Karnataka 2nd PUC Question Bank for Home Science

Government of Karnataka
Department of School Education
(Pre-University)

QUESTION BANK

II PUC CHAPTERWISE MARKS ALLOTMENT
TIME: 3 HOURS 67 – HOME SCIENCE Max Marks: 70

Number of
CHAPTER Marks
CHAPTER NAME Teaching Page Number
NUMBER Allotted
Hours

1 WORK, LIVELIHOOD AND CAREER 7 6 4-6

2 CLINICAL NUTRITION AND DIETETICS 8 6 7-8

3 PUBLIC NUTRITION AND HEALTH 9 8 9-12

FOOD PROCESSING AND 9 8
4 13-20
TECHNOLOGY

5 FOOD QUALITY AND FOOD SAFETY 11 10 21-26

EARLY CHILDHOOD CARE AND 6 5
6 27-30
EDUCATION
MANAGEMENT OF SUPPORT 7 6
SERVICES, INSTITUTIONS AND
7 31-35
PROGRAMMES FOR CHILDREN,
YOUTH AND ELDERLY

8 DESIGN FOR FABRIC AND APPAREL 15 15 36-44

FASHION DESIGN AND 9 8
9 45-50
MERCHANDISING
CARE AND MAINTENANCE OF 9 7
10 51-55
FABRICS IN INSTITUTIONS

11 HOSPITALITY MANAGEMENT 8 7 56-60

CONSUMER EDUCATION AND 9 8
12 61-65
PROTECTION
DEVELOPMENT COMMUNICATION 6 5
13 66-69
AND JOURNALISM
CORPORATE COMMUNICATION AND 7 6
14 70-71
PUBLIC RELATIONS

TOTAL 120 105 ---

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CHAPTER-1
WORK, LIVELIHOOD AND CAREER
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS: EASY
1. ___________ creates new relations, uses an individual’s unique talents and skills.
a. Meaningful work b. Work c. Livelihood d. Career
2. ___________ is an essential activities undertaken for a purpose or out of necessity.
a. Livelihood b. Work c. Meaningful work d. Career
3. The type of work undertaken by people depends on several factors such as ___________, health, age,
etc.
a. Education b. Culture c. Work d. Career
4. Work can serve as a catalyst for developing:
a. Personal identity b. Self esteem c. Livelihood d. Personal identity and Self esteem
5. It is useful to society, is done responsibly and is enjoyable to the worker.
a. Work b. Career c. Livelihood d. Meaningful work
6. It is an involvement in work for the sake of it.
a. Job b. Work c. Livelihood d. Career
7. It is a deep desire to excel and a passionate need to grow, develop and prove oneself within the chosen
field of work.
a. Livelihood b. Career c. Work d. Job
8. The means and occupation by which a person supports oneself to meet basic needs and sustain one’s
life style.
a. Job b. Work c. Meaningful work d. Livelihood
9. A field for or pursuit of consecutive progressive achievement especially in public, professional or
business life.
a. Career b. Job c. Work d. Meaningful work

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS: MEDIUM
10. ____________ is the one of major occupation for a large population in India.
a. Fishing b. Agriculture c. Handicrafts d. Pottery
11. Which is the traditional occupation near the country’s long coastline.
a. Agriculture b. Handicrafts c. Pottery d. Fishing
12. Full form of IPR:
a. Intellectual Property Rights
b. Intellectual Patent Rights
c. Intellectual Public Rights
d. Intellectual Personal Rights
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13. It is the biological categorisation based on reproductive organs.
a. Gender b. Sex c. Identity d. Rights
14. It is categorized based on social identity.
a. Identity b. Sex c. Gender d. Rights
15. The constitution of India guarantees equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to
employment and appointment to any office under the state.
a. Article 16 (1) b. Article 19 (1) c. Article 16 (2) d. Article 16 (4)
16. This scheme brings never enrolled and dropout girls from rural, remote and disadvantaged sections of
the society.
a. ICDS b. SSA c. KGBV d. NPA

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS: DIFFICULT
17. The lady who is the leading exporter and best woman entrepreneur.
a. Mahila Griha b. Kiran Mazumdar c. Falguni Nayar d. Indra Nooyi
18. ___________ are activities for adaptive and positive behaviour of the individual for challenges of
everyday life.
a. Livelihood b. Life skills c. Identity d. Meaningful work
19. _____________ is who can take risks for converting novel ideas into reality.
a. Entrepreneurship b. Identity c. Rights d. Entrepreneur
20. Match the following:
a. Meaningful work 1. Activity performed by human beings
b. Work 2. Progressive achievement
c. Livelihood 3. Useful to society
d. Career 4. Meet the basic needs of the individual
a. a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2 b. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4 c. a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4 d. a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
ANSWERS
1. b, 2. b, 3. a, 4. d, 5. d, 6. a, 7. b, 8. d, 9. a, 10. b, 11. d, 12. d, 13. b, 14. c, 15. a, 16. c, 17. b, 18. b,
19. d, 20. A

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS: 2MARKS
1. What is work?
2. Define livelihood.
3. What is meant by meaningful work?
4. Differentiate between job and career.
5. Define career.
6. Who are known as home makers?

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7. What is gender?
8. What is sex?
9. What is meant by dignity of labour?
10. Define ethics.
11. Define ergonomics.
12. List the four pillar of ergonomics.
13. State the objectives of ergonomics.
14. Define entrepreneurship.
15. Who is a entrepreneur?
16. List some of the Indian arts and crafts which are very popular in international market.

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS: 3MARKS
1. What are the different ways in which work can be perceived?
2. Explain the terms: a.Quality of work life b.Life skills
3. Explain 6 essential soft skills at workplace.
4. List the 6 important values for humans.
5. Explain the need for ergonomics.

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS: 5 MARKS
1. What are the government initiatives in favour of women?
2. List the ten core skills identified by experts.
3. How can healthy work environment be created?
4. State the general tips to improve one’s own work life.
5. List the benefits of ergonomics.
6. List the ten characteristics of entrepreneurs.
HOTS LEVEL QUESTION
1. Mr. Shukla is an entrepreneur. His business is going well but a situation came when nothing is going
as planned.
a. What do you understand by entrepreneurship?
b. Who is an entrepreneur?
c. List any 6 characteristics of an entrepreneur.

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CHAPTER-2
CLINICAL NUTRITION AND DIETETICS
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS: EASY
1. It is concerned with social, psychological and economic aspects of food.
a. Nutrients b. Food c. Nutrition d. Nutritional status
2. Prevalence of ________________ disease is increasing and occurring at a very young age.
a. Fever b. Dysentery c. Non-communicable d. Dengue

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS: MEDIUM
3. These vitamins and antioxidants appear to have a protective role.
a. Vitamin D b. Iron c. Selenium d. Vitamin K
4. Kheer and Khichdi are the example of ___________ diet.
a. Full fluid b. Soft c. Bland d. Clear fluid
5. ___________ is used to improve the overall health of patients with a wide range of conditions.
a. Diet therapy b. Nutrients c. Minerals d. Vitamins
6. These products are specially manufactured for person with specific needs.
a. Bioactive compounds b. Phytochemicals c. Medical foods d. Diet therapy
7. The non nutrient constituents present in foods that have physiological or biological activity and
influence health.
a. Nutrition b. Phytochemicals c. Medical foods d. Diet therapy
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS: DIFFICULT
8. Match the following:
A. Medical foods 1. Science of food
B. Phytochemicals 2. Improve the overall health of patients
C. Diet therapy 3. Influence health
D. Nutrition 4. For person with specific needs
a. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 b. A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1 c. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
2. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
9. Choose the correct order for the nutritional care:
a. Evaluation-Monitoring-Planning & Prioritising- Diagnosis-Assessing
b. Planning & Prioritising-Monitoring-Evaluation-Diagnosis-Assessing
c. Assessing-Diagnosis-Planning & Prioritising-Monitoring-Evaluation
d. Diagnosis-Assessing-Monitoring-Planning & Prioritising-Evaluation

ANSWERS:
1. c, 2. c, 3. c, 4. b, 5. a, 6. c, 7. b, 8. c, 9. c
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ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS: 2MARKS
1. Define nutrition.
2. What are medical foods?
3. What is meant by phytochemicals/bioactive compounds?
4. Give the meaning of health supplement foods.
5. List the factors to be considered on food acceptance and utilisation during illness.
6. What is modified diets?
7. List the steps involved in diet modifications.
8. What is Intravenous feeding?

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS: 3MARKS
1. Explain any three ingredients present in functional foods.
2. Why do we need dietary changes to prevent chronic diseases?
3. What are the roles performed by a dietitian?
4. List the career avenues in clinical nutrition and dietetics.

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS: 5MARKS
1. State the objectives of diet therapy.
2. Explain the nutritional care provided during illness.
3. Enumerate the significance of the study of clinical nutrition and dietetics?
4. What are the types of dietary modifications that a medical nutrition therapist may make?

HOTS LEVEL QUESTIONS
1. Mr. Ranjiv has undergone appendicitis surgery. He is under post operative recovery.
a. What is diet therapy?
b. Explain the types of dietary modifications advised for the patient by the dietician.

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CHAPTER 3
PUBLIC NUTRITION AND HEALTH

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:EASY
1. What is the approximate proportion of infants born in India with low birth weight?
A) One-tenth B) Almost one-fifth C) One-third D) Half
2. Which of the following best explains the term “hidden hunger”?
a) Lack of calories leading to visible thinness
b) Micronutrient deficiencies despite sufficient food intake
c) Hunger during night due to irregular meals
d) Malnutrition only in rural areas
3. Almost one-fifth of infants born in India are considered low birth weight babies. What is their
weight?
a) Less than 2000 g b) Less than 2500 g c) Less than 3000 g d) Less than 3500 g
4. Which of the following lifestyle changes is NOT mentioned as a factor in the rise of over-nutrition?
a) More sedentary lifestyle b) Walking less
c) Playing more outdoor games d) Consuming more processed foods
5. Which of the following is an example of a non-communicable disease (NCD)
a) Tuberculosis b) Malaria c) Hypertension d) HIV/AIDS
6. The “double burden of malnutrition” refers to:
a) Lack of food and lack of money b) Coexistence of under nutrition and over nutrition
c) Hidden hunger and visible hunger d) Lack of proteins and vitamins only
7. 3. Protein-Energy Malnutrition (PEM) is caused by:
a) Excessive intake of macronutrients b) Inadequate food intake vs. requirements
c) Excessive intake of micronutrient d) Lack of physical activity
8. What defines a community ?
a) A group of people with different lifestyles
b) A specific group of people who share common characteristics
c) A group of people with no common health problems
d) A random group of people
9. Which of the following is an immediate cause of under nutrition at the individual level?
a) Insufficient access to food b) Inadequate or faulty dietary intake
c) Low level of education d) Poor water/sanitation

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10. What is one of the basic causes of under nutrition?
a) Disease or infections b) Quantity and quality of actual resources
c) Poor maternal care d) Discrimination against women
11. What is the iodine deficiency disorder observed in children?
a) Mental retardation b)goiter c)cretinism d)rickets
12. Which of the following is long term strategies of Poshan Abhiyan
a) ICDS b) fortification c)Public distribution system d) dietary modification
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS: DIFFICULT
13. The problem of over nutrition is due to-------
a) Sedentary lifestyle b)faulty dietary patterns c)dieting d) walking
Choose correct option
a) i and iii b) ii and iv c) i and ii d) iii and iv
14. Match the following nutrition programs operating in India with examples
Column A Column B
A) Food supplementation program i) Antodaya Anna Yojana
B) Food security program ii) Mid-day meal
C) Social safety net program iii) Early childhood
D) ICDS iv) self-employment scheme
Choose the correct option
a) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii b) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
c) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii d) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
15. Choose the correct statement given bellow regarding health care
Statement I: Community health centers functions as first referral level
Statement II: Health care services are provided at four levels
Select the correct option
a) Statement I is false II is true b)Statement I is true II is false
c)Both statement I & II is false d)Both statement I&II is true
16. Identify the image given bellow

a) Protein energy malnutrition b)Anaemia c)micro-nutrient deficiency d)vitamin A deficiency

