ajivikas
¨OÐfV
(1) A^}v]WÓL¡
(2) The Charvakas
(2) \L¡vLWÓL¡
(3) The Jains
(3) RR^jÓL¡
(4) The Buddhists (4) mOÈof¨L¡

8. Name the early capital of Magadha. 8. oYipORa Bh|fsòLj¾]R£
SkRquOfOW.
(1) Pataliputra
(1) kLas}kONfU
(2) Gandhara
(2) YLÌLqU
(3) Rajagriha (3) qL^YQzU
(4) Kamboja (4) WUSmL^U

9. The names of some places and their 9. \]s òs°tORa SkqOWtOU AvpORa
features are given below. Match them yv]SwxfWtOoLeV \OvRa fÐ]
correctly. ŸOçfV. Av wq]pLp] SpL^]Õ]¨OW.
Places Features òs°¥ yv]SwxfW¥
A. n]USmcVW I. oi|w]sLpOYU
A. Bhimbetka I. Mesolithic age B. mLRYL¡ II. R\Ò]R£
DkSpLYU
B. Bagor II. Use of Copper
C. Ia¨¤ III. WsæORWLºV
C. Edakkal III. Rockshelter j]¡Ú]\ÿ
vLyòs°¥
D. Catalhoyuk IV. Wayanad D. \Lf¤ IV. vpjLaV
RzLpO¨
(1) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
(1) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
(2) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II (2) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II

(3) A – I, B – IV, C – III, D – II (3) A – I, B – IV, C – III, D – II

(4) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II (4) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II

M-1 -3- P.T.O.

Class – VIII SAT

10. Identify the correct pair from among the 10. \OvRa fÐ]ŸOçf]¤ j]ÐOU wq]
following. pLp S^Lc] WRº¾OW.
(1) Kurinchi – Coastal region (1) WOr]µ] – f}qNkShwU
(2) Palai – Dry land (2) kLRRs – vqºOe°]p
   NkShwU
(3) Mullai – Hilly region
(3) oORRsæ – WOÐ]¢NkShwU
(4) Marutam – Pastoral land (4) oqOfU – WLs]SoàOÐ òsU

11. The term ‘Hieroglyphics’ means 11. "RRzSrLYæ ] l]Wõ V ' IÐ khU
A¡ÀoL¨OÐfV
(1) Wedge shaped
(1) BÕ]R£ BWQf]pOçfV
(2) Fertile crescent
(2) lsnOp}ìoLp \NΨs
(3) Holy land (3) v]wOÈoLp òsU
(4) Holy writings (4) v]wOÈoLp IuO¾V

12. The Mahajanapada that was situated 12. hƒ]SeÍ|p]¤ ò]f] R\pÅ]qOÐ
in South India ozL^jkhU
(1) Asmaka (1) AyVoWU
(2) Kosala (2) SWLysU
(3) Kamboja (3) WUSmL^U
(4) Anga (4) AUYU

13. The continental crust is known as 13. v¢WqL nPv¤¨R¾ Ar]pRÕaOÐ
SkqV ?
(1) SIMA
(1) y]o
(2) SIAL
(2) y]pL¤
(3) NIFE (3) j]Rl
(4) Inner core (4) AW¨LÒV

M-1 -4-

Class – VIII SAT

14. An example for metamorphic rocks is 14. WLpLÍq]f w]sW¥R¨LqOhLzqeU
(1) Limestone (1) \O¹LÒV WsæV
(2) Basalt (2) myL¥ŸV
(3) Sandstone (3) oe¤¨sæV
(4) SyæãV
(4) Slate

15. The weathering of rocks due to the 15. fLkj]sp]Rs Jã¨Or\ÿ ] sOW¥
variations in temperature is oPsU w]sL iLfO¨¥¨OºLWOÐ
AkƒpU
(1) Biological weathering
(1) RR^v]W AkƒpU
(2) Chemical weathering
(2) qLy]W AkƒpU
(3) Mechanical weathering (3) nTf]W AkƒpU
(4) Formation of fossils (4) SlLy]sOWtORa qPk}WqeU

16. World soil day is on 16.
SsLW o¹Oh]joLp] B\q]¨RÕ
aOÐfV
(1) July 17
(1) ^PRRs 17
(2) December 15
(2) c]yUm¡ 15
(3) August 15 (3) BYðV 15
(4) September 17 (4) RykVãUm¡ 17

17. The upper surface of the waterrich part 17.
nPo]¨a]p]Rs ^syoQÈoLp nLY
beneath the ground is known as ¾]R£ oOW¥ÕqÕV
(1) Springs (1) j}qOrvW¥
(2) Geysers (2) Y}yrOW¥
(3) Water table (3) ^sk}bU
(4) Artesian wells (4) B¡Ÿ}x|¢ W]erOW¥
M-1 -5- P.T.O.

