CUSAT CAT 2024 Question Paper LLM

Entrance Exam
2024

QUESTION
PAPER

LLM

1. What would be the antonym of "Ineffable"?

(A) Expressive
(B) Mundane
(C) Eloquent
(D) Articulate

2. Identify the antonym of "Sycophant."

(A) Conformist
(B) Flatterer
(C) Nonconformist
(D) Critic

3. What would be the antonym of "Surreptitious"?

(A) Covert
(B) Stealthy
(C) Overt
(D) Furtive

4. What is the synonym of "Ubiquitous"?

(A) Limited
(B) Widespread
(C) Pervasive
(D) Commonplace

5. What is the synonym of "Supercilious"?

(A) Arrogant
(B) Humble
(C) Pompous
(D) Ostentatious

6. What would be the synonym of "Ephemeral"?

(A) Lasting
(B) Fleeting
(C) Permanent
(D) Perpetual

7. Which part of the sentence contains a semantic error?

The author inferred several conclusions from the data, however, some were
contradicting each other

(A) The author inferred
(B) several conclusions
(C) however
(D) contradicting each other

8. What does the idiom "Throw in the towel" mean?

(A) To surrender or give up
(B) To use a towel for cleaning
(C) To engage in a fight
(D) To dry oneself quickly

9. Identify the correct meaning of the phrase "Through thick and thin":

(A) During challenging and easy times
(B) Only during difficult times
(C) Despite thickness and thinness
(D) Across a long distance

10. Change the following sentence to passive voice:

The committee should reconsider the proposal before making a decision

(A) The proposal should be reconsidered by the committee before making a
decision
(B) The proposal should have been reconsidered by the committee before making a
decision
(C) The proposal should reconsider by the committee before making a decision
(D) The proposal should has been reconsidering by the committee before making a
decision

11. Antonym of word 'Arraignment' is

(A) Incriminate
(B) Exonerate
(C) Inculpate
(D) Indict

12. Direction: Correct the following sentence by choosing the correct alternative that can
replace the words given in bold

The Moscow State orchestra "had been performing" in Cheltenham for the next
three weeks

(A) Is performing
(B) Are performing
(C) Will be performing
(D) Have performing

13. "One who pretends to be somebody else" is called

(A) Narcissist
(B) Imposter
(C) Apostate
(D) Stoic

14. Impasse means

(A) Hidden
(B) Open to public
(C) Deadlock
(D) Choice

15. Change the sentence from direct to indirect speech

"I said to him, Why are you working so hard?"

(A) I asked him why he was working so hard
(B) I asked him why was he working so hard
(C) I asked him why had he been working so hard
(D) I asked him why he had been working so hard

Direction: Read the following passage and answer the question given below:

Because goldfish can be kept easily in small ponds and aquariums, they make good
pets, but like many other pets, they must have proper care and the right kind of place
to live.
A two inch fish requires a minimum of two gallons of water containing sufficient
oxygen to support life. Some oxygen will make its way into the water of an aquarium
from the air that touches the surface. Plants in an aquarium also help to furnish
oxygen. Snails help to keep an aquarium clean. Thus, with plenty of plants and snail,
the water in an aquarium does not have to be changed frequently. A large lake may
prove to be a quite unsuitable abode for goldfish.

It is important that goldfish should not be overfed. They can be fed such things as
dried insects in addition to commercially prepared goldfish food, but they should
never be fed more than once a day. Even then, they should not be given more food
than can be consumed in about five minutes. This ensures prolonged life for them.

16. Which of the following statement is true?

(A) Goldfish should be given food only once a day
(B) Snails eat up the goldfish in an aquarium
(C) Plants provide food to the snails
(D) Goldfish comes above the surface of water to get oxygen from air

17. Which of the following statements is not true?

(A) Snails make the aquarium clean by eating up goldfish
(B) Two gallons of water with sufficient oxygen is enough for two inch fish
(C) Goldfish can be made good pets
(D) Plants in an aquarium provide oxygen to goldfish

18. Which of the following helps supply goldfish with oxygen?

(A) Snails
(B) Plants
(C) Dried insects
(D) Aquarium

19. Water in an aquarium needs to be changed if

(A) there are plenty of snails and plants in it
(B) there is no sufficient oxygen in it
(C) it is very clean and contains sufficient oxygen
(D) it does not contain goldfish food and dried insects