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17. Assertion (A): Iodine deficiency disorders (IDD) can have a significant impact on mental and
physical growth and development.
Reason (R): Iodine is essential for normal development and functioning of the thyroid gland, and its
deficiency can lead to a range of health problems.
Which of the following options is correct?
a) Both A and R is true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R is true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
18. Choose the correct statement
Statement I: The public nutritionist is also called as community nutritionist
Statement II: They are part of the ICDS scheme which works all over the world.
Choose the correct option:
a) Statement I is false II is true b) Statement I is true II is false
c) Both statement I & II is false d) Both statement I&II is true
19. Complete the vicious cycle of Vitamin A deficiency and infection by choosing correct option given
below.

a) decreased susceptibility to infection b) increased susceptibility to infection
b) decreased loss of vitamin A d) complete loss of vitamin A

Answers: 1-B, 2-B, 3-B, 4-C, 5-C, 6-B, 7-C, 8-B, 9-B, 10-B, 11-B, 12-C, 13-C, 15-A, 16-B, 17-C,
18-A, 19-B, 20-B

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS: 2 MARKS
1. Mention any four basic causes related to under nutrition
2. Give some manifestations of iodine deficiency
3. Write the meaning of a) Marasmus b) kwarshiorkar
4. What does deficiency of vitamin A causes
5. What are the advantages of diet and food based strategies?
6. Name the institutions at tertiary level of health care in India
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7. Define the terms a) public health nutrition b)community
8. Give four reasons of under nutrition at household/family level
9. Name the nutrient deficiency control programs I India
10. Name the food security programs in India
11. Define the terms malnutrition/stunning/ wasting/hidden hunger
ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS: 3MARKS
1. Health care service is provided at three levels. Explain
2. List out the career choices in the area of Public Nutrition
3. Poverty alleviation can be done through which processes?
4. How anemia does occur? Mention its consequences
5. What is PEM? Write about its types
6. What are the direct short term strategies provided by Poshan Abhiyan?
ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS: 5 MARKS
1. Enumerate about the nutrition programs operating in India
HOTS LEVEL QUESTION
1. Sunitha completed her food and nutrition course and willing to work as public nutritionist.
Recommend her areas/situation to work as a nutritionist

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CHAPTER 4
FOOD PROCESSING AND TECHNOLOGY
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS: EASY
1. What has India progressed from in terms of agriculture?
A) Agro-surplus to agro-deficit B) Agro-deficit to agro-surplus
C) Low production to high production D) No change
2. Why is food fortification done?
A) To increase taste B) To add color
C) To ensure minimum dietary requirements D) To reduce cost
3. What does Food Processing involve?
A) Only cooking raw ingredients B) Transforming raw ingredients into finished products
C) Only storing food D) Only distributing food
4. What is a significant aspect of Food Technology?
A) Increasing food waste B) Only focusing on food distribution
C) Only focusing on food packaging D) Promoting sustainability to avoid waste
5. Who developed the canning process in 1810?
A) Louis Pasteur B) Nicolas Appert
C) Albert Einstein D) Isaac Newton
6. What is food processing a branch of?
A) Manufacturing B) Agriculture C) Chemistry D) Biology
7. What can lead to food deterioration?
A) Proper storage only B) Pests, infestation by insects, inappropriate temperatures
C) Only chemical reactions D) None of the above
8. Which of the following foods are classified as perishable?
A) Rice and wheat B) Onions and potatoes
C) Milk, curds, fish, and meat D) All of the above
9. Which of the following is an example of a preserved food?
A) Bread B) Frozen peas C) Ice cream D) Kulfi
10. What is one method to prevent food spoilage?
A) Increasing moisture B) Lowering temperature during storage
C) Increasing pH D) Increasing oxygen availability
11. What is the purpose of processing minimally processed foods?
A) To retain the quality of fresh food B) To change the character of the food
C) To add preservatives D) To mix ingredients

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12. Which of the following is a skill needed for Recipe Development?
A) Seasonal availability of food stuffs B) Designing, analysing and adapting a basic recipe
C) Knowledge of product specifications D) Labelling and packaging of marketable product
13. What is required in Food Product Development for ensuring quality?
A) Observing and measuring Quality Control
B) Food handling skills
C) Innovations in product design
D) Seasonal availability of food stuffs
14. What institute in Mysore is mentioned for offering courses in food technology?
A) NIFTEM B) IIT C) CFTRI D) AIIMS
15. What is the main requirement for the food industry according to the scope section?*
A) Advanced machinery B) Well-trained human resource
C) More funding D) Government support
16. Which of the following is a career avenue for food technologists?*
A) Architecture B) Production Managers
C) Software Development D) Event Management
17. How much of total industrial investment in the country does the Indian food industry involve?
A) 10% B) 12% C) 13% D) 15%

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS ;AVERAGE
18. What challenge must food technologists solve for year-round seasonal foods?
A. More alcohol content B. Better packaging & preservation
C. Higher cost of raw materials D. Fewer flavors
19. Which social change in the 20th century fueled the growth of food technology?
A. More people living in rural areas B. More women working outside home
C. Fewer world wars D. Less interest in foreign foods

20. Which of the following are factors responsible for food deterioration?

a) Infestation by insects and pests b) Appropriate refrigeration and controlled storage
c) Excessive exposure to light, oxygen, and moisture d) Use of food-grade packaging

Choose the two correct statements:
A. a) and c) B. b) and d) C. a ) and b) D. b) and c)

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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS : DIFFICULT
21. Match the following
A. Preserved food (i) Pickles
B. Manufactured foods (ii) Canned fruits
C. Formulated foods (iii) Lactose-free milk
D. Medical foods (iv) Cake
Pick the correct option
(a) A(ii), B(i), C(iv), D(iii) (b) A(iii), B(ii), C(i), D(iv)
(c) A(i), B(iv), C(iii), D(ii) (d) A(iv), B(iii), C(ii), D(i)

22. Which of the following is the correct order of food examples according to processing levels given below?

Minimally processed food > preserved foods > manufactured foods >formulated food

A. Fresh-cut carrots → Frozen peas → Jams → Biscuits
B. Frozen peas → Fresh-cut carrots → Biscuits → Jams
C. Jams → Fresh-cut carrots → Biscuits → Frozen peas
D. Biscuits → Jams → Frozen peas → Fresh-cut carrots

23. Assertion (A): Increasing prevalence of heart disease and diabetes has forced scientists to modify
nutrient content in foods.
Reason (R): Consumer preference is shifting towards chemical-rich processed foods.

a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.

24. Assertion (A): India has moved from being an agro-deficit country to an agro-surplus country.
Reason (R): This has created the need for storage and processing of agricultural and horticultural produce.

a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.

Answers: 1. B, 2 C, 3B, 4D, 5B, 6A, 7B, 8C, 9B, 10B, 11 A, 12. C, 13 A, 14 C, 15 B, 16 C , 17 C, 18 B, 19
B, 20 A
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ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS 2 MARKS
1. What is the significance of India's progression from an agro-deficit to an agro-surplus country?
2. What is the role of food fortification?*
3. Define Food Science briefly.
4. What is the goal of Food Processing?
5. What was the impact of canning on food preservation techniques?
6. What did Louis Pasteur develop in the context of food technology?
7. How does food deterioration occur
8. What are perishable foods? Give one example.
9. Name two methods to prevent food spoilage.
10. List two examples of manufactured foods mentioned in the text.
11. What are food derivatives?
12. List two skills needed for Food as a material in food processing.
13. What is the importance of Hazard Analysis and Critical Control point (HACCP) in Food Product
Development?
14. What are two areas where food industry professionals may specialize?
15. What does a professional in food technology require knowledge and skills about?
16. What is the main requirement for the food industry according to the scope section
17. Which of the following is a career avenue for food technologists?
ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS 3 MARKS
1. How has the demand for processed foods changed in India and why
2. What are some examples of food fortification?
3. Explain the role of Food Technology in food production.
4. How does Food Science help in understanding food?
5. How did food technology initially serve needs in history?
6. How has food technology impacted food availability in developing countries?
7. Explain the role of food processing in preserving food.
8. List any three traditional methods of food preservation mentioned
9. Explain the concept of semi-perishable foods with examples.
10. What are High Risk Foods?give examples.
11. Explain the difference between minimally processed foods and preserved foods with examples.
12. Give two examples of medical foods and their purpose.
13. Explain the role of Information Technology in contemporary food production.
14. List three aspects considered in Food as a material for food processing.
15. Describe the importance of food packaging and labeling in food technology.
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16. What are the potential career paths after completing 10+2 or equivalent examination in food
technology?
17. List any three career avenues for food technologists.
18. According to the scope of food technology, where is the work of food technologists mainly carried
out?*

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS 5 MARKS

1. Discuss the importance of food processing and technology in India considering the country's
progression and changing consumer demands
2. Explain how food scientists are altering nutrient content in processed foods and why
3. Discuss the importance of Food Technology in ensuring food sustainability and safety
4. Elaborate on the scope of Food Science in studying food composition and properties
5. Discuss the development of food processing and technology highlighting key milestones and impacts
6. Explain how food technology has evolved to meet changing consumer needs in the 21st century.
7. Discuss the importance of food processing and preservation considering the factors that lead to food
deterioration.
8. Elaborate on how food processing incorporates principles of various sciences as mentioned in the
text.
9. Describe the factors influencing microbial growth in foods and how food processing methods help
prevent spoilage.
10. Describe the classification of processed foods based on the extent and type of processing as given in
the text. Highlight the main characteristics of any three categories.
11. Discuss the categories of processed foods that involve mixing and processing of ingredients to result
in shelf-stable products. Give examples.
12. Compare the skills needed for Food Product Development and Recipe Development in food
processing technology.
13. Discuss the importance of food hygiene and safety in the context of food processing as mentioned in
the table.
14. Discuss the role of research and development in the food industry as per the text.
15. Explain the educational pathways available for a career in food technology as mentioned in the text
16. Describe the scope of Food Technology and Food Processing industry as per the given text. Also,
mention any four career avenues.*
17. Describe the contribution of the Indian food industry to the country's economy based on the given
data.
18. Discuss the avenues for self-employment in the food processing sector in India as per the passage.
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HOTS LEVEL QUESTIONS

1. Riya wants to understand the types of foods in her kitchen and how they affect health. She found
fresh carrots, frozen peas, mango jam, bread, sugar, probiotic yogurt, and lactose-free milk.

a) Classify these foods into: minimally processed, preserved, manufactured, formulated, food
derivatives, functional, or medical foods.
b) Riya’s brother is lactose intolerant. Which food should he eat?
c) Riya’s father wants to improve gut health. Which food should he eat?
d) Which lasts longer: fresh carrots or frozen peas? Why?

2. Anita runs a small homemade jam and juice business. She noticed that her freshly prepared jams and
juices spoil quickly if not stored properly. She wants to understand why some foods spoil faster and
how she can extend their shelf life using basic food processing techniques.

i. Anita observed that some jams develop mold while some juices taste sour quickly.
a. Identify two microbial factors that could be causing spoilage.
b) Identify two food-related factors that help microbes grow faster.
ii. Anita wants to extend the shelf life of her products.

Suggest three food processing methods she could use .

iii. If Anita stores fresh apple slices at room temperature vs. in the fridge:

Which will spoil faster? Why?
b) Which enzyme in apples causes browning if left exposed to air?

iv. Anita wants to prevent juice from becoming sour quickly without using chemicals.

a)Suggest two natural ways she could reduce microbial growth.

b) Explain how they work.

v. Anita notices some jams are thicker than others. She suspects water content plays a role.

a) Explain how moisture content affects microbial growth.
b) Which jam is likely to have a longer shelf life – high-moisture or low-moisture? Why?

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3. Meera is a food science student observing the Indian food industry. She learns that India has shifted
from producing just enough food to producing a surplus. She also notices that processed foods are
everywhere, with some fortified to prevent nutrient deficiencies. Meera wants to understand the role
of food processing, fortification, and technology in meeting consumer needs and public health goals.

i. Some staple foods are fortified to prevent nutrient deficiencies.
ii. Give two examples of fortified foods and the nutrients added.
b) Explain why fortification is necessary.
iii. Modern consumers want foods that are safe, tasty, and convenient.
a) What changes in consumer perception have influenced the food industry?
b) How have scientists modified foods to meet health concerns like diabetes or obesity?
iv. Meera notices the demand for food technologists is increasing.
a) Why is there a high demand for professionals in food processing and technology?
b) Suggest one innovative area in food processing where research is necessary.
v. If you were a food technologist, what three strategies would you suggest to improve the nutritional
quality and safety of processed foods in India?

