RRB Group D 2026 Question Paper 04 Feb All Shifts (in English)

FOR RRB GROUP D EXAM PREPARATION

RRB Group D 2026
Question Paper · All
Shifts (in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB Group D 2026 Question Paper All Shifts (in English) 04 Feb

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 04/02/2026
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science ag
Q.1 What happens to an atom when it loses an electron?
Ans A. It becomes a cation

B. It becomes an anion

C. It becomes neutral

D. It becomes a molecule

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Q.2 Which part of the Bryophyllum plant produces buds for vegetative propagation?
Ans A. Leaf margins
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B. Pedicel
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C. Tip of the leaf
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D. Flower

Q.3 Complex tissues are made up of:
Ans A. more than one type of cells

B. one type of cells

C. no cells

D. only one cell
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Q.4 If an object is at infinity in front of a convex lens, the image is formed:

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Ans
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A. at infinity

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a C. between F and 2F

D. at F

Q.5 Which of the following is a characteristic property of ionic compounds?
Ans A. Strong electrostatic forces between ions

B. Low melting point

C. Insoluble in water

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D. Poor electrical conductivity in molten state
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Q.6 What is formed when ethanol is oxidised using an oxidising agent like alkaline KMnO₄?
Ans A. Methane

B. Methanoic acid

C. Ethanoic acid

D. Acetone

Q.7 What is the function of the secretions from the prostate gland and seminal vesicles in
the male reproductive system?
Ans A. To eliminate waste from sperms

B. To provide nutrition and aid in sperm transport

C. To prevent mixing of urine and sperms

D. To destroy weak sperms

Q.8 A train starts from rest and reaches a velocity of 36 km/hr in 3 minutes with uniform
acceleration. What is the distance covered by the train during this time?
Ans A. 250 m

B. 900 m

C. 750 m

D. 500 m

Q.9 In the electrolytic refining of copper, which of the following correctly describes the role
of electrodes?
Ans A. Both electrodes are made of impure copper

B. Impure copper is used as anode and pure copper as cathode

C. Pure copper is used as anode and impure copper as cathode

D. Both electrodes are made of pure copper

Q.10 In daily life, the heating effect of electric current is used in which of the following?
Ans A. LED and torch

B. Electric fan and motor

C. Electric heater, electric iron, and fuse

D. Electric bell and buzzer

Q.11 Which of the following statements is correct?
Ans A. Magnetic field lines start from the south pole and end at the north pole.

B. Magnetic field lines intersect each other.

C. Magnetic field lines always emerge from the north pole of a magnet and enter the south pole outside the magnet.

D. The magnetic field at a point is zero when field lines are dense.

Q.12 Which of the following cell organelle is present ONLY in animal cells but not in plant
cells?
Ans A. Mitochondria

B. Vacuole

C. Golgi apparatus

D. Centrosome

Q.13 What is the ratio of carbon to oxygen by mass, in carbon dioxide?
Ans A. 6:8

B. 2:4

C. 3:8

D. 1:2
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Q.14 The velocity-time graph of a particle moving with uniform acceleration is a:
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Ans A. straight line inclined to time axis

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B. vertical line

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C. curve concave upward

D. horizontal line

Q.15 Adding dilute hydrochloric acid to zinc granules produces hydrogen gas. This is an
example of which of the following?
Ans A. Physical change

B. Dissolution

C. Chemical change

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D. Mixture formation
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Q.16 .co
If the radius of the Earth is halved and the masses of both interacting objects are
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tripled, while keeping the distance between them unchanged, how will the gravitational
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force between them change?

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Ans A. Increases 36 times

B. Increases 3 times

C. Decreases 3 times

D. Increases 9 times

Q.17 In stethoscopes, the sound of the heartbeat is transmitted to the doctor’s ears because:
Ans A. the sound waves are absorbed by the tube walls

B. the sound waves are amplified by electricity
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C. the sound waves undergo successive refraction in the tube

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D. the sound waves are guided by multiple reflections in the tube

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Q.18
Ans A. acetone ag
Ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol in the presence of concentrated H₂SO₄ to form:

B. methanol

C. ethyl ethanoate

D. sodium acetate

Q.19 What helps in the upward movement of water and minerals in plants?
Ans A. Conversion of sunlight into starch
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B. Diffusion of gases in stomata

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Q.20 Food items such as wheat, rice, vegetables, fruits and meat contain varying amounts of
pesticide residues due to which of the following phenomena?
Ans A. Eutrophication

B. Biological magnification

C. Transpiration

D. Photosynthesis

Q.21 Which of the following are generally sensitive to touch and help plants in climbing?

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Ans A. Thorns

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B. Flowers

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C. Tendrils
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D. Seeds
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Q.22 In plants, how does sexual reproduction leads to better survival in offspring?
Ans A. Offspring are exact clones

B. Offspring are born faster

C. Offspring show new genetic recombination

D. Offspring do not show any variation

Q.23 Which of the following statements is true regarding the twinkling of the stars?
(i) The stars twinkle as they have light of their own.
(ii) The stars twinkle due to reflection of light.
(iii) There is apparent change in the position of the star during the night time.
(iv) The stars twinkle due to atmospheric refraction.
Ans A. Both (ii) and (iii)

B. Both (i) and (iv)

C. Both (i) and (ii)

D. Both (iii) and (iv)

Q.24 Select the correct option regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion (A)
and Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Zinc can displace copper from copper sulphate solution.
Reason (R): Zinc is less reactive than copper.
Ans A. A is false, but R is true.

B. A is true, but R is false.

C. Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.

D. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Q.25 What happens to the energy of an object just before it hits the ground while falling
freely?
Ans A. Its kinetic energy becomes highest, and its potential energy becomes lowest.

B. Its potential energy is at its highest, and its kinetic energy becomes lowest.

C. It has equal amounts of potential and kinetic energy.

D. Both its kinetic and potential energy become zero.

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 The amount on a sum of ₹2,400 at 20% per annum compound interest, compounded
annually, in 2 years will be:
Ans A. ₹3,705

B. ₹3,456

C. ₹3,206

D. ₹3,280

Q.27 Sachin bought 52 books for ₹1,120 from one shop and 47 books for ₹910 from another.
What is the average price (in ₹, rounded off to two decimal places) he paid per book?
Ans A. 20.51

B. 22.51

C. 23.51

D. 21.51

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Q.28 If 8 years ago from now, a grandmother's age was 13 times the age of her
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granddaughter and after 12 years from now, the grandmother's age will be 3 times her

. granddaughter's age, then what is the difference of their ages at present (in years)?
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Ans A. 56

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B. 48

C. 68
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D. 52

Q.29 The monthly incomes of two friends Ashish and Kiran, are in the ratio 5 : 8,
respectively, and each of them saves ₹75,000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly
expenditure is 2 : 4, find the monthly income of Ashish (in ₹).
Ans A. 2,62,500

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B. 1,88,500

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C. 1,86,500

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D. 1,87,500

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Q.30
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P and Q together can fill a cistern with water in 12 hours. If P alone can fill the cistern
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with water in 18 hours, then in how many hours will Q alone fill one-fourth of the same
cistern with water?
Ans A. 9

B. 18

C. 10

D. 19

Q.31 The points scored by a basketball team in a series of matches are as follows: 17, 2, 7,
27, 25, 5, 14, 18, 10, 24, 10, 8, 10, 12, 11. The value of the median is:
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Ans A. 12

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B. 10
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C. 11
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D. 14 a
Q.32 A man buys a sofa set for ₹24,000. He spends ₹3,000 on repairs and sells it for ₹30,000.
He again buys it back for ₹28,000 and sells at a loss of ₹1,200. What is the overall
profit?
Ans A. ₹1,800

B. ₹1,200

C. ₹1,400
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D. ₹1,600
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Q.33
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a Ans A. 174

B. 154

C. 184

D. 164

Q.34 The value of 163 - 103 is:
Ans A. 2957

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B. 3064

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C. 3096
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D. 2837
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Q.35

Ans A. 1.849

B. 184.9

C. 18.49

D. 0.1849

Q.36 In the first round of elections, Amit received 63% of the votes. In the second round, his
support decreased by 24%. What percentage of the total votes did Amit receive after the
second round?
Ans A. 49%

B. 47.88%

C. 39%

D. 57.88%

Q.37 ₹1,287 is divided among Rahul, Monika, and Yuvraj in such a way that if ₹36, ₹22, and
₹29 are deducted from their respective shares, they have money in the ratio 17:7:16.
Find the actual share of Monika.
Ans A. ₹160

B. ₹260

C. ₹232

D. ₹60

Q.38 Two pipes can fill a cistern, individually, in 100 min and 25 min, respectively. There is a
pipe located at the bottom of the cistern to empty it. If all the three pipes are opened
simultaneously, then the empty cistern gets filled in 40 min. How long will the pipe at
the bottom of the tank take to empty the completely filled cistern if no other pipe is then
open?
Ans A. 40 min

B. 38 min

C. 39 min

D. 37 min

Q.39

Ans A. 5

B. 10.5

C. 15.54

D. 14.45

Q.40 A shopkeeper offers the following four schemes.
A) Two successive discounts of 19% and 25%
B) Buy 7, get 6 free
C) Single discount of 50%
D) Two successive discounts of 3% and 39%

Which scheme is the best for the shopkeeper?
Ans A. C

B. D

C. B

D. A

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Q.41 In a test, B got 50 marks while A got 75 marks, out of 90 maximum marks. What
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percentage of A's marks was B's marks? (Round off the answer to two decimal places.)

