CUSAT CAT 2024 Question Paper LLM IPR, LLM IP Ph.D

Entrance Exam
2024

QUESTION
PAPER

LLM IPR/LLM IP PhD

1. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice
Robin rolled the marble through a small plastic pipe
(A) The marble was rolled by Robin in a small plastic pipe
(B) A small plastic pipe was rolled through a marble by Robin
(C) The marble was rolled through a small plastic pipe by Robin
(D) The marble through a small plastic pipe was rolled by Robin

2. Select the correct active form of the given sentence

The clothes will be delivered by the shop on Monday

(A) The shop will be delivering the clothes on Monday
(B) The shop will deliver the clothes on Monday
(C) The shop would be delivering the clothes on Monday
(D) The shop would deliver the clothes on Monday

3. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word

Exaltation

(A) Dejection
(B) Ecstasy
(C) Satisfaction
(D) Elaboration

4. The antonym for FLAGITIOUS

(A) Innocent
(B) Vapid
(C) Ignorant
(D) Frivolous

5. Select the word or phrase which is closes to the OPPOSITE (an antonym) in meaning
of the bold word or phrase.

The incessant noise of the boring machine made it difficult for us to get to sleep at
night

(A) Intermittent
(B) Harsh
(C) Soft
(D) constant

6. Replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the sentence grammatically correct

You need not come unless you want to

(A) You don't need to come unless you want to
(B) You come only when you want to
(C) You come unless you don't want to
(D) You needn't come until you don't want to

7. Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in
the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph

(i) Panther is reported to have broken into a house yesterday in search of food and
shelter
(ii) The villagers heard his cries and ran to the house but the scared animal had run
away through the window by then
(iii) It secretly slouched into a room where a young man named Johnny was
sleeping, who suddenly woke up and realised that the beast was roaming
around his bed
(iv) Just as the panther was about to leap on him, he swiftly shot out of bed and hid
in a closet

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
(C) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(D) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)

8. Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order

Michael Holding, who

P 20 years, has finally drawn curtains on
Q commentary panel for more than
R was a member of the Sky Sports
S his stint behind the microphone

(A) RQPS
(B) QPRS
(C) SPQR
(D) PSQR

9. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in below
sentence.

The new shop that opened last week has hardly sufficient stock of the products that it
advertised about

(A) hardly hadn’t
(B) hardly had
(C) hardly is having
(D) is had

10. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom

Bend over backwards

(A) To express sudden shock
(B) To exert a lot of effort towards some end
(C) To end all activities
(D) To confess to a crime

11. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom

Out for the count

(A) Very expensive
(B) Prepared for battle
(C) In a deep, insensible sleep
(D) Ready for scrutiny

12. Which sentence is grammatically correct?

(A) She is going to the store after she will finish her homework
(B) She goes to the store after she finishes her homework
(C) She will going to the store after she finishes her homework
(D) She will goes to the store after she finishes her homework

13. What does the idiom "barking up the wrong tree" mean?

(A) Making a loud noise in a forest
(B) Pursuing a mistaken or misguided course of action
(C) Climbing a tree with a dog
(D) Trimming branches off a tree

14. What does the idiom "cost an arm and a leg" mean?

(A) To purchase a human limb
(B) To be very expensive
(C) To lose a physical body part
(D) To have an accident involving limbs

15. Choose the antonym for the word "exquisite":

(A) Unrefined
(B) Beautiful
(C) Delicate
(D) Elegant

16. Which word is a synonym for "ephemeral"?

(A) Permanent
(B) Transient
(C) Lasting
(D) Enduring

17. Identify the correct spelling of the plural form:

(A) Phenomenons
(B) Phenomenonses
(C) Phenomena
(D) Phenomenas

18. Choose the sentence with the correct use of the past perfect tense:

(A) She had finished her homework before she goes to bed
(B) By the time I arrived, they already had left
(C) The sun is shining brightly after the rain stopped
(D) He will have completed the project by next week

19. Identify the sentence with the correct use of the relative pronoun:

(A) This is the book that I was telling you about
(B) She is the girl who I borrowed the pen from
(C) The person whom won the award is my friend
(D) The movie what we watched was really good

20. They arrived ……….. the party late

(A) in
(B) at
(C) on
(D) to

21. She sat …………. her friends during the concert

(A) beside
(B) besides
(C) by
(D) next

22. The restaurant is located ……….. the corner of Main Street ……….. Elm Street

(A) in / to
(B) at / and
(C) on / and
(D) at / to

23. Which of the following sentences is written in the passive voice?

(A) Jane finished her project before the deadline
(B) The bridge was constructed over the river last year
(C) The employees celebrated the company's anniversary
(D) The teacher assigned homework to the students

Direction (Question No. 24 to 28): Read the following passage and answer the questions
given below.