4. Sanjay is training to become a food technologist. He notices that raw vegetables, fruits, and meats
spoil quickly if not stored properly. He also observes that processed foods like jams, canned
vegetables, and roasted nuts last much longer. Sanjay wants to understand why foods spoil, how
processing prevents deterioration, and what modern methods can be applied.

i. Sanjay sees discoloration and off-flavors in vegetables left at room temperature.
a) Name three types of food deterioration that can occur.
b) b) List three factors that cause food spoilage.
ii. a) Which microorganisms commonly spoil food?
b) How do naturally present enzymes contribute to food spoilage?

iii. Sanjay wants to extend shelf life of freshly harvested fruits.

a) Suggest three traditional methods of preservation.
b) b) Suggest two modern methods that improve safety and shelf life.
iv. Why do processed foods like jams, roasted nuts, or canned vegetables last longer than fresh produce?
v. Sanjay notices that some modern processed foods are convenient and portable.
a) Explain how processing adds value to foods.
b) What knowledge areas must a food technologist have to ensure food quality and safety?

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CHAPTER 5
FOOD QUALITY AND FOOD SAFETY

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:EASY
1. __________ is a major determinant of health, nutritional status and productivity of the population.
A) Food B) Socioeconomic status C) Sanitation D) Income

2. Identify the type of hazard

a) Physical b) Chemical c) Visible biological d) Invisible biological

3. __________ hazards includes pesticides, chemical residues, toxic metals, and polychlorinated biphenyls.
a) Biological b) Chemical c) Physical d) Nutritional

4. Identify the type of hazard

a) Physical b) Chemical c) Visible biological d) Invisible biological

5. Micro-organisms that are associated with food and cause diseases are called as ________.
a) Food additives b) Food preservatives c) Food enhancers d) Food-borne pathogens

6. Salmonella can reproduce very quickly and double their number every ___________minutes.
a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 20

7. India is a member of codex through which of the following?
a) Ministry of food processing industries b) Department of agriculture and cooperation
c) Ministry of health and family welfare d) Directorate general of health

8. __________ are substances used for making food products unsafe for human consumption.
a) Nutrients b) Preservatives c) Adulterants d) Additives

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9. __________ is a voluntary scheme of certification of agricultural products for safeguarding the health of
consumers.
a) BIS b) AG mark c) ECO mark d) Silk mark.

10. Indian government passed FSSA in __________ year.
a) 2000 b) 2004 c) 2006 d) 2008

11. Food safety and quality can be ensured through __________
a) GMP b) GHP c) HACCP d) All of these

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:AVERAGE
12. Since 2006, National standards for food are issued by ________
a) BIS b) ISO c) CAC d) FSSAI

13. The ________ agreement covers goods, services and intellectual properties.
a ) CAC b) ISO c) WTO d) FPA

14. __________ is responsible for the emergence of new pathogens.
a) Norovirus b) Rotavirus c) Hepatitis E d) All of these

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:DIFFICULT
15. ___________ International organisations and agreements play a role in enhancing food safety, quality
and security, facilitating research and trade.
i. CAC ii. FPA iii. WTO iv. BIS
a) i and ii b) ii and iii c) iii and iv d) i and iii
16. Match the following
a. CAC i. ISI
b. ISO ii. Food Code
c. WTO iii. Quality management
d. BIS iv. Food Inspection
Codes: i ii iii iv
a) a, b, c d
b) d, a, b, c
c) c, d, a, b
d) d, b, c a
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17. Statement 1: Toxins in food cannot be detected by smell, appearance or taste.
Statement 2: Foods which smell and appear good are not necessarily safe.
a) Statement 1 is true Statement 2 is false b) Statement 1 is false Statement 2 is true
c) Both the Statements are true d) Both the Statements are false
18. Statement 1: Genetic exchange or mutations in organisms can create new strains that may cause disease.
Statement 2: People can be exposed to new pathogens because of changes in eating habits, climate and
food production.
a) Statement 1 is true Statement 2 is false b) Statement 1 is false Statement 2 is true
c) Both the Statements are true d Both the Statements are false

19. Match the following.
i. Food infection a. Milk
ii. Food intoxication b. Salmonella
iii. Food infestation c. Staphylococcus aureus
iv. Adulteration d. tape worm
Codes: i ii iii iv
a) a, b, c d
b) b, c, d, a
c) c, d, a, b
d) d, b, c a
20. Assertion (A): Risk assessment and safety management are critical during mass production and mass
distribution of food.
Reason (R): Logistics governing transport of bulk food is complex and there is a long gap between
processing and consumption.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
21. Assertion (A): In commercial settings, food has a higher chance of getting contaminated.
Reason (R): Foods are prepared in bulk, handled by many persons, and often stored for long hours
without appropriate conditions.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
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22. Which of the following are considered as attributes of food quality?
i. Colour ii. Texture iii. Price iv. Brand name
a) i and ii b) ii and iii c) ii and iii d) ii and iv

Answers:
1. a, 2. a, 3. b, 4. c, 5. d, 6. d, 7. c, 8. c, 9. b, 10. c, 11. d, 12. d, 13. c, 14. d, 15. d, 16. b, 17. c, 18. c, 19. b,
20. a, 21 a, 22. a.

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS 2 MARKS
1. List the ill-effects of food borne illness.
2. Name two types of additives commonly used in food.
3. Define food safety. Name the two concepts of food safety
4. What do you mean by Toxicity and Hazard?
5. List the different types of Hazard.
6. Explain physical hazard with example.
7. Explain chemical hazard with example.
8. Give examples for biological hazard.
9. What do you mean by Food-borne pathogens?
10. Name the two types of food borne diseases.
11. What do you mean by Food infection /Food Poisoning? Give one example of a microorganism that can
cause Food infection /Food Poisoning.
12. What are the common sources of Salmonella infection?
13. List the symptoms of Salmonella.
14. What do you mean by Food intoxication? Give one example of a microorganism that can cause Food
intoxication.
15. Name the different types of Food Control System.

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS 3 MARKS
1. Explain why food safety and quality are of global concern?
2. Explain the role of the WTO non-tariff agreement in providing opportunities for international trade.
3. Which sources of pollution affect food safety, making testing for nutrients and contaminants imperative?
4. How can a person become infected with Salmonella?
5. Explain the national food standards?
6. List the international organization and agreements in maintaining food standards.
7. List the different types of orders or acts laid by PFA to ensure the quality of specific food.
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8. Differentiate between Codex and ISO.
9. What role does the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) play in regulating food safety?
10. What is the Food Code, and which documents are included by the Codex Alimentarius Commission
(CAC) to ensure fair practices in food trade?
11. How do Good Manufacturing Practices help manufacturers ensure product safety and protect consumers
from contamination and false labelling?
12. How do Good Handling Practices help in minimizing the risk of contamination and ensuring hygienic
food handling from farm to consumer?

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS 5 MARKS
1. Why are food safety and quality considered more critical in large-scale food production and processing
than at the home level? (Ans: Significance)
2. List the factors responsible for the emergence of pathogens.
3. Mention the salient features to be borne in mind to ensure food safety during preparation/processing,
packaging and service.
4. What do you mean by food quality? Explain the different levels of standards to the manufacturer to
facilitate trade within and between nations.
5. If you wish to start a food production business, which rules and regulations laid down by FSSAI must be
followed?
6. How Food safety and quality can be ensured by the manufacturer.
7. How does HACCP help in ensuring food safety?
8. List the career avenues available in the field of food quality and food safety.
HOTS LEVEL QUESTIONS
1. Ramesh is preparing a report on Food Quality and Safety. What is the significance of addressing recent
food safety challenges, and what recommendations should he include? (Ans : Significance) (5M)
2. Suresh is suffering from diarrhoea since two days after eating street food. He is confused with food
infection or food intoxication. Explain both with example. (3M)
3. By which two main processes does the quality of food deteriorate? Explain with examples. (3m)
4. Ramu wants to introduce his biscuit production to the market. He wants to influence his products value to
the consumer. Inform Ramu about positive, negative and nutritional traits required by government and
international bodies to be followed by manufacturers. (3M)
5. What is the role of food inspection in ensuring conformity of food products to standards? (2M)
6. Why is analytical capability important in ensuring food safety, and what resources are required for
effective food analysis? (3M)

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CHAPTER 6
EARLY CHILDHOOD CARE AND EDUCATION

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS: EASY
1. At ________ months a baby can show fear of unknown people.
a) 8-11 months b) 9-12months c) 8-12months d) 9-12months

2. The young child of around _____ year will try to cling to the mother or other caregiver and follow
her everywhere.
a) 1 year b) 2year c) 1.5years d) 2.5years

3. As a child grows, he /she develops control over __________.
a) Bowel movement b) Bladder control c) Both a and b d) Only b

4. An example for informal family setting is ________.
a) Creche b) Day cares c) Both a and b d) none of the above.

5. Early years (1-3) of a child is important because they ____________.
a) Learn new things
b) Explore the environment
c) Discover the world around
d) All the above.

6. Children learn very quickly among ___________.
a) Peers b)Parents c)Relatives d)Teachers

7. In remote areas, older children of school going age are often given the responsibility _________.
a) To earn money
b) To take care of young ones
c) To do household works
d) To study well.

8. Early childhood is the phase of life from birth till _________ years of age.
a) 8 b) 9 c) 6 d) 1

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9. ____________ period is the intense dependence on adults.
a) Infancy b)Pre-school age c) Adolescent d) Middle childhood

10. ___________is the name given to an institutional setting that is particularly designed for the care of
infants and young children in the absence of home care.
a) Creche b) Day care c)Play home d) Montessori

11. Maria Montessori is a _____________.
a) Educationist d) Psychologist c) Child specialist d) all of the above

12. The Government provides pre-school education through __________.
a) Anganwadis b) creche c) Day care d) NGO’s

13. Jean Piaget is a _____________.
a) Psychologist b) Educationist c) Journalist d) Educator

14. One of the skills required for early childhood professionals is ___________.
a) Knowledge about the needs and capabilities of young children
b) Willingness and interest in answering children’s queries
c) Capacity for understanding individual differences
d) All the above

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS: DIFFICULT
The child’s curiosity will diminish and might feel anxious and insecure when______.
a) Force to sit in one place
b) Encouraged to move forward.
c) Safe environment is provided
d) Loving mother is around

15. Rita is a mother of 2year old girl, She thinks that the best way to create a good learning environment
is through____________.
a) Safe, secure and loving environment
b) Variety of play materials
c) Presence of caring adult
d) All the above
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16. The ____________ method and ___________ makes learning enjoyable for young children.
a) Child centered approach
b) Play way method
c) Parent centered approach
d) Only a and b
17. Preschool education is ____________ centered.
a) Parent centered
b) Child centered
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
18. ___________ is the care of children in the preschool years and may include infants and preschoolers.
a) Day care b) play homes c) creche d) Both a and c

19. Match the column A with column B
Column A Column B
a) A. Anganwadi i) is School for infants to 18 years
b) B. Day care centre (ii) Child centred approach
c) C. Preschool (iii) Courtyard shelter
d) D. Montessori (iv) Centre providing care during daytime

Pick the correct option
a) A.(i), B.(ii), C.(iii), D.(iv)
b) A.(iii), B.(iv), C(ii), D.(i)
c) A(iv), B.(ii), C.(i), D.(iii)
d) A.(ii), B.(i), C.(iv), D.(iii)

20. Identify the picture given
a) Children at play
b) Children searching for lost things
c) Children exploring the nature
d) Children enjoying with peers.

21. Assertion (A): Scientific understanding of child development helps adults set realistic expectations
for children.
Reason (R): Understanding developmental stages allows adults to align their interactions with the
child's abilities.
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a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.

22. Assertion (A): Comparing siblings based on achievements enhances their motivation to succeed.
Reason (R): Children are naturally competitive and thrive when measured against each other.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) Both A and R are false.

