RRB Group D 2026 Question Paper 05 Feb All Shifts (in English)

FOR RRB GROUP D EXAM PREPARATION

RRB Group D 2026
Question Paper · All
Shifts (in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB Group D 2026 Question Paper All Shifts (in English) 05 Feb

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 05/02/2026
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 What are the primary products formed during the complete combustion of most carbon
compounds?
Ans A. Carbon monoxide and water

B. Carbon dioxide, water, and energy

C. Alcohols and carboxylic acids

D. Soot and carbon dioxide
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Q.2 Which of the following is a neutralisation reaction?
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Ans A.
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B.
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C.
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D.

Q.3 Which of the following does NOT represent a pair of isotopes?
Ans A.

B.

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C.
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g l a Q.4 Rabi crops are harvested in which season?
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a Ans A. Summer

B. Autumn

C. Winter

D. Monsoon

Q.5 Which of the following statements is correct regarding the female reproductive
system?
Ans A. The cervix connects the ovaries to the uterus.
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B. A girl starts producing eggs only after she reaches puberty.

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C. The fallopian tubes carry the egg from the ovary to the uterus.
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D. The uterus produces eggs that travel through the vagina.

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 1 of 49

Q.6 Which of the following is a characteristic of liquids?
Ans A. No fixed shape or volume

B. Fixed shape but variable volume

C. No fixed shape but fixed volume

D. Fixed shape and volume

Q.7 A ball is dropped from rest. What will be the velocity of the ball after falling 20 m?
(Take, g = 10 m/s2)
Ans A. 40.0 m/s

B. 20.0 m/s

C. 50.0 m/s

D. 10.0 m/s

Q.8 Which part of Bryophyllum develops new plantlets for vegetative propagation?
Ans A. Root

B. Leaf margin

C. Stem

D. Flower

Q.9 Which of the following statements is true about the potential energy?
Ans A. It cannot be converted into other forms of energy.

B. It is only present when an object is moving.

C. It depends on the object’s motion.

D. It is energy stored due to position or condition.

Q.10 பூச்சிகளின் எந் த ெசயல் பாடு தாவரங் களில் ஊட்டச்சத்துக்களின்
இழப் ைப ேநரடியாக ஏற் படுத்துகிறது?
Ans A. ெசல் சாற் ைற உறிஞ் சுதல்

B. விழுந்த இைலகைள மட்டுேம உட்ெகாள் கிறது

C. தாவரத்தின் மீது முட்ைடயிடுதல்

D. மண்ணில் துைளத்தல்

Q.11 If the acceleration of a body is halved and mass remains constant, the force will
_________.
Ans A. Remain the same

B. Halve

C. Become zero

D. Double

Q.12 To hear a distinct echo, what should be the minimum time interval between the original
sound and the reflected sound?
Ans A. 1.0 s

B. 0.1 s

C. 0.01 s

D. 0.2 s

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 2 of 49

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Q.13 A convex lens forms an image of an object placed 30 cm away. The image is formed at
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60 cm on the other side. The magnification is:

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Ans A. –2
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D. +2

Q.14 Which of the following combinations will consume more electrical power if connected
to the same voltage source?
Ans A. Higher resistance

B. Equal resistance

C. Zero resistance
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D. Lower resistance

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Q.15
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When an iron nail is placed in copper sulphate solution, what is observed?
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Ans
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A. Iron dissolves and copper deposits on the nail.
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B. Copper dissolves and iron deposits on the nail.