Technology plays a significant role in our daily lives, influencing how we communicate,
work, and access information. With the rise of smart phones and social media platforms,
connectivity has become seamless, allowing people to stay connected with friends and family
around the globe. However, technology's pervasive presence also raises concerns about
privacy, security, and its impact on mental health. As we navigate the digital age, it's essential
to strike a balance between leveraging technology for its benefits while being mindful of its
potential drawbacks.

24. What is the main topic of the passage?

(A) The impact of technology on daily life
(B) The benefits of smartphones and social media
(C) The challenges of connectivity in the digital age
(D) The importance of privacy and security online

25. According to the passage, what is the benefit of technology mentioned?

(A) Increased privacy concerns
(B) Seamless connectivity
(C) Limited access to information
(D) Decreased mental health issues

26. What concerns does the passage raise about technology?

(A) Its impact on the economy
(B) Its influence on communication
(C) Its effect on physical health
(D) Its implications for privacy and security

27. According to the passage, what is essential in navigating the digital age?

(A) Ignoring the potential drawbacks of technology
(B) Leveraging technology without caution
(C) Striking a balance between benefits and drawbacks
(D) Disconnecting from social media platforms

28. What does the passage suggest about the role of technology in modern society?

(A) It has no impact on daily life
(B) It influences how people communicate and work
(C) It has no drawbacks
(D) It is only beneficial for mental health

Direction (Question No. 29 to 33): Read the following passage and answer the questions
given below.

In the rapidly evolving landscape of modern technology, artificial intelligence (AI) has
emerged as a game-changer across various industries. AI algorithms have revolutionized
tasks once considered exclusive to human intelligence, such as problem-solving, language
translation, and pattern recognition. From virtual assistants like Siri and Alexa to self-driving
cars and advanced medical diagnostics, AI applications continue to reshape the way we live
and work. However, the widespread adoption of AI also raises ethical concerns surrounding
issues like data privacy, algorithmic bias, and the potential for job displacement. As AI
systems become more sophisticated and autonomous, questions of accountability,
transparency, and the ethical use of AI technologies become increasingly pertinent. Despite
the challenges, the transformative potential of AI holds promises for addressing complex
societal problems and driving innovation in the years to come.

29. What is the primary role of artificial intelligence (AI) in modern technology?

(A) To create virtual assistants like Siri and Alexa
(B) To replace human intelligence in problem-solving tasks
(C) To revolutionize various industries and tasks
(D) To raise ethical concerns about data privacy

30. According to the passage, what are some examples of AI applications?

(A) Virtual reality gaming and social media platforms
(B) Autonomous vehicles and medical diagnostics
(C) Smartphone applications for language learning
(D) Online shopping platforms and e-commerce websites

31. What ethical concerns does the passage highlight regarding the widespread adoption
of AI?

(A) Issues related to data privacy and algorithmic bias
(B) Concerns about job displacement and economic inequality
(C) Challenges in regulating social media platforms
(D) Environmental impacts of AI technologies

32. According to the passage, what becomes increasingly pertinent as AI systems become
more sophisticated and autonomous?

(A) The need for advanced medical diagnostics
(B) Questions of accountability, transparency, and ethical use
(C) Opportunities for job creation and economic growth
(D) Concerns about the potential for job displacement

33. What potential does the passage suggest AI holds for the future?

(A) Addressing complex societal problems and driving innovation
(B) Eliminating the need for human intelligence
(C) Creating job opportunities in traditional industries
(D) Decreasing reliance on technology in daily life

34. Which word is a synonym of "arduous"?

(A) Easy
(B) Difficult
(C) Simple
(D) Effortless

35. Which part of the sentence contains the error?

Each member of the team are responsible for completing the assigned tasks on time

(A) Each member of the team
(B) are responsible
(C) for completing
(D) their assigned tasks on time

36. Which word is the antonym of "mundane"?

(A) Ordinary
(B) Extraordinary
(C) Routine
(D) Commonplace

37. Identify the sentence with correct use of the past perfect tense

(A) She have already finished her homework before dinner
(B) By the time we arrived, the movie had already started
(C) They had went to the concert last night
(D) I had ate lunch before I went to the meeting

38. What does the idiom "to have a chip on one's shoulder" mean?

(A) To be carrying a bag of chips
(B) To be in a bad mood
(C) To be easily offended or feel resentful
(D) To be ready for a fight

39. Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.

The audience was mesmerised by the speech delivered by the vivacious lady

(A) Energetic
(B) Fearless
(C) Prosperous
(D) Friendly

40. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.