20. What is important to remember when feeding goldfish?

(A) They should be fed more than once a day
(B) They should be fed at five-minute intervals
(C) They should be fed with plants and snails
(D) They should be fed only once a day

21. Direction: The following question consists of a series, the parts of which are jumbled.
These parts have been labeled as P, Q, R & S. Given below each sentence has
sequences namely A, B, C& D. You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the
sentence and mark your response accordingly

The urban local body elections(P) unidentified gunmen(Q) and injured another
during (R )Shot dead two workers (S)
(A) QSRP
(B) PQSR
(C) SPRQ
(D) RPSQ

22. Direction: The following question consists of six sentences of a passage. The first
and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four
sentences in each have been jumbled up and labeled as P, Q, R and S. You are
required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your
response accordingly

S 1: The Indian Civil Service gradually developed into one of the most efficient
and powerful civil services in the world.
S 6: though these qualities obviously served British, and not Indian interests

P and often participated in the making of policy
Q independence, integrity and hard work
R They developed certain traditions of
S Its members exercised vast power

The proper sequence should be

(A) PQRS
(B) QRSP
(C) RSQP
(D) SPRQ

23. Out of the four alternatives, choose the word which can substitute for the sentence
given

A person who thinks only about himself and not about others needs

(A) Egocentric
(B) Egomaniacal
(C) Egoistic
(D) Egotistic

24. Out of the four alternatives, choose the word which can substitute for the sentence
given

An expert in the area of the fine or other arts

(A) Neophyte
(B) Amateur
(C) Connoisseur
(D) Enthusiast

25. Out of the four alternatives, choose the word which can substitute for the given
sentence/words

Knowing everything

(A) Omnigenous
(B) Omnipotent
(C) Omnipresent
(D) Omniscient

26. Which international organization plays a crucial role in mediating global trade
disputes and promoting free trade agreements?

(A) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(B) World Trade Organization (WTO)
(C) United Nations (UN)
(D) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)

27. What emerging security challenges are most likely to shape the defense policies of
many nations in the coming decade?

(A) Traditional warfare
(B) Cybersecurity threats
(C) Nuclear proliferation
(D) Regional conflicts

28. Which annual meeting brings together world leaders, policymakers, and business
executives to discuss global economic issues and is held in the Swiss Alps?

(A) G20 Summit
(B) Davos World Economic Forum
(C) United Nations General Assembly
(D) NATO Summit

29. The Paris Agreement, a global effort to address climate change, was adopted at which
international conference?

(A) COP21
(B) G7 Summit
(C) APEC Summit
(D) Rio+20 Earth Summit

30. Who was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2021 for efforts to combat hunger and for
acting as a driving force in efforts to prevent the use of hunger as a weapon of war?

(A) Malala Yousafzai
(B) World Food Programme
(C) Greta Thunberg
(D) Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation

31. The October Revolution in Russia in 1917 led to the establishment of which political
system?

(A) Democracy
(B) Fascism
(C) Communism
(D) Monarchy

32. Which among the following is the correct distance from the coast for Territorial waters?

(A) 20 Nautical Miles
(B) 30 Nautical Miles
(C) 12 Nautical Miles
(D) 15 Nautical Miles

33. World Economic Outlook is a survey conducted and published by the……………

(A) World Economic Forum
(B) World Bank
(C) World Trade Organization
(D) International Monetary Fund

34. Nisha Dahia, who was seen in the news, plays which sports?

(A) Cricket
(B) Hockey
(C) Wrestling
(D) Athletics

35. China claims which region/country as its “sacred territory”?

(A) Tibet
(B) Hong Kong
(C) Taiwan
(D) Macau

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36. Which country hosted 19 Summit of the Non-Aligned Movement, 2024?

(A) India
(B) Uganda
(C) Azerbaijan
(D) South Africa

37. Narges Mohammadi, who won 2023 Nobel Prize for Peace, is from which country?

(A) Israel
(B) Iran
(C) UAE
(D) Oman

38. According to a recent WHO report, 188.3 million people in India suffer from which
health condition, while only 37% get diagnosed for it?

(A) Diabetes
(B) Hyper-tension
(C) Arthritis
(D) Asthma

39. The ‘Vote from Home’ Initiative has been introduced for the first time in the
Assembly Elections of which state?

(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Odisha

40. Which Vitamin is known as hormone Vitamin?

(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin B
(C) Vitamin C
(D) Vitamin D

41 International Criminal Court has issued an arrest warrant against the President of
which Country in the month of March, 2023?