23. Statement A – Young children have a short attention span when compared with older children and
adults.
Statement B – Engage young children with several activities, Be adaptive and flexible rather than
completing one’s own plan of action.

a) Statement A is true
b) Statement B is false
c) Statement A and B is true
d) Statement A and B is false

Answers 1. (C), 2 (a), 3. (c), 4. (a), 5. (d), 6. (a), 7. (b), 8.(a), 9. (a), 10. (a), 11. (a), 12. (a), 13. (a), 14(d),
15. (a), 16. (d), 17. (d), 18. (b), 19. (a). 20. b), 21. (c ), 22. (a), 23. (d), 24. (c ).
ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS 2 MARKS
1. What do you mean by Primary care giver?
2. Who can be a primary care giver?
3. What is the contribution of Jean Piaget?
4. Who is the founder of Montessori schools? What is the principles of these Montessori schools?
5. Mention any two basic objectives of ECCE?
6. Give the difference between Creche and day care centers
7. Give any two characteristics of 2year child.
8. Smitha is a teacher in a preschool, what qualifications should she have?
9. Why a child between 2-3 years of age called as toddler?
10. What is meant by Child-centered approach?
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11. Mention any two skills of early childhood professional.
12. What services are available in early childhood care and education.
13. If Ramesh wants to be an effective early childhood specialist, which is the fundamental requirement
for him to have?
14. What makes an early childhood professionals to be an effective teacher?
ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS 3 MARKS
1. What training should a pre-school teacher undergo?
2. What are the expectations from a caregiver of young children?

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS 5 MARKS
1. What are career opportunities in early childhood care and education
2. Explain the guiding principles of ECCE.
3. Explain the significance or importance of early childhood care and education.
4. What are the skills and education qualification required for an early childhood professional?
5. Tanya has just completed her 12th grade and is highly enthusiastic about working with young
children. Mention the personal skills or qualities which is suitable for the passage.

HOTS LEVEL QUESTIONS
1. Rakesh has finished his 12th Grade. He is willing to go for early childhood education. Help him in
preparing his career with education qualifications and career avenues.
2. Ria has completed her diploma in Early Childhood Care and Education. She is passionate about
working with children but does not want to become a classroom teacher. Using your understanding
of the scope of ECCE, suggest and explain three alternative career options Ria can pursue. Justify
your suggestions based based on the requirements and opportunities

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CHAPTHER 7
MANAGEMENT OF SUPPORT SERVICES, INSITUTIONS AND PROGRAMES FOR
CHILDREN, YOUTH, ELDERLY
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:EASY
1. What percentage of children under five years of age suffer from moderate or severe malnutrition?
a) Nearly one-third b) Nearly half c) nearly one-fourth d) nearly two-thirds
2. What proportion of children of pre-school age has the opportunity to be in an early learning
program?
a) One in three b) One in two c) One in four d) One in five
3. In which year Juvenile Justice Act law was established?
a) 2000 b)2001 c)2002 d)2003
4. 1. What is the primary goal of SOS Children's Villages?
a) To provide education to all children
b) To provide family-based, long-term care to orphaned and abandoned children
c) To provide healthcare services only
d) To conduct research on child welfare
5. When was the first SOS village set up in India?
a) 1960 b) 1984 c) 1964 d) 2000
6. 3. How many SOS villages are there across India?
a) 20 b) 30 c) 40 d) 50
7. What is the purpose of Observation Homes for children?
a) For long-term care of abandoned children
b) To stay temporarily till the completion of an investigation
c) For juveniles found guilty of law violation
d) For providing education to all children
8. Children’s home run by the government for which age group of children?
a) 3-15 years b)3-16 years c)3-17 years d)3-18 years
9. What is the purpose of Juvenile/Children's Homes?
a) For children to stay with their families
b) For those whose families are untraceable or unfit/dead
c) For providing education only
d) For adoption processes
10. Who runs most Juvenile/Children's Homes?
a) Government alone b) NGOs alone
c) Government in partnership with NGOs d) Private institutions only
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11. What is CARA's role in India?
a) To run Juvenile Home b) To handle youth vulnerability cases
c) To provide education to youth d) To set up guidelines for adoption
12. According to the National Youth Policy 2014, what is the age range for 'youth'?
a) 10-20 years b) 15-29 years c) 18-35 years d) 13-19 years
13. Which of these groups are considered especially vulnerable among youth?
a) Urban Youth b) Rural and Tribal Youth c) Employed Youth d) Youth in sports
14. What year did the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports adopt the National Youth Policy?
a) 2003 b) 2004 c) 2005 d) 2006
15. What is one of the activities NSS students do related to environmental improvement?
a) Digging pits b) Cooking food c) Playing sports d) Reading books
16. NSS aims at involving students in program of which level?
a) School and district level b) College level
c) Only school level d) only national level
17. 2. How long do students typically involve themselves in the National Service Volunteer Scheme?
a) 6 months b) 1-2 years c) 3-5 years d) 5+ years
18. 6. What do many youth clubs and voluntary organizations organize?
a) Adventure activities b) Only cultural events c) Only sports d) Government meetings
19. What is the aim of these adventure activities?
a) for team-work b) To encourage the spirit of adventure and team-work
c) To limit risk-taking d) To focus on indoor activities
20. In India, Senior Citizens are defined as people of what age group?
a) 60 years and above b) 65 years and above c) 70 years and above d) 75 years and above
21. Which country has the largest number of Senior Citizens in the world?
a) India b) China c) USA d) Japan
22. What is a type of care provided for seriously ill older persons living in old age homes?
a) Respite Care Homes b) Day Care c) Home Care d) None of the above
23. What do Old Age homes provide to the elderly?
a) Food, care, shelter b) Only food c) Only shelter d) Medical treatment only
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:DIFFICULT
24. The vulnerable group due to various reasons. Some reasons are-
i) Decreased defense mechanism ii)Increased financial resources
iii)Improved physiological reserves iv) Nuclear family system
Choose the correct option
a) i and ii b) ii and iii c) i and iv d) ii and iv
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25. Match the following
A. Juvenile justice Act i) 1999
B. First SOS village in India ii) 2014
C. New National Youth Policy iii)1964
D. National Policy For Older Persons iv)2015
Pick the correct option-
a) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii b)A-ii, B-iv, C-i , D-iii c) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii d) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii,D-i
26. Choose the correct statement given below
Statement I: SOS village take care of the children who are orphaned and abandoned
Statement II: SOS is a non-governmental social organization
a) Statement I is true II is false b)Statement I And II is false
c) Statement I is false and II is true d)Both statement I and II is true
27. Assertion (A): India has institutionalized and legalized adoption.
Reason (R): To safeguard the welfare and rights of children in the context of changing times beyond
family and religious practices.
Which of the following is correct?
a) Both A and R is true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R is true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
28. Choose the correct statement
Statement I-Nehru Yuvak Kendras aim to enable the non-student youth of rural areas to contribute
to development.
Statement II-The activities of Nehru Yuvak Kendras aim to promote only cultural programmes
among young people.
a) Statement I is true II is false b) Statement I And II is false
c) Statement I is false and II is true d) Both statement I and II is true
29. Match the following
Column A column B
A) Mobile care unit i) for alzheimers disease
B) Day care unit ii)for elder in isolated, rural area
C) National old age pension scheme iii)provides food, care, shelter
D) Old age home iv) for elder above 65 years
Choose the correct option
a) A-ii , B-i, C-iv, D-iii b)A-i , B-ii, C-iii, D-iv c) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv d)A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
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Answer: 1-D, 2-A, 3-A, 4-B, 5-C, 6-C, 7-B, 8-D, 9-B, 10-C, 11-D, 12-B, 13-B, 14-A, 15-A, 16-B, 17-B,
18-A, 19-B, 20-A, 21-B, 22-A, 23-A, 24-C, 25-D, 26-D, 27-A, 28-B, 29-A,

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS 2 MARKS
1. Juvenile Justice Act 2000 is concern with which two categories of children? What does it mean?
2. According to juvenile justice act, who will get protection and care? Mention any four
3. Which groups of youth are considered as vulnerable?
4. Which child is considered as vulnerable?
5. Who is vulnerable elderly?
6. NSS program involves which kinds of activities?
7. Distinguish the difference between ICDS and SOS
8. Mention the institutional programs and initiatives for children.
9. Give the features of SOS village
10. Nehru yuva Kendra sangathan allows different activities mention any four of them
11. Naveen undergoes training in a voluntary institution regarding vulnerables. Tell him any two on
going programs for children.
ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS 3 MARKS
1. Write about three different childrens home
2. Mention the difference between ICDS and SOS
3. Why are youth considered as vulnerable?
4. Why are elders a vulnerable group?
5. What do you meant by National Old age Pension Scheme?

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS 5 MARKS
1. Describe the knowledge and skill required in order to pursue a career in management for
elderly/children/youth
2. The juvenile justice act deals with which two caterories of children? Who are the children in need of
care and protection as per this act?
3. Write the features of NSS nd scouts and guides
HOTS question
1. Kusum has to go to a remote area to deliver a lecturer on ‘Aged in India’ a project on social work.
Help Kusum by making a list of ten ongoing programs for elderly

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CHAPTER 8
DESIGN FOR FABRIC AND APPAREL

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION : EASY
1. What are the two main factors that design consists of?
A) Elements and Principles B) Colour and Texture
C) Harmony and Balance D) Structure and Applied
2. Which of the following is an element of design?
A) Harmony B) Balance C) Colour D) Proportion
3. What is colour defined as in the given text?
A) Reflection of light striking the surface of an object B) Absorption of light by an object
C) Emission of light by an object D) Refraction of light through an object
4. What are tertiary colors made by mixing?
A) Two primary colors B) One primary and one secondary color
C) Two secondary colors D) Black and white
5. Which of the following are considered achromatic colors?
A) Red, Blue, Yellow B) White, Black, Grey
C) Green, Orange, Purple D) Brown, Pink, Beige
6. What does "Chroma" or intensity refer to in color theory?
A) Brightness of a color mixed with black B) Brightness or purity of a color
C) Dullness of a color mixed with grey D) Value of a color on the grey scale
7. In the Grey Scale figure, what are the extremes represented by?
A) Black and white B) Black and grey
C) Grey and White D) Shade and Tint
8. At which stage is dyeing very rarely done because it is an expensive process?
A) Yarn stage B) Garment stage C) Fabric stage D) Fibre stage
9. Which of the following is a type of Related colour scheme?
A) Monochromatic harmony B) Complementary harmony
C) Double complementary D) None of the above
10. What does Complementary harmony refer to?
A) Using two or three hues side by side on the colour wheel
B) Using two hues directly opposite to each other on the Colour Wheel
C) Using only neutrals
D) Using one hue varied in value and intensity

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11. What is the main purpose of texture in dress design?
A) To make the dress heavier B) To simplify design
C) To reduce cost D) To create interest and enhance desirable features
12. Which of the following types of lines stress up and down movement?
A) Horizontal lines B) Vertical lines C) Oblique lines D) Curved lines
13.What do curved lines generally express in design?
A) Softness and grace B) Force and rigidity
C) Straightness and dominance D) None of the above
14. Which of the following shapes are formed mathematically?
A) Natural shapes B) Stylised shapes C) Geometric shapes D) Abstract shapes
15. What is created when all elements of design come together to give a pleasing effect?
A) Composition B) Harmony C) Radiation D) Parallelism
16. What is the nature of the design industry according to the text?
A) Static and traditional B) Vibrant, varied, and dynamic
C) Limited to textiles only D) Not creative
17. Where might textile designers work?
A) Only in fashion houses B) Only in design agencies
C) Textiles companies, fashion houses, design agencies, or as freelancers
D) Only as freelancers
18. What is split complementary harmony?
A) A combination of analogous complementary schemes
B) A three-color combination using a hue and two neighbors of its complement
C) A combination of three hues equidistant on the Color Wheel
D) A combination of complementary colors only
19. How is texture described in terms of its look?*
A) Shiny, dull, opaque, dense B) Soft, crisp, harsh, smooth
C) Hangs limp, stiff, sticking out D) All of the above except B
20. According to the principles of design, what does proportion concern?
A) Balance of elements B) Relation of one part of an object to another
C) Emphasis on design elements D) Harmony of colors
21. Which ratio is generally based on for proportion in design?
A) 2:3:5 B) 3:5:8 C) 1:2:3 D) 4:5:6