During my Goa tour, I had visited beaches in Vasco, Baga and Vagator

(A) Visited
(B) have visited
(C) was visited
(D) had visited

41. Who was the Chief Guest for the Republic Day celebrations in India in 2024?

(A) Emmanuel Macron
(B) Joe Biden
(C) Boris Johnson
(D) Justin Trudeau

42. Which one of the following river flows between Vindhyan and Satpura ranges?

(A) Narmada
(B) Mahanadi
(C) Son
(D) Netravati

43. Which is the religion for which the Fire temple is the place of worship?

(A) Hinduism
(B) Jainism
(C) Zoroastrianism
(D) Buddhism

44. Ms. Meera Sahib Fathima Beevi has the distinction of being the first lady

(A) Prime minister of Pakisthan
(B) Judge of the District Court
(C) Chief Minister of a State
(D) Judge of Supreme Court

45. National Science day in India is celebrated on
th
(A) 30 April
th
(B) 14 February
th
(C) 28 February
rd
(D) 23 March

46. What is the theme of ‘National Tourism Day’, 2024?

(A) Sustainable Journeys, Timeless Memories
(B) Tourism and Green Investment
(C) Rural and Community Centric Tourism
(D) Tourism for Inclusive Growth

47. Which article of the constitution grants the right to reside and settle in any part of the
territory of India?

(A) Article 19(1)(e)
(B) Article 19(1)(a)
(C) Article 19(1)(c)
(D) Article 19(1)(f)

48. Which Union Ministry released ‘UMMEED’ guidelines?

(A) Ministry of MSME
(B) Ministry of Finance
(C) Ministry of Education
(D) Ministry of Minority Affairs

49. The ‘SVAMITVA scheme’ is related to which of the following?

(A) Provides financial benefits to small and marginal farmers
(B) Installation of solar pumps, grid-connected solar power plants to help farmers
(C) Promote cluster development of artisans and traditional industries
(D) Mapping the land parcels in rural inhabited areas using drone technology

50. Cabinet approves LIGO-India gravitational-wave detector to be built in which state?

(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Maharashtra
(C) West Bengal
(D) Madhya Pradesh

51. Which Indian organization recently tested successfully a new kind of battery Silicon
High energy Li-ion cell, featuring a Si-Graphite composite as anode material?

(A) ISRO
(B) DRDO
(C) Tata Institute of Fundamental Research
(D) Saha Institute of Nuclear Physics

52. Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms which formed the base of Government of India Act
1919, introduced which of the following in India?

(A) Separate communal electorate
(B) Dyarchy
(C) Indian Administrative Services
(D) Indian Police Services

53. Which among the following organisations publishes the Digital Payments Index?

(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) National Payment Corporation of India
(C) NABARD
(D) Bank Bureau Board

54. What does RAID stand for in computer storage systems?

(A) Redundant Array of Independent Disks
(B) Random Access Intrinsic Disk
(C) Remote Access Intrusion Detector
(D) Relational Application of Integrated Data

55. What is the purpose of an IP address in computer networking?

(A) To identify the manufacturer of a computer
(B) To identify the location of a computer
(C) To uniquely identify a device on a network
(D) To determine the speed of the internet connection

56. In Dimminaco AG v. Controller of Patentsand Designs (2002), the vaccine containing
a life form was granted patent based on

(A) Test of Transformation
(B) Test of Reversibility
(C) Markedly different feature
(D) Test of Vendibility

57. Identify the technology employed in Bt. Cotton

(A) Crispr Cas9 technology
(B) Brac Analysis technology
(C) Bollgard II Technology
(D) Value addition technology

58. Which Article of the TRIPS Agreement permits a member countries to have a
suigeneris system for plant varieties?

(A) Art 27 (1)
(B) Art 27 (2)
(C) Art 27 (3)(a)
(D) Art 27 (3)(b)

59. When was the Traditional Knowledge Digital Library established in India?

(A) 2005
(B) 1995
(C) 2001
(D) 2006

60. International Classification of goods and services for the purpose of registration of
marks is

(A) Locarno Classification
(B) Nice Classification
(C) Hague Classification
(D) Berne Classification

61. Domain Name System is administered by

(A) ICANN
(B) ICA
(C) UPOV
(D) WTO

62. Geographical Indication can be registered in India for

(A) Goods
(B) Services
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

63. Who won the Nobel Prize in Chemistry, 2020 for the development of a method for
genome editing?

(A) Reinhard Genzel and Andrea Ghez
(B) Roger Pen rose
(C) Elizabeth
(D) Emmanuelle Charpentier and Jennifer ADoudna

64. Fani, an IPR student wishes to know the important case laws on various provisions
related to Patent in India. Match List I and List 2 and select correct code