C. Hydrogen gas is evolved.

D. No reaction occurs.

Q.16 A characteristic of a colloidal solution is that:
Ans A. it is a homogeneous mixture

B. it is a heterogeneous mixture

C. it is an ideal solution
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D. it is an azeotrope
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Q.17
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Inside the lungs, rapid exchange of gases takes place between the air and the blood.
Which type of epithelial tissue helps in this process?
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Ans A. Simple squamous epithelium a
B. Stratified squamous epithelium

C. Ciliated columnar epithelium

D. Cuboidal epithelium

Q.18 Which statement is correct about magnetic field lines?
Ans A. They can intersect at the poles.
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B. They never intersect each other.
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a Column A Column B
(p) Sepal and petal (i) Reproductive part
(q) Stamen and pistil (ii) Accessory part
(r) Stigma (iii) Stamen
(s) Pollen grain (iv) Pistil
Ans A. p – ii, q – i, r – iv, s - iii

B. p – iii, q – i, r – iv, s - ii

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C. p – iv, q – iii, r – ii, s - i

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D. p – i, q – ii, r – iii, s - iv

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 3 of 49

Q.20 Which of the following correctly represents the sequence of colours observed on the
screen when white light passes through a prism in its standard orientation?
Ans A. BYVROIG

B. ROYGBIV

C. GYORVIB

D. VIBGYOR

Q.21 Which of the following is true about the homologous series?
Ans A. Each successive member differs by -CH2- group.

B. All members have different functional groups.

C. All members have the same molecular weight.

D. All members have the same boiling point.

Q.22 Which of the following is an example of a cyclic hydrocarbon?
Ans A. Methane

B. Butane

C. Cyclohexane

D. Ethene

Q.23 Which of the following statements about average velocity is NOT correct?
Ans A. It depends on the direction of motion.

B. It is always the same as average speed.

C. It is the total displacement divided by total time.

D. It is measured in m/s.

Q.24 Plastids are easily observed under a microscope because:
Ans A. they are very small

B. they are large and contain pigments

C. they contain DNA

D. they are colourless

Q.25 A botanist observes a plant exhibiting rapid growth at its shoot tip. Which type of plant
tissue is most likely responsible for this growth?
Ans A. Intercalary meristem

B. Permanent tissue

C. Lateral meristem

D. Apical meristem

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 A metallic cylindrical tube is open at both ends. The external diameter of
the tube is 12 cm, and its length is 63 cm. The thickness of the metal tube
everywhere is 0.4 cm. What is the total surface area (in cm2) of the tube?

Ans A. 4630

B. 4625

C. 4615

D. 4620

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 4 of 49

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Q.27 In a race, an athlete covers a distance of 390 m in 65 sec in the first lap. He covers the
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second lap of the same length in 195 sec. What is the average speed (in m/sec) of the

. athlete?
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Ans A. 3

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B. 9

C. 12
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D. 1

Q.28 A cistern has a hole in the bottom through which water is leaking. A tap can fill the
cistern in 3 hours and the hole in the bottom can empty the fully filled cistern in 5
hours. If both the tap and the hole are open, then what will be the time taken to
completely fill the empty cistern?
Ans A. 8 hours
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B. 12.8 hours

C. 5.6 hours

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D. 7.5 hours
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Q.29 Sarah's age is 5 years more than twice her sister Emma's age. If the sum of their ages is
29 years, how old is Sarah?
Ans A. 26 years

B. 21 years

C. 18 years

D. 23 years

Q.30

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Ans A. -1

B. 1
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C. -5
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D. 0
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Q.31 P and Q together can fill a cistern with water in 12 hours. If P alone can fill the cistern
with water in 21 hours, then in how many hours will Q alone fill one-fourth of the same
cistern with water?
Ans A. 14

B. 7

C. 8

D. 15
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Q.32

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a B. 0.75

C. 1.5

D. 0.5

Q.33 In quadrilateral PQRS, the bisectors of ∠ R and ∠ S meet at the point T (inside the
quadrilateral) and ∠ STR = 33°. If the ratio of ∠ P to ∠ Q is 3 : 8, then what is the
difference between the measures of ∠ Q and ∠ P?
Ans A. 26°

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B. 30°

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C. 34°
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D. 32°
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Q.34 The sides of a triangle are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5. A square has its perimeter equal to the
perimeter of the triangle. If the difference between their areas is 48 cm², find the
perimeter of the triangle.
Ans A. 52 cm