Class – VIII SAT

18. The instrument used for measuring 18. AÍq}ƒ fLkj]s At¨LjOk
atmospheric temperature SpLY]¨OÐ DkWqeU
(1) Barometer (1) mLSqLo}ã¡
(2) Hygrometer (2) RRzSNYLo}ã¡
(3) Thermometer (3) Rf¡SoLo}ã¡
(4) Caloriemeter (4) WSsLr]o}ã¡

19. The brown lines in maps indicate 19. nPka°t]¤ fv]ŸO j]r¾]sOç
vqW¥ yP\]Õ]¨OÐfV
(1) Altitude
(1) DpqU
(2) Roads (2) SrLcOW¥
(3) Canals (3) WjLsOW¥
(4) Borders (4) Af]¡¾]W¥

20. The total number of rivers in Kerala 20. SWqt¾]Rs BRWpOç jh]WtORa
I¹U
(1) 44
(1) 44
(2) 54
(2) 54
(3) 34 (3) 34
(4) 40 (4) 40

21. The northern most district in Kerala 21. SWqt¾]R£ JãvOU vaS¨pã
¾Oç ^]sæ
(1) Kannur
(1) W¹P¡
(2) Wayanad
(2) vpjLaV
(3) Malappuram
(3) osÕOrU
(4) Kasaragod (4) WLyrSYLcV
M-1 -6-

Class – VIII SAT

22. The scale of a map indicates 22. nPka¾]Rs SfLfV IÐL¤
(1) The ratio between map distance (1) nPka hPqvOU nPo]p]Rs pgL¡À
and ground distance
hPqvOU fÚ]sOç AjOkLfU
(2) Map symbols (2) nPka \]ø°¥
(3) Directions (3) h]wLyP\WU

(4) Year of making the map (4) nPka j]¡oLe v¡xU

23. Which of the following Indian States has 23.
fLRu RWLaO¾]ŸOç CÍ|¢
unicameral legislature ? yUòLj°t]¤ JWo¼s
j]po j]¡ÚLeynpOçfV JfLeV ?
(1) Bihar
(1) m}zL¡
(2) Uttar Pradesh
(2) D¾¡NkShwV
(3) Maharashtra (3) ozLqLNì
(4) Kerala (4) SWqtU

24. In which of the following lists is the 24. fLRu krpOÐ JfV v]xp¾]sLeV
provision for Panchayat Raj included ? "kµLp¾V qL^V ' D¥RÕŸ]q]¨OÐfV ?
(1) Union List (1) SWNÎ v]xpU
(2) State List (2) yUòLj v]xpU
(3) Concurrent List (3) W¦Wr£V v]xpU
(4) Residuary List (4) Avw]ì v]xpU

25. The maximum sanctioned strength of 25.
CÍ|¢ nqeZajLNkWLqU
Lok Sabha as per the Constitution of SsLWVynpORa kqoLvi] AjOvh
India j}p AUYyUX|
(1) 552 (1) 552
(2) 545 (2) 545
(3) 543 (3) 543
(4) 525 (4) 525
M-1 -7- P.T.O.

Class – VIII SAT

26. Which committee recommended the 26. CÍ|¢ nqeZajp]¤ oTs]W
inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the WaoW¥ D¥RÕaO¾]pfV JfV
Constitution of India ? WÚ]ã]pORa j]¡SÇwNkWLqoLeV ?

(1) Sarkaria Commission (1) y¡¨Lq]p WÚ}x¢

(2) Ashok Mehta Committee (2) ASwLWVSo¾ WÚ]ã]

(3) Swaran Singh Committee (3) y~q¦y]UYV WÚ]ã]

(4) Singhvi Committee (4) y]UYVv] WÚ]ã]

27. What does ‘NOTA’ imply in the electoral 27.
CÍ|¢ RfqR´aOÕV v|vòp]¤
system of India ? "SjLŸ (NOTA)' IÐfV yP\]Õ]
¨OÐfV IÍLeV ?
(1) Vote of no-confidence (1) Av]w~LyU SqXRÕaO¾OW
(2) IsæL òLjL¡À]W¥¨OU SvLŸV
(2) Vote to all candidates R\áOW
(3) KqO òLjL¡À]¨V SvLŸV
(3) Vote to one candidate
R\áOW
(4) Negative vote (4) j]Sxi SvLŸV

28. “Shadow Cabinet” is related to 28. "j]u¤ oNÍ]yn' (Shadow Cabinet)
IÐfV JfOoLp] mÌRÕŸfLeV ?
(1) Ruling Party
(1) nqeWƒ]
(2) Opposition Party
(2) Nkf]kƒWƒ]

(3) Coalition Government (3) WPŸOoNÍ]yn

(4) None of the above (4) CvRpLÐOosæ

M-1 -8-

Class – VIII SAT
29. Who presided over the first meeting of 29. CÍ|¢ nqeZajL j]¡ÚLe
the Constituent Assembly of India ? ynpORa Nkgo ySÚtj¾]¤
AÈ|ƒf vz]\ÿfLqLp]qOÐO ?
(1) Sachidananda Sinha
(1) y\ÿ]hLjÍ y]¢z
(2) Rajendra Prasad
(2) qLS^NÎ NkyLhV