List - I List - II
a Compulsory license 1 Novartis AG v. Union of India
b Section 3(d) 2 Bayers corporation v. Natco Parma
c Date of grant of Patent 3 Bajaj Auto Limited v. TVS Motor company
d Infringement 4 Dr. Snehalata C. Gupta v. Union of India

(A) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
(B) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
(C) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
(D) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3

65. Industrial design protects

(A) Aesthetic feature of an article
(B) Mechanical feature of an article
(C) Mode of Construction
(D) Industrial drawing

66. International registration of design is governed by

(A) Vienna Convention
(B) Locarno Convention
(C) Hague Convention
(D) Paris Convention

67. The objective of Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Act, 2001 is

(A) Protection of rights of farmers
(B) Protection of rights of breeders
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

68. Which legal principle, established by the Paris Convention for the Protection of
Industrial Property in 1883, allows an applicant to claim priority for a patent
application filed in one member country when filing subsequent applications in other
member countries?

(A) National exhaustion
(B) First-to-file
(C) Right of attribution
(D) Priority right

69. Which international organization administers the registration and protection of
trademarks worldwide?

(A) World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO)
(B) World Trade Organization (WTO)
(C) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)
(D) International Trade Commission (ITC)

70. Which principle of intellectual property policy emphasizes the balance between
protecting creators' rights and promoting access to knowledge for the public good?

(A) National treatment
(B) Most-favoured-nation treatment
(C) Fair use
(D) Prior art

71. What is the purpose of including a grant-back clause in an IP license agreement?

(A) To limit the licensee's right to sublicense the licensed IP to third parties
(B) To grant the licensor the right to use improvements made by the licensee
(C) To specify the payment terms and conditions for the licensed IP
(D) To address the consequences of a breach of confidentiality by the licensee

72. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a work to be eligible for copyright
protection?

(A) The work must be fixed in a tangible medium of expression
(B) The work must be registered with the copyright office
(C) The work must possess a minimum level of creativity
(D) The work must be original to the author or creator

73. In the context of copyright law, what is the significance of the term "public domain"?

(A) Works in the public domain are not subject to copyright protection and can be
freely used by anyone
(B) Works in the public domain are protected by copyright but only for a limited
duration
(C) Works in the public domain are subject to copyright protection but can be used
under fair use provisions
(D) Works in the public domain are owned by the government and can be accessed
by the public

74. Which of the following works would NOT be eligible for copyright protection?

(A) A collection of commonly used phrases or expressions
(B) A compilation of original poetry written by various authors
(C) A photograph taken by a professional photographer
(D) A compilation of recipes created by a chef

75. What does a cross-license agreement typically involve?

(A) License exchange between two parties for their respective IP assets
(B) Exclusive licensing of intellectual property to multiple licensees in the
licensing agreement
(C) Joint ownership of intellectual property rights
(D) Granting a license to use intellectual property to a third party in the licensing
agreement

76. A man walks 15 m towards South from a fixed point. From there he goes 12 m
towards North and then 4 m towards West. How far and in which direction is he from
fixed point?

(A) 3 m, South
(B) 7 m, South-West
(C) 5 m, South-West
(D) 5 m, South- East

77. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water image of the given
combination/figure

ADVANCE

1.
2.
3.
4.

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

78. If white is called black, black is called red, red is called yellow, yellow is called
green, green is called blue, blue is called violet and violet is called orange, what
would be the colour of human blood?

(A) Green
(B) Black
(C) Red
(D) Yellow

79. Vineet is taller than Raman but shorter than Jyoti. Sumit is the shortest. Deepak is
taller than Sumit but shorter than Raman. Who is the tallest?

(A) Jyoti
(B) Raman
(C) Vineet
(D) Deepak

80. How long will it take for two pipes A and B to fill an empty cistern if they worked
alternately for an hour each? Identify the sufficient statements required for answering
the questions.

(i) Working alone, Pipe A can fill the cistern in 40 hours
(ii) Pipe B is one third as efficient as Pipe A

(A) Only (i) is sufficient
(B) Only (ii) is sufficient
(C) Both (i) and (ii) are sufficient
(D) None of the above is sufficient

81. In the question below consists of a question and two statements numbered (a) and (b)

given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are
sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give the answer.

Question: How is Vinitha related to Ragini ?

Statements: (a) Vinitha's husband is the only son of Ragini's mother
(b) Vinitha's brother and Ragini's husband are cousins.

(A) Neither (a) nor (b) is sufficient
(B) Either (a) or (b) is sufficient
(C) Both (a) and (b) are sufficient
(D) (a) alone is sufficient while (b) alone is not sufficient

82. In the following series, replace the question mark (?) with the suitable options

2, 3.5, 5, 6.5, 8, ?