(A) UK
(B) Russia
(C) North Korea
(D) Sri Lanka

42. National Good Governance Day is celebrated in the memory of

(A) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(B) Indira Gandhi
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru

43. Which of the following statement fits best for the definition of the word ‘Recession’?

(A) Business cycle contraction occurs when there is a general decline in economic
activity
(B) The rate of increase in prices over some time
(C) Setting limits on purchasing certain high demand items
(D) None of the above

44. Which one of the following would be considered as part of its ‘social capital’ ?

(A) Proportion of literates in the population
(B) The Stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines
(C) The size of the population in working age group
(D) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society

45. A person with ‘AB’ blood group is sometimes called a universal recipient because of
the

(A) lack of antigen in his blood
(B) lack of antibodies in his blood
(C) lack of both antigen and antibodies in his blood
(D) presence of both antigen and antibodies in his blood

46. Antigen is a substance which

(A) lowers body temperature
(B) destroys harmful bacteria
(C) triggers the immune system
(D) is used as an antidote to poison

47. Karl Marx explained the process of class struggle with the help of which one of the
following theories?

(A) Empirical liberalism
(B) Existentialism
(C) Darwin’s theory of evolution
(D) Dialectical materialism

48. To obtain full benefits of demographic dividend, what should India do?

(A) Promote skill development
(B) Introduce more social security schemes
(C) Reducing infant mortality rate
(D) Privatisation of higher education

49. Which of the following regions in India represents lowest altitude?

(A) Kuttanad region of Kerala
(B) Saurashtra region of Karnataka
(C) Coromandel of Tamilnadu
(D) Malabar region of Kerala

50. Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) has declared 2023 as
the International year of

(A) Corn
(B) Millets
(C) Seeds
(D) Pepper

Direction: In the given question below is given a statement followed by two courses
of action numbered I and II. You have assume everything in the statement to be true
and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decided which of the
suggested courses of action logically follow(s).

51. Statement : There is a proposal for the Maharashtra government to clear the
slum areas in Mumbai for beautification and economic
development
Courses of Action:
(I) The Maharashtra Government should compensate the
affected persons with reasonable amount
(II) The Maharashtra Government should stop beautification
and economic development work immediately

(A) If only course of action (I) follow
(B) If only course of action (II) follow
(C) If both (I) and (II) follows
(D) If neither course of action (I) nor (II) follows

Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions given below.

Mr Bankatlal acted as a judge for the beauty contest. There were four participants,
viz. Ms Andhra Pradesh, Ms Uttar Pradesh, Ms West Bangal and Ms Maharashtra.
Mrs Bankatlal, who was very anxious about the result asked about it as soon as he
was back home. Mr Bankatlal told her just that the one who was wearing the yellow
saree won the contest. When Mrs Bankatlal pressed for further details, he elaborated
as follows:

(i) All of them were sitting in a row
(ii) All of them wore sarees of different colours, viz. green, yellow, white, red
(iii) There was only one runner-up and she was sitting beside Ms Maharashtra
(iv) The runner-up was wearing the green saree
(v) Ms West Bengal was not sitting at the end and was not the runner-up.
(vi) The winner and the runner up are not sitting adjacent to each other
(vii) Ms Maharashtra was wearing a white saree.
(viii) Ms Andhra Pradesh was wearing a green saree
(ix) Participants wearing yellow saree and white saree were at the ends

52. Who wore the red saree?

(A) Ms Andhra Pradesh
(B) Ms West Bangal
(C) Ms Uttar Pradesh
(D) Ms Maharashtra

53. Ms West Bengal was sitting adjacent to

(A) Ms Andhra Pradesh and Ms Maharashtra
(B) Ms Uttar Pradesh and Ms Maharashtra
(C) Ms Andhra Pradesh and Ms Uttar Pradesh
(D) Ms Uttar Pradesh only

54. Which saree was worn by Ms Andhra Pradesh?

(A) Yellow
(B) Red
(C) Green
(D) White

55. Who was the runner-up?
(A) Ms Andhra Pradesh
(B) Ms West Bengal
(C) Ms Uttar Pradesh
(D) Ms Maharashtra

56. Who was the winner of the beauty contest?

(A) Ms Andhra Pradesh
(B) Ms West Bengal
(C) Ms Uttar Pradesh
(D) Ms Maharashtra

Direction: Read the following and answer the questions given below.