(3) B. R. Ambedkar (3) m]. B¡. AUSmhVW¡

(4) H. C. Mukherjee (4) I\ÿV. y]. oOX¡^]

30. Which Article of the Constitution of India 30. CÍ|¢ nqeZajp]¤ v]h|L
deals with the Right To Education n|Ly¾]jOç AvWLwU Nkf]kL
(RTE) ? h]¨OÐ AjOS±hU JfLeV ?
(1) Article 19 (1) (1) AjOS±hU 19 (1)

(2) Article 21 (2) AjOS±hU 21

(3) Article 21 A (3) AjOS±hU 21A
(4) AjOS±hU 22 (2)
(4) Article 22 (2)

31. Who among the following moved 31. CÍ|¢ nqeZajL j]¡ÚLe yn
the ‘Objectives Resolution’ in the p]¤ "sƒ|NkSopU' Avfq]Õ]\ÿfV
Constituent Assembly of India ? fLRu krpOÐvq]¤ BqLp]qOÐO ?
(1) Motilal Nehru (1) SoL¾]sL¤ RjNzO

(2) Jawaharlal Nehru (2) ^vz¡sL¤ RjNzO

(3) B. R. Ambedkar (3) m]. B¡. AUSmhVW¡

(4) K. M. Munshi (4) RW. IU. oO¢x]

M-1 -9- P.T.O.

Class – VIII SAT

32. The twentyninth State of India is 32. CÍ|p]Rs CqOkR¾L¢kfLoR¾
yUòLjU JfV ?
(1) Telangana
(1) RfsOËLj
(2) Chhattisgarh
(2) \¾}yVYcV
(3) Jharkhand (3) ^L¡X¼V
(4) Uttarakhand (4) D¾qX¼V

33. The author of the book ‘The Republic’ is 33.
"r]Õmæ ] ¨V ' IÐ NYÏU q\]\ÿ
fLqLeV ?
(1) Socrates
(1) SyLNWŸ}yV
(2) Aristotle
(2) Aq]SðLŸ]¤
(3) Kautilya (3) WTa]s|¢
(4) Plato (4) SkæSãL

34. The present Secretary General of the 34. pO. I¢. KL. pORa CSÕLuR¾
UNO RyNWŸr] ^jr¤
(1) Ban Ki Moon (1) mL¢ W] oP¦
(2) Perez de Cuellar (2) RkRqyV c] W~p¡
(3) Antonio Guterres (3) AS£Le]SpL YOŸryV
(4) Mario Soares (4) or]SpL RyLryV

35. The name of the national legislature of 35. RR\jpORa Shw}p j]po j]¡ÚLe
China ynpORa SkqV
(1) Parliament (1) kL¡sRo£V

(2) National People’s Congress (2) jLxe¤ k}Õ]¥yV
SWL¦NYôV
(3) Diet
(3) cpãV
(4) Congress (4) SWL¦NYôV
M-1 -10-

Class – VIII SAT

36. The image formed by a convex mirror 36. KqO SWL¦RvWõV o]r¡ qPk}Wq]¨OÐ
is Nkf]m]UmU

(1) Always erect (1) ISÕLuOU j]v¡ÐfV

(2) Always virtual (2) ISÕLuOU o]g|

(3) Always diminished (3) ISÕLuOU R\rOfV
(4) CvRpsæLU wq]pLeV
(4) All of these

37. The velocity of an object is uniform 37. KqO vñO yoNkSvY¾]¤ yµq]
when it covers ¨OSÒL¥
(1)
AfV fOs| yop¾]¤
(1) Equal distances in equal intervals fOs|hPqU Sj¡SqXp]¤
of time in a straight line yµq]¨OÐO.
(2) AfV fOs| yop¾]¤
(2) Unequal distances in equal interval
v|f|ñ hPqU Sj¡SqXp]¤
of time in a straight line yµq]¨OÐO.
(3) AfV fOs| yop¾]¤ fOs|
(3) Equal distances in equal intervals
hPqU vQ¾LWLqoLp kLf
of time in a circular path
p]¤ yµq]¨OÐO.
(4) Unequal distances in equal (4) AfV fOs| yop¾]¤ v|f|ñ
intervals of time in a circular path
hPqU vQ¾LWLqoLp kLf
p]¤ yµq]¨OÐO.

38. The normal temperature of a human 38. ojOx|wq}q¾]R£ yLiLqe
body is
fLkj]s
(1) 37°C
(1) 37°C
(2) 37°F (2) 37°F
(3) 92°C (3) 92°C
(4) 104°C (4) 104°C

M-1 -11- P.T.O.