(A) 9.0
(B) 9.5
(C) 10.5
(D) 11.0

83. A University library budget committee must reduce exactly five of eight areas of
expenditure - G, L, M, N, P, R, S, and W - in accordance with the following
conditions.

1. If both G and S are reduced, W is also reduced
2. If N is reduced, neither R nor S is reduced
3. If P is reduced, L is not reduced
4. Of the three areas L, M, and R, exactly two are reduced

If both M and R are reduced, which one of the following is a pair of areas neither of
which could be reduced?

(A) G, L
(B) G, N
(C) L, N
(D) L, P

Directions (Question No. 84 and 85): Seven piano students—T, U, V, W, X, Y, and Z—are
to give a recital, and their instructor is deciding the order in which they will perform. Each
student will play exactly one piece, a piano solo. In deciding the order of performance, the
instructor must observe the following restrictions:

1. X cannot play first or second
2. W cannot play until X has played
3. Neither T nor Y can play seventh
4. Either Y or Z must play immediately after W plays
5. V must play either immediately after or immediately before U plays

84. If V plays first, which one of the following must be true?

(A) T plays sixth
(B) X plays third
(C) Z plays seventh
(D) T plays immediately after Y

85. If U plays third, what is the latest position in which Y can play?

(A) first
(B) second
(C) fifth
(D) sixth

86. Three different positions X, Y and Z of a dice are shown in the figures given below.
Which of the hidden numbers adjacent to 5 in position X is/are common to the hidden
numbers adjacent to 5 in position Z?

(A) 1 and 4
(B) 2
(C) 6
(D) None of the above

87. A dice is numbered from 1 to 6 in different ways. If 1 is adjacent to 2, 4 and 6, then
which of the following statements is necessarily true?

(A) 2 is opposite to 6
(B) 1 is adjacent to 3
(C) 3 is adjacent to 5
(D) 3 is opposite to 5

88. A Tiebreaker is an additional contest carried out to establish a winner among tied
contestants. Choose one situation from the options below that best represents a
Tiebreaker

(A) At halftime, the score is tied at 2-2 in a football match
(B) Serena and Maria have each secured 1 set in the game
(C) The umpire tosses a coin to decide which team will have bat first
(D) RCB and KKR each finished at 140 all out

89. Peter is in the East of Tom and Tom is in the North of John. Mike is in the South of
John, then in which direction of Peter is Mike?

(A) South-East
(B) South-West
(C) South
(D) North-East

90. If you are a fitness walker, you don't need to go to a health gym. You also don't need
any fitness equipment for workout. All you need is a pair of comfortable athletic
shoes.

This paragraph supports which of the following statements:

(A) Fitness walking is better than weight lifting
(B) Walking outdoors provides more health benefits than walking indoors
(C) Fitness walking is an effective and convenient form of exercise
(D) Poorly designed shoes can cause foot injuries

91. It was Sunday on Jan 1, 2006. What was the day of the week Jan 1, 2010?

(A) Sunday
(B) Saturday
(C) Friday
(D) Wednesday

92. If 2994 ÷ 14.5 = 206.48, then 29.94 ÷ 1.45 = ?

(A) 0.20648
(B) 2.0648
(C) 20.648
(D) 20648

Direction: In the given question, two statements (1) and (2) are given and these statements
are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given two
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read
the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:
(1) 60% of the government employees went on strike
(2) Mr. Gopal is a government employee
Conclusions:
(I) Mr. Gopal went on strike.
(II) Mr. Gopal did not participate in the strike.

(A) Only conclusion (I) follow
(B) Only conclusion (II) follow
(C) Both conclusions (I) and (II) follows
(D) Either conclusion (I) or (II) follows

Direction: In the given question, two statements (1) and (2) are given and these statements
are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given two
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read
the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:
(1) Due to contamination of water large number of people were admitted to
hospital
(2) The symptoms were of Typhoid
Conclusions:
(I) Contamination of water may lead to Typhoid.
(II) Typhoid is a contagious disease.

(A) Only conclusion (I) follow
(B) Only conclusion (II) follow
(C) Both conclusions (I) and (II) follows
(D) Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

95. ABZ, BCY, CDX, DEW, ………….

(A) EFV

(B) FEV
(C) DEF
(D) DEV

96. 34, 18, 10, 6, 4………….