P, Q, R, S, T went on a picnic. P is the son of Q but Q is not the father of P. R is the
son of S, who is the brother of P. T is the wife of S

57. How is P related to S?

(A) Nephew
(B) Brother
(C) Father
(D) None of the above

58. How many males are present in this group?

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions given below.

A, B, C and D are four friends living together in a flat and they have an agreement that
whatever edible comes they will share equally among themselves. One day A’s uncle
came to him and gave him a box of laddoos. Since no one was around, A divided the
laddoos in four equal parts and ate his share after which he put the rest in the box. As
he was closing the box, B walked in, took the Box from A and divided the ladoos in 4
equal parts and A and B took one part each and ate it. Suddenly C appeared and
snatched the box. He again divided the laddoos in four equal parts, the three of them
ate one part each and kept the remaining laddoos in the box. Later when D came he
again divided the laddoos in four equal parts and all four ate their respective share. In
total D ate 3 laddoos.

59. How many laddoos, in total did C eat?

(A) 12
(B) 15
(C) 39
(D) None of the above

60. How many laddoos, in total did B eat?

(A) 24
(B) 15
(C) 39
(D) None of the above

61. How many laddoos, in total did A eat?

(A) 56
(B) 68
(C) 71
(D) None of the above

62. How many laddoos were given to A by his Uncle?

(A) 128
(B) 125
(C) 113
(D) None of the above

63. How many laddoos did A eat the first time?

(A) 32
(B) 24
(C) 15
(D) None of the above

64. Which among the following illustrations specifies the correct mirror image of
P E R F E C T I O N?

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Direction: In the given question, two statements are given and these statements are
followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given two
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.
Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

65. Statement: Good voice is a natural gift but one has to keep practicing to improve
and excel well in the field of music
Conclusions:
I. Natural gifts need nurturing and care
II. Even though your voice is not good, one can keep practicing

(A) If only conclusion I follows
(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) If both I and II follow
(D) If neither I nor II follows

Directions: In each of the following question, two statements numbered I and II are
given. There may be cause and effect relationship between the two statements. These
two statements may be the effect of the same cause or independent causes. These
statements may be independent causes without having any relationship. Read both the
statements and chose the correct alternative.

66. Statement: I The prices of petrol and diesel in the domestic market have remained
unchanged for the past few months
Statement: II The crude oil prices in the international market have gone up
substantially in the last few months

(A) If both the statements I and II are independent causes
(B) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
(C) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
(D) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect

67. 6, 11, 21, 36, 56, ?

(A) 51
(B) 61
(C) 81
(D) 41

68. A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench. A is sitting next to B, C is sitting next to D, D
is not sitting with E who is on the left end of the bench. C is on the second position
from the right. A is to the right of B and E. A and C are sitting together. In which
position A is sitting?

(A) Between B and D
(B) Between B and C
(C) Between E and D
(D) Between C and E

69. Find the statement that must be true according to the given information.

Vincent has a paper route. Each morning, he delivers 37 newspapers to customers in
his neighborhood. It takes Vincent 50 minutes to deliver all the papers. If Vincent is
sick or has other plans, his friend Thomas, who lives on the same street, will
sometimes deliver the papers for him

(A) Vincent and Thomas live in the same neighborhood
(B) It takes Thomas more than 50 minutes to deliver the papers
(C) It is dark outside when Vincent begins his deliveries
(D) Thomas would like to have his own paper route

70. Find the statement that must be true according to the given information.

Georgia is older than her cousin Marsha. Marsha's brother Bart is older than Georgia.
When Marsha and Bart are visiting with Georgia, all three like to play a game of
Monopoly. Marsha wins more often than Georgia does

(A) When he plays Monopoly with Marsha and Georgia, Bart always wins
(B) Of the three, Georgia is the oldest
(C) Georgia hates to lose at Monopoly
(D) Of the three, Marsha is the youngest

71. Direction: In the given question below, two statements numbered I and II are given.
There may be cause and effect relationship between the two statements. These two
statements may be effect of same cause or independent cause. These statements may
be independent causes without having any relationship. Read the both statements and
choose the correct answer.