Class – VIII SAT

39. The phenomenon that a current carrying 39.
RRvh|Of] WaÐO SkLWOÐ KqO
conductor creates a magnetic field was \LsW¾]jO\OãOU KqO WLÍ]W
first observed by o¼sU DºLWOÐORvÐV Bh|
oLp] WRº¾]pfV
(1) Andre Marie Ampere
(1) B¢SNc Soq] BÒ]p¡
(2) Michael Faraday
(2) RRo¨¤ lLqSc
(3) Christian Oersted
(3) NW]ð|¢ CTuVðcV
(4) Fleming (4) Rlæo]UYV

40. The loudness of sound depends on 40. wmɾ]R£ D\ÿf Cvp]Ssf]Rj
Bèp]\ÿ]q]¨OÐO ?
(1) Amplitude
(1) Bpf]
(2) Frequency
(2) BvQ¾]
(3) Pitch (3) k]\ÿV
(4) Speed of sound (4) wmɾ]R£ SvYf

41. In solids the heat transfer takes place 41.
XqvñO¨t]¤ \PaOWPa]p nLY¾V
from hotter end to colder end by j]ÐOU \PaO WOr´ nLYS¾àV
fLkU Nkvz]¨OÐfV _________
(1) Conduction vu]pLeV.
(2) Convection (1) \LsjU
(2) yUvzjU
(3) Radiation
(3) v]W]qeU
(4) All of these (4) So¤Õr´vRpsæLU

42. The proposed mission of Indian Space 42. ojOx|Rj mz]qLWLw¾V I¾]
Research Organisation to carry man to ¨OvL¢ DSÇw]\ÿ ] ŸOç C¢c|¢
space is mz]qLWLwkÈf]
(1) Mangalyaan (1) oUY¥pL¢
(2) Gaganyaan (2) YY¢pL¢
(3) Chandrayaan (3) \NÎpL¢
(4) Suryayaan (4) yPq|pL¢
M-1 -12-

Class – VIII SAT

43. To move a car 43. KqO WLr]Rj \s]Õ]¨OÐf]jV
(1) Equal and opposite forces must be (1) fOs|vOU v]kq}fvOoLp
applied internally
msU W L r ] j O ç ] ¤ j ] Ð V
NkSpLY]¨eU
(2) Forces must be applied in the (2) WLr]jOç]¤ j]ÐV KSq
same direction internally h]wp]¤¾RÐ msU
NkSpLY]¨eU
(3) Equal and opposite forces should (3) fOs|vOU v]kq}fvOoLp msU
be applied externally kOr¾V j]ÐV NkSpLY]¨eU
(4) WLr]jV kOr¾V j]ÐV KSq
(4) Forces must be applied in the h]wp]¤ msU NkSpLY]
same direction externally
¨eU

44. Identify the correct pair. 44. wq]pLp S^Lc] JfV ?
(1) Camera – Mirror (1) W|Lor – h¡ÕeU

(2) Rear view – Lens (2) r]p¡v|P – Rs¢yV

(3) Periscope – Prism (3) Rkq]SØLÕV – Nk]yU

(4) Simple – Mirror y]Uk]¥ (4)
microscope RRoSNWLSØLÕV – h¡ÕeU

45. Which of the following is NOT a simple 45. fLRuR¨LaO¾]q]¨OÐvp]¤
machine ? DS¾LsWU AsæL¾SffV ?

(1) Crowbar (1) kLqS¨L¤

(2) Scissors (2) WNf]W

(3) Nutcracker (3) kL¨ORvŸ]

(4) Shovels (4) o¦SWLq]W

M-1 -13- P.T.O.

Class – VIII SAT

46. A bar magnet is suspended freely at its 46. KqO mL¡ oL®ãV Af]R£ YOqOf~
centre. The direction of this magnet at SWNξ]¤ fP¨]p]Ÿ]q]¨OÐO. nPo]
the poles of the earth is pORa NiOv°t]sLp]q]¨OSÒL¥ AfV
(1) East West direction (1) W]u¨V&ka]´LrV h]wp]¤
(2) North South direction (2) va¨V&Rf¨V h]wp]¤

(3) Vertically upward (3) WO¾RjpLp]q]¨OU
(4) Nkv\]¨L¢ Wu]p]sæ
(4) Cannot be predicted

47. Which of the following are incorrect 47.
\OvRaR¨LaO¾]q]¨OÐvp]¤
statements about non metals ? ASsLz°RtyUmÌ]\ÿVwq]p sæL¾
NkñLvjW¥ JRfLR¨pLeV ?
a. Non metals are good conductors a. ASsLz°¥ o]W\ÿ RRvh|Of
of electricity. \LsW°tLeV
b. yLiLqepLp], ASsLz
b. Generally, non metals do not react
with water.
°¥ ^svOoLp] Nkf]
Nkv¡¾]¨Lr]sæ
c. Non-metals are electropositive. c. ASsLz°¥ CsSNW› L
SkLy]ã}vV y~nLvoOç
d. Non-metals have greater affinity vpLeV
towards electrons. d. A S s L z ° ¥ ¨ V C s
SNW› L eOWStLaV fLs× q |U
(1) a and c vtRq WPaOfsLeV.
(1) (a) pOU (c) pOU
(2) b and d
(2) (b) pOU (d) pOU
(3) a and b (3) (a) pOU (b) pOU
(4) (c) pOU (d) pOU
(4) c and d

