KUET 2023 Question Paper M.Sc. Biochemistry

FOR KUET EXAM PREPARATION

KUET 2023
Question Paper · M.Sc.
Biochemistry
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT

KUET 2023 Question Paper M.Sc. Biochemistry

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Sr. No. .............................

ENTRANCE TEST-2023
SCHOOL OF BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES

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BIO-CHEMISTRY

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Question Booklet Series

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Total Questions : 60

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Time Allowed : 70 Minutes Roll No. :

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Test Roll Number in the space provided at the top of this page of Question a
l information
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Instructions for Candidates :

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1. Write your Entrance Booklet and
fill up the necessary in the spaces provided on the OMR Answer Sheet.
2. OMR Answer Sheet has an Original Copy and a Candidate’s Copy glued beneath it at the top. While making
entries in the Original Copy, candidate should ensure that the two copies are aligned properly so that the
entries made in the Original Copy against each item are exactly copied in the Candidate’s Copy.
3. All entries in the OMR Answer Sheet, including answers to questions, are to be recorded in the Original Copy
only.

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4. Choose the correct / most appropriate response for each question among the options A, B, C and D and
darken the circle of the appropriate response completely. The incomplete darkened circle is not correctly

mcircle of correct/most appropriate response. In no case
read by the OMR Scanner and no complaint to this effect shall be entertained.

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5. Use only blue/black ball point pen to darken the

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6. Do not darken more than one circle ofaoptions for any question. A question with more than one darkened
gel/ink pen or pencil should be used.

response shall be considered wrong.
7. There will be ‘Negative Marking’ for wrong answers. Each wrong answer will lead to the deduction of
0.25 marks from the total score of the candidate.
8. Only those candidates who would obtain positive score in Entrance Test Examination shall be eligible for
admission.

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9. Do not make any stray mark on the OMR sheet.

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10. Calculators and mobiles shall not be permitted inside the examination hall.

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a in which case it will not
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11. Rough work, if any, should be done on the blank sheets provided with the question

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be evaluated.
13. Ensure that your OMR Answer Sheet has been signed by the Invigilator and the candidate himself/herself.
14. At the end of the examination, hand over the OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator who will first tear off the
original OMR sheet in presence of the Candidate and hand over the Candidate’s Copy to the candidate.

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1. Which of the following is a chiral molecule ? 7. A buffer consists of:
(A) Adenine (A) A strong acid and its conjugate base
(B) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (GD3P) (B) A weak acid and its conjugate base
(C) Linolenic acid
(C) A strong acid and a strong base
(D) Glycine
(D) Two weak acids
2. The following molecules are enantiomers of each other:
(A) D-Glucose and L-Glucose 8. Following is an example of biological buffer that helps
(B) D-Glucose and D-Galactose maintain pH in our body at physiological conditions:
(C) Lactose and Maltose (A) CH3 COOH and CH3 COONa
(D) Pyruvate and Lactic acid (B) Citric acid and sodium citrate
3. Which of the following is the weakest bond ? (C) NH4 OH and NH4 Cl
(A) Ionic bond (D) Na2 HPO4 and NaH2 PO4
(B) Covalent bond 9. The common mechanism between photophosphory-
(C) Hydrogen bond lation in chloroplasts and oxidative phosphorylation
(D) van der Waals interaction in mitochondria is that:
4. Water has the property of being a”universal solvent” (A) PSI-PSII complex is involved in the synthesis
because:
of ATP in both the organelles
(A) It can dissolve salts, fats and oils
(B) F0 -F 1 ATPase complex is involved for the
(B) It has very high density
synthesis of ATP in both mechanisms
(C) It is polar in nature
(D) It can exist in solid, liquid and gaseous forms (C) A proton gradient is generated across the
membranes of these organelles that is used for
5. Which of the following formulas correctly represents
the change in Gibbs free energy: the synthesis of ATP
(A) DG=DH-TDS (D) Complexes I-IV are involved in the synthesis
(B) DH=DG-TDS of ATP in both the organelles
(C) DG=DH-DS 10. In cyclic photophosphorylation:
(D) DG+DH=TDS (A) Only Photosystem I (PSI) is involved and only
6. Non-polar substances like oils are insoluble in water ATP molecules are synthesized
because they: (B) Only Photosystem II (PS-II) is involved and only
(A) Increase the entropy of surrounding water NADPH molecules are synthesized
molecules
(C) Both Photosystems I and II (PS-I and II) are
(B) Decrease the entropy of surrounding water
molecules involved and both ATP and NADPH are
produced
(C) Increase both entropy and enthalpy of the
surrounding water molecules (D) Electrons are transferred in a cyclic manner
(D) Have no effect on the entropy of water between Photosystems I and II and no ATP is
molecules generated

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15. Which of the following strategies will help reduce the
(A) CO2 is added to ribulose 1,5 bisphosphate greenhouse effect and hence the global warming ?
(RuBP) to form two molecules of 3- (A) Increasing industrialization
phosphoglycerate
(B) Switching to renewable sources of energy like
(B) O2 is added to ribulose 1,5 bisphosphate
solar and wind energy