B. 56 cm

C. 48 cm

D. 42 cm

Q.35 In a region 86% of registered voters participated in voting. If the total registered voters
are 18,000 in that region, then how many voters participated in voting?
Ans A. 18,000 voters

B. 15,480 voters

C. 15,490 voters

D. 15,080 voters

Q.36 A cricketer has an average of 77 runs over 12 innings. If he scores 266 runs in the 13th
inning, by how many runs (rounded off to the nearest whole number) does his average
score increase?
Ans A. 15

B. 9

C. 6

D. 19

Q.37 What price should Kunal mark on a hoodie which cost him ₹8,400, so as to gain 25%
after allowing successive discounts of 20% and 25%?
Ans A. ₹17,648

B. ₹17,509

C. ₹17,500

D. ₹17,676

Q.38
Ans A. 21

B. 441

C. 341

D. 541

Q.39 In a test, B got 50 marks while A got 75 marks, out of 115 maximum marks. What
percentage of A’s marks was B’s marks? (Round off your answer to two decimal
places.)
Ans A. 115.32%

B. 65.22%

C. 66.67%

D. 150.24%

Q.40 There were two candidates in an election. One candidate got 28% of the total valid
votes and lost by 13,200 votes. Find the total number of valid votes.
Ans A. 50,000

B. 40,000

C. 30,000

D. 60,000

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 6 of 49

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Q.41 The arithmetic mean of the observations 25, 92, 48, 17, 38, 93, 37, 90 and 73 is:
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Ans A. 58

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B. 67

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C. 55

D. 57

Q.42 Two trains, X and Y, are running along parallel tracks towards each other. The length of
train X is 150 m, and the length of train Y is 250 m. Train X is running at a speed of 60
km/hr, and train Y is running at a speed of 90 km/hr. How much time will it take for train
X to cross train Y?
Ans A. 8.6 seconds

B. 10.6 seconds
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C. 7.6 seconds
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D. 9.6 seconds

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Q.43
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Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2,000 at 7% per annum rate of interest for the period

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from 8 February 2023 to 22 April 2023.
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Ans A. 28
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B. 26

C. 27

D. 29

Q.44 A sells to B at 20% profit, B sells to C at 25% loss, C sells to D at 40% profit. D pays
₹252. How much did A pay originally?

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Ans A. ₹200

B. ₹175

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C. ₹210
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D. ₹180
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Q.45
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Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

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Q.46 The number of prime numbers between 368 and 376 is:
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Ans A. 3

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B. 1

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Q.47 The sum of two numbers is 86 and their difference is 12. Find the product of the two
numbers.
Ans A. 1613

B. 1913

C. 1713

D. 1813
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Q.48 A total profit of ₹28,800 is to be distributed amongst P, Q and R such that P : Q = 17 : 5
and Q : R = 6 : 12. The share (in ₹) of Q in the profit is:
Ans A. 4,600

B. 4,500

C. 4,650

D. 4,400

Q.49 After allowing a discount of 75% on the marked price of an article, it is sold for ₹69,356.
Find its marked price (in ₹).
Ans A. 2,77,339

B. 2,77,431

C. 2,77,424

D. 2,77,594

Q.50 Suman, Tariq and Neha invest sums in the ratio 8 : 25 : 15, respectively. If they earned a
total profit of ₹44,544 at the end of the year, then what is the positive difference
between the shares of Suman and Neha?
Ans A. ₹6,493

B. ₹6,497

C. ₹6,496

D. ₹6,498

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Mr. Akai starts from Point A and drives 9 km towards west. He then takes a left turn,
drives 9 km, turns left and drives 17 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 18 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 8 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90-degree turns only, unless specified.)
Ans A. 9 km to the south

B. 9 km to the north

C. 12 km to the north

D. 12 km to the east

Q.52 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. SWX

B. ZEE

C. HLM

D. UYZ

Q.53 AZXT is related to XWUQ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, VUSO is related to SRPL. To which of the given options is TSQM related,
following the same logic?
Ans A. QQMS

B. QOMJ

C. QPMJ

D. QPNJ

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 8 of 49

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Q.54 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
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Ans A. 457

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B. 454

C. 456
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D. 458

Q.55 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

17 32 49 68 89 ?
Ans A. 111

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B. 112

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C. 114

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D. 109

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Q.56
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Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
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the following sets.