48. The natural indicator found in our homes 48. jÚORa v}aOWt]¤ WLeRÕaOÐ
is y~LnLv]W yP\WoLeV
(1) common salt (1) DÕV
(2) turmeric (2) o´¥
(3) baking soda (3) SyLcL¨LqU
(4) sugar (4) kµyLq
M-1 -14-

Class – VIII SAT

49. The metal present in the haemoglobin 49. jÚORa q©¾]Rs z}SoLSYæLm]j]
of our blood is sOç SsLzoLeV
(1) Sodium (1) SyLc]pU
(2) Silver (2) y]¤v¡
(3) Calcium (3) WLÃ|U
(4) Iron (4) Ap¦

50. Which of the following is not a chemical 50. \OvRaR¨LaO¾]q]¨OÐvp]¤
change ? qLyoLãosæL¾fV JfV ?
(1) Burning of coal (1) W¤¨q]pORa ^~sjU

(2) Evaporation of water (2) ^s¾]R£ mLx×}WqeU

(3) Rusting of iron (3) CqOÒV fOqOÒ]¨OÐfV

(4) Curdling of milk (4) kL¤ RRfqLWOÐfV

51. Which of the following is a homogeneous 51. \OvRaR¨LaO¾]q]¨OÐvp]¤
mixture ? JWLÄW o]è]fU JfV ?
(1) Soil (1) o¹V
(2) Steel (2) ð}¤
(3) Milk (3) kL¤
(4) Smoke (4) kOW

52. The acid present in car battery is 52. WL¡ mLãr]p]sOç By]cLeV
(1) Hydrochloric acid (1) RRzSNcLSWæLr]WV By]cV
(2) Acetic acid (2) Ayã]WV By]cV
(3) Nitric acid (3) RRjNa]WV By]cV
(4) Sulphuric acid (4) y¥l|Pq]WV By]cV
M-1 -15- P.T.O.

Class – VIII SAT

53. The basic principle behind paper 53. SkÕ¡ RNWLoLSãLNYLl]pORa Aa]
chromatography is òLj ff~oLeV
(1) Adsorption (1) Ai]SwLxeU
(2) Centrifugation (2) Ry¢Na]l|PSYx¢
(3) Osmosis (3) KLyVSoLy]yV
(4) Diffusion (4) c]l|Px¢

54. The coefficients for balancing reactants 54. \OvRaR¨LaO¾]q]¨OÐ qLy
and product in the following chemical Nkv¡¾j yovLW|R¾ yo}Wq]
equation are ¨OÐf]jLp] An]WLqW°StLaOU
Ds× Ð °StLaOU S\¡S¨º yUX|
N2 + H2 → NH3 WtLeV
(1) (2, 3, 2) N2 + H2 → NH3

(2) (1, 3, 2) (1) (2, 3, 2)
(2) (1, 3, 2)
(3) (2, 2, 2)
(3) (2, 2, 2)
(4) (3, 2, 2)
(4) (3, 2, 2)

55. Which of the following metals is kept in 55. \OvRaR¨LaO¾]q]¨OÐvp]¤
Kerosene ? JfV SsLzoLeV oR¹¹p]¤
(1) Iron
yPƒ]¨OÐfV ?
(1) Ap¦
(2) Phosphorous
(2) SlLyVlryV
(3) Sodium (3) SyLc]pU
(4) Chromium (4) SNWLo]pU

56. How many elements are present in the 56.
BiOj]W Bv¡¾jÕŸ]W
fourth period of the modern periodic p]Rs jLsLU k]q}c]¤ INf oPsW
table ? °tLeOçfV ?
(1) 2 (1) 2
(2) 8 (2) 8
(3) 18 (3) 18
(4) 32 (4) 32
M-1 -16-

Class – VIII SAT

57. Which of the following elements is 57. \OvRaR¨LaO¾]q]¨OÐvp]¤ JfV
named after the name of a place ? oPsW¾]R£ jLooLeV KqO òs¾]
(1) Na R£ Skq]¤ Ar]pRÕaOÐfV ?
(1) Na
(2) Cf
(2) Cf
(3) Es
(3) Es
(4) Sb (4) Sb

58. Which separation techniques can 58. SyLc]pU SWæLRRrcOU ASoLe]pU
be employed for the separation of SWæLRRrcOU Aa°]p o]è]f¾]¤
ammonium chloride from a mixture j]ÐOU ASoLe]pU SWæLRRrc]Rj
containing sodium chloride and Sv¡f]q]¨OÐ NkNW]ppLeV
ammonium chloride ?
(1) Sy~hjU
(1) Distillation
(2) zL¢cV k]¨]‚V
(2) Hand picking
(3) DfVkfjU
(3) Sublimation
(4) Filtration (4) Aq]R\ÿaO¨¤

59. The metal that exists in liquid state at 59. yLiLqe fLkj]sp]¤ NhLvWL
room temperature is vòp]¤ ò]f]R\áOÐ
SsLzoLeV _______
(1) Helium
(1) z}s]pU
(2) Mercury
(2) Ro¡¨Or]
(3) Bromine (3) SNmLo]¢
(4) Chlorine (4) SWæLr]¢

60. Peristalsis is the wave like movement 60. ________ R£ fqUY qPk¾]sOç
of \sjoLeV Rkq]ðL¥y]yV.
(1) Oesophagus (1) AÐjLtU
(2) Larynx (2) y~jSkaWU
(3) Bronchi (3) w~yj]
(4) Gall bladder (4) k]¾LwpU
M-1 -17- P.T.O.