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(RuBP) to form one molecule of

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(C) Increasing the use of chemical fertilizers

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2-phosphoglycolate and one molecule of 3-

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phosphoglycerate (D) By cooling our houses with air conditioners and

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eto pyruvate to form ribulose 1,5 16. Following is a modern scientific methods
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storing food in refrigerators

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(C) CO2 is added to oxaloacetate to form citrate

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(D) CO is added
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bisphosphate conservation of biodiversity:
12. C4 plants can carry out photosynthesis under: (A) By preserving natural habitats for living
(A) Very low amounts of CO2 and under hot and organisms like national parks
dry conditions
(B) By creating special habitats like botanical
(B) Very high amounts of CO 2 and abundant
gardens and zoological parks
moisture

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(C) Using methods like recombinant DNA

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(C) Very high amounts of oxygen and high moisture
gene/seed banks, tissue culture and

13. Which of the following nutrient cycles is an examplee
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(D) In dark conditions

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cryopreservation

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of a sedimentary cycle ?
degraded by proteasomes
(A) Carbon cycle
(B) Nitrogen cycle 17. Bacteria uptake foreign genetic material naturally by
the following method(s):
(C) Sulfur cycle
(D) Water cycle (A) Electroporation

14. In January 2023, Bill Gates announced to support (B) Operon regulation

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research to design and manufacture dietary (C) Lipofection

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supplements that would help reduce the emission of

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(D) Transformation, conjugation or transduction

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the following gas which is produced by the grazing

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18. The structure of viruses can be best described as:

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cattle and substantially contributes to global warming:

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(A) Nucleocapsids

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2

(B) Oxygen (B) Proteoglycans
(C) NO3 (C) Lipoproteins
(D) Methane (D) Phospholipids

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19. During the stationary phase, bacterial growth and 23. The secondary structure of proteins arises because
division are slowed down because: of the following:
(A) Peptide bonds
(A) The nucleo-cytoplasmic shuttling of materials is
inhibited (B) Hydrogen bonds
(C) Disulfide bonds
(B) The essential nutrients in the culture medium are
(D) Hydrophobic interactions
exhausted
24. In the B-form of DNA, the distance between two
(C) Bacteria predominantly use the operon model adjacent base pairs is:
for their metabolism (A) 3.4A°
(D) Bacteria are killed by the expression of (B) 3.4nm
antibiotics (C) 10nm
20. Probiotic bacteria have the following properties: (D) 20nm
(A) They promote the infection of hosts by viruses 25. During the purification process, as we move towards
(B) They are very harmful bacteria that often cause more purity, the specific activity of an enzyme
undergoes the following change:
sickness of hosts
(A) Decreases
(C) They are dead bacteria that are used for making
(B) Remains unchanged
vaccines and hence strengthen the immune
(C) Can both increase or decrease
system of the hosts
(D) Increases
(D) They are live bacteria that are mostly beneficial
26. In non-competitive type of enzyme inhibition:
and help in the digestion and absorption of food
(A) Km remains unchanged but Vmax decreases
materials in the gut of hosts and also fight the
(B) Km increases but Vmax remains the same
harmful bacteria
(C) Both Km and Vmax increase
21. The most common source of energy that is stored in
(D) Km and Vmax remain unchanged
animals and is readily available for energy production
27. Enzymes that are also regulated by sites other than
is: the catalytic site are called:
(A) Starch (A) Isozymes
(B) Glucose (B) Proteasomes
(C) Glycogen (C) Catalases
(D) Fats (D) Allosteric enzymes
22. Fats are rich sources of energy because they have 28. Which of the following plots is best to determine Vmax
and Km values, especially in the presence of various
the following properties:
types of inhibitors ?
(A) Anhydrous and reduced (A) Michaelis Menten plot
(B) Unsaturated and in cis-configuration (B) Briggs Haldane plot
(C) Oxidized and hydrated (C) Lineweaver-Burk plot
(D) Linear and phosphorylated (D) Sigmoid curve

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29. The most common pathway for energy production in 34. The phospholipid bilayer of plasma membrane
all living organisms is: contains:

(A) Gluconeogenesis (A) Intrinsic proteins
(B) Nucleoporins
(B) TCA cycle
(C) F0 -F1 proteins
(C) ß -oxidation

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(D) Sodium dodecyl sulfate

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(D) Glycolysis

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35. Which of the following proteins is present in the

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30. During glycolysis, conversion of 1,3-

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mitochondria ?