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Ans A. 66.67%
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D. 150.91%

Q.42 A cuboid of dimensions 18 cm × 12 cm × 8 cm is melted and recast into smaller cubes
each having an edge of 4 cm. Find the ratio of the total surface area of one small cube
to that of the original cuboid.
Ans A. 2 : 19

B. 3 : 19
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C. 2 : 21
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D. 1 : 10

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Q.43
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A 6-digit number 648XYZ is divisible by 4, 9 and 10. Find the value of X + Z – Y, where Y

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is the smallest possible number.
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Ans A. 2
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B. 0

C. 7

D. 5

Q.44 A train can travel 60% faster than a car. Both start from point A at the same time and
reach point B, which is 60 km away, simultaneously. However, the train loses 20
minutes due to stops at stations. What is the speed of the car?

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Ans A. 57.5 km/h

B. 67.5 km/h
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C. 62.5 km/h
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D. 52.5 km/h
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Q.45 If regular polygons of side 6 and 5 are inscribed in a circle of radius R, then what is the
ratio of their areas?
Ans
A.

B.

C.
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Q.46 The respective ratios between the numerical values of a curved surface area and the
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g l a volume of a right circular cylinder is 1 : 7. If the respective ratio between the diameter
and height of the cylinder is 7 : 6, what is the total surface area of the cylinder? a
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Ans A. 3434 unit²

B. 3344 unit²

C. 4433 unit²

D. 4343 unit²

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Q.47

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.48 If 42 is the mean proportion between x and 294, what is the value of x?
Ans A. 8

B. 4

C. 7

D. 6

Q.49 Successive discounts of 12% and 13% are equivalent to what single discount?
Ans A. 22.2%

B. 21.91%

C. 20.7%

D. 23.44%

Q.50 The distance between points A and B is 966 km. Kamlesh travels from A to B at a speed
of 52 km/hr and returns at a speed of 118 km/hr. Calculate Kamlesh’s average speed for
the entire journey (round off the answer to two decimal places).
Ans A. 80.53 km/hr

B. 69.63 km/hr

C. 83.02 km/hr

D. 72.19 km/hr

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

412 420 408 424 404 428 ?
Ans A. 408

B. 424

C. 400

D. 432

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Q.52 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
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statement(s).
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All mints are kites.
All mints are jams.

Conclusions:
(I) All lamps are jams
(II) Some jams are kites14197
Ans A. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

B. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

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C. Only conclusion (I) follows

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D. Only conclusion (II) follows

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Q.53
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In a certain code language, WASO is coded as 65 and YKSB is coded as 64. What is the
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code for LEUC in that language?
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Ans A. 52

B. 50

C. 57

D. 48

Q.54 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

15, 22, 36, 57, 85, ?
Ans A. 121
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B. 122

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C. 120
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D. 119
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Q.55
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What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

84 77 70 ? 56 49 42
Ans A. 60

B. 66

C. 63

D. 68
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Q.56 54 people are standing in a row facing North. Junaid is 21st
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from the left end, while

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Sourav is 12th from the right end. How many people are there between Junaid and
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s e Sourav?

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a B. 19

C. 20

D. 21

Q.57 In a certain code language, ‘never judge people’ is coded as ‘gu uf ha’ and ‘don't ask
people’ is coded as ‘kl td uf’. How is ‘people’ coded in that language? (All codes are
two-letter codes.)
Ans A. gu

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B. ha

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C. td

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D. uf

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Q.58 Shubham starts from Point A and drives 11 km towards South. He then takes a right
turn, drives 7 km, turns right and drives 14 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 11
km. He takes a final right turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?

(Note: All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 5 km to the west

B. 5 km to the east

C. 4 km to the east

D. 4 km to the west

Q.59 Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F, are sitting in a row, facing towards the north.
Only three people are sitting at the right of A. Only one person is sitting between A and
C. E is sitting second from the extreme left end of the row. B is not the immediate
neighbour of A. F is sitting to the immediate left to B. F is sitting to the immediate right
to A.
Who is sitting at the extreme left end of the row?
Ans A. D

B. E

C. C

D. B

Q.60 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what
will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

68 A 2 D 7 B 5 C (25 A 5) B 9 C 30 A 6 = ?
Ans A. 35

B. 28

C. 49

D. 61

Q.61 VHEP is related to OAXI in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, TFCN is related to MYVG. To which of the following options is YKHS related,
following the same logic?
Ans A. RLDE

B. RDSE

C. RDAL

D. RADE

Q.62 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

DEA 48 CDZ 55 BCY 62 ABX 69 ?
Ans A. ZZV 75

B. ZIS 75

C. ZAW 76

D. ZBV 76

Q.63 Hitesh starts from Point A and drives 62 km towards the east. He then takes a left turn,
drives 36 km, turns left and drives 78 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 71 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 16 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 35 km to the north

B. 36 km to the south

C. 34 km to the north

D. 37 km to the south

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Q.64 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
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English alphabetical order?

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GDA IFC KHE MJG ?
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B. OKI ag l
C. OLI

D. OLJ

Q.65 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

92 A 2 D (35 A 7) B 4 C 30 A 3 C 5 B 11 = ?

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Ans A. 102

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B. 91

C. 73
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D. 80
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Q.66 ag
If 1 is added to each odd digit and 1 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
3215674, what will be the sum of the digits which are first from the left and third from
the right?
Ans A. 6

B. 8

C. 7

D. 9

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Q.67 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as the one followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

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NJL−OKM
CYA−DZB
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Ans A. IDE−JFH
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B. IEG−IFG

C. IEG−JFH

D. IDE−IEG

Q.68 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
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Statements:
All forks are kettles.
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ag (I): Some kettles are spoons.
(II): All spoons are forks.
Ans A. Only conclusion (I) follows

B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

C. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

D. Only conclusion (II) follows

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Q.69 Mr. Hepa ranked 56th from the top and 71st from the bottom in his class. How many
students are there in his class?
Ans A. 123

B. 126

C. 125

D. 124

Q.70 GBCI is related to YTUA in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, AVWC is related to SNOU. To which of the following options is CXYE related,
following the same logic?
Ans A. UQWE

B. UPQW

C. UIOP

D. UPNH

Q.71 In a certain code language,
‘A + B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’,
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’,
‘A % B’ means ‘A is the father of B’ and
‘A # B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’.

How is C related to R if ‘C # N × K % T + R’?
Ans A. Mother’s father

B. Mother’s sister

C. Sister’s daughter

D. Mother’s mother

Q.72 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 4 9 8 5 1 6 4 5 9 6 5 3 4 9 6 2 9 4 8 5 1 1 8 4 1 5 7 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
Ans A. 1

B. 3

C. 2

D. 4

Q.73 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
mathematical operation(s) to the first number. Select the number-pair in which the
numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following pairs.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

19, 35
28, 53
Ans A. 73, 145

B. 42, 85

C. 36, 69

D. 85, 166

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Q.74 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
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are single-digit numbers only).