Class – VIII SAT

61. Organisms belonging to the same 61. KSq yV k }x]y]¤RÕŸ ^}v]W¥
species constitute S\¡ÐV qPkRÕaOÐfLeV
(1) Ecosystem (1) BvLyv|vò
(2) Population (2) ^}v]YeU
(3) Community (3) ^}v]yoOhLpU
(4) Biosphere (4) RR^vo¼sU

62. Which one of the following is a dead 62. \OvRa j¤W]p]q]¨OÐvp]¤
cell ? oQfSWLwU JfLeV ?
(1) Parenchyma (1) kLq¢RRWo
(2) Sclerenchyma (2) yVWæ}r¢RRWo
(3) Collenchyma (3) SWLt¢RRWo
(4) Chlorenchyma (4) SWæLr¢RRWo

63. Choose the set that includes only 63. WLp]W Nk^jjU oLNfU D¥RÕŸ
vegetative propagation. WPŸU f]qR´aO¨OW.
(1) Layering, Hybridisation (1) kf] và¤, v¡YyËqeU
(2) kf] và¤, oOWOtU KŸ]¨¤
(2) Layering, Budding
(3) v¡YyËqeU, a]x|O W¥\ÿ¡
(3) Hybridisation, Tissue culture
(4) oOWOtU KŸ]¨¤, v¡Y
(4) Budding, Hybridisation yËqeU

64. Choose the function of Golgi complex 64.
\OvRa j¤W]p]q]¨OÐvp]¤
from the following.
j]ÐOU SYL¥^] SWLUkæWõ]R£ i¡oU
f]qR´aO¨OW .
(1) production and storage of energy (1) DT¡S^L¤ÕLhjvOU
yUnqevOU
(2) protein synthesis (2) SNkLŸ}¢ j]¡oLeU
(3) SWLwNyv°tLp qLyL®]
(3) collects cell secretions like
W¥, SzL¡SoLeOW¥ IÐ]v
enzymes, hormones etc. SwXq]¨¤
(4) SWLw¾]jV hQdf j¤WOÐO
(4) provides firmness to the cell
M-1 -18-

Class – VIII SAT

65. Identify the set of organisms that can 65.
f~¨]sPRa w~y]¨L¢ Wu]pOÐ
respire through the skin. ^}v]WtORa WPŸR¾ WRº¾OW.

(1) Earthworm, Amoeba (1) o¹]q, Ao}m
(2) Ao}m, fvt
(2) Amoeba, Frog
(3) fvt, o¹]q
(3) Frog, Earthworm
(4) Sfj}\ÿ, o¹]q
(4) Honeybee, Earthworm

66. \OvRa j¤W]p]q]¨OÐvp]¤ WL¥
66. Which one of the following is not a
contribution of Carl Linnaeus ? s]Sjpy]R£ yUnLvj AsæL¾fV
JfV ?
(1) Proposed two kingdom
(1) qºV W]UYVcU v¡Y}WqeU qPk}
classification
Wq]\ÿO
(2) Suggested the taxonomic (2)
v¡Y}Wqefs°¥
hierarchy
j]¡Shw]\ÿO
(3) used the term ‘species’ for the first (3) Bh|oLp] "y×}x]yV' IÐ khU
time
DkSpLY]\ÿO
(4) Proposed binomial nomenclature (4) h~]jLo kÈf] Bv]xVWq]\ÿO

67. Observe the flowchart and choose the
67. SlæL\L¡ŸV j]q}ƒ]\ÿ a, b IÐ]
correct option that match a and b. vàV A j O S p L ^ | o L p
D ¾ q U f]qR´aO¨OW.
Nostrils → a → b → Lungs
jLyLh~LqU  → a → b → w~LySWLwU
(1) a – Bronchi, b – Larynx
(1) a – w~yj]W¥, b – y~jSkaWU
(2) a – Trachea, b – Larynx
(2) a – w~LyjLtU, b – y~jSkaWU
(3) a – Bronchioles, b – Trachea (3) a –w~yj]WW¥, b – w~LyjLtU

(4) a – Trachea, b – Bronchi (4) a – w~LyjLtU, b – w~yj]W¥

M-1 -19- P.T.O.