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bisphosphoglycerate to 3-phosphoglycerate is an

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(A) snRNPs

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example of:

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(B) Succinate dehydrogenase

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(A) Oxidative phosphorylation
(C) Hexokinase
(B) Anaplerotic (D) Microtubules
(C) Substrate level phosphorylation 36. Chromatin is present in its most compact conformation
(D) Allosteric regulation in which of following stage of cell cycle in eukaryotic
31. The major source of energy currency that is produced cells ?
in ß -oxidation is: (A) S-phase

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(B) Metaphase

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(A) a -Ketoglutarate
(C)

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(B) ATP

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(C) NADH

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(D) Pyruvate
authentic and conclusive set of experiments to prove
32. In starvation, gluconeogenesis is most important that DNA is the genetic material of living organisms ?
metabolic pathway and hence major source of energy (A) Temin and Baltimore
for which organ of the body ? (B) Watson and Crick
(A) Brain (C) Avery, Macleod and McCarty
(B) Liver (D) Hershey and Chase

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(C) Pancreas 38. Solenoid can be defined as:

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(D) Kidneys (A) Group of 6 nucleosomes in a loop forming a

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fibre of 30nm

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33. The most prominent feature that distinguishes a

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(B) Two rounds of DNA wound around 4 pairs of

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prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell is:

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histones forming a fibre of 10nm

a (B) Nucleus
(C) DNA at the centromeres of the chromosomes
that link the two chromatids
(C) Semi-conservative replication (D) Multisubunit complexes of proteins at the
(D) Glycolysis replication fork

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39. The sequence on the DNA where RNA polymerase 45. Which of the following is a disease related to the
binds during transcription is called: circulatory system ?
(A) UTR (A) Tuberculosis
(B) Okazaki fragment (B) Diabetes
(C) Enhancer (C) Stroke
(D) Promoter (D) Muscular dystrophy
40. Mutations that essentially result in the change in 46. In which part of the respiratory system, the gaseous
primary sequence of a polypeptide are called: exchange of O2 and CO2 takes place ?
(A) Point mutations (A) Bronchi
(B) Frame shift mutations (B) Bronchioles
(C) Palindromes (C) Alveoli
(D) Codons (D) Trachea
41. Absorption spectrophotometry is fundamentally based 47. Peptic ulcers are most commonly caused by:
on: (A) Infection by Helicobacter pylori
(A) Kepler’s laws (B) Viral infection
(B) Beer Lambert’s law (C) Spicy foods and coffee
(C) Avagadro’s law (D) Acidic fruits
(D) Laws of Thermodynamics 48. Which gland of the endocrine system controls the sleep
42. In gel exclusion chromatography, molecules are cycle by regulating the secretion of the sleeping
separated on the basis of: hormone melatonin ?
(A) Ionic interactions (A) Thyroid
(B) Hydrophobic interactions (B) Pituitary
(C) Sizes of the molecules (C) Hypothalamus
(D) Chemical reactivity (D) Pineal
43. In native PAGE, proteins are separated based on: 49. Which of the following vitamins can be stored in excess
(A) Shape and size in the body and cause hyper-vitaminosis ?
(B) Charge (A) Vitamin D
(C) Hydrophobic interactions (B) Vitamin C
(D) DNA-protein interaction (C) Vitamin B7
44. A particular protein can be efficiently and specifically (D) All of the above
detected in minute quantities in plasma using the 50. The normal range of body mass index (BMI) of an
following technique: adult person is:
(A) Western blotting (A) 15-20
(B) ELISA (B) 18-25
(C) RT-PCR (C) 25-30
(D) Spectrophotometry (D) >40

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51. Higher levels of acid phosphatase (PAP) are used as 56. T cells of the immune system are named so
a diagnostic marker for the following disease: because they are:
(A) Cystic fibrosis (A) Produced in the thymus
(B) Type I diabetes
(B) Generated in response to toxins
(C) Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
(C) Produced in response to the tumors in the body
(COPD)
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(D) They have abundance of tyrosine receptors

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(D) Prostate cancer with metastasis

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52. Lactate Dehydrogenase 1 (LDH1) is commonly used 57. The scientist who engineered the first recombinant

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as a diagnostic marker for: DNA molecule was:
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(A) Myocardial Infarction (MI) (A) Susumu Tonegawa
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(B) Urinary tract (B) Kary Mullis
(C) Diabetes (C) Paul Berg
(D) Kidney malfunction
(D) Werner Arbor
53. Antibodies are secreted by the following cells of the
immune system: 58. Restriction endonucleases type II are the enzymes that:

(A) Helper T cells (A) Cut specific sequences on double stranded
DNA by breaking the phosphodiester bonds
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(B) Cytotoxic T cells
(C) B Cells
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(B)

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(D) Dendritic cells
54. Monoclonal antibodies are the antibodies that:
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(A) Recognize a single epitope of an antigen
(B) Recognize a single protein in a multisubunit
replication
59. Cell lines are the cells that can:
complex
(A) Divide a few times and die
(C) Are produced only once in the life time of an
organism (B) Are immortalized and hence divide indefinitely
(D) Have a single heavy and a light chain (C) Produce antibiotics for commercial use

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55. Antibody diversity in higher organisms is primarily (D) Have the properties of cancer cells and make

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generated by:
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tumors when injected in mice

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(A)

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contain:

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Recombination of different V, D and J gene
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(A) Components from

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segments of Ig genes

a viral infection (C) Components from both phages and plasmids
(D) Chiasmata formation during meiosis (D) Sequences from two different plasmids

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ROUGH WORK

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