(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) 3
(D) 2

97. In a certain code, FORGE is written as FPTJI. How is CULPRIT written in that code?

(A) CSJNPGR
(B) CVMQSTU
(C) CVNSVNZ
(D) CXOSULW

98. If DELHI is coded as 73541 and CALCUTTA as 82589662, how can CALICUT be
coded?

(A) 5279431
(B) 5978213
(C) 8251896
(D) 8543691

99. In a queue of children, Kashish is fifth from the left and Mona is sixth from the right.
When they interchange their places, Kashish becomes thirteenth from the left. What
will be Mona’s position from the right?
th
(A) 4
th
(B) 8
th
(C) 14
th
(D) 15

th
100. Vinay remembers that his brother Anupam’s birthday is after 20 August but before
th nd
28 of August, while Rita remembers that Anupam’s birthday is before 22 of
th
August but after 12 of August. On which date does Anupam’s birthday fall?
th
(A) 20 August
st
(B) 21 August
nd
(C) 22 August
rd
(D) 23 August

101. A school bus driver starts from the school, drives 2 km towards North, takes a left
turn and drives for 5 km. He then takes a left turn and drives for 8 km before taking a
left turn again and driving for 5 km. the driver finally takes a left turn and drives 1 km
before stopping. How far and towards which direction should the driver drive to reach
the school again?

(A) 7 km towards East
(B) 6 km towards South
(C) 6 km towards West
(D) 5 km towards North
102. A child is looking for his father. He went 90 metres in the east before turning to his
right. He went 20 metres before turning to his right again to look for his father at his
uncle’s place 30 metres from this point. His father was not there. From there he went
100 metres to his north before meeting his father in a street. How far did the son meet
his father from the starting point?

(A) 90 metres
(B) 100 metres
(C) 260 metres
(D) 140 metres

103. Arun said, “This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mother.” Who is Arun to the
girl?

(A) Grandfather
(B) Husband
(C) Father-in-law
(D) Father

104. A woman introduces a man as the son of the brother of her mother. How is the man
related to the woman?

(A) Nephew
(B) Uncle
(C) Son
(D) Cousin

105. Rahul and Robin are brothers. Pramod is Robin’s father. Sheela is Pramod’s sister.
Prema is Pramod’s niece. Shubha is Sheela’s grand-daughter. How is Rahul related to
Shubha?

(A) Brother
(B) Cousin
(C) Uncle

(D) Nephew

106. Which of the following statements is always true regarding the verification of truth?

(A) Statements backed by personal beliefs are always true
(B) Statements verified by a trusted authority are always true
(C) Statements supported by evidence and facts are more likely to be true
(D) Statements consistent with popular opinion are always true

107. What role does critical thinking play in the process of verifying the truth of a
statement?

(A) It encourages blind acceptance of information
(B) It promotes scepticism and questioning
(C) It discourages the evaluation of evidence
(D) It relies solely on emotional responses

108. Direction: In the question given below are two statements labeled as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). In the context of the two statements, which of the following is correct?

Assertion (A): All metals conduct electricity
Reason (R): Electrons are free to move within the atomic structure of metals

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and R are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

109. Direction: In the question given below are two statements labeled as Assertion and
Reason. In the context of the two statements, which of the following is correct?

Assertion: The unemployment rate decreased significantly last quarter
Reason: The government implemented several economic policies aimed at
boosting job growth and investment

(A) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is a correct explanation
of the assertion
(B) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion
(C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false
(D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true

110. Direction : Select the one which is different from other

(A) 621
(B) 1090
(C) 962
(D) 841

111. Five friends – Amy, Ben, Chloe, Dan, and Emma – are sitting in a row. If Ben is
sitting two seats to the right of Dan, Chloe is sitting two seats to the left of Amy, and
Emma is sitting next to Dan, who is sitting in the middle?

(A) Amy
(B) Ben
(C) Chloe
(D) Dan

112. Z, W, S, P, I, L, E, ……….

(A) D
(B) F
(C) K
(D) B

113. If DELHI is coded as CCIDD, how would you encode BOMBAY?

(A) AJMTVT
(B) AMJXVS
(C) MJXVSU
(D) WXYZAX

114. Read the below statement carefully.

A group of people getting together casually without prior planning and in a relaxed
manner is called informal gathering.

Which of the following situations better fits the above statement?

(A) group celebrates every month on salary day
(B) Invitees gather on the occasion of wedding reception
(C) Soon after the release of mark list, top 10 rankers gather to greet each other
(D) People gather to witness beating retreat at Wagah border in Amritsar

115. Snakes and hawks are predators of mice in a field. Dogs which also feed on mice are
brought on the scene. What will be the immediate result?