(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

35 - 7 - 5
60 - 6 - 10
Ans A. 81 - 7 - 8

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B. 40 - 5 - 9

C. 63 - 7 - 9

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D. 12 - 4 - 2
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Q.57 In a certain code language, ‘what are those’ is written as ‘np tr sq’ and ‘take those gifts’
is coded as ‘hk my tr’. How is ‘those’ coded in that language?
Ans A. tr

B. my

C. hk

D. np

Q.58 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster pair that
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DOES NOT belong to that group?
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(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
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Ans
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A. SV−WZ

g l B. DG−HK a
a C. UX−XD

D. FI−JM

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 9 of 49

Q.59 Refer to the given number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be
done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers.

(Left) 7 5 2 4 9 5 3 8 9 1 2 6 6 6 8 4 5 3 9 1 7 9 8 6 3 6 9 (Right)

How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. 2

B. 5

C. 3

D. 4

Q.60 M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. P is an
immediate neighbour of both N and Q. M is sitting second to the right of Q. R is an
immediate neighbour of both M and N. What is the position of Q with respect to P?
Ans A. Immediate right

B. Immediate left

C. Second to the right

D. Third to the left

Q.61 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to
be done from left to right. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)

(Left) 1 7 6 2 9 4 3 8 5 2 6 3 7 8 9 2 5 1 4 7 6 3 2 9 5 4 1 8 (Right)

How many such odd digits are there each of which is immediately preceded by an even
digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
Ans A. One

B. Three

C. Four

D. Two

Q.62 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

YCG−FJN
OSW−VZD
Ans A. GJM−NRV

B. GKO−NRV

C. GKO−MRU

D. GJM−MQU

Q.63 Six boxes, L, M, N, O, P and Q, are stacked vertically. Q is placed at the topmost
position. N is placed immediately below P. M is placed immediately above P. L is placed
second from the bottom. Which box is placed at the bottommost position?
Ans A. P

B. O

C. M

D. N

Q.64 If ‘P’ stands for ‘×’, ‘Q’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘R’ stands for ‘-’ and ‘S’ stands for ‘+’, what will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

14 P 4 S (16 Q 4) P 9 R (60 Q 6) P 7 S 20 = ?
Ans A. 58

B. 42

C. 65

D. 36
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 10 of 49

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Q.65 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
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given series to make it logically complete?

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XVX 49 AYA 41 DBD 33 GEG 25 ?
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B. JHJ 17 ag l
C. JGI 16

D. JII 17

Q.66 RIVK is related to BSFU in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, FWJY is related to PGTI. To which of the following options is JANC related,
following the same logic?
Ans A. TKXM
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B. TMXD

C. TXDE

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D. TMKI
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Q.67 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?

1 11 31 61 ? 151
Ans A. 111

B. 121

C. 101

D. 91

Q.68
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In a certain code language, ‘cute red flowers’ is coded as ‘by gh cf’ and ‘nice red dress’

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is coded as ‘jk bt gh’. How is ‘red’ coded in that language? (All codes are two-letter
codes.)

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Ans A. cf

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B. jk

C. by ag
D. gh

Q.69 In a certain code language,
‘A ± B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’,
‘A * B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’,
‘A ₹ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’ and
‘A # B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’.

How is D related to O if ‘D * R ± A ₹ C # O’?
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Ans
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A. Daughter
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s e C. Wife
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g l a D. Sister a
a

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 11 of 49

Q.70 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some bells are pots.
All pots are machines.