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(Left) 9 3 5 7 2 4 6 1 8 9 2 5 3 7 4 6 1 8 9 5 2 4 (Right)
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How many unique single-digit numbers in the series are divisible by 3 (each single-digit
number counted only once, regardless of repetitions)? a
Ans A. Three

B. One

C. Two

D. None

Q.75 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

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(Left) 604, 895, 469, 742, 307 (Right)
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(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)

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Note: All operations to be done from left to right.
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What will be the resultant if the third digit of the highest number is added to the second
digit of the lowest number?\
Ans A. 12

B. 16

C. 5

D. 9

Q.76 Refer to the following series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are
single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.
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(Left) 2 1 7 9 4 5 3 4 4 1 8 2 2 4 4 9 7 6 9 9 4 6 2 9 9 8 7 (Right)

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How many such odd numbers are there (from left to right) each of which is immediately
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preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?6623
Ans A. 0

B. 2
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C. 1

D. 3

Q.77 S, P, D, M, and R are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Only two people
are sitting between R and M when counted from the left of R. D is an immediate
neighbour of M and R. P is sitting to the immediate left of R. Who are the immediate
neighbours of S?
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Ans A. R and P
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B. M and D

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g l a D. P and M
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a Q.78 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. TXZ

B. LPR

C. HLP

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D. RVX

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Q.79 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four are alike in a certain
way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. HLQ

B. ZDI

C. KOT

D. WAE

Q.80 Seven friends D, E, F, U, V, W and X are sitting in a straight line facing the north. Only
two people are seated between U and D. Only X is seated to the right of F. Only one
person is seated between D and F. V is seated at some place to the right of E but at
some place to the left of W. How many people are seated between W and E?
Ans A. Two

B. Four

C. Three

D. One

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 What is a key aim of the Aravalli Green Wall Project launched on the World Environment
Day in June 2025?
Ans A. Expanding green cover to combat desertification

B. Establishing national parks across Himalayas

C. Mounting vertical gardens in Mumbai

D. Building embankments in Punjab

Q.82 Which of the following is NOT included among the four Labour Codes implemented in
2025?
Ans A. Industrial Relations Code, 2020

B. Code on Social Security, 2020

C. Code on Education, 2021

D. Code on Wages, 2019

Q.83 Who among the following was appointed as the Deputy Chief Executive Officer (Deputy
CEO) of SBI General Insurance in June 2025?
Ans A. Anand Pejawar

B. Indrani Dutta

C. Mohd. Arif Khan

D. Naveen Chandra Jha

Q.84 Where was the 2025 Champions League final held?
Ans A. Camp Nou, Barcelona

B. Wembley Stadium, London

C. Santiago Bernabéu, Madrid

D. Allianz Arena, Munich

Q.85 Who inaugurated the football stadium at Police Complex, Chumoukedima near
Dimapur, Nagaland, in January 2025?
Ans A. Neiphiu Rio

B. Conrad Sangma

C. N. Biren Singh

D. Temjen Imna Along

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 14 of 49

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Q.86 According to the October 2025 Monetary Policy Report of the Reserve Bank of India,
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what is the revised CPI inflation projection for FY 2025–26?

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Ans A. 3.4%
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C. 2.6% ag l
D. 2.2%

Q.87 Accordioning to the Indian Government, by the June 2025, how many Khelo India
Centres (KICs) were established for grassroots sports training and athlete
development?
Ans A. 1045

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B. 1000

C. 950
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D. 936

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Q.88 As per the Sustainable Development Report 2025, which rank did India secure in the
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Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) Index, marking its first entry into the “top 100”
nations?
Ans A. 85

B. 74

C. 99

D. 98

Q.89 In November 2025, which organization delivered a human-rated Vikas engine to the
Indian Space Research Organisation for the Gaganyaan mission?
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Ans A. Godrej Aerospace

B. Bharat Dynamics Limited
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C. Larsen & Toubro
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D. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
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Q.90 Which of the following cyber security exercises was launched by the Indian Armed
Forces in 2025 to simulate real-world threats and promote secure practices?
Ans A. Cyber Kavach

B. Cyber Suraksha

C. Raksha Netra

D. Sainya SecureNet
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Q.91 The Chhattisgarh Chief Minister in August 2025 directed officials to extend assistance
to families affected by floods in which of the following divisions?
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Ans m A. Bastar
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l as B. Raipur
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ag C. Bilaspur

D. Surguja

Q.92 Who won the prestigious Yuva Puraskar in Hindi for the poetry collection, Phir Ugna, in
June 2025?
Ans A. Mayur Khavdu

B. Subrat Senapati

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C. Parvati Tirkey

D. Akhil P Dharmajan

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Q.93 When is Hindi Journalism Day celebrated every year in India?
Ans A. 30 May

B. 5 May

C. 9 April

D. 18 February

Q.94 Which among the following got a six-year support plan announced in Union Budget
2025-2026 to reduce imports?
Ans A. Steel

B. Oil seeds

C. Pulses

D. Electronics

Q.95 Which of the following International events did India host in 2025 that is considered one
of the largest gatherings of its kind and showcases India’s global standing in inclusive
sports?
Ans A. FIFA Women’s World Cup 2025

B. World Para Athletics Championships 2025

C. Summer Universiade 2025

D. Commonwealth Games 2026

Q.96 In 2025, the UN General Assembly urged to grant UN membership as the 194th country
to which of the following countries?
Ans A. Kosovo

B. Vatican City

C. South Sudan

D. Palestine

Q.97 In June 2025, Karnataka raised the housing reservation quota for religious minorities
from 10% to what percentage?
Ans A. 20%

B. 12%

C. 18%

D. 15%

Q.98 Which city hosted the 28th National Conference on e-Governance in September 2025?
Ans A. Bengaluru

B. Visakhapatnam

C. Hyderabad

D. New Delhi

Q.99 At which event did the DRDO official announce the development of the new high-calibre
Pinaka rocket with a range of 120 km?
Ans A. Defence Expo 2025

B. Aero Expo 2025

C. Aero India 2025

D. International Defence Conference 2025

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 16 of 49

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Q.100 Which group set a Guinness World Record by performing 108 Surya Namaskars with
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over 22,000 tribal students?

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Ans A. Gujarat volunteers
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C. Maharashtra yoga groups ag l
D. Andhra Pradesh tribal students

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Test Date 04/02/2026
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

Section : General Science

Q.1 In a 250 mL solution, 5 g of solute is dissolved. What is the concentration (mass by
volume %) of the solution?
Ans A. 0.2%

B. 2%

C. 20%

D. 5%

Q.2 The Tyndall effect is observed when:
Ans A. light is scattered by very fine particles suspended in a medium

B. light passes through a vacuum

C. light is absorbed by particles in a solution

D. light reflects from a mirror surface

Q.3 What was the primary goal of the Chipko Movement of the Garhwal region?
Ans A. Grazing of forest

B. Protection of the forest

C. Aforestation

D. Cutting of forest

Q.4 In which of the following reactions does colour change, gas evolution, and solid
residue formation, all occur simultaneously during decomposition?
Ans A. 2AgCl → 2Ag + Cl₂

B. Pb(NO₃)₂ → PbO + NO₂ + O₂

C. CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂

D. 2KClO₃ → 2KCl + 3O₂

Q.5 What is the correct definition of one unit of force (1 newton)?
Ans A. The force that causes a 1 g object to accelerate at 1 metre

B. The force that causes a 1 kg object to accelerate at 1 m/s²

C. The force needed to move a 1 kg object to a distance of 1 metre

D. The force required to keep an object at rest

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 18 of 49

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Q.6 Which of the following statements is true about work done by a constant force?
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Ans A. It is independent of displacement

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B. It depends on the path of motion

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C. It depends only on the initial and final positions

D. It is always positive

Q.7 Which of the following animals produces infrasound?
Ans A. Horses and cows

B. Birds and snakes

C. Dogs and cats

D. Whales and elephants
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Q.8 The process of transfer of pollen grains from one flower to the stigma of another flower
is called ______.
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Ans A. germination
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B. pollination

C. gestation

D. guttation

Q.9 Which of the following statements is correct about Ohm’s law?
Ans A. Current is directly proportional to voltage at constant temperature.

B. Resistance remains constant only for non-ohmic conductors.

C. Ohm’s law is applicable to all materials at all temperatures.
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D. Current is inversely proportional to voltage at constant temperature.

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Q.10 Which of the following statements is/are correct?

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a. Zinc granules when placed in dilute sulphuric acid, hydrogen gas is evolved.
b. Zinc granules when placed in sodium hydroxide solution forms zinc hydroxide.
c. Zinc granules when placed in sodium hydroxide forms sodium zincate.
Ans A. Only a

B. a and c

C. Only b

D. a and b

Q.11 A mixture differs from a compound in that:
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m A. its components retain their properties
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a Q.12 If two daughter cells produced by cell division show minor differences in their
structure, which process during DNA copying most likely caused these variations?
Ans A. The separation of DNA copies into new cells is incomplete

B. Errors in protein synthesis after DNA copying

C. The absence of DNA blueprints in the nucleus

D. Minor variations occur during DNA copying due to the inherent unreliability of biochemical reactions

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Q.13 In wastewater treatment plant, the biogas is obtained from which of the following
substance?
Ans A. Dried leaves

B. Sludge

C. Coconut husk

D. Banana peels

Q.14 In a laboratory, a student mixes starch in water and observes that the mixture is neither
a true solution nor a suspension. What property of this mixture confirms it is a colloidal
solution?
Ans A. The particles are visible to the naked eye.