Statement: I India has surpassed the value of tea exports this year over all the
earlier years due to an increase in demand for quality tea in the
European market
Statement: II There is an increase in demand of coffee in the domestic market
during the last two years

(A) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
(B) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
(C) Both the statements I and II are independent causes
(D) Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes

72. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence

i. Index ii. Contents iii. Title iv. Chapters v. Introduction

(A) ii, iii, iv, v, i
(B) iii, ii, i, iv, v
(C) iii, ii, v, iv, i
(D) iii, i, ii, iv, v

73. Choose the word which is different from the rest

(A) Sambhar
(B) Dal
(C) Baikal
(D) Siachen

74. 589654237, 89654237, 8965423, 965423, ?

(A) 58965
(B) 65423
(C) 89654
(D) 96542

75. A pineapple costs `7 each. A watermelon costs `5 each. X spends `38 on these fruits.
The number of pineapples purchased is

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) Data inadequate

76. If the BLOOD is coded as 23113 and BRUST as 20678, then code for ROBUST is

(A) 620781
(B) 012678
(C) 678102
(D) 610732

77. How much of water is to be added to 75 ml. of alcohol so that the mixture contains
25% of alcohol?

(A) 100 ml
(B) 225 ml
(C) 250 ml
(D) 125 ml

Directions: Consider the following information and answer the five questions that
follow.

There are five persons in a group - P, Q, R, S and T. The group has one Doctor one
Lawyer and one Artist. P and S are unmarried students. T is a man married to one of
the group members. Q is the brother of P and is neither doctor nor Artist. R is not
Doctor.

78. Who is the Doctor?

(A) T
(B) P
(C) Q
(D) R

79. Who is the Artist?

(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) T

80. Who is the Spouse of R ?

(A) P
(B) T
(C) Q
(D) S

81. Who is the Lawyer?

(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) S

82. Who of the following is definitely a man?

(A) P
(B) S
(C) Q
(D) None of the above

83. Examine the following statements:

(1) Processed meat is perishable food
(2) All perishable foods are packed in sealed tins
(3) Sealed tins sometimes do not contain processed meat

Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?

(A) Sealed tins always contain perishable food
(B) Processed meat is sometimes not packed in sealed tins
(C) Processed meat is always packed in sealed tins
(D) Non perishable food are never packed in sealed tins

84. In the given question, a pair of words is given which are followed by another four
pairs. From the given four pairs you have to choose the one which has the same
relationship on the one pair given first.

Error : Inexperienced

(A) Clever : Wisdom
(B) Loss : Carelessness
(C) Loss : Business
(D) Qualification : Promotion

85. In the given question, a pair of words is given which are followed by another four
pairs. From the given four pairs you have to choose the one which has the same
relationship on the one pair given first.

Hygrometer : Thermometer

(A) Water : Mercury
(B) Temperature : Weather
(C) Humidity : Temperature
(D) Snow: Rain

Direction: In the given question below is given a statement followed by two
arguments numbered I and II. You have assume everything in the statement to be true
and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decided which of the
argument(s) are strong.

86. Statement : India should have a very strong and powerful Lokpal
Argument I: Yes it will go a long way in elimination of corruption in the
bureaucracy
Argument II: It will discourage honest officers in making quick decisions

(A) Only argument I is strong
(B) Only argument II is strong
(C) Both the arguments are strong
(D) Neither of the argument is strong

Direction: Read the information carefully and answer the questions based on it.

Six Persons are sitting in a circle. A is facing to B. B is to the right of E and left of C. C
is the left of D. F is to the right of A. Now D exchanges his seat with F and E with B.

87. Who will be sitting to the left of D ?

(A) B
(B) F
(C) E
(D) A

88. Who will be sitting to the left of C ?

(A) E
(B) F
(C) A
(D) B

89. Who will be sitting opposite to A ?

(A) E
(B) F
(C) D
(D) B

90. Who will be sitting opposite of C ?

(A) E
(B) D
(C) B
(D) A

91. If the first and second letters in the word ‘DEPRESSION’ were interchanged, also the
third and fourth letters the fifth and the sixth letters and so on, which of the following
would be the seventh letter from the right

(A) R
(B) O
(C) S
(D) P

92. Choose the number pair/group which is different from others?

(A) 7:22
(B) 8:33
(C) 12:37
(D) 13:40

93. Arrange the following in the logical order

1. Euphoria
2. Happiness
3. Ambivalence
4. Ecstasy
5. Pleasure

(A) 1, 4, 2, 5, 3
(B) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
(C) 3, 2, 5, 1, 4
(D) 4, 1,3, 2, 5

94. Choose from the following alternative, which will replace the question mark

Vaunt : flaunt : : Disperate: ?