(A) Decrease in the number of snakes and hawks
(B) Decrease in the number of dogs
(C) Decrease in the number of mice
(D) Increase in the number of snakes

116. The principles of fundamental research are used in

(A) Action research
(B) Applied research
(C) Philosophical research
(D) Historical research

117. Who was the author of the book named "Methods in Social Research"?

(A) Kerlinger
(B) Goode and Hatt
(C) C R Kothari
(D) Wilkinso

118. Which one is called non-probability sampling?

(A) Quota sampling
(B) Cluster sampling
(C) Systematic sampling
(D) Stratified random sampling

119. Which of the following features are considered as critical in qualitative research?

(A) Collecting data with the help of standardized research tools
(B) Design sampling with probability sample techniques
(C) Collecting data with bottom-up empirical evidence
(D) Gathering data with top-down schematic evidence

120. Which of the following is true about field experiment?

(A) High internal validity
(B) High external validity
(C) High internal and High external validity
(D) None of the above

121. What is the major attribute of Correlation Analysis?

(A) Association among variables
(B) Difference among variables
(C) Regression among variables
(D) Variations among variables

122. A research intends to explore the result of possible factors for the organization of
effective mid-day meal interventions. Which research method will be most
appropriate for this study?

(A) Descriptive survey method
(B) Historical method
(C) Ex-post facto method
(D) Experimental method

123. Identify the correct sequence of research steps:

(A) Selection of topic, review of literature, data collection, interpretation of
findings
(B) Review of literature, selection of topic, data collection, and interpretation of
findings
(C) Selection of topic, data collection, review of literature, interpretation of
findings
(D) Selection of topic, review of literature, interpretation of findings, data
collection

124. The core elements of a dissertation are

(A) Introduction; Data Collection; Data Analysis; Conclusions and
Recommendations
(B) Executive Summary; Literature review; Data gathered; Conclusions;
Bibliography
(C) Research Plan; Research Data; Analysis; References
(D) Introduction; Literature Review; Research Methodology; Results; Discussion
and Conclusion

125. Which scientific method focuses on testing hypotheses developed from theories?

(A) Deductive method
(B) Inductive method
(C) Hypothesis method
(D) Pattern method

126. When a researcher includes in his sample those individuals who are willing and are
readily available, the sampling technique is called

(A) Simple Random Sampling
(B) Quota Sampling
(C) Snowball Sampling
(D) Incidental Sampling

127. Which of the following statements regarding the meaning of research are correct

(a) Research refers to a series of systematic activity or activities undertaken to find
out the solution of a problem
(b) It is a systematic, logical and an unbiased process wherein verification of
hypothesis data analysis, interpretation and formation of principles can be done
(c) It is an intellectual enquiry or quest towards truth
(d) It leads to enhancement of knowledge

(A) (a), (b) and (c)
(B) (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

128. Read the following two lists of items:

List - I List - II
(a) Historical Research 1 Current status
(b) Action Research 2 Control of variables
(c) Survey Research 3 Natural setting
(d) Experimental Research 4 Local problem
5 Past oriented

Which of the following matching is correct?

(A) (a) - 3, (b) - 4, (c) - 1, (d) - 2
(B) (a) - 5, (b) - 4, (c) - 1, (d) - 2
(C) (a) - 4, (b) - 3, (c) - 2, (d) - 5
(D) (a) - 1, (b) - 2, (c) - 3, (d) - 4

129. Failure to acknowledge the borrowed material is called (Take and use of others as
one’s own)

(A) Acknowledgement
(B) Foot note
(C) Index
(D) Plagiarism

130. What does the term "hypothesis" refer to in research?

(A) A prediction or educated guess about the outcome of a study
(B) A summary of the research findings
(C) The data collection process
(D) A description of the research methodology incorporated in the study

131. Which of the following is an example of qualitative research?

(A) Survey research
(B) Experimental research
(C) Case study research
(D) Correlational research

132. In order to study the relationship of family size to income, a researcher classifies his
population into different income slabs and then takes a random sample from each
slab. Which technique of sampling does he adopt?

(A) Cluster sampling
(B) Random sampling
(C) Stratified random sampling
(D) Systematic random sampling

133. A researcher divides the whole population in different parts and then fixes the number
of units from each of the parts that are to be included in the sample. The method of
sampling used by her is

(A) Stratified random sampling
(B) Cluster sampling
(C) Quota sampling
(D) Systematic sampling

134. What is the primary purpose of obtaining informed consent from research
participants?

(A) To ensure participants are compensated for their time
(B) To protect the confidentiality of participants' personal information and giving
respect to their privacy
(C) To provide participants with information about the research and obtain their
voluntary agreement to participate
(D) To prevent participants from withdrawing from the study

135. Which of the following is an example of a potential conflict of interest in research?

(A) Conducting research in collaboration with other researchers
(B) Receiving funding from a pharmaceutical company for a study on drug
effectiveness
(C) Publishing research findings in a peer-reviewed journal
(D) Seeking input from different research participants during the continuation of
the study

136. Which ethical principle requires researchers to disclose any potential risks or benefits
of participating in a research study to participants?