Conclusions:
(I): Some bells are machines.
(II): All machines are pots
Ans A. Only conclusion (I) follows

B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

C. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

D. Only conclusion (II) follows

Q.71 If ‘P’ stands for ‘×’, ‘Q’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘R’ stands for ‘−’ and ‘S’ stands for ‘+’, what will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

(9 Q 3) P 8 S (72 Q 12) P 7 R 15 P 3 = ?
Ans A. 21

B. 12

C. 39

D. 44

Q.72 Aditi ranked 8th from the top and 25th from the bottom in her class. How many students
are there in the class?
Ans A. 30

B. 29

C. 32

D. 31

Q.73 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north.
No one sits to the left of C. Only four people sit between C and A. Only three people sit
to the right of G. E sits to the immediate left of B. F is not an immediate neighbour of G.
How many people sit to the right of D?
Ans A. 2

B. 4

C. 1

D. 3

Q.74 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.
You have to decide which conclusion(s) logically follow/s from the given statements.

Statements: All pots are mats. Some mats are hats. All hats are cats.
Conclusions I: All cats are mats
Conclusions II: Some cats are pots.
Ans A. Only Conclusion I follows

B. Only Conclusion II follows

C. Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

D. Both Conclusions I and II follow

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 12 of 49

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Q.75 A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. A sits third to the
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right of F. B sits second to the left of C. D sits third to the right of C. E sits to the

. immediate left of A. How many people sit between E and D when counted from the left
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of D?
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se Ans A. Four

B. Two ag l
C. One

D. None

Q.76 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

CAR GYV KWZ OUD ?

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Ans A. TRG

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B. STG

C. SSH
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D. RSI
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Q.77 ag
Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to
be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)

(Left) 4 9 2 4 6 8 9 4 3 2 8 3 8 4 6 5 1 2 8 4 7 2 8 5 7 3 7 4 8 7 (Right)

How many 8’s are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even number and
also immediately followed by an odd number?
Ans A. More than three

B. One

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C. Two

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D. Three

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Q.78
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If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what
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will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

99 A 9 C 12 B 3 D 7 = ?
Ans A. 35

B. 45

C. 40

D. 50

Q.79 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows. All numbers are single-
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digit numbers only. Counting to be done from left to right.
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(Left) 3 8 1 5 7 2 9 4 6 3 7 2 8 1 5 9 4 6 8 2 7 3 9 1 6 (Right)
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s e How many such even digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
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g l a even digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
a
a Ans A. Two

B. Four

C. Three

D. Five

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 13 of 49

Q.80 Arvind starts from Point K and drives 10 km towards the west. He then takes a left turn;
drives 8 km; turns left and drives 4 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 4 km. He
then takes a left turn and drives 6 km. He takes a final left turn; drives 8 km and stops at
Point Y. How far (shortest distance) and in which direction is Point Y with respect to
Point K?

(All turns are 90 degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 4 km towards west

B. 4 km towards south

C. 8 km towards east

D. 8 km towards north

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 The 51st G7 Summit of 16–17 June 2025 took place in which Canadian location?
Ans A. Kananaskis, Alberta

B. Toronto, Ontario

C. Montreal, Quebec

D. Vancouver, British Columbia

Q.82 In which state was the hedging desk established in 2025 to protect cotton, turmeric and
maize farmers?
Ans A. Kerala

B. Odisha

C. Maharashtra

D. West Bengal

Q.83 What is the overdue limit for microfinance lending as per the Microfinance Industry
Network directives, effective January 2025?
Ans A. ₹1,000

B. ₹5,000

C. ₹3,000

D. ₹2,000

Q.84 In January 2025, which of the following organisations partnered with Chennai’s
Metropolitan Transport Corporation (MTC) to launch ‘RuPay on-the-go’ for transit
payments?
Ans A. Indian Banks’ Association (IBA)

B. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

C. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

D. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)

Q.85 The revised roadmap released in June 2025 for the National Mission for Green India
(GIM) places special emphasis on ecological restoration in which of the following
critical regions?
Ans A. Central Indian Highlands and Sundarbans

B. Deccan Plateau and Andaman Islands

C. Thar Desert and Eastern Ghats

D. Aravalli Range, Western Ghats, Himalayas, and mangroves

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 14 of 49

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Q.86 The sixth phase of the ‘Jal Shakti Abhiyan: Catch the Rain 2025’ was launched in which
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of the following Indian states?

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Ans A. Bihar
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D. Rajasthan

Q.87 In late November 2025, which cyclonic storm prompted the IMD to issue warnings for
north Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, and adjoining south Andhra Pradesh, and made landfall
around 30 November 2025?
Ans A. Cyclone Ditwah

B. Cyclone Shakhti
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C. Cyclone Senyar
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D. Cyclone Montha

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Q.88
s
Which Indian javelin thrower won gold at the Taiwan Athletics Open in June 2025?

l a ag
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Ans A. Davinder Singh Kang

B. Kishore Kumar

C. Neeraj Chopra

D. Rohit Yadav

Q.89 The National Red List Assessment Initiative, launched in India in October 2025, aligns
with IUCN global standards and supports the country’s commitments under which of
the following international frameworks?

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Ans A. Greenhouse Gas (GHG) Framework

B. Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction

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C. Kunming–Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework
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D. Ramsar Convention on Wetlands Framework
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Q.90
a
Which prodigious ice-hockey talent was awarded the EJ McGuire Award of Excellence,
highlighting character and athleticism, ahead of the 2025 NHL Draft?
Ans A. Michael Misa

B. Ivan Miroshnichenko

C. Matvei Michkov

D. Connor Bedard

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Q.91 Which of the following nutritional concerns are being highlighted in the food awareness
m
campaign launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare on the occasion of

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World Food Safety Day, 2025?

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Ans
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A. Excess iron and protein

g l a
g l a B. High fibre and calcium
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a C. Low vitamin C and zinc

D. Hidden sugars, fats and oils

Q.92 Which organization licensed nine breakthrough health technologies to industry
partners at the India MedTech Expo in September 2025?
Ans A. ISRO

B. NITI Aayog

C. WHO
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D. ICMR

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Q.93 How many new medical seats were announced in the Union Budget 2025-26, to be
added for the upcoming academic year i.e. 2025-26?
Ans A. 10000

B. 4000

C. 6000

D. 2000

Q.94 In March 2025, the Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC)
tightened emissions standards for which industry under the Environment (Protection)
Second Amendment Rules, 2025?
Ans A. Dairy

B. Cement

C. Textile

D. Caustic soda

Q.95 The second edition of the STAIRS Youth National Games began on May 19, 2025. In
which stadium in New Delhi did this event commence?
Ans A. Thyagaraj Sports Complex

B. Indira Gandhi Arena

C. Talkatora Stadium

D. Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium

Q.96 In the year 2025, on which date was Army Day observed in India?
Ans A. 20 January

B. 15 January

C. 23 January

D. 13 January

Q.97 Which author/translator pair won the International Booker Prize, 2025, for Heart Lamp?
Ans A. David Szalay and Kiran Desai

B. Banu Mushtaq and Deepa Bhasthi

C. Margaret Atwood and Margaret Kiln

D. Kiran Desai and David Milon

Q.98 Where were the inaugural Beach Games, held under the Khelo India banner,
conducted?
Ans A. Puducherry

B. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

C. Goa

D. Diu

Q.99 In May 2025, the RBI introduced a new Payments Regulatory Board of how many
members to regulate and supervise payment systems in the country?
Ans A. 8