B. The mixture is completely transparent and does not scatter light.

C. The particles scatter a beam of light but do not settle on standing.

D. The particles settle down after some time.

Q.15 Which proteins are essential for muscle contraction and relaxation?
Ans A. Myoglobin and haemoglobin

B. Keratin and collagen

C. Contractile proteins

D. Elastin and fibrin

Q.16 Which of the following features enables simple squamous epithelium to efficiently carry
out diffusion?
Ans A. Presence of multiple layers of cells

B. Flat, thin, and closely packed cells

C. Cells with cilia for movement

D. Thick cytoplasm with large nuclei

Q.17 The principal focus of a spherical mirror is defined as:
Ans A. The point on the principal axis where parallel rays converge (or appear to diverge) after reflection

B. The distance between object and image

C. The center of the mirror’s reflecting surface

D. The midpoint of the radius of curvature

Q.18 In a hypotonic solution, which of the following statements is correct for animal tissues
compared with plant tissues?
Ans A. Animal cells resist swelling due to a rigid wall.

B. Animal cells have thicker cellulose walls than plants.

C. Animal cells shrink more than plant cells in dilute media.

D. Animal cells are more likely to lyse without an external wall.

Q.19 What do the ovary and ovule form after fertilisation in plants?
Ans A. Ovary forms the fruit and ovule forms the cotyledons.

B. Ovary forms the seed and ovule forms the embryo.

C. Ovary forms the fruit and ovule forms the seed.

D. Ovary forms the plumule and ovule forms the radicle.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 49

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Q.20 Why is graphite a good conductor of electricity?
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Ans A. It absorbs water easily.

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B. It forms strong ionic bonds.

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C. It has free-moving electrons.

D. It melts at low temperatures.

Q.21 An electric geyser has a power of 2200 W when it is operated at 220 V. How much will
be the current flowing through the heater?
Ans A. 1100 A

B. 10 A

C. 1 A

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D. 100 A
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Q.22 .co
When an iron nail is dipped in copper sulphate solution, which of the following
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observations confirms that a displacement reaction has occurred?
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Ans
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A. The solution turns colourless, and hydrogen gas is released.
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B. The blue colour of the copper sulphate solution fades, and a reddish-brown deposit appears on the iron nail.

C. The solution remains blue, and the iron nail remains shiny.

D. A white precipitate is formed.

Q.23 Starting from rest, a car attains a velocity of 10 m/s in 20 s. Braking reduces the
velocity to 5 m/s in the next 5 s. What is the respective acceleration in the two
scenarios?
Ans A. 0.5 m/s2 ; -1 m/s2

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B. 0.5 m/s2 ; 1 m/s2

C. 1 m/s2 ; 0.5 m/s2

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D. -1 m/s2 ; 0.5 m/s2

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Q.24
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If the value of the Universal Gravitational Constant (G), the mass of the Earth (M), and
the radius of the Earth (R) are known, which equation is used to calculate the
acceleration due to gravity (g) near the Earth's surface?
Ans A. g=GR/M2

B. g=GM/R2

C. g=GM/R

D. R2/(GM)

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Q.25 An atom contains 17 electrons and 18 neutrons. Find the number of protons.
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Ans A. 17

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B. 18

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g l a C. 35.5
a
a D. 36

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 For 7 innings, a cricketer had an average of 59 runs. In the 8th inning, he scored 217
runs. His average score increased by ______. (Round off the answer to the nearest
whole number.)
Ans A. 20

B. 11
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C. 29

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D. 19

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Q.27 If regular polygons of sides 6 and 5 are inscribed in a circle of radius R, then what is
the ratio of their areas?
Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.28
The square of the expression is _____.

Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.29

Ans A. 5.4

B. 3.9

C. 1.8

D. 2.8

Q.30 In a basketball game, a player scored 36 points using only 2-point shots and 3-point
shots. She made 14 successful shots in total. How many 2-point and how many 3-point
shots did she make?
Ans A. Number of 2-point shots = 7; Number of 3-point shots = 7

B. Number of 2-point shots = 6; Number of 3-point shots = 8

C. Number of 2-point shots = 8; Number of 3-point shots = 6

D. Number of 2-point shots = 10; Number of 3-point shots = 4

Q.31

11134
Ans A. 30 minutes

B. 34 minutes

C. 23 minutes

D. 28 minutes

Q.32

Ans A. 3710

B. 6740

C. 2800

D. 5180

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 22 of 49

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Q.33 Find the effective price percentage of the marked price after three consecutive
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discounts of 10%, 27% and 8% (rounded off to two decimal places).

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Ans A. 62.64%
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C. 59.64% ag l
D. 58.28%

Q.34 If the fourth proportion to 5, X and 3 is 63, then find the value of X.4886
Ans A. 106

B. 107

C. 108

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D. 105
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Q.35 .co
A person’s monthly income is ₹60,000. He spends 25% of his income on rent, 15% on
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groceries, 10% on transportation and saves the rest. How much money does he save
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every month?

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Ans A. ₹45,000

B. ₹40,000

C. ₹30,000

D. ₹25,000

Q.36 Water flows through a cylindrical pipe of internal diameter 14 cm at 5 metre per second.
Calculate the time (in minutes) the pipe would take to fill an empty rectangular tank 8 m
× 6 m × 4.62 m.

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Ans A. 48
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B. 50
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C. 46 a
D. 44

Q.37 The amount on a sum of ₹5,000 at 18% per annum compound interest, compounded
annually, in 2 years will be:
Ans A. ₹7,068

B. ₹6,962

C. ₹7,015
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D. ₹6,984

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Q.38
m Simplify: (x + 5)(x − 5)
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C. x² + 10x + 25

D. x² − 25

Q.39 Two trains of lengths 316 m and 349 m are running at speeds of 58 km/h and 68 km/h,
respectively, on parallel tracks in opposite directions. In how many seconds will they
cross each other?
Ans A. 27 seconds

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B. 30 seconds

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C. 22 seconds

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D. 19 seconds

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Q.40 A is three times as old as B. If six years are subtracted from B's age and four years are
added to A's age, then A's age will be five times B's age. How old was A two years ago?
Ans A. 40 years

B. 36 years

C. 54 years

D. 49 years

Q.41 One pipe can fill a tank in 6 minutes, while another pipe can empty the completely filled
tank in 7 minutes. If both the pipes are opened together when the tank is empty, how
many minutes will it take to fill one-half of the tank?
Ans A. 21

B. 42

C. 22

D. 43

Q.42 The mode of given list of numbers 115, 190, 110, 185, 85, 110, 115, 102, 90, 95, 85, 68, 85
is:6536
Ans A. 85

B. 110

C. 68

D. 92

Q.43 The volume of the cube is 1728 cm3. Find its total surface area.
Ans A. 664 cm2

B. 464 cm2

C. 144 cm2

D. 864 cm2

Q.44

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.45 A and B can complete a piece of work in 8 days and 12 days, respectively. A starts
working on the task and after 3 days, B joins him. How many more days will it take to
finish the work after B joins?
Ans A. 5 days

B. 2 days

C. 3 days

D. 4 days

Q.46 Bibha bought a number of bananas at 2 for a rupee and an equal number at 3 for a
rupee. To make a profit of 40%, she should sell a dozen for ₹ .
Ans A. 7

B. 8

C. 6

D. 5

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 49

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Q.47 The sum of the first 13 prime numbers is:
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Ans A. 238

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B. 243

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C. 235

D. 241

Q.48 The cost of a washing machine is 25% less than the cost of a TV. If the cost of the
washing machine increases by 75% and that of the TV decreases by 49%, then what is
the percentage change in the total cost of 6 washing machines and 3 TVs?
Ans A. Decrease by 26.4%

B. Increase by 24.5%

C. Decrease by 19.5%
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D. Increase by 25.4%

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Q.49
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₹5,403 is divided among A, B, and C in such a way that if ₹79, ₹25, and ₹19 be deducted
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from their respective shares, they have money in the ratio 14:5:11. Find the difference
between the B’s and C’s original shares.
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Ans A. ₹1,206
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B. ₹1,156

C. ₹1,050

D. ₹956

Q.50 A dealer marks his goods at 25% above the cost price and allows a discount of 68% on
the marked price. What is his gain or loss percentage?

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Ans A. 57% loss

B. 58% loss

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C. 63% gain
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D. 60% loss
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Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning
a
Q.51 P, Q, R, S, and T are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. R is sitting second
to the right of P. T is sitting second to the right of S. P is to the immediate left of S. Who
is to the immediate right of T?
Ans A. P

B. S

C. R
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Q.52
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Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to
be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)
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a How many 6’s are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and
also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. Two

B. Three

C. One

D. More than three

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Q.53 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

521 523 527 533 541 ?
Ans A. 553

B. 549

C. 551

D. 555

Q.54 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right.