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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION :AVERAGE
22. What does balance in garment design refer to?
A) Distribution of weight B) Use of colors only
C) Type of fabric used D) Emphasis on accessories

23. Which method of creating rhythm is shown in knife pleats?
(a) Radiation (b) Asymmetry (c) Cordation (d) Parallelism

24.Tie-dyeing at the yarn stage results in:
(a) Batik patterns (b) Ikat patterns (c) Painted designs (d) Printed motifs

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION: DIFFICULT

25. Match the following

A. Emphasis i) Repetition

B. Balance ii) Golden mean

C. Rhythm iii) Focal point

D. Proportion iv) Formal

Pick the correct option

a) Ai, B iv, C ii, D iii b) Aii, Bi, Ciii, Div

c) Aiii, Biv, Ci, Dii d) Aiv, Biii, Cii, Di

26. Which of the following is an example of radiation rhythm?
(a) Knife pleats in a skirt (b) Gathers around a yoke
(c) Bands of colour placed side by side (d) Gradual increase in button size

27. Arrange the following in order of typical use from least common to most common:

1. Fabric stage dyeing 2. Fibre stage dyeing 3. Yarn stage dyeing

(a) 2 → 3 → 1 (b) 3 → 2 → 1
(c) 1 → 2 → 3 (d) 2 → 1 → 3

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28. A designer wants to match a new blouse with a grey skirt (value = 5). Which hue adjustment should she
make to ensure value harmony?
(a) Use a hue with value closer to 0 or 10 (b) Use a hue with value around 5
(c) Use a hue with maximum black (d) Use a completely unrelated value

29.

With reference to the above image, If a colour is placed at value 2 on the Grey Scale, how will it visually
affect the garment?
(a) Appears very light and airy (b) Appears dark and heavy
(c) Appears neutral grey (d) Has no visual impact

30..Assertion (A): Pantone Shade Card shows only primary colours like Red, Blue, and Yellow.
Reason (R): Each hue, tint, and shade is given an international code number in Pantone system.

A. A true, R false B A false, R true C. .Both true D. Both false

ANSWERS : 1 A, 2 C , 3 A, 4 B, 5 B , 6 B, 7A, 8 D , 9A, 10 B , 11 D, 12 B, 13 A, 14 C, 15 B, 16 B, 17 C,
18 B , 19 A, 20 B, 21 B , 22 A, 23 D, 24 B, 25 C, 26 B, 27 A, 28 B, 29 B, 30 B.

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS: 2 MARKS
1. What are the three aspects in which colour is specified?
2. What happens when all light rays are reflected from an object?
3. What is the difference between a tint and a shade in color theory?
4. How many primary colors are shown in the color wheel diagram? Name them.
5. Define "Shades" and "Tints".
6. What is the role of the Pantone Shade Card in textile products?
7. What is meant by Analogous harmony in colour schemes?
8. Define Achromatic harmony.
9. What are the basic types of lines?
10. How do horizontal lines affect the perception of a design?

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11. Differentiate between straight lines and curved lines in terms of their visual effect in design.
12. What are natural shapes in design?
13. What is meant by 'Harmony' in design?
14. What is meant by proportion in design principles?
15. How is proportion of texture achieved in design?
16. What are the two main types of balance ? Explain.
17. How does emphasis affect the viewer's attention in garment design?

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS: 3MARKS
1. Explain the concept of 'value' in color theory.
2. Explain how dullness results in a color .
3. List three natural sources from which color names are derived.
4. Explain why dyeing at the fibre stage is rarely done.
5. What does the Pantone Color Chart help with in textile ordering?
6. Explain Monochromatic harmony with an example.
7. What are Contrasting schemes? Mention one type.
8. Describe the effect of oblique or diagonal lines in design.
9. How should textures be used in dress design related to other elements?
10. Explain the characteristics of geometric shapes with an example.
11. How do shapes and forms in fabric relate to design elements?
12. Explain the concept of 'Composition' in design .
13. What knowledge is required for a fabric designer?
14. Describe the role of the design industry.
15. Briefly explain triadic harmony with an example.
16. List any three factors that determine the texture in textile materials.
17. Explain the concept of proportion in design with an example.
18. How does clothing modify the figure according to the principles of design?
19. Explain formal balance in garment design.
20. Mention three ways rhythm can be created in garment design.

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS: 5 MARKS
1. Describe the concept of colour theory ,including the definition of colour and its dependency on light.
2. Explain the classification of colours with examples.
3. Describe the color wheel, including the types of colors (primary, secondary, tertiary) and their
relationships.
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4. Explain how the concept of value (tints and shades) is used in judging colors with the help of a Grey
Scale .
5. Describe the concept of "Colour Shades & Tints" and explain their value ranges.
6. Discuss the importance of using a standardized color system like Pantone in international textile
trade. Include how it aids in communication and ordering.
7. Describe how color can be incorporated into fabrics at different stages of production and the variety
of designs possible.
8. Describe the two groups in which Colour Schemes can be discussed. Explain any two types of
Related colour schemes.
9. Explain the concept of Colour Schemes or Colour Harmonies in textile design. How are they best
studied?
10. Explain the role of lines in design . Include how different types of lines (vertical, horizontal,
oblique/diagonal) affect the design.
11. Discuss the main purpose of texture in dress design and the criteria for selecting appropriate textures
according to the text.
12. Describe the four basic groups of shapes in design with examples.
13. Discuss the importance of 'Harmony' in design for fabric and apparel with examples.
14. Discuss the scope of the design industry in relation to textile or fabric design.
15. Explain the concept of texture in materials, including how it looks, behaves, and feels. Provide
examples for each
16. Describe the factors that determine the texture in textile materials. Explain with examples
17. Describe the principles of proportion in design including proportion of color, texture, shape, and
form with examples
18. Discuss how proportion based on the golden mean (like 3:5:8) is applied in design elements such as
garments, and give an example of its application.
19. Discuss the concept of balance in garment design. How does it impact the appearance of a person
wearing the garment?
20. Explain how emphasis and rhythm contribute to the overall design of a garment. Give examples

HOTS LEVEL QUESTIONS

1. Riya is a fashion design student preparing her final project. She wants to design a skirt-blouse dress
for a fashion show. She knows that a dress looks aesthetically pleasing if it follows the principle of
proportion based on the Golden Mean (ratios such as 3:5:8 or 5:8:13).

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In her design:

• The blouse length is ___ cm,
• The skirt length is ____cm,
• The total dress length is ___cm.

Identify whether the blouse, skirt, and total dress length in Riya’s design follow the Golden Mean ratio of
3:5:8. Justify your answer.
2. Ananya is designing a formal dress for an office presentation. She notices that her client has slightly
broader shoulders compared to her hips, making her body appear top-heavy. Ananya wants to use the
principle of Balance (vertical and horizontal) to make the dress appear proportionate.
i. Which type of balance (formal, informal, or radial) should Ananya use to make the client look
symmetrical? Why?
ii. How can horizontal balance be applied in this case to reduce the appearance of broad shoulders?
iii. If Ananya instead uses informal balance (different but visually equal design elements), give one
creative way she can achieve harmony in the garment.
iv. Why might Ananya avoid using radial balance for this office presentation dress?
2. Arjun, a fashion design student, is designing an ethnic kurta for a festive collection. He wants to
create rhythm in the garment so that the eye flows smoothly from the neckline to the hemline. He
experiments with embroidery, pleats, and colour bands.
i. Arjun adds bands of alternating colours (red and gold) at the hemline. Which type of rhythm is he
using, and why is it effective?
ii. If Arjun places embroidery motifs at the neckline, sleeve border, and hemline, which rhythm
principle is applied?
iii. Arjun experiments by gradually increasing the size of motifs from small near the neckline to large
near the hemline. Identify the rhythm principle and explain its impact..
iv. He adds gathers around the waistline so the fabric flows outward. Which rhythm pciple is this, and in
what context is it most used?

3. Megha is designing three outfits for different occasions:

a) A business suit for a corporate client who wants to look tall and dignified.
b) A party gown for a young girl that should look playful and youthful.
c) A dramatic stage costume for a dance performance, where the performer must look striking and
larger-than-life.

She decides to apply the principles of lines (straight & curved) to achieve these effects.
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i. Which type of line should Megha use in the business suit to make the client look taller and more
dignified? Why?
ii. For the party gown designed for a young girl, what kind of lines will create a playful and youthful
appearance?
iii. Which line effect would be most effective in the dramatic stage costume to make the performer
look larger and striking?
iv. If Megha mistakenly uses only horizontal lines in the business suit, what would be the visual effect
on the client’s appearance?
v. Why is it important for fashion designers to understand the psychological and visual effects of lines
when creating garments?

4. Ritu is designing a bedroom interior for a client who wants the room to feel calm and peaceful. The
client prefers shades of blue but does not want the room to look monotonous. Ritu considers
different related colour schemes to achieve the effect.

i. Which colour scheme should Ritu use if she chooses only one hue (blue) but varies its lightness and
darkness?
ii. If Ritu adds white curtains and grey bedsheets with blue walls, which related scheme is this?
iii. Suppose she uses blue, blue-green, and green for walls, cushions, and décor items. Which harmony is
being applied?
iv. Which scheme (monochromatic vs. analogous) is better for creating a calm living room and why?

5. A designer is creating a costume for a stage dance performance. The outfit needs to look bold,
striking, and full of energy so that it catches the audience’s eye even from a distance. The designer
considers different contrasting colour harmonies.

i. If the designer chooses red and green, which harmony is being used?
ii. The designer picks yellow, violet, and blue-violet. Which scheme is this?
If the costume includes orange, blue, violet, and yellow, which harmony is applied?
iii. A striking outfit is made with red, blue, and yellow. Which colour scheme is this, and why is it
effective on stage?

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CHAPTER 9
FASHION DESIGN AND MERCHANDISING

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS: EASY
1. ________was the term used for the art of dress making.
a) Couture b) couturier c) couturiere d) All of these

2. ________ developed the first foot treadle sewing machines.
a) Issac Singer b) Levi Strauss c) Yves Saint Laurent d) King Louis XIV

3. _________ created and popularized pants that came to be known as denims.
a) Issac Singer b) Levi Strauss c) Yves Saint Laurent d) King Louis XIV

4. _________ was the first French couturier to launch a prêt-à-porter (ready-to-wear) line.
a) Issac Singer b) Levi Strauss c) Yves Saint Laurent d) King Louis XIV

5. Set designers design clothing for ___________
a) Movies b) Television show c) Both A and B d) None of the above.

6. ________ designer is responsible for designing window display of in fashion industry.
a) Interior b) set designer c) Fashion d) Visual

7. ___________ segmentation includes people having similar lifestyles can make up a target market group.
a) Demographic b) Geographic c) Psychographic d) Behavioural

8. Maintaining stock in the right ________ensures a profitable balance between volume of sales and amount
of inventory.
a) Merchandise b) Place c) Time d) Quantity

9. __________ are retail outlets that share a brand and central management, and usually have standardised
business methods and practices.
a) Fashion retail business b) Small Single-unit Store c) Department Stores d) Chain stores

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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:AVERAGE
10. _________moves the fashion world from designer's showroom to retain sales floor and into the hands of
consumers.
a) Retail organisation b) Buying Agency c) Export house d) Target market

11. ________ is a person who facilitates conversion of inspiration into design.
a) Fashion merchandiser b) Artist c) Retail merchandiser d ) Buying merchandiser

12. Fashion retail organisation system differs with the differences in type of ________.
a) Merchandise b) Size of retail firm c) Target customer d) All of these

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:DIFFICULT
13. Match the following.
i. Couture a. Yves Saint Laurent
ii. Couturier b. female designer
iii. Couturiere c. male designer
iv. prêt-à-porter d. art of dress making
Codes: i ii iii iv
a) a, b, c d
b) b, c, d, a
c) c, d, a, b
d) d, c, b a
14. Choose the correct order of the stages in the fashion cycle that show how a style is accepted.
a) Culmination – Decline -- Introduction – Rise
b) Decline -- Introduction – Rise -- Culmination
c) Introduction – Rise -- Culmination -- Decline
d) Introduction – Rise -- Decline – Culmination
15. Identify the meaning of * S* in the given graph

a) Introduction b) Rise c) Peak d) Decline
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16. Choose the correct order of role of the fashion merchandiser that show how a style is accepted.
a) Buying -- Manufacturing – Promoting -- Selling
b) Manufacturing – Promoting -- Buying -- Selling
c) Manufacturing – Buying -- Promoting – Selling
d) Manufacturing – Promoting -- Buying – Selling

17. Statement 1: Small Single-unit Store is a family operated neighbourhood store.
Statement 2 : Department Stores consist of separate sections such as clothing, sporting goods etc.
a) Statement 1 is true Statement 2 is false b) Statement 1 is false Statement 2 is true
c) Both the Statements are true d) Both the Statements are false.