B. 4

C. 10

D. 6

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 16 of 49

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Q.100 The 3rd edition of the International Conference organized by the Indian Council of
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Arbitration (ICA) in June 2025 emphasized “Hybrid Dispute Resolution Models” in

. commercial conflicts between which countries?
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Ans A. India and Australia

B. India and Japan
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C. India and USA

D. India and UK

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Test Date 05/02/2026
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

Section : General Science

Q.1 Which of the following is a ring-chain hydrocarbon?
Ans A. Benzene

B. Propane

C. Heptyne

D. Ethene

Q.2 What is the formula of washing soda?
Ans A. Na₂CO₃·10H₂O

B. NaHCO₃

C. NaOH

D. Na₂CO₃

Q.3 The principle of conservation of energy is applicable to ___________.
Ans A. every mechanical system only

B. every chemical system only

C. every physical process in general

D. every electrical system exclusively

Q.4 The magnification (m) produced by a lens is defined as the ratio of _____________.
Ans A. the image height to the object height

B. the focal length to the object distance

C. the object distance to the image distance

D. the object height to the image height

Q.5 Which meristem is located near the nodes in some plants?
Ans A. Apical meristem

B. Root meristem

C. Lateral meristem

D. Intercalary meristem

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 18 of 49

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Q.6 Which of the following are the most reactive and the least reactive metals, respectively,
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in a reactivity series?

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Ans A. Potassium, Gold
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C. Magnesium, Silver ag l
D. Magnesium, Gold

Q.7 When an object is placed between the pole (P) and the focus (F) of a concave mirror,
what kind of image is formed?
Ans A. Real, inverted, and enlarged

B. Virtual, inverted, and diminished

C. Virtual, erect, and enlarged
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D. Real, inverted, and diminished

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Q.8
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Which of the following steps can increase the expected yield of a crop?
l as
Ans
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A. Irrigation at early stages of crop.
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B. Irrigation at terminal stage of crop.

C. Irrigation at right stage of crop.

D. Irrigation at every stage of crop.

Q.9 A block of mass M is subjected to two opposing forces F1 and F2 ( F1 > F2). If the
frictional force ( Ff) acting opposite to F1 is such that the net acceleration of the block
is half the acceleration it would have experienced if friction were zero, what is the
relation for Ff?

Ans A. Ff =( F1 + F2)/2
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B. Ff =( F1 - F2)/2
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C. Ff =( F1 - F2)
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D. Ff = 2( F1 - F2)
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Q.10
a
What is the colour of the precipitate formed when silver nitrate reacts with sodium
chloride?
Ans A. Green

B. Blue

C. Yellow

D. White

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Q.11 Why are the ceilings of places like concert halls and cinema halls usually made

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curved?
Ans
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A. To reduce the size of the building
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B. To block the sound from reflecting

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a D. To help sound reflect and reach all parts of the hall

Q.12 Which statement from the following correctly defines the law of constant proportions?
Ans A. A compound always contains elements in a fixed ratio by mass.

B. Elements combined in random ratios to form compounds.

C. The mass of a compound is always greater than the sum of its elements.

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D. Compounds can vary their composition based on temperature.

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Q.13 The motion of a freely falling stone is an example of:
Ans A. motion with zero acceleration

B. non-uniform motion

C. uniform motion

D. rectilinear motion with constant speed

Q.14 Which of the following is a basic requirement for maintaining good reproductive
health?
Ans A. Ignoring changes during adolescence

B. Safe sex practices and awareness about contraception

C. Avoiding all medicines

D. Sharing personal hygiene products

Q.15 Which of the following is an example of judicious use of natural resources?
Ans A. Rainwater harvesting

B. Deforestation

C. Excessive use of fossil fuels

D. Open mining

Q.16 Which of the following statements is/are correct in the context of a mixture and a
compound?