(Left) 9 8 7 4 5 2 5 3 8 4 3 6 2 1 5 7 9 3 1 5 7 4 6 2 3 7 4 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. 5

B. 6

C. 3

D. 4

Q.55 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

32 + 34 − 35 × 5 ÷ 22 = ?
Ans A. 154

B. 153

C. 150

D. 152

Q.56 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

KJN 72 RQU 63 YXB 54 FEI 45 ?
Ans A. MLP 36

B. MMO 36

C. MKO 35

D. MUD 35

Q.57 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

49 ÷ 5 + 153 × 3 − 314 = ?
Ans A. 508

B. 521

C. 505

D. 512

Q.58 In a certain code language, ‘PEARL’ is coded as ‘18723’ and ‘PAYER’ is coded as
‘82736’. What is the code for ‘Y’ in that language?
Ans A. 3

B. 8

C. 2

D. 6

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 49

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Q.59 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
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statements.
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se Statements:
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No crow is a pigeon.

Conclusions:
(I): No sparrow is a pigeon.
(II): Some pigeons are crows.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows

B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

C. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
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D. Only conclusion (I) follows
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Q.60 A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. B sits second to

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the left of E. D is an immediate neighbour of F. C sits to the immediate left of F. C sits

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second to the right of A. What is the position of E with respect to F?
Ans
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A. Second to the right

B. Immediate left

C. Immediate right

D. Second to the left

Q.61 Seven friends, B, C, D, T, U, V and W, are sitting in a straight line facing north. All
friends sits to the left of C. Only three people sit between C and T. Only two people sit
between T and V. B sits third to the left of D. W sits to the immediate right of D. How
many people sit between U and V?
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Ans A. Four

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B. One
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C. Three
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D. Two
a
Q.62 In the following triad, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

DRAWING - ADRWGIN - RADWNGI
FORMULA - RFOMAUL - ORFMLAU
Ans A. FASHION - SAFNHIO - FASONHI

B. FASHION - SFAHNIO - ASFHONI

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C. FASHION - SFAHNOI - ASFIHNO
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D. FASHION - SAFHNIO - ASFHONI

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Q.63 In a certain code language, NSQE is coded as 165 and XIJA is coded as 132. What is the
g l a
g l a code for PEYO in that language?
a
a Ans A. 170

B. 183

C. 188

D. 179

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Q.64 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

7 ÷ 5 + 12 × 3 − 19 = ? + 5
Ans A. 55

B. 50

C. 45

D. 60

Q.65 Wamiq starts from point A and drives 78 km towards the west. He then takes a right
turn, drives 81 km, turns right and drives 80 km. He then takes a right turn and drives
90 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 2 km and stops at point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach point A again?
(All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 7 km to the north

B. 9 km to the north

C. 11 km to the south

D. 10 km to the south

Q.66 PNHT is related to VILQ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, MSDT is related to SNHQ. To which of the given options is IRUI related,
following the same logic?
Ans A. ONYE

B. PMZF

C. PNZE

D. OMYF

Q.67 In a row of 19 people facing north, Geetha is 6th from the left end. If Divya sits 5th to the
right of Geetha, then what is Divya’s position from the right end of the row?
Ans A. 11th

B. 8th

C. 9th

D. 10th

Q.68 A man is standing on the roof facing east. First, he turns 45 degrees clockwise, then 45
degrees anticlockwise. He then turns 180 degrees anticlockwise. Finally, he turns 90
degrees clockwise. In which direction is the man facing now?
Ans A. West

B. South

C. North

D. East

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 28 of 49

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Q.69 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
m
co
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
e m
m
statements.
as
se Statements:
All bottles are cups. ag l
All bottles are glasses.
Some glasses are teapots.

Conclusions:
(I): Some teapots are bottles.
(II): Some glasses are cups.
Ans A. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

B. Only conclusion (II) follows

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C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
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D. Only conclusion (I) follows

m s e
s e l a
ag
Q.70 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of

l
the following sets.
a
ag
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking
down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
/ subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)
19 - 2 - 21
14 - 6 - 201418
Ans A. 30 - 11 - 43

B. 19 - 10 - 29

C. 15 - 4 - 21

D. 9 - 13 - 24
m
Q.71
m .co
In a row of 50 students facing north, Parash is 18th from the left end. If Aparna is 7th to

s e
the right of Parash, what is Aparna's position from the right end of the row?
Ans A. 25th
g la
B. 23rd a
C. 26th

D. 24th

Q.72 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

WZX−ZCA
CFD−FIG
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Ans
m
A. DGE−FJG
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m .co B. DGE−GJH
s e m
s e C. DFC−GJH
g l a
g l a D. DFC−FIG
a
a Q.73 In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the sister of B’,
A # B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
A @ B means ‘A is the father of B’.

Based on the above, how is L related to R if ‘L @ O x V # E + R’?
Ans A. Wife's father

B. Brother's wife's brother
m .
C. Brother's wife's father

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D. Brother's son
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 29 of 49

Q.74 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

16, 22, 34, 52, 76, ?
Ans A. 106

B. 105

C. 104

D. 107

Q.75 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single
digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 9 6 4 8 7 7 7 7 7 1 3 6 4 7 2 3 1 8 5 6 8 9 9 9 4 9 8 (Right)

How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. 3

B. 5

C. 4

D. 2

Q.76 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

17 28 ? 50 61 72
Ans A. 39

B. 40

C. 31

D. 36

Q.77 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster pair that
DOES NOT belong to that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. GJ - EH

B. MP - KN

C. JM - HK

D. KN - IM

Q.78 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to
be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single digit numbers only.)

(Left) 5 4 4 2 6 3 6 4 6 4 7 9 4 5 8 8 2 5 3 1 7 4 8 5 9 4 1 2 7 4 (Right)

How many such prime digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
even digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?
Ans A. More than three

B. One

C. Three

D. Two

Q.79 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels
or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. MRL

B. QVP

C. TYR

D. EJD
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 49

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Q.80 Which of the given letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
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following series to make it logically complete?

. e m
m
PGE 18, TEI 26, XCM 34, BAQ 42, ?
as
se Ans A. FYU 50

B. FCV 52 ag l
C. FCU 52

D. GYV 50

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 What is the name of the comprehensive strategic partnership treaty signed in January
2025, between Russia and Iran, covering defense, energy, cybersecurity and regional
m
.co
cooperation?

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Ans A. Iranian–Russian Treaty on Comprehensive Strategic Partnership

em
e m
B. Iranian–Russian Treaty on Coordination and Security Partnership

l as
s
C. Iran–Russia Treaty on Business and Strategic Cooperation Treaty

l a ag
ag
D. Iran–Russia Treaty on Comprehensive Defence and Trade Partnership

Q.82 In 2025, India raised concerns with China regarding the construction of a major
upstream hydropower project, urging protection of downstream rights. This project is
being developed on which river?
Ans A. Brahmaputra

B. Sutlej

C. Indus

D. Kosi
m
Q.83
m .co
What was India’s rank in the 2025 SDG Index released by the UN Sustainable
Development Solutions Network?
s e
Ans A. 121st
g la
B. 99th a
C. 78th

D. 87th

Q.84 At which competition did Gurindervir Singh break the national 100 m record?
Ans A. Asian Games

B. Olympic Trials

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C. Indian Grand Prix 1
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D. South Asian Championships

m s e
s e
Q.85 Who set a new world indoor 5000 m race walk record at the Italian Indoor
g l a
g l a Championships in Ancona (Feb 2025)?
a
a Ans A. Francesco Fortunato

B. Toshikazu Yamanishi

C. Matteo Giupponi

D. Evan Dunfee

Q.86 Which significant new financial institution was launched in June 2025 to support India’s
maritime economy?
Ans A. Sagarmala Finance Corporation Ltd.
m .
.co m
B. Coastal Infrastructure Fund

m s e
e
C. India Marine Credit Bank

s l a
l
D. Blue Economy Bank

g a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 31 of 49

Q.87 At the Bharat Climate Forum 2026, Shri C. P. Radhakrishnan stated that effective
climate action can help India in which of the following?
Ans A. Limiting population growth

B. Focusing solely on fossil fuels

C. Reducing agricultural exports

D. Strengthening energy security

Q.88 What is the name of India's first humanoid robot developed for space missions,
announced in 2023?
Ans A. Vikram

B. Aditya

C. Suryamitra

D. Vyommitra

Q.89 At the World Governments Summit 2025 in Dubai, which of the following awards
recognised pioneering government initiatives worldwide for innovation and social
impact?
Ans A. Smart Governance Achievement Award

B. Government Innovation Excellence Award

C. Global Public Leadership Award

D. Global Government Excellence Award

Q.90 In April 2025, at the National Federation Cup Athletics held at Maharaja's College
Ground in Ernakulam, which Indian long jumper broke Anju Bobby George's 23-year-
old national record with a jump of 6.64 m?
Ans A. Priyanka Goswami

B. D Sudha Singh

C. Shaili Singh

D. Ancy Sojan

Q.91 When did/will the new FASTag annual plan become effective in India?
Ans A. 26 November 2025

B. 2 October 2025

C. 15 August 2025

D. 1 September 2025

Q.92 Which league launched in January 2025 featured international kabaddi teams and set
up record-level participation?
Ans A. Kabaddi Premier Series

B. World Kabaddi League

C. Indian Super Kabaddi

D. Global Indian Pravasi Kabaddi League

Q.93 In July 2025, the Union Environment Ministry notified the Environment Protection
Rules, 2025, for which sites?
Ans A. Crowded Sites

B. Hilltop Sites

C. Chemically Contaminated Sites

D. Tourist Sites

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 49

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Q.94 What approximate percentage of the Union Budget 2025-26 was allocated to gender-
m
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specific schemes to address women’s empowerment?