(A) Similar
(B) Homogenous
(C) Contrast
(D) Alike

95. Direction: For the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) choose the correct alternative from
the following.

Assertion (A): Pressure cookers are fitted with ebonite handles
Reason (R) : Ebonite is strong

(A) Both A and R are true. R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

96. In the certain code CLOCK is written as KCOLC. How would START be written in
code

(A) TRATS
(B) TARTS
(C) SRTAT
(D) TARST

97. A person have some hens and cows, the total number of heads of these hens and cows
are 48 and legs are 140. How many hens that person is having?

(A) 22
(B) 23
(C) 24
(D) 26

98. The number of girls in a class is 5 times the number of boys. Which of the following
number cannot be the total number of children in the class?

(A) 35
(B) 24
(C) 42
(D) 30

99. The sequence of number of public participating in an event year after year is
4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49,...... etc. The next number in the sequence is

(A) 53
(B) 62
(C) 64
(D) 68

100. 20 years ago, my age was 1/3rd of what it is now. What is my present age?

(A) 66 years

(B) 36 years
(C) 33 years
(D) 30 years

101. In a scenario where the same set of facts gives rise to both a civil suit and a criminal
trial, what is the appropriate course of action?

(A) The civil suit should be stayed
(B) The criminal case should be stayed
(C) The civil suit should be quashed
(D) Both should be simultaneously carried out
102. Who said that, “the law of every modern state shows at a thousand points the
influence of both the accepted social morality and wider moral ideal”?

(A) Salmond
(B) Hart
(C) Austin
(D) Korkunov

103. What are the essentials of a partnership? Answer using the codes given below:

1. A contract of two or more competent person
2. Agreement to share profits
3. Mutual agency
4. Lawful business

(A) Only 1, 2, and 3
(B) Only 1, 2 and 4
(C) Only 1,3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

104. In which of the following cases the principle of ‘Injuria sine damnum’ was
recognized?

(A) Reyland V. Flecker
(B) Ashby V. White
(C) Ashdown V. Samuel Williams
(D) PemaChibber V. Union of India

105. According to company law, who possesses the authority to dismiss a director from
office?

1. Executive Officers
2. Auditors
3. Registrar of Companies
4. Shareholders in a general meeting

(A) Only 1 and 2 are correct
(B) Only 2 and 3 are correct
(C) Only 3 and 4 are correct
(D) Only 4 is correct

106. The term Hindu denotes the person

1. Professing Hindu religion
2. Professing Budha, Jain or Sikh religion
3. Who are not professing Muslim, Christian, Parsi or Jew religion

(A) Only 1 and 2 are correct
(B) Only 2 and 3 are correct
(C) Only 3 is correct
(D) All are correct

107. Where property is transferred subject to a condition or limitation absolutely
restraining the transferee or any person claiming under him from parting with or
disposing of his interest in the property, the condition or limitation is

(A) Illegal
(B) Void
(C) Bad
(D) Voidable

108. A suit to obtain a decree that a mortgagor shall be absolutely debarred of his right to
redeem the mortgaged property is called

(A) A suit for recovery of dues
(B) A suit for foreclosure.
(C) A suit for money decree
(D) None of the above

109. Kyoto protocol is related to

(A) Population
(B) Resources
(C) Global Warming
(D) Pollution

110. What is the object of the “polluter pays principle” ?

(A) Pure deterrents effect
(B) Retributive effect
(C) Ensure the victims of damage are compensated as well as the degradation so
caused to environment is mitigated.
(D) None of the above

111. The Rio Declaration is also known as

(A) Earth Summit
(B) Global Investors Summit
(C) Global Maritime Summit
(D) None of the above

112. Under the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition, and
Redressal) Act, 2013, which of the following entities is mandated to constitute an
Internal Complaint Committee (ICC)?