18. Assertion: Buying fabric according to the market trends is a vital part of effective fashion
merchandising.
Reason: Ignoring market trends leads to unsold stock and losses.
a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
c) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

19. Analytical ability is important for fashion merchandisers to ___________.
i) Design new styles ii) Understand consumer budget
iii) Promote advertisements iv) To select raw materials.
a) i and ii b) ii and iii c) i and iv d) ii and iv

20. Assertion (A): Interior designers combine form with function.
Reason (R): Their designs depend on beauty, safety and functionality.
a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
c) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

21. Assertion (A): In manufacturing, fashion merchandisers decide on the type of fabric for clothing.
Reason (R): They consider history, culture and target market.
a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
67 – HOME SCIENCE Page 44 of 69

c) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

22. Sales and promotion division mainly include __________.
i) Credit ii) Advertising iii Personnel care iv) Publicity
a) i and ii b) ii and iii c) i and iv d) ii and iv

23. ___________ are the examples of fads.
i) Hotpants ii) Baggy iii) Saree iv) Blazer
a) i and ii b) ii and iii c) i and iv d) ii and iv
Answers.
1. a, 2. a, 3. b, 4. c, 5. c, 6. d, 7. c, 8. d, 9. d, 10. a, 11. a, 12. d, 13. d, 14. c, 15. c, 16. c, 17. c, 18. a, 19. a, 20.
a, 21. a, 22. d, 23. a.

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS 2 MARKS
1. Explain the term- Fashion/ Style/ Fads/ Classic used in fashion industry.
2. Who is a fashion merchandiser and what role do they play in the fashion industry?
3. How does target market increase sales returns?
4. List the functions of buying agency merchandiser.
5. How does a fashion merchandiser promote designer item to a potential buyer?
6. Define target market and market segmentation.
7. How do merchandisers use communication in advertising?

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS 3 MARKS
1. Write a note on Retail Organisation Merchandising.
2. Explain the different types of merchandiser in an export house.
3. Explain the skills that a fashion designer must possess to succeed in the field of fashion.
4. What are some of the popular fashion design careers that one could consider?
5. List the major divisions in merchandising and Operational division.
6. Mention the factors a fashion merchandiser consider while manufacturing aspect of fashion.

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS 5 MARKS
1. How does fashion design and merchandising help in understanding the various processes of the fashion
business? (Ans-significance)
2. Explain the various stages of fashion cycle.
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3. What is market segmentation and explain the different segments present in it.
4. Explain the merchandising Rights.
5. With the help of a flow chart explain the overview of the fashion retail organisation.
6. What do you mean by style? What are the roles Rohan will have as a fashion merchandiser in each of the
following fields: (a) In Buying (b) In Selling

HOTS LEVEL QUESTIONS
1. How can Amitha, as a new fashion designer, apply her knowledge of the fashion cycle to design
collections that meet market demands? (Ans- significance) (5M)
2. Meera is starting her own fashion brand. Can you help her understand what is meant by a target market
and analyze the different segments of the market to decide which would best suit her brand? (5M)
3. Sapna has recently joined as a fashion merchandiser for a well-known designer. Her main responsibility is
to promote the designer’s products to stores that buy in bulk. Name the stores. (2M)
4. Rohit is pursuing a career in fashion. Can you explain to him the major divisions of fashion retail
designers and analyze how each division contributes to the fashion industry? (5M)
5. Arjun is aspiring to become a successful fashion designer. Can you explain to him the different abilities a
fashion designer must possess? (3M)
6. Meena is studying different types of fashion retail organisations. She visits a neighbourhood shop run by a
family and later compares it with a large department store.
a) Explain one key difference in the organisational structure between a single-unit store and a department
store. (1 M)
b) Give one example of merchandise that is likely to be sold in a department store. (1 M)
c) Which retail outlets that share a brand and central management, and usually have standardised business
methods and practices. (1 M)
7. Sunitha wants to promote her designer products to stores that buy in large quantities.
a) Mention the skills required by the designer to promote the product. (3 M)

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CHAPTER 10
CARE AND MAINTENANCE OF FABRICS IN INSTITUTIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:EASY

1. Which of the following is not a key aspect of care and maintenance of fabrics in institutions?
a) Keeping the material free of physical damage.
b) Rectifying the damage.
c) Retaining or refreshing the appearance fabrics
d) Regular exposure to direct sunlight for all types of fabrics

2. Which is not the outcome of successful laundering or dry-cleaning is __________.
a) Clean fresh clothes
b) Hygienic clothes
c) Torn clothes
d) Spotless and crisp linen

3. Which combination of factors most accurately determines the appropriate method for care and
maintenance of a fabric?
a) Color, brand, and washing machine settings
b) Fabric cost, retail label, and country of origin
c) Fibre content, yarn type, fabric construction, finishes, and end use
d) Type of detergent, season of the year, and drying speed

4. What is the purpose of applying finishing treatments to fabrics?
a) To increase weight
b) To reduce fabric cost
c) To enhance appearance, performance, and durability
d) To change the fiber content

5. Equipment’s used for washing are __________
a) Buckets, basins
b) Bowls and scrubbing board.
c) Brushes
d) All the above.

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6. The given pictures is the _______________ model of washing machines.
a) Top load Washing machine
b) Front load washing machine
c) Semi Automatic washing machine
d) Automatic washing machine

7. Garments are put in the machine from the front side is called ___________.
a) Top load washing machine.
b) Front load washing machine
c) Two tub washing machine
d) None of the above.
8. _______________ method is used in top loading machines.
a) Agitation b) Pulsation c) Tumbling d) Both a and b

9. ________________ Method is used in Front loading washing machines.
a) Agitation b) Pulsation c) Tumbling d) Both a and c

10. Improper method of ___________ causes the clothes to look grey, dull and have harsh texture.
a) Rinsing
b) Water extraction
c) Spinning
d) Washing

11. What is considered the optimum spin speed in a washing machine to balance water removal and
fabric care?
a) 333–400 rpm
b) 700–800 rpm
c) 600–620 rpm
d) 1000–1100 rpm

12. The weight of the iron varies from _______________.
a) 1-3kgs
b) 1.5-3.5kgs
c) 2-3.5 kgs
d) 1.5-3kgs
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13. The washing machines have the capacity to handle ___________.
a) 100kg b)95kgs c) 105kgs d) 110kgs

14. Why is sorting hospital linen into categories like clean, mildly soiled, and very soiled important
before washing?
a) To save detergent
b) To speed up drying
c) To prevent cross-contamination and select appropriate washing methods
d) To reduce electricity use

15. Which fabric is most used in hospital clothing?
a) Cotton b) Woollen c) Silk d) Synthetic
16. Arrange the sequence of operations performed by fully automatic machine.
a) Filling up water ---- Washing----Water level control---Regulation of temperature of water--- rinsing -
-- water extraction.
b) Filling up water---water level control --- regulation of temperature of water --- washing---rinsing ----
water extraction.
c) Water level control ---- regulation of temperature of water ---- filling up water --- rinsing ---washing-
-- water extraction.
d) Regulation of temperature of water --- water level control ---filling up water--- washing --- rinsing---
water extraction.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:DIFFICULT
17. What is the basic principle on which all washing machine operates ____________.
a. Soaking the fabric in hot water for long periods
b. Keeping the fabric in motion in a washing solution to loosen and remove dirt
c. Applying bleach to dissolve stains
d. Using high heat to clean all types of fabrics
18. In top-loading washing machines, what is the specific function of the agitator’s oscillating
movement?
a) To dry the clothes faster by spinning in one direction
b) To evenly distribute detergent throughout the drum
c) To create a water current that forces water into the fabric for effective cleaning
d) To heat the water inside the tub using mechanical friction

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19. What distinguishes the pulsation method in top-loading washing machines from agitation?
a) Pulsation involves circular spinning, while agitation uses vertical strokes
b) Pulsation uses a vertical pulsator with rapid vertical movements, while agitation uses an
oscillating or rotating agitator
c) Pulsation is used only for drying, while agitation is used for washing
d) Pulsation adds more detergent to the water than agitation.
20. During the spin cycle of a washing machine, what is the primary role of centrifugal force generated
at speeds over 300 rpm?
a) To dissolve leftover detergent particles in fabric
b) To generate heat for drying clothes inside the drum
c) To push water outward from the fabric towards the drum walls for removal
d) To circulate detergent evenly through the water.
21. _____________ system provides the best water extraction process.
a) Spinning
b) Bottom – drain
c) Combination of Bottom-drain and spin
d) All the above
22. Why is spinning clothes to near dryness in a washing machine generally avoided?
a) It consumes excessive electricity
b) It can cause color fading in synthetic fabrics
c) It may create wrinkles that are hard to remove during ironing
d) It shortens the lifespan of the washing machine
23. What is the primary objective of hospital laundry processes beyond general fabric cleaning?
a) To enhance fabric softness and reduce ironing time
b) To preserve fabric color during repeated washes
c) To ensure hygiene through thorough cleaning and disinfection
d) To reduce water consumption in healthcare facilities

24. In the hospitality sector (hotels and restaurants), why are aesthetics and final finish prioritized in
fabric care?
a) To reduce fabric maintenance costs
b) To comply with government laundry regulations
c) To enhance guest satisfaction and uphold brand image
d) To improve washing machine efficiency

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25. What is the main purpose of using hydro-extractors in hospital laundry operations?
a) To remove stains using hot water
b) To sanitize fabric with chemicals
c) To remove excess moisture using centrifugal force
d) To apply disinfectants evenly
26. Match the Column A with Column B
Column A Column B
A. Agitator i. smoothening out wrinkles
B. Ironing ii. method of washing clothes
C. Hydro extractors iii. spinning
D. Dhobi Ghats iv. specially marked place for laundry

Pick the correct option
a) A(ii), B(iii), C(i), D(iv) c) A(iii), B(ii), C(iv), D(i)
b) A(ii), B(i), C(iii), D(iv) d) A(i), B(ii), C(iii), D(iv)

Anwers
1.(d), 2. (c), 3. (c), 4. (c), 5.(d), 6. (a), 7. (b), 8. (d), 9. (c), 10. (a), 11. (c), 12. (b), 13. (a), 14. (c), 15. (a), 16.
(b), 17. (b), 18. (c), 19. (b), 20. (c), 21. (c), 22. (c), 23. (c), 24. (c). 25 (c), 26. (b).
ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS 2 MARKS
1. Why Laundering is called as both science and art?
2. Mention two aspects of care and maintenance of fabrics.
3. Name the three types of equipment’s used in Laundering process.
4. What are the two types of models in washing machines?
5. What is the difference between Fully automatic and semi-automatic?
6. Mention the operations performed by Automatic washing machine.
7. What to do you mean by,
a) Pulsation
b) Tumbling
8. Mention the uses of pressing.
9. Who are called dhobis? What is the place called for washing large size of clothes in towns and cities?
10. What is the concept in Laundries or Dry cleaning shops?
11. What are the primary requirements in the field of care and maintenance of fabrics?
12. What are the Job opportunities in care and maintenance of fabrics?
13. What are the qualifications required while preparing a career in Care and maintenance of the fabrics?