. e m
s
Ans A. 12.21%
m a
se B. 2.68%

C. 4.56% ag l
D. 8.86%

Q.95 The 15th edition of the India‑Vietnam Defence Policy Dialogue (DPD) was held in which
of the following cities in November 2025?
Ans A. Hanoi

B. Ho Chi Minh

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C. New Delhi

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D. Pune

em
Q.96
e m
Who co-chaired the AI Action Summit held in Paris in February 2025?
l as
Ans
l as
A. Chancellor Olaf Scholz and President Emmanuel Macron
ag
ag
B. Prime Minister Narendra Modi and President Joe Biden

C. Prime Minister Narendra Modi and President Emmanuel Macron

D. Prime Minister Rishi Sunak and President Emmanuel Macron

Q.97 As of August 2025, who among the following was the Governor of the Reserve Bank of
India?
Ans A. Shri Saugata Bhattacharya

m
B. Shri Sanjay Malhotra

C. Dr. Nagesh Kumar

m .co
D. Dr. Poonam Gupta
s e
g la
a
Q.98 On which date is Birsa Munda Martyr’s Day observed, as commemorated every year?
Ans A. 26th January

B. 5th November

C. 9th June

D. 15th August

Q.99 Which data collection method contributed to the accurate poverty estimates in India, as
per the SBI report in June 2025?

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Ans A. Mixed Recall Period

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.co m
B. Modified Mixed Recall Period

m s e
a
C. Uniform Recall Period

s e g l
g l a D. Periodic Recall Method
a
a Q.100 Which tribal poet from Jharkhand received the Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar in June
2025 for ‘Phir Ugna’?
Ans A. Mayur Khavdu

B. Akhil P Dharmajan

C. Parvati Tirkey

D. Kirtida Brahmbhatt

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"

e m
e m l as
l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 33 of 49

Test Date 04/02/2026
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

Section : General Science

Q.1 Why does the temperature of ice remain constant during the melting of ice?
Ans A. Ice absorbs heat but does not melt

B. Ice becomes denser

C. Heat is used to break the bonds between molecules

D. Ice reflects heat

Q.2 Which of the following types of reactions is a neutralisation reaction?
Ans A. Single displacement

B. Double displacement

C. Decomposition

D. Combustion

Q.3 The sexually transmitted disease AIDS is caused by which of the following?
Ans A. Protozoa

B. Virus

C. Helminths

D. Bacteria

Q.4 Which one of the following is NOT a tissue?
Ans A. Nerves

B. Blood

C. Muscles

D. Red blood cells

Q.5 A girl clapped her hands near a cliff and heard the echo after 4 s. What is the distance of
the cliff from the girl if the speed of the sound is taken as 320 m s–1?
Ans A. 80 m

B. 1280 m

C. 320 m

D. 640 m

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 34 of 49

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Q.6 Where are protons found in an atom?
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Ans A. Energy Levels

. e m
m B. Nucleus
as
se C. Orbitals
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D. Electron Cloud

Q.7 The regular changes in the ovary and uterus during egg formation is called ________.
Ans A. estrous cycle

B. menstrual cycle

C. fertilisation cycle

D. circadian rhythm
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Q.8 What does the presence of parallel straight magnetic field lines inside a solenoid
indicate?
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Ans
e m
A. The magnetic field is uniform inside the solenoid
l as
l as
B. The magnetic field is zero inside the solenoid
ag
ag
C. The magnetic field is non-uniform and changes at different points

D. The magnetic field is infinite inside the solenoid

Q.9 From a distance–time graph, an object moves from point A to point B, covering a
distance (s2 − s1) in time (t2 − t1). Which of the following correctly represents the speed
(v) of the object?
Ans A. v = (s1 − s2)(t1 − t2)

B. v = (s2 − s1)/(t2 − t1)

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C. v = (t2 − t1)/(s2 − s1)

D. v = (s2 − s1)(t2 − t1)

e m
Q.10
las
Which of the following is NOT correct according to the sign convention for spherical

Ans
lenses?
ag
A. Focal length of a convex lens is taken as negative.

B. Object is always placed on the left of the lens.

C. Distances measured to the right of the optical centre are positive.

D. Focal length of a concave lens is taken as negative.

Q.11 Which of the following is/are true about the acceleration due to gravity?

m
(i) The value of acceleration due to gravity depends on the mass of the object falling

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under the effect of gravity.

m
(ii) The value of acceleration due to gravity is universally constant.
Ans

m.co A. Only (ii)
s e m
s e B. Only (i)
g l a
g l a C. Neither (i) nor (ii)
a
a D. Both (i) and (ii)

Q.12 Which of the following statements is correct about the absolute refractive index?
Ans A. It is always equal to 1.

B. It is always less than 1.

C. It is always greater than 1.

D. It is always negative.

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 49

Q.13 How is the timely sowing of crops helpful for the farmer?
Ans A. It increases weed growth.

B. It avoids competition with weeds.

C. It attracts pests.

D. It decreases crop yield.

Q.14 Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) bears _____ for protein synthesis, while smooth
endoplasmic reticulum (SER) synthesizes _____.
Ans A. ribosomes; lipids

B. pores; RNA

C. lysosomes; DNA

D. enzymes; sugars

Q.15 What does variation within a species ensure?
Ans A. No mutations

B. No evolution

C. Better adaptability and chances of survival

D. Similar response to environmental changes

Q.16 The sulphide ores of metals, which lie in the middle of activity series, are first converted
to oxides. The necessary condition for this conversion is:
Ans A. presence of high temperature

B. presence of high pressure

C. presence of excess air

D. absence of oxygen

Q.17 Which feature is common to all solids?
Ans A. Infinite expansion capability with added energy

B. Easily compressible structure when pressure applied

C. Ability to flow like liquids in open containers

D. Definite volume and shape under normal conditions

Q.18 In uniform circular motion, the direction of velocity of an object is:
Ans A. Perpendicular to the axis of rotation

B. Along the radius, away from the center

C. Tangential to the circular path

D. Along the radius, toward the center

Q.19 What is the best way to manage non-biodegradable waste such as plastic?
Ans A. Burn it in open air

B. Bury it in soil

C. Recycle and reuse it

D. Mix it with compost

Q.20 When the terminal phosphate linkage in ATP is broken using water, the energy
equivalent to ______ kJ/mol is released.
Ans A. 50

B. 71.5

C. 30.5

D. 5

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 49

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Q.21 What happens to the magnetic field strength produced by a circular coil if the number
m
of turns (n) is increased while keeping the current constant?

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Ans A. It remains the same as for a single turn.
s e m
m a
se l
B. It decreases inversely with n.