(A) Justice
(B) Beneficence
(C) Respect for persons
(D) Non-maleficence

137. What statistical method is used to determine the relationship between two variables?

(A) T-test
(B) ANOVA
(C) Chi-square test
(D) Correlation analysis

138. What is the term for a questionnaire administered to a small group of individuals
before finalizing the survey instrument?

(A) Pilot questionnaire
(B) Final questionnaire
(C) Main questionnaire
(D) Supplementary questionnaire

139. Which of the following is a type of bias that may affect responses in questionnaires?

(A) Confirmation bias
(B) Observer bias
(C) Sampling bias
(D) Social desirability bias

140. Which qualitative data analysis approach involves interpreting the underlying
meaning and context of data to generate themes or patterns?

(A) Grounded theory
(B) Content analysis
(C) Phenomenological analysis
(D) Narrative analysis

141. What is one of the key attributes of a competent researcher in terms of research
ethics?

(A) Manipulating research findings to support personal beliefs
(B) Falsifying data to meet publication deadlines
(C) Respecting the confidentiality and privacy of research participants
(D) Plagiarizing the work of others without proper citation

142. Which research method is most suitable for exploring the relationship between
variables?

(A) Qualitative research
(B) Mixed-methods research
(C) Quantitative research
(D) Case study research

143. What is the purpose of triangulation in research?

(A) To collect data from multiple sources or methods to enhance validity
(B) To establish causality between variables
(C) To select a representative sample from the population of the concerned study
(D) To ensure reliability of measurement instruments

144. What step involves testing the research hypothesis using statistical techniques and
methods?

(A) Data collection
(B) Data analysis
(C) Literature review
(D) Writing the research report

145. Which of the following research designs is commonly used in descriptive research?

(A) Experimental design
(B) Correlational design
(C) Longitudinal design
(D) Quasi-experimental design

146. Which of the following is an example of descriptive research?

(A) Investigating the impact of a new drug on patient recovery rates
(B) Exploring the relationship between social media usage and mental health
(C) Describing the demographic characteristics of a sample of college students
(D) Examining the effectiveness of a new teaching method on student learning
outcomes

147. What is the primary limitation of descriptive research?

(A) It cannot establish causal relationships between variables
(B) It relies heavily on subjective interpretations by the researcher
(C) It is time-consuming and resource-intensive to conduct
(D) It requires a large sample size to yield meaningful results

148. Which of the following terms refers to a summary statistic used to describe the central
tendency of a dataset in descriptive research?

(A) Variance
(B) Standard deviation
(C) Mean
(D) Correlation coefficient

149. What is the purpose of a control group in an experimental research design?

(A) To ensure that the results are generalizable to the population
(B) To provide a baseline for comparison with the experimental group
(C) To ensure that the researchers are blind to the experimental conditions
(D) To minimize the impact of confounding variables on the results

150. What is randomization in experimental research?

(A) The process of selecting participants based on specific criteria
(B) The process of assigning participants to different experimental conditions
randomly
(C) The process of ensuring that the researcher and participants are blind to the
experimental conditions
(D) The process of controlling for extraneous variables in the experimental design

ANSWER KEY
Subject Name: 620 LLM (IP) PhD AND LLM (IPR) PhD
SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key
1 C 31 A 61 A 91 C 121 A
2 B 32 B 62 A 92 C 122 C
3 B 33 A 63 D 93 D 123 A
4 A 34 B 64 A 94 A 124 D
5 A 35 B 65 A 95 A 125 A
6 A 36 B 66 C 96 C 126 D
7 C 37 B 67 C 97 C 127 D
8 A 38 C 68 D 98 C 128 B
9 B 39 A 69 A 99 C 129 D
10 B 40 A 70 C 100 B 130 A
11 C 41 A 71 B 101 D 131 C
12 B 42 A 72 B 102 B 132 C
13 B 43 C 73 A 103 C 133 C
14 B 44 D 74 A 104 D 134 C
15 A 45 C 75 A 105 C 135 B
16 B 46 A 76 C 106 C 136 B
17 C 47 A 77 B 107 B 137 D
18 B 48 C 78 D 108 A 138 A
19 A 49 D 79 A 109 A 139 A
20 B 50 B 80 C 110 D 140 A
21 A 51 A 81 B 111 D 141 C
22 B 52 B 82 B 112 D 142 A
23 B 53 A 83 C 113 B 143 A
24 A 54 A 84 C 114 C 144 B
25 B 55 C 85 D 115 C 145 B
26 D 56 D 86 D 116 B 146 C
27 C 57 C 87 C 117 B 147 A
28 B 58 D 88 D 118 A 148 C
29 C 59 C 89 B 119 C 149 B
30 B 60 B 90 C 120 B 150 B

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