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ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS 3 MARKS
1. Explain three types of washing machine.
2. Write a note on water extraction process.
3. Explain the drying equipment and process.
4. What is the process of laundry functioning in hospitals?
5. Explain the difference between Commercial laundries and laundries in hospitals.
6. Which clothing items need to be washed and maintained in a hospital?
7. What are the knowledge required in the field of care and maintenance of fabrics.
ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS 5 MARKS
1. Sharon wants to start a laundry, help her in learning how the record keeping and distribution of
clothes are done.
2. Explain the Models of washing machine and Classification of three types washing machine.
3. Explain the sequential operation performed by fully automatic machine.

HOTS LEVEL QUESTIONS
1. You are a newly appointed manager at a large hospital’s laundry department. The hospital
administration has asked you to improve the laundry system to ensure better hygiene and efficiency.
a) identify and explain three key operational differences between hospital and hotel laundry services
that you would need to consider in your plan.
b) Propose two specific improvements you could introduce to enhance the hospital laundry system,
keeping in mind the high volume and hygiene needs.

2. Arjun has recently completed his graduation in Home Science with a specialization in Textile
Science. He wants to work in the laundry management industry, possibly in a high-tech hospital or a
luxury hotel. Explain,

a) Two key areas of technical knowledge Arjun must strengthen before entering this field
professionally.
b) Two steps he should take to enhance his job readiness and placement in the industry.
c) One possible career benefit of doing a short-term Laundry Management course, as per the
passage.

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CHAPTER 11
HOSPITALITY MANAGEMENT

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS: EASY
1. The relationship between the guest and the host is best described as___________
a) Tourism b) Catering c) Hospitality d) Event Management

2. A _______ is a commercial establishment offering lodging, meals and other services to its guests.
a) Hotel b) Motel c) Lodge d) Resort

3. ______ is the focal point of any hotel.
a) Front office b) Lobby manager c) Doorman d) Bellboy

4. ______ department is responsible for internal flower arrangement and maintenance of external landscape
or garden.
a) Receptionist b) Assistant Manager c) Lobby d) House-keeping

5. _________ is responsible for maintaining the guests’ bills and receiving payments when the guests
checkout.
a) Lobby Manager b) Front Office Cashier c) Bell Captain d) Front Office Supervisor

6. ___________Is responsible for shifting of baggage of guests, within and out of the room.
a) Bellboy b) Bell Captain c) Doorman d) Receptionist

7. ____________ maintains cleanliness of foyer, lobby and common area.
a) Guestroom brigade b) Public area brigade
c) Linen and uniform brigade d) Lost and found section
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS: DIFFICULT
8. Choose the correct sequence of roles that are followed in a restaurant to ensure its smooth functioning.
a) Senior Restaurant supervisor -- Restaurant manager -- Head Waiter – Waiters.
b) Senior Restaurant supervisor -- Head Waiter -- Restaurant manager -- Waiters.
c) Restaurant manager -- Head Waiter -- Senior Restaurant supervisor -- Waiters.
d) Restaurant manager -- Senior Restaurant supervisor -- Head Waiter – Waiters.

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9. Choose the correct sequence of roles that are followed in a kitchen to ensure its smooth functioning.
a) Pot washer -- Executive kitchen steward -- kitchen steward -- dishwasher - utility worker
b) Executive kitchen steward -- pot washer -- dishwasher - kitchen steward -- utility worker
c) Executive kitchen steward -- kitchen steward -- dishwasher - utility worker -- pot washer
d) Executive kitchen steward -- kitchen steward -- dishwasher - pot washer -- utility worker

10. Match the following concerning housekeeping department.
i) Housekeeping management a) coordinates with laundry
ii) Public area brigade b) landscape of the hotel
iii) Linen and uniform room c) plans the activities
iv) Horticulture d) cleanliness of the common areas
Codes: i ii iii iv
a) a, b, c d
b) b, c, d, a
c) c, d, a, b
d) d, b, c a

11. Statement 1: In smaller hotels the kitchen would have one section to prepare food.
Statement 2: In large hotels the kitchen may have independent sections for various aspects related to
food preparations.
a) Statement 1 is true Statement 2 is false b) Statement 1 is false Statement 2 is true
c) Both the Statements are true d Both the Statements are false

12. Assertion: Housekeeping services on a contractual basis in organisations like corporate offices provide
opportunities for entrepreneurship.
Reasoning: When housekeeping consultancy is done commercially, it opens an avenue for many people
to start their own enterprise.
a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
c) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

13 Choose the correct sequence of front office department
a) Agent -- Front office manager -- bell captain -- bell boy
b) Front office manager -- agent -- bell captain -- bell boy
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c) Bell boy-- Front office manager -- agent -- bell captain
d) Bell captain -- bell boy -- Front office manager -- agent

14. Choose the correct sequence of housekeeping department
a) Floor supervisor-- Executive housekeeper-- assistant housekeeper -- room attendant
b) Executive housekeeper-- assistant housekeeper --floor supervisor-- room attendant
c) Executive housekeeper-- floor supervisor -- assistant housekeeper -- room attendant
d) Executive housekeeper-- assistant housekeeper -- room attendant -- floor supervisor

15. Identify the missing organisation in Front Office Departmen

a) Assistant manager b) Door man c) Lobby manager d) Telephone operator

16. Which of the following are commonly used cleaning agents in hotels?
i. Bleaching powder ii. Washing soda iii. Kerosine iv. Vinegar
a) i and ii b) I and iii c) ii and iii d) ii and iv

Answers
1. c, 2. a, 3. a, 4. d, 5. b, 6. a, 7. b, 8.d, 9. d, 10. c, 11. c, 12. a. 13. b, 14. b. 15, d, 16. d.

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS 2 MARKS
1. What do you mean by lodge and a resort?
2. What are the provisions provided by furnished apartments and furnished camps.
3. Mention the commonly used equipment’s for keeping good cleanliness in a hotel.
4. Mention the various cleaning agents required for keeping good cleanliness in a hotel.
5. Mention the responsibilities of a Kitchen Steward.
6. List the ‘back office’ departments in a restaurant.
7. What are the duties of Neha, a newly appointed front office cashier?
8. The front office is the focal point of any hotel. Justify.

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9. List the functions of the front office supervisor.
10. List the functions of housemen.
11. List the service departments under the Food and Beverages department.
12. What is the role of the executive chef (Chef-de-cuisine) in the kitchen?
13. What are the various levels in a hotel’s organizational hierarchy? Do job opportunities exist at every
level of this hierarchy?

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS 3 MARKS
1. Explain the functions of i) Floor supervisor
ii) Public Area Supervisor
iii) Linen room/uniform room supervisor
2. Explain the functions of i) Executive housekeeper
ii) Assistant housekeeper
iii) Florist.
3. List the departments with which the front office staff coordinates while serving guests.
4. How are environmental conservation and eco-friendly practices used in hotels?.

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS 5 MARKS
1. List the services provided by Front office staff.
2. What is the prime function of housekeeping and how is the department divided into different sections?
3. List the responsibilities of the housekeeping department personnel.
4. With a neatly labelled diagram explain the Guest cycle.
5. Why does the hospitality industry prefer youth for the major part of the workforce in hotels?
6. Hospitality Industry has grown to provide. 'A Home Away from Home.' Why is this industry one of the
fastest growing Industry?

HOTS LEVEL QUESTIONS
1. Rohit has recently joined a five-star hotel as a front desk staff member. (1M)
a) Explain why it is important for Rohit to be well-groomed while working in the hospitality industry.
b) Besides grooming, suggest one other essential competency that Rohit should possess to perform
effectively in his role. (2M)
2. Ananya is completing her hotel management course and is exploring different career avenues in the
hospitality industry. Suggest two possible career options Ananya can pursue in this field. (5M)
****************

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CHAPTER 12
CONSUMER EDUCATION AND PROTECTION
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:EASY
1. What does the term "Consumer" refer to?
a) Sellers of goods and services
b) Final buyers of goods and services for personal needs and wants
c) Manufacturers of products
d) Distributors of goods
2. This means the number of consumer who visit any given space such a store or a mall
a)consumer association b)consumer products c)consumer footfall d)consumer behavior
3. When the Consumer Protection Act was approved?
a)1964 b)1972 c)1982 d)1986
4. It’s a process through which consumer makes decision about purchasing
a) consumer forum b)consumer behavior c) consumer product d) consumer association
5. ISI mark is given by which of the following organization?
a) FSSAI b)ISO c)BIS d)DMI
6. Hall mark is given to which metal
a) Silver b) steel material c)bronze d) brass
7. What does the "Right to be Informed" mean for consumers?
a) Right to choose any product
b) Right to know quality, quantity, price of goods/services
c) Right to get compensation
d) Right to complain
8. Which right implies consumers can choose products according to their needs?
a) Right to Choose b) Right to be Heard c) Right to Seek Redressal d) Right to Consumer
Education
9. What is included in the "Right to Seek Redressal"?
a) Right to get compensation for faulty goods/services
b) Right to choose products freely
c) Right to know product prices
d) Right to educate consumers
10. How is consumer protection achieved through standardisation marks?
a) By increasing product prices b) By ensuring quality/purity of products
c) By limiting consumer choices d) By reducing product availability

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11. Why must consumers purchase products with standardisation marks?
a) To get discount b)To increase product sales
c) To ensure quality/purity of the product d) To limit choices
12. Which mark ensures product reliability for agricultural products?
a) ISI mark b) AGMARK c) Woolmark d) Silk Mark
13. What does the Hallmark indicate?
a) Purity of silk b) Quality of wool c) Purity of precious metals d) Safety of food
14. What does FSSAI stand for?
a) Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
b) Food Security and Safety Association of India
c) Federation of Safety Standards Association of India
d) Food Safety Standard Association of India
15. What do NGOs/voluntary consumer organisations do?
a) Manufacture products b) Educate and protect consumers
c) Sell products d) Regulate markets
16. Where is CERC based?
a) Delhi b) Ahmedabad c) Mumbai d) Chennai
17. What do voluntary consumer organisations do?
a) Product manufacturing b) Product testing and consumer awareness
c) Product selling d) Product designing
18. What is one role in the Consumer division of corporate houses?
a) Dealing with consumer complaints b) Manufacturing products
c) Marketing products d) Selling products
19. What is one role in the National Consumer Helpline?
a) Doing consumer counseling b) Selling products
c) Manufacturing products d) Marketing products
20. What does ISI stand for?
a) Indian Statistical Institute b) Indian Standards Institution
c) International Standards Institute d) Import Substitution Initiative
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:DIFFICULT
21. Identify the standardization mark given below

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a)eco mark b)hall mark c)wool mark d)silk mark
22. Identify the standardization mark given below

a)eco mark b)hall mark c)wool mark d)silk mark
23. Identify the picture and choose that this standardisation mark is given by which agency?

a) BIS b)protection council c)DMI d)Consumer organisation
24. Choose correct statement
Statement I: The Consumer Protection Act 2019 was replaced old CPA 1986
Statement II: According to CPA there are 5 rights of consumer
a) Statement I is false II is true
b) Statement I is true II is false
c) Statement I and II is false
d) Statement I and II is true
25. Choose correct statement
Statement I: The logo of eco mark is an earthen pot
Statement II: signifies the product is environmental friendly
a)Statement I is false II is true b)Statement I is true II is false
c)Statement I and II is false d)Statement I and II is true
26. Choose the correct statement
Assertion: Consumers often get less quantity than what they pay for due to incorrect weights and
measures.
Reasoning: This happens because weights and scales are altered by retailers or incorrect measures
are used, and measures without a seal or verification stamp are not genuine.
a)Both assertion and reasoning are true
b) Both assertion and reasoning are true
c) Assertion is true, but reasoning is false.
d) Assertion is false, but reasoning is true.