C. It becomes n times larger than for a single turn.
ag
D. It only increases if the diameter is also increased.

Q.22 According to Bohr’s model of an atom, the ‘M’ shell is represented by the principal
quantum number ‘n’ equal to:
Ans A. 2

B. 3

C. 4
m
D. 1
m .co
Q.23
m.co
In the reaction CuO + H₂ → Cu + H₂O, which substance is oxidised?
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans A. Copper oxide

l a
ag
B. Copper

C. Water

D. Hydrogen

Q.24 What is typically involved in an addition reaction?
Ans A. Oxidation changes without new bonding

B. Removal of atoms from molecules takes place

C. Functional groups are replaced by others
m
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D. Atoms get added to unsaturated bonds

e m
Q.25
s
Which of the following statements is/are NOT true regarding the work done by a
constant force acting on a body?
la
(i) The work done by the force can never be negative.ag
(ii) If the direction of the force and displacement of the body is same, the work done will
be positive.
(iii) The S.I. unit of work done is Pascal.
Ans A. Only (ii)

B. Only (i)

C. Both (ii) and (iii)

D. Both (i) and (iii)

m
m .co
.co
Section : Mathematics

e m
Q.26
e m l as
l as ag
ag Ans A. 12

B. 16

C. 18

D. 14

Q.27

m .
Ans A. 98 m

B. 118 m

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C. 128 m
s e l a
D. 102 m
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 37 of 49

Q.28 The amount on a sum of ₹4,200 at 10% per annum compound interest, compounded
annually, in 2 years will be:
Ans A. ₹5,102

B. ₹5,938

C. ₹5,942

D. ₹5,082

Q.29 The marked price of a washing machine is ₹45,000. A shopkeeper allows a discount of
44% and gets a profit of 80%. What is the cost price of the washing machine?
Ans A. ₹14,042

B. ₹14,000

C. ₹13,850

D. ₹14,154

Q.30 If the length of a cuboid is 21 cm, breadth is 2 cm and the volume of the cuboid is 9198
cm3, then find the height of the cuboid.
Ans A. 223 cm

B. 219 cm

C. 212 cm

D. 228 cm

Q.31 The ratio of length, breadth and height of a cuboid box is in the ratio 5 : 4 : 4 while
the areas of the three adjacent faces of a cuboidal box are 160 cm2, 64 cm2 and 40
cm2, respectively. Find the lateral surface area of the box (in cm2).
Ans A. 396

B. 306

C. 298

D. 288

Q.32 A car goes to a place at a speed of 24 km/hr and returns from there at a speed of 28
km/hr. The average speed (in km/hr, rounded off to 2 decimal places) of the car in the
entire journey is:
Ans A. 24.82

B. 25.85

C. 22.12

D. 27.34

Q.33 The average age of 48 students of a class is 19 years. If the age of the teacher is also
included, the average age of the whole group becomes 20 years. The age (in years) of
the teacher is:
Ans A. 65

B. 68

C. 67

D. 69

Q.34

Ans A. 110%

B. 200%

C. 100%

D. 115%

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 38 of 49

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Q.35 The ratio of numbers of girls and boys participating in sports of a school is 1 : 7. If the
m
number of girls is 300, determine the number of boys participating in the sports.5894

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Ans A. 2130
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m a
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B. 2100

C. 2120
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D. 2075

Q.36 A contractor employed 24 men to build a wall, and they completed the work in 12 days.
After working together for 5 days, 6 men leave the job and do not return. How many
days more will the remaining men take to complete the work?3210
Ans
A.

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B.
m
C.
m .co s em
s e l a
l a ag
ag
D.

Q.37 An employee claims ₹20 for each kilometre when he travels by taxi and ₹10 for each
kilometre if he travels by his own car. In one week, he claimed ₹2,200 for travelling 120
km. How many kilometres did he travel by taxi?
Ans A. 80

B. 95

C. 100

m
D. 90

Q.38
m .co
The sum of three numbers is 270. If the ratio of the second number to the first number
e
is 2:12 and that of the third number to the second number is 5:10, then find the second
s
la
number.
Ans A. 36

B. 37 ag
C. 35

D. 34

Q.39 Find the single equivalent discount (rounded off to two decimal places) for successive
discounts of 18%, 6% and 25%.
Ans A. 42.89%

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B. 42.19%

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C. 42.07%

e m
e m D. 41.85%

l as
l asQ.40 In a quadrilateral IJKL, ∠ I = 11° and ∠ J = 79°. The bisectors of ∠ K and ∠ L meet at Z.
ag
ag Ans
What is the measure of ∠ LZK?
A. 31°

B. 51°

C. 55°

D. 45°

Q.41 If Akhil is as much older than Vijay as he is younger than Karthik, and sum of the ages
of Vijay and Karthik is 84 years, then find the age of Akhil.

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Ans A. 40 years

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B. 44 years

e m l as
C. 42 years

l as ag

D. 46 years
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 39 of 49

Q.42 A car covers three successive 20 km distances at speeds of 10 km/hr, 20 km/hr and 40
km/hr, respectively. Its average speed (in km/hr) is:
Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.43 The product of two numbers is 324 and their HCF is 3. Then their LCM will be:
Ans A. 36

B. 102

C. 108

D. 321

Q.44 The average of first 8 odd natural numbers, is:
Ans A. 9

B. 7.5

C. 8

D. 8.5

Q.45 In an election, there are two candidates. The winner obtains 49% votes of the total
number of voters in the electoral list and defeats the other contestant by 120 votes. If
10% of the voters did not vote, find the total number of voters in the electoral list.
Ans A. 1420

B. 1450

C. 1590

D. 1500

Q.46 The number of prime numbers lying between 376 and 384 is:
Ans A. 3

B. 1

C. 2

D. 4

Q.47 A shopkeeper buys a toy for ₹388 and sells it for ₹485. Find his profit percentage.
Ans A. 25%

B. 19%

C. 12%

D. 8%

Q.48

Ans A. 21

B. 18

C. 19

D. 15

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 40 of 49

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Q.49 A, B and C can do a piece of work in 3, 6 and 6 days, respectively. How long (in days)
m
will they take to do twice the same work, working together?

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Ans A. 3
s e m
m a
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B. 4

C. 9
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D. 6

Q.50

Ans A. 7

B. 8

C. 10

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D. 9
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Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning
s em
s e l a
Q.51
l a
If 1 is added to each even digit and 1 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number
ag
ag
716324598, what will be the sum of all the odd digits in the new number thus formed?
Ans A. 20

B. 24

C. 26

D. 22

Q.52 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

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8 − 7 ÷ 39 × 13 + 12 = ?
Ans A. 15

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B. 14

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C. 16

D. 17 ag
Q.53 In a certain code language,
A+ B means ‘A is the son of B’,
A - B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
and A & B means ‘A is the father of B’.

How is K related to V if ‘K+T&RxZ-V’?

m
Ans A. Father

m
B. Brother
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m.co C. Brother's wife's father
s e m
s e D. Brother's wife's brother
g l a
g l a a
a Q.54 In a certain code language, ‘LEASK’ is coded as ‘76432’ and ‘KASEY’ is coded as
‘46837’. What is the code for ‘L’ in that language?
Ans A. 3

B. 7

C. 2

D. 4

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 41 of 49

Q.55 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

18 19 23 32 48 ?
Ans A. 85

B. 73

C. 83

D. 75

Q.56 In the following triad, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

INKS - KINS - SKNI
READ - ARED - DAER
Ans A. FROM - FORM - MORF

B. PLAY - LPAY - YLAP

C. HOME - MHOE - EMOH

D. TOMB - MTOB - OMBT

Q.57 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 1 4 * @ 9 & & £ $ 7 2 8 & 9 5 £ £ # 6 * 1 % (Right)

How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans A. 3

B. 4

C. 2

D. 5

Q.58 Refer to the following series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are
single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 2 1 7 8 7 4 3 8 5 7 5 2 9 5 3 2 3 2 1 6 1 7 7 5 2 3 1 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by an
even number and also immediately followed by an even number?4398
Ans A. 3

B. 6

C. 5

D. 4

Q.59 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

12 18 6 24 ? 30
Ans A. 36

B. 25

C. 48

D. 0

Q.60 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

DER UVI LMZ CDQ ?
Ans A. TUH

B. TIH

C. THU

D. THI

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Q.61 XD 15 is related to BG 20 in a certain way. In the same way, MT 25 is related to QW 30.
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To which of the given options is LR 10 related, following the same logic?

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Ans A. PV 10
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B. PU 15

C. MS 15
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D. QW 15

Q.62 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. SPR
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B. WTX
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C. KHL
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D. FCG

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Q.63
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Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All hats are mats.
All hats are cats.
All dogs are cats.

Conclusions:
(I) All dogs are mats.
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(II) Some cats are mats.
Ans A. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
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B. Only conclusion (I) follows.
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C. Only conclusion (II) follows.
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D. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Q.64 A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. B sits second to
the left of E. D is an immediate neighbour of B. A sits to the immediate left of B. C sits
second to the right of E. F sits to the immediate left of C. What is the position of A with
respect to F?
Ans A. Second to the right

B. Immediate left
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C. Second to the left
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D. Immediate right

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Q.65 OILQ is related to SMPU in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
g l a
g l a same way, KEHM is related to OILQ. To which of the given options is TNQV related,
following the same logic? a
a Ans A. XRUZ

B. XSUY

C. XSUZ

D. XRUY

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 43 of 49

Q.66 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows. All numbers are single
digit numbers only. Counting to be done from left to right.