(A) Organizations with five or more employees
(B) Organizations with ten or more employees
(C) Only government organizations
(D) Organizations with twenty or more employees

113. A ………. is a network security system that uses rules to control incoming and
outgoing network traffic

(A) Key Logger
(B) Talnet
(C) Spyware
(D) Firewall

114. What is the meaning of ‘Pacta sunt servanda’ in legal terms?

(A) Treaties are legally binding
(B) Treaties are not legally binding
(C) Goods without an owner
(D) to make a will

115. “Ground norm” is the basic hypothesis of

(A) HLA Hart
(B) Kelson
(C) Savigny
(D) Duguit

116. Specific relief can be granted only for the purpose of

(A) Enforcing individual civil rights and not for the mere purpose of enforcing a
penal law
(B) Enforcing individual fundamental rights
(C) Enforcing individual criminal rights only
(D) Enforcing individual civil rights as well as criminal rights

117. The famous case of "D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal" contains the guidelines in
which respect?

(A) Arrest of persons
(B) Right to fair and speedy trial
(C) Grant of anticipatory bail
(D) All of these

118. Which one of the following is not a school of Sunni Law?

(A) Hanafi
(B) Maliki
(C) Shafii
(D) Mutazilas

119. Right to lodge a 'caveat' has been provided under which Section of the Code of Civil
Procedure?

(A) Section 148
(B) Section 148-A
(C) Section 149
(D) Section 147

120. Tape-recorded conversation is admissible in evidence if

(A) conversation is very important
(B) conversation can save the culprit
(C) conversation is relevant to the matters in issue but the voice is unidentified
(D) conversation is relevant to the matters in issue and the voice is identified

121. Fiction Theory is related to which of the following concepts?

(A) Ownership
(B) Liability
(C) Justice
(D) Legal personality

122. A statement made by any person to a police officer in the course of an investigation

(A) cannot be used for any purpose
(B) can be used in favour of that person
(C) can be used against that person
(D) cannot be used for any purpose except for the purpose of contradicting a
witness

123. The law relating to the payment of damages is based on the leading English case of

(A) Hadley v. Baxendale
(B) Hobbs v. London Rly. Co.
(C) Hadley v. Sullivan
(D) None of the above

124. The power to order rectification of register of members vests in the

(A) Court
(B) Company Law Board
(C) Central Govt.
(D) Board of Directors

125. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List-I List-II
(a) Abuse of Discretion (i) Rule of Law
(b) Equality before Law (ii) Lack of Power
(c) Delegated Legislation (iii) Check and Balance
(d) Separation of Powers (iv) Subordinate Legislation

(A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(B) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(C) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(D) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

126. The delivery of goods by one person to another for some specific purpose is known as

(A) Bailment
(B) Pledge
(C) Hypothecation
(D) Mortgage

127. “As per GST Law only citizen of India can act as GST practitioner”.

The above statement is

(A) False
(B) True
(C) Partly True
(D) None of the above

128. Which of the following is not included under the definition of wages given under the
Payment of Wages Act, 1936?

(A) Basic Wage
(B) Dearness Allowance
(C) Incentive
(D) Gratuity

129. Which of the following is not included in taxable income

(A) Income from smuggling activity
(B) Casual income
(C) Gifts of personal nature subject to a maximum of `50,000 received in cash
(D) Income received in kind

130. “Law is the abstract expressions of the general will existing in and for itself” – who
made this definition?

(A) Blackstone
(B) Immaneul Kank
(C) Maine
(D) Hegel

131. Mention the reason for growth of delegated legislation

(A) pressure and busy on parliament time
(B) technicality of subject matter and flexibility
(C) expediency and emergency
(D) All of the above

132. The Muslim women (Protection or Rights on Divorce) Act 1986 was enacted to
snatch away the Law laid down in

(A) Mohirbibi v. Dharmadas
(B) Ameena’s case
(C) Shah Bano case
(D) Mrs.Jordan Diengdah V.Chopra

133. Doctrine of ‘Pith and Substance’ relates to

(A) Interpretation of statutes to solve the problem of competing legislature in the
same field
(B) Serve the objectionable portions of the statute that violate Fundamental Rights
(C) Interpretation of statutes to solve problems arising out of territorial nexus
(D) Interpretation of statutes to solve problems of waiver of Fundamental Rights

134. During National Emergency, which of the following articles of the Indian
Constitution cannot be suspended

(A) Articles 20 and 21
(B) Articles 18 and 19
(C) Articles 22 and 23
(D) Articles 24 and 25

135. Which article of the Indian Constitution speaks about the participation of workers in
the Management of undertakings?

(A) 42
(B) 43
(C) 43A
(D) 44

136. ‘Safe Harbour Principle’ is associated with which Act?