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27. Match the following
A) Consumer voice i) America
B) Which ii) India
C) Choice iii)England
D) Consumer reports iv)Australia

Pick the correct option:
a) A-ii, B-iii, C- iv, D-i b)A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv c) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i d)A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv

Answer: 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B, 5-C, 6-A, 7-B, 8-A, 9-A, 10-B, 11-C, 11-B, 12-C, 13-A, 14-B, 15-B, 16-B,
17-B, 18-A, 19-A, 20-B, 21-B, 22-C, 23-A, 24-B, 25-D, 26-A, 27-A

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS 2 MARKS
Geetha purchase product from a reputed shop, what kinds of expectations she must have while purchasing
goods?
1. Define the terms consumer product/consumer behavior/ consumer form/consumer footfall
2. Write two implications of consumer protection act
3. What is standardization mark? Mention any two
4. Which product carries Eco mark? What is logo implies?
5. What is FSSAI?
ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS 3 MARKS
1. Briefly give a note on rights under the Consumer Protection Act
2. What are the responsibilities consumes must be ware about while buying products?
3. How does consumer organization work?
4. Name any three organizations. Why are they operating? Name the magazine published by them
5. Which standardization mark will be found in following products
Ghee, Jam, Cooker, Gold, cosmetics, biscuits
6. Write the skills required for carrer in consumer studies
7. How shopkeepers cheat consumers by using incorrect weights and measure?
ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS 5 MARKS
1. Give a detailed insight on consumer problems
2. Enumerate about standardisation mark with examples
3. What are the different carrer option in the area of consumer education?
4. List the standarisation mark.explain any four indetail
5. Mention the different consumer organisation. Add a note on the work done them.
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HOTS LEVEL QUESTIONS
1. You have taken training in consumer education and protection. What are the job opportunites will be
available to you?
2. After purchasing a product Geetha finds that the product is of not good quality. Tell her about her
rights in order to obtain good quality product also inform about her responsibilites. 3+2
3. Naveen bought a Ghee from market to prepare sweet
a)which standardisation mark he finds as indication of quality?
b)mention its abbrevation
c)which particular agency provides this standardisation mark?
d) mention other food which conations this mark 1+1+1+2
4. As a customer we face different problems reagrding the materials and goods, give your insight on
this.
5. Imagine you are an consumer educator, how can you help them in reducing problems faced while
purchasing goods and services?

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CHAPTER 13 –
DEVELOPMENT COMMUNICATION AND JOURNALISM
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:EASY
1. What is communication described ?
a) A political process b)A legal matter
c)An integral part of social and professional life d)An educational subject
2. What right gives journalism its importance in a democracy?
a) Right to education b)Right to information

c)Right to opinion and expression d) Right to vote
3. Which of the following is referred to as the "fourth pillar of democracy"?
a) Education. b) Judiciary c)Parliament d)Press
4. People depend on the media today mainly for________.
a) Being informed b)Gossip c)Entertainment d)Watching sports
5. Which of the following is not mentioned as a problem related to development?
a) Pollution b)Population c)Hunger d)Fashion
6. Development journalism emerged after __________
a) The invention of social media b) The end of colonial rule
c) World war I d)Industrial Evolution
7. The term “Development Communication” was first coined in __________ by Nora Quebral.
a) 1972 b) 1927 c)1937 d)1957
8. What was the main purpose of the Red Ribbon Express (RRE)?
a) To promote rail tourism
b) To spread awareness about government schemes
c) To generate awareness about HIV / AIDS
d) To conduct elections in rural area
9. Which of the following services was not a part of the RRE campaign?
a) Interactive touch screens b) 3-D models

c)Job placement services d) HIV – TB co-infection information

10. hat was the main goal of the Swachh Bharat Mission?
a) Providing employment in rural areas
b) Promoting tourism in India
c) Eliminating open defecation and promoting sanitation
d) Conducting a population survey

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11. What is a Public Service Announcement (PSA)?
a) A paid TV commercial
b) A 10–60 second message for public good, like ‘Say No to Tobacco’
c) A job advertisement
d) A legal notice

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS: DIFFICULT
12. Which media forms are mentioned as essential for expressing opinions and informing the public?
a) Only print media
b) All forms including print, electronic, and social media
c) Only social media
d) Only government-owned media

13. What type of issues were mainly reported during the colonial era?
a) Development stories
b) New technologies
c) Struggles, wars, disasters, and events chosen by colonial rulers
d) Economic growth and reforms

14. Which of the following BEST describes the goal of development journalism?
a) To criticize government policies
b) To entertain the public
c) To document and communicate progress and innovation in society
d) To report celebrity lifestyles

15. What mode of transport was used for the RRE campaign?
a) Bus b) Helicopter c) Train d) Boat
16. How many districts/halt stations did the RRE cover in a year?
a) 43 b) 180 c) 90 d)360
17. Why is campaign primarily used for?
a) Entertainment
b) Creating public awareness on specific theme
c) Selling products
d) Managing elections

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18. The Swachh Bharat Mission was launched on
a) 15th August 2014
b) 26th January 2014
c) 2nd October 2014
d) 1st April 2014

19. What makes a campaign different from a casual awareness program?
a) It is spontaneous and short-term
b) It is well-organised, intensive, and time-bound
c) It depends only on posters
d) It excludes public participation

20. Why is radio considered the most accessible mass medium?
a) It is used only in urban areas
b) It is expensive and complicated
c) It is mobile, cheap, and does not require literacy
d) It requires internet connection

21. EDUSAT was launched to support
a) Sports broadcasting
b) Entertainment channels
c) Satellite-based distance education
d) Weather forecasting

22. Which of the following is an example of a successful community radio initiative?
a) India Radio
b) Vanasthali Vidyapeeth Radio (Rajasthan)
c) Radio Mirchi
d) National Geographic Channel
23. An example for print media ___________.
a) Project village chhatera.
b) Kyunki Jeena isi ka nam hai
c) Main kuch bhi kar sakth a hu
d) All the above

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24. Assertion (A) - The Sustainable Access in Rural India (SARI) project helped improve digital literacy
and access to government services in rural Tamil Nadu.

Reason (R):Under the SARI project, tele-centre kiosks were set up to provide basic computer
education, internet access, and e-governance services.

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true, but R is false.
D. A is false, but R is true.

25. Match the Initiatives in Column A with Outcomes in Column B
Column A Column B
A. SEWA’s Core Goal 1. Building technical skills through It, electrical and
mechanical training
B. Use of ICT tools 2. Achieve full employment
C. Community Learning centres 3. Facilities fast communication
D. Impact of ICT on SEWA members 4. Exposure to video , radio mobile.

Choose the correct options
A). A–2, B–4, C–1, D–3
B). A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4
C) A–3, B–1, C–4, D–2
D) A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1

Answers
1. (c), 2. (c), 3. (d), 4. (a), 5. (b), 6. (b), 7. (a), 8. (c), 9. (C). 10. (c), 11. (b), 12. (b), 13. (c), 14. (c),
15. (c), 16. (b), 17. (c), 18. (c), 19. (b), 20. (c), 21. (c), 22. (b), 23. (a). 24. (a), 25. (a)

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS 2 MARKS
1. Why were counselling and doctors' cabins included in the RRE train?
2. What is development communication?
3. What is the significance of Development communication and Journalism?
4. What do you understand by Development?
5. What is development Journalism?
6. Mention two features of development communication.

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7. What is the main aim of RRE?
8. Expand EDUSAT and when it was launched in India?
9. What do you mean by ICTs? Give an example.
10. Mention the skills required in development and communication technology?
11. Mention any two career opportunities in Development and communication technology

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS 3 MARKS
1. Write a note on ICTs.
2. Explain Project Village Chhatera.
3. Write a note on RRE
4. Write a note on print media
5. Write a note development Journalism Experiment: “our Village Chattera".
6. Priya is a final-year Home Science student who is passionate about social issues and storytelling. She
wants to pursue a career in Development Communication and Journalism (DCJ). However, she is
unsure whether she has the right skill set to succeed in the field.
ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS 5 MARKS
1. Explain the different methods of development communication.
2. Explain in detail any five skills needed for career in the field of development communication
journalism.

HOTS LEVEL QUESTIONS
1. Priya is a final-year Home Science student who is passionate about social issues and storytelling. She
wants to pursue a career in Development Communication and Journalism (DCJ). However, she is
unsure whether she has the right skill set to succeed in the field. Explain the skills and knowledge
required in DCJ.
2. You are a development communication officer working in a rural area. The local community has
limited access to education and government services.
a) Explain two ways ICT can be used to improve the lives people in the village.
b) Suggest two practical steps the government or NGOs can take to implement such ICT initiatives
in rural areas.
c) Give one real-life example that demonstrates ICT as a tool for development.

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CHAPTER-14
CORPORATE COMMUNICATION AND PUBLIC RELATIONS
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION : EASY
1. ____________ is a very important function or activity of any organisation.
a. Corporate communication b. Internal communication c. Public Relation
d. External communication
2. It is the crucial requirement and must adhere to the code of ethics and code of conduct.
a. Corporate communication b. Internal communication c. Public Relation Professionals d.
External communication
3. The communication takes place between the employer and employees.
a. Group communication b. Mass communication c. Internal communication
a. External communication
4. This communication takes place between the organisation and the outside world.
a. External communication b. Internal communication c. Mass communication
b. Group communication
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION : MEDIUM
5. Full form of ICT:
a. Information and control technology
b. Information technology
c. Information and communication technology
d. Internal and communication technology
6. It leads to the development of processes and tools that increase efficiency and production.
a. Space management b. Time management c. Public relation d. Corporate communication
7. _______________ creates and maintains the brand and looks after the organisation’s reputation.
a. Corporate communication b. External communication c. Internal communication d. Mass
communication

Answers:
1. c, 2. c, 3. c, 4. a, 5. c, 6. b, 7. a

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS: 2 MARKS
1. What is corporate communications?
2. State the objectives of public relations.
3. State the objectives of corporate communications.
4. Define public relations.
5. List the 2 types of corporate communications.
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6. State the 2 major areas of communication activity.
ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS: 3MARKS
1. Explain the importance of corporate communication.
2. State the seven principles of public relations.
3. Differentiate between internal and external communication.
4. What is the relationship between corporate communication, public relation and media.
5. State the use of technology to communicate.
6. What is the scope of corporate communication and public relation.
ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS: 5 MARKS
1. Enumerate the functions of corporate communications.
2. Explain the functions of public relation.
3. State the major areas of PR activity.
4. Explain the seven principles of public relations.
5. Explain the 7C’s of communication while composing a message.
HOTS LEVEL QUESTIONS
1. Your best friend wants to enter the field of development communication and journalism.
a. Discuss the knowledge and skills required by an individual in the field of development
communication.
b. What is information and communication technology?
c. State the scope of Development communication.

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DEPARTMENT OF SCHOOL EDUCATION (PRE UNIVERSITY), 18TH CROSS,
MALLESHWARAM BENGALURU- 560012;
AND
KARNATAKA SCHOOL EDUCATION AND ASSESSMENT BOARD, 6TH CROSS,
MALLESHWARAM BENGALURU- 560003

2025 – 26 II PUC HOME SCIENCE QUESTION BANK DEVELOPMENT COMMITTEE
SI.
NAME DESIGNATION NAME ADDRESS OF THE COLLEGE
NO.
MRS .LIKITHA ST AGNES PU COLLEGE, BENDORE
1. LECTURER
CO ORDINATOR MANGALORE 575002

MRS .SHARLI ST ALOYSIUS PU COLLEGE
2. REEMA DSOUZA LECTURER KODIALBAIL
MEMBER MANGALORE 575003
PARIJNAN PU COLLEGE
MRS .VINEETHA V AIL
3. LECTURER SOMEHSWARA
MEMBER
MANGALURU-575022
BISHOP COTTON WOMEN’S
MS LYDIA BETSY CHRISTIAN INDEPENDENT PU
4. LECTURER
MEMBER COLLEGE, MISSION ROAD
BANGALORE-560027
ST PHILOMENA’S PU COLLEGE
MRS. NISCHITHA S
5. LECTURER BANNIMANTAP
MEMBER
MYSORE -570023

67 – HOME SCIENCE Page 69 of 69

Study Materials
Notes

Model Papers Class 6 Notes

Sample Papers Class 7 Notes
Half Yearly Sample Papers Class 8 Notes

Class 9 Notes
Important Resources
Class 10 Notes
Periodic Table
Class 11 Notes
Writing Skills / Formats

Maps of India / World Class 12 Notes

Books and Solutions

NCERT Books
NCERT Book Solutions
HC Verma Chapter Wise Solutions
RD Sharma Solutions
CGBSE Solutions