(Left) 6 2 5 6 9 1 6 7 6 3 4 7 9 3 7 7 4 5 7 7 6 3 5 6 5 1 3 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. 4

B. 6

C. 5

D. 3

Q.67 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(15, 6, 11)
(24, 15, 20)
Ans A. (23, 14, 9)

B. (16, 7, 12)

C. (19, 28, 33)

D. (18, 9, 4)

Q.68 A, B, C, D, N, O and P are sitting in a straight line, facing north.
Only two people sit between D and P. Only C sits to the right of O. Only one person sits
between P and O. A sits at some place to the right of N but at some place to the left of B.
How many people sit between B and N?
Ans A. Three

B. Four

C. Two

D. One

Q.69 Asim starts from Point A and drives 60 km towards the west. He then takes a right turn,
drives 55 km, turns right and drives 64 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 71 km.
He takes a final right turn, drives 4 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns
are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 15 km to the north

B. 18 km to the south

C. 17 km to the south

D. 16 km to the north

Q.70 Mr. Zzz ranked 14th from the top and 67th from the bottom in his class. How many
students are there in his class?
Ans A. 89

B. 80

C. 85

D. 86

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Q.71 Ashish starts from Point K and drives 12 km towards the east. He then takes a right
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turn; drives 10 km; turns left and drives 3 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 5

. co km. He then takes a right turn and drives 18 km. He takes a final right turn; drives 15 km
and stops at Point Z. How far (shortest distance) and in which direction is Point Z with
s e m
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respect to Point K?

(All turns are 90 degree turns only unless specified.)
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Ans A. 3 km towards west

B. 3 km towards south

C. 6 km towards north

D. 6 km towards east

Q.72 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
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known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
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Statements:
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All peas are carrots.
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All carrots are turnips.
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Conclusions:
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(I) Some turnips are carrots.
(II) All peas are turnips.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows.

B. Only conclusion (I) follows.

C. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

D. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

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Q.73 Which of the given letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
following series to make it logically complete?

e m
Ans
QRP 64 STR 54 UVT 44 WXV 34 ?
A. YYW 23
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B. YZX 24 ag
C. YAW 24

D. YGP 23

Q.74 In a certain code language, ‘time heals wound’ is coded as ‘dj yk eb’ and ‘let time reveal’
is coded as ‘fx ov yk’. How is ‘time’ coded in that language?
Ans A. fx

m
B. ov

m
C. dj
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m.co D. yk
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.75 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster pair that a
a DOES NOT belong to that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. KO−PT

B. MQ−QX

C. BF−GK

D. FJ−KO

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 45 of 49

Q.76 In a row of 47 people facing north, Umesh is 15th from the right end. If Ketan sits 19th to
the left of Umesh, what is Ketan’s position from the left end of the line?
Ans A. 15th

B. 16th

C. 13th

D. 14th

Q.77 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows (All numbers are single
digit numbers only.) Counting to be done from left to right.

(Left) 5 8 5 6 1 8 6 8 5 1 5 8 8 8 9 4 1 6 1 8 4 2 5 4 3 2 1 2 6 (Right)

How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even
digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?
Ans A. five

B. eight

C. four

D. three

Q.78 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

20 32 46 62 80 ?
Ans A. 106

B. 98

C. 100

D. 105

Q.79 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what
will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

17 D 4 B 3 C 54 A 9 = ?
Ans A. 12

B. 11

C. 14

D. 13

Q.80 Seven people (A, B, C, D, E, F and G) are sitting around a circular table, facing towards
the centre.
C is an immediate neighbour of both A and D. B sits to the immediate left of D. A sits
second to the left of F. G is an immediate neighbour of both B and F.
Who is sitting to the immediate right of A?
Ans A. E

B. G

C. B

D. F

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 In July 2025, which global insurance giant entered into a binding agreement with Jio
Financial Services to form a 50:50 reinsurance joint venture?
Ans A. Allianz Group

B. American International Group (AIG)

C. Generali Group

D. Zurich Insurance Group

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 46 of 49

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Q.82 In September 2025, what move did Karnataka take to address unemployment by
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building future-ready workforce capacity?

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Ans A. State Skill Development Policy using digital and inclusive training tools
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B. Sectoral incentive plan focusing mainly on agriculture and handicrafts

C. Reservation policy mandating jobs only for Karnataka residents
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D. International scholarship scheme for student internships abroad

Q.83 In the 2025 Uttarakhand flash flood that occurred on 5 August 2025, which Himalayan
village on the route to Gangotri Dham was devastated by a torrent of water, mud and
debris?
Ans A. Dharali in Uttarkashi district, Uttarakhand

B. Rudraprayag in Rudraprayag district, Uttarakhand

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C. Balta in Almora district, Uttarakhand

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D. Joshimath in Chamoli district, Uttarakhand

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Q.84
s e
The new logo unveiled by the Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation
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a ag
(MoSPI) conveys which core theme that highlights the importance of official statistics in
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national progress?
Ans A. Data for Development

B. Economic Resurgence

C. Public Service Delivery

D. Digital India

Q.85 In June 2025, which disease was officially declared eliminated in India by the World
Health Organization (WHO), marking a major public health milestone?

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Ans A. Yaws

B. Lymphatic Filariasis

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C. Trachoma
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D. Kala-azar
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Q.86
a
Which cricketer earned the prestigious title of ICC Men’s Test Cricketer of the Year for
2024?
Ans A. Rohit Sharma

B. Virat Kohli

C. Jasprit Bumrah

D. Ravichandran Ashwin

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Q.87 In October 2024, which state government launched India’s first integrated state-level

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Cyber Command and Control Centre to serve as a comprehensive hub for handling

.co m
grievances through multiple channels, including a helpline, web portal and mobile app?
Ans
m A. Maharashtra
s e
s e g l a
g l a B. Kerala
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C. Gujarat

D. Chhattisgarh

Q.88 In which Union Budget was the Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana announced
by the Government of India?
Ans A. 2018-2019

B. 2023-2024

C. 2020-2021

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D. 2025-2026

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Q.89 The National Tourism Day was celebrated in India on which date in 2025?
Ans A. 25 January 2025

B. 24 June 2025

C. 24 May 2025

D. 24 February 2025

Q.90 Which of the following associations organised the 2nd Federation Gatka Cup 2025 in
Bengaluru in November 2025?
Ans A. All India Sports and Martial Arts Council

B. Federation of Traditional Indian Sports

C. Indian Gatka and Martial Arts Federation

D. National Gatka Association of India

Q.91 Which of the following organizations released the report titled the State of World’s
Forests, 2025, in May 2025?
Ans A. UNEP

B. IUCN

C. WWF

D. FAO

Q.92 Which of the following international organizations was founded in 1945 to promote
peace, security and cooperation among countries worldwide?
Ans A. World Trade Organization (WTO)

B. North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)

C. International Monetary Fund (IMF)

D. United Nations (UN)

Q.93 Which of the following national parks was highlighted in 2025 as a leading grassland
bird habitat after its inaugural survey recorded 43 grassland bird species (including
Finn’s Weaver and Bengal Florican)?
Ans A. Kaziranga National Park

B. Dudhwa National Park

C. Keoladeo National Park

D. Desert National Park

Q.94 The inaugural Fit India Carnival, a three-day celebration of fitness and wellness, was
held in March 2025. In which city did this pioneering event take place?
Ans A. Chennai

B. New Delhi

C. Mumbai

D. Bengaluru

Q.95 In June 2025, who set a new world record of 6.28 m in the men’s pole vault at the 2025
Stockholm Diamond League?
Ans A. Kurtis Marschall

B. Sam Kendricks

C. Emmanouil Karalis

D. Armand Duplantis

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 48 of 49

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Q.96 Which of the following political parties won the most seats in the 2025 Bihar Legislative
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Assembly election?

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Ans A. Janata Dal (United)
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B. Indian National Congress

C. Rashtriya Janata Dal
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D. Bharatiya Janata Party

Q.97 Which of the following Indian Army regiments participated in the Mitra Shakti-2025
exercise?
Ans A. Rajput Regiment

B. Gorkha Regiment

C. Sikh Regiment
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D. Garhwal Regiment
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Q.98
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From 1 August 2025, what is the new minimum average monthly balance (MAB) ICICI
s em
s e
Bank requires for savings accounts in metro and urban areas for new customers?
l a
Ans A. ₹75,000
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B. ₹25,000

C. ₹10,000

D. ₹15,000

Q.99 In May 2025, which state / union territory government mandated rooftop sprinkler
systems on high-rise buildings?
Ans A. Haryana

B. Telangana
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C. Delhi

D. Andhra Pradesh
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Q.100 Which swimmer set multiple WRs in the 400 m freestyle, 200 m IM, and 400 m IM during
the World Short Course Swimming Championships in Budapest, Hungary, 2024?
Ans A. Katie Ledecky

B. Katinka Hosszú

C. Ariarne Titmus

D. Summer McIntosh

"

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a

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 49 of 49