(A) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(B) The Major Port Authorities Act, 2021
(C) The Information Technology Act,2000
(D) The Maintenance and; Welfare of Parents and; Senior Citizens Act,2007

137. The combination of these three articles is regarded as a golden triangle by Supreme
Court

(A) Articles 14,15 and 16
(B) Articles 32,226 and13
(C) Articles 23,24 and 25
(D) Articles 14,19 and 21

138. When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or to abstain from doing
anything with a view to obtaining the assent of that other person to such act or
abstinence he is said to make a

(A) Consideration
(B) Promise
(C) Proposal
(D) Consent

139. Ownership to copyright and goodwill of a business is

(A) Contingent ownership
(B) Beneficial ownership
(C) Corporeal Ownership
(D) Incorporeal ownership

140. In which year Forest Conservation Act was passed?

(A) 1986
(B) 1990
(C) 1980
(D) 1988

141. Of the below one that is not a distinct punishment is

(A) Death penalty
(B) Solitary confinement
(C) Life imprisonment
(D) Imprisonment

142. Which among following case struck down Sec.497 of Indian Penal Code?

(A) Navtej Singh Johar case
(B) Waman Rao Case
(C) Joseph Shine Case
(D) None of the above

143. Which among the following resulted in the evolution of Creamy Layer system?

(A) Indra Swahney Case
(B) IR Coleho v. Union of India
(C) State of Tamilnadu v. Shyam Sunder
(D) None of the above

144. One of the major differences between lease and license is that lease is…………while
License is……………..

(A) heritable, not heritable
(B) not heritable, heritable
(C) not assignable, assignable
(D) revocable, non revocable

145. According to positive law of John Austin, the law is

(A) ‘as it is’
(B) ‘Ought to be’
(C) both ‘as it is’ and “ought to be”
(D) None of the above

146. A contract by which one party promises the other party to save from loss which may
be caused either by the conduct of the promisor or by the conduct of any other person
is called as

(A) Contract of Bailment
(B) Contract of Guarantee
(C) Contract of Pledge
(D) Contract of Indemnity

147. ……………. is the attempt by cybercriminals posing as legitimate institutions,
usually via email to obtain sensitive information from targeted individuals

(A) Skimming
(B) Denial of service attack
(C) Hacking
(D) Phishing

148. If the company develops a new technology that improves the main product, what type
of intellectual property right can they use to stop others from copying their inventions

(A) Copyright
(B) Indications
(C) Designs
(D) Patents

149. The money or property given or agreed to be given by bridegroom to his bride in a
muslim marriage is

(A) Shukrana
(B) Mehr
(C) Dowry
(D) Mewa Khori

150. The law which governs disputes among nationals of different countries is called

(A) World Law
(B) Global Law
(C) Private International Law
(D) Public International Law

ANSWER KEY
Subject Name: 610 LAW (FOR LLM)
SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key
1 A 31 C 61 C 91 D 121 D
2 D 32 C 62 A 92 B 122 D
3 C 33 D 63 A 93 C 123 A
4 C 34 C 64 C 94 C 124 B
5 A 35 C 65 A 95 C 125 A
6 B 36 B 66 B 96 A 126 A
7 D 37 B 67 C 97 D 127 B
8 A 38 B 68 B 98 A 128 D
9 A 39 B 69 A 99 C 129 C
10 A 40 D 70 D 100 D 130 D
11 B 41 B 71 C 101 A 131 D
12 C 42 A 72 C 102 B 132 C
13 B 43 A 73 D 103 D 133 A
14 C 44 D 74 D 104 B 134 A
15 A 45 B 75 C 105 D 135 C
16 A 46 C 76 B 106 D 136 C
17 A 47 D 77 B 107 B 137 D
18 B 48 A 78 A 108 B 138 C
19 B 49 A 79 C 109 C 139 D
20 D 50 B 80 B 110 C 140 C
21 A 51 A 81 B 111 A 141 B
22 D 52 B 82 C 112 B 142 C
23 A 53 C 83 C 113 D 143 A
24 C 54 C 84 B 114 A 144 A
25 D 55 A 85 C 115 B 145 A
26 B 56 C 86 A 116 A 146 D
27 B 57 B 87 D 117 A 147 D
28 B 58 C 88 A 118 D 148 D
29 A 59 B 89 A 119 B 149 B
30 B 60 C 90 B 120 D 150 C

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