Class – VIII SAT

68. The functional unit of the kidney is 68. vQ¨pORa i¡okqoLp ZaW
°tLeV
(1) Nephron
(1) RjSNlL¦
(2) Cortex
(2) SWL¡ŸWõV

(3) Glomerulus (3) SYæLorOsyV

(4) Medulla (4) RocOsæ

69. Which one of the following statements 69. \OvRa j¤W]pvp]¤ wSvLk^}v]
is correct about saprophytes ? WRtWOr]\ÿV wq]pLp NkñLvj JfV ?
(1) ^s¾]jOU sve¾]jOoLp]
(1) Depend on host plant for water and Bf]Sgp yy|R¾
minerals. Bèp]¨OÐO.
(2) y~ÍoLp] BzLqU
(2) Prepare their own food.
j]¡o]¨OÐO.
(3) Depend on host plant for food. (3) BzLq¾]jLp] Bf]Sgp
yy|R¾ Bèp]¨OÐO.
(4) Take food from decayed organic (4)
AuOW]p RR^vvñO¨t]¤
matter. j]ÐOU BzLqU y~}Wq]¨OÐO.

70. Choose the correctly matched pair. 70.
wq]pLp] S^La] S\¡ÐfV
f]qR´aO¨OW.
(1) Priyanka – Tomato
(1) Nk]pË – f¨Lt]
(2) Neelima – Bitter gourd (2) j}s]o – kLv¤

(3) Jyothika – Pea (3) S^|Lf]W – kp¡

(4) Anagha – Brinjal (4) AjZ – vuOfj

M-1 -20-

Class – VIII SAT

71. part of a tank contains water. If 71.
KqO aLË]R£ nLYU R v ç o O º V .
20 litres more is required to fill the tank, C T a L Ë V j]rpL¢ 20 s]ã¡ RvçU
what is the capacity of the tank ? WPa] SveRoË]¤ aLË]R£ Swx]
IÍLeV ?
(1) 80 litres
(1) 80 s]ã¡
(2) 100 litres
(2) 100 s]ã¡
(3) 110 litres (3) 110 s]ã¡

(4) 70 litres (4) 70 s]ã¡

72. The sum of two numbers is 24 and their 72. qºV yUX|WtORa fOW 24 sOU
product is 120. What is the sum of their YOejlsU 120 BeV . AvpORa
reciprocals ? v|O¤NWo°tORa fOW IÍLeV ?
(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) 5 (3) 5

(4) (4)

73. The average of 3 numbers is 66. The 73. oPÐV yUX|WtORa wqLwq] 66 BeV.
first number is 2 times the second Bh| yUX| qºLoR¾ yUX|pORa
number and 3 times the third number. qºO oa°OU oPÐLoR¾ yUX|pORa
What is the first number ? oPÐO oa°OoLeV . IÐL¤ Bh|
yUX| IÍLeV ?
(1) 108
(1) 108
(2) 54
(2) 54
(3) 36
(3) 36
(4) 99
(4) 99
M-1 -21- P.T.O.

Class – VIII SAT

1 1 1 1
+ +
2 3
74. The simplified form of 2 3 74. 1 1 R£ sZOqPkU
1 1 1− ×
1− × 2 3
2 3

(1) 1 (1) 1

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) – 1 (4) – 1

75. If 1.5 x = 0.05 y, then what is the value y−x
75. 1.5 x = 0.05 y BpL¤ ?R£
y−x y+x
of ? v]s IÍLeV ?
y+x
29
(1)
29 (1)
30
30
29
29 (2)
(2) 31
31
28
28 (3)
(3) 30
30
30
30 (4)
(4) 31
31

76. The number that exactly divides 76. 3 41 + 3 42 + 3 43 + 3 44 + 3 45 Rj
341 + 342 + 343 + 344 + 345 is kP¡eoLp] zq]¨OÐ yUX|
(1) 4 (1) 4
(2) 5 (2) 5
(3) 11 (3) 11
(4) 17
(4) 17

M-1 -22-

Class – VIII SAT

77. How many squares are there in the grid 77.
fÐ]q]¨OÐ \fOq°tORa
given below ? NY]c]¤ INf yo\fOq°tOºV ?

(1) 16 (1) 16

(2) 30 (2) 30

(3) 24 (3) 24
(4) 29
(4) 29

78. What is the area of the shaded regular 78.
\]Nf¾]Rs vs]p yonO^Nf]SWLe
hexagon, if the largest equilateral ¾]R£kqÕtvV 9 \fOqè pPe]
triangle in the figure is 9 sq. units in ãLReË]¤ WrOÕ]\ÿ]q]¨OÐ yo
area ? xcVnO^¾]R£ kqÕtvV IÍLeV ?



(1) 6 sq. units (1) 6 \fOqè pPe]ãOW¥

(2) 4 sq. units (2) 4 \fOqè pPe]ãOW¥

(3) 12 sq. units (3) 12 \fOqè pPe]ãOW¥

(4) 9 sq. units (4) 9 \fOqè pPe]ãOW¥

M-1 -23- P.T.O.

Class – VIII SAT

79. Rohan is as much younger than Arjun 79. SqLz¢ A¡^OjRj¨L¥ INf
as he is older than Meena. The sum of
vpô]jO R\rOÕoLSeL ANfpOU
vpô]jO o}jRp¨L¥ NkLpU
ages of Arjun and Meena is 100 years. WPaOfsLeV . A¡^OjR£pOU o}j
How old is Rohan ? pORapOU vpôOWtORa fOW 100
BReË]¤ SqLzR£ vpôV INf ?
(1) 50
(1) 50
(2) 32 (2) 32

(3) 75 (3) 75

(4) 25 (4) 25

80. What is the least number which when 80. 9, 11, 13 IÐ} yUX|W¥ RWLºV
zq]¨OSÒL¥ pgLNWoU 1, 3, 5
divided by 9, 11 and 13 leaves 1, 3 and 5
IÐ}w]ì°¥ sn]¨OÐ yUX|
as the respective remainders ?
JfLeV ?
(1) 1287 (1) 1287

(2) 1279 (2) 1279

(3) 1280 (3) 1280

(4) 1290 (4) 1290

81. KqO yUX| Af]R£ oPÐ]¤
81. What is the number which is 10 more
KqO nLYR¾¨L¥ 10 WPaOfsL
than its one-third part ?
ReË]¤ yUX| JfLeV ?
(1) 15 (1) 15

(2) 12 (2) 12

(3) 18 (3) 18

(4) 25 (4) 25

M-1 -24-

Class – VIII SAT

82. What is the difference of two numbers 82. fOW 12 DU YOejlsU JãvOU
whose sum is 12 and product is WPaOfsOoLp yUX|WtORa
maximum ? v|f|LyU IÍLeV ?
(1) 3 (1) 3
(2) 0 (2) 0
(3) 1 (3) 1
(4) 6 (4) 6

83. The figure contains 5 identical 83. \]Nf¾]¤ KSqSkLsOç 5
KqO pPe]ãV vwoOç yo\fOq
squares of side 1 unit. Which of the °¥ DºV . \OvRa RWLaO¾]
following can be the length of AB ? q]¨OÐvp]¤ AB pORa j}tU
BWLvOÐfV JfLeV ?




3
(1) Unit
5 (1) 3 pPe]ãV
5
1
(2) Unit
3 (2) 1 pPe]ãV
3
2
(3) Unit
3 (3) 2 pPe]ãV
3
2 2
(4) Unit (4) pPe]ãV
5 5

1
1
84. (0.000008) 3 R£
? v]s IÍV ?
84. What is the value of (0.000008) ?3

(1) 0.02
(1) 0.02
(2) 0.04
(2) 0.04

(3) 0.08 (3) 0.08

(4) 0.4 (4) 0.4
M-1 -25- P.T.O.

Class – VIII SAT

85. What day will be 81 days after today, if 85.
CÐR¾ h]vyU `LprLuV\ÿpL
today is Sunday ? ReË]¤ 81 h]vyU Wu]´Oç
h]vyU JfLeV ?
(1) Friday
(1) Rvç]pLuV \ ÿ
(2) Thursday (2) v|LuLuV \ ÿ

(3) Monday (3) f]ËtLuV \ ÿ
(4) R\Lvÿ L uV \ ÿ
(4) Tuesday

86. The number which is 60% less 86. 60 R£ 60% WOrvLp yUX|
than 60
(1) 22
(1) 22
(2) 24
(2) 24
(3) 20
(3) 20
(4) 21
(4) 21

87. Find the angle marked as x in the figure 87. \]Nf¾]¤ x IÐO AapLt
of a regular octagon. RÕaO¾]p]q]¨OÐ yoAìnO^
¾]Rs SWL¦ WRº¾OW.



(1) 62.5°
(1) 62.5°
(2) 50°
(2) 50°
(3) 72°
(3) 72°
(4) 67.5°
(4) 67.5°
M-1 -26-

Class – VIII SAT

88. A person has some chickens and goats. 88. KqL¥¨V JfLjOU SWLu]WtOU BaO
If the number of heads is 48 and the WtOU DRºÐV WqOfOW. fsW¥
number of feets is 140, then how many I¹]pL¤ 48, WLsOW¥ I¹]pL¤
chickens are there ? 140. SWLu]WtORa I¹U INf ?

(1) 22 (1) 22

(2) 23 (2) 23

(3) 24 (3) 24

(4) 26 (4) 26

3 x
89. What is the value of x, if 89. 15 × 15 = 15 BpL¤ xR£ v]s
2 2 8
3 x

15 × 15 = 15 ?
2 2 8 IÍLeV ?

(1) 10 (1) 10

(2) 11 (2) 11

(3) 12 (3) 12

(4) 13 (4) 13

90. The difference between a two digit 90. KqO qº¨ yUX|pOU B yUX|pORa
number and the number obtained by A¨°¥ f]q]\ÿ ] Ÿ yUX|pOU
interchanging the position of its digits fÚ]sOç v|f|LyU 54 BeV .
is 54. What is the difference between yUX|pORa A¨°tORa v|f|LyU
the digits ? IÍLeV ?
(1) 2 (1) 2
(2) 4 (2) 4
(3) 6 (3) 6
(4) 8 (4) 8
–––––––––––––––

M-1 -27- P.T.O.

Class – VIII SAT
Space for rough work

M-1 -28-

Class – VIII SAT
Space for rough work

M-1 -29- P.T.O.

Class – VIII SAT
Space for rough work

M-1 -30-