A) A mixture has a variable composition while in a compound, the composition of each
new substance is always fixed.
B) A mixture shows the different properties of the constituent substance while in a
compound, the new substance shows the same properties.
C) A mixture has a non-variable composition while in a compound, the composition of
each new substance is always changing.
Ans A. Both A and B

B. Only A

C. Only C

D. Only B

Q.17 Which of the following outcomes identifies meiosis rather than mitosis?
Ans A. Two identical cells, same number

B. Many cells, same number

C. Four cells, half number

D. One larger cell, double number

Q.18 Which of the following statements about 'Law of conservation of mass' is correct?
A) Mass can be changed when the reaction takes place.
B) During the chemical reaction, atoms are rearranged.
C) Mass within a closed system remains the same over time.
Ans A. Only A

B. only B and C

C. Only B

D. Only A and B

Q.19 A tube that grows out of the pollen grain travels through the style to reach which of the
following parts of the flower?
Ans A. Filament

B. Sepal

C. Ovary

D. Petal

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 49

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Q.20 Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion
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(A) and Reason (R).

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as
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Reason (R): The soap micelles are large enough to scatter light.
A. A is false, but R is true. ag l
B. A is true, but R is false.

C. Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.

D. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Q.21 A straight conductor is carrying current in the +x-direction, this conductor is placed in
a magnetic field pointing in the +y-direction. What will be the direction of motion of the
conductor?
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Ans A. positive z direction
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B. positive x direction

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C. negative y direction

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D. negative x direction
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Q.22 ag
Which of the following is a practical application of Archimedes’ Principle in daily life?
Ans A. Using a thermometer

B. Operating a pendulum

C. Using a prism for light dispersion

D. Design of ships and submarines

Q.23 In which device is the heating effect of current used to melt a metal?
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Ans A. Electric bell

B. Electric fuse
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C. Electric fan
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D. Electric bulb
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Q.24 A neuron receives nerve impulse from another neuron through ____.
Ans A. Cell body

B. Synapse

C. Axon

D. Dendrite

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Q.25 Which of the following is true for the plants raised by vegetative propagation?

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Statement A: Vegetatively propagated plant can bear flowers and fruits earlier than
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those produced from seeds.
Statement B: Vegetatively propagated plants are genetically dissimilar to the parent
g l a
g l a plant.
a
a Ans A. Statement A is incorrect but statement B is correct

B. Both Statement A and statement B is incorrect

C. Both Statement A and statement B is correct

D. Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect

Section : Mathematics

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Q.26

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.27 The perimeter of a square is 68 m. What is the length (in m) of one side?
Ans A. 17

B. 16

C. 15

D. 18

Q.28
4772
Ans A. 51

B. 49

C. 48

D. 50

Q.29 The number of prime numbers between 358 and 368 is:
Ans A. 2

B. 1

C. 4

D. 3

Q.30 Chetan bought 52 books for ₹1,120 from one shop and 47 books for ₹905 from another.
What is the average price (in ₹, rounded off to two decimal places) he paid per book ?
Ans A. 22.45

B. 21.45

C. 20.45

D. 23.45

Q.31 In quadrilateral PQRS, the bisectors of ∠ R and ∠ S meet at the point T (inside the
quadrilateral) and ∠ STR = 25.5°. If the ratio of ∠ P to ∠ Q is 8 : 9, then what is the
difference between the measures of ∠ Q and ∠ P?
Ans A. 5°

B. 6°

C. 3°

D. 1°

Q.32 A man bought goods worth ₹8,000 and sold half of them at a gain of 10%. At what gain
percentage must he sell the remaining goods so as to gain 20% on the whole?
Ans A. 28%

B. 32%

C. 30%

D. 25%

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 22 of 49

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Q.33 Two pipes can fill a cistern, individually, in 99 min and 36 min, respectively. There is a
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pipe located at the bottom of the cistern to empty it. If all the three pipes are opened

. simultaneously, then the empty cistern gets filled in 44 min. How long will the pipe at
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the bottom of the tank take to empty the completely filled cistern if no other pipe is then
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open?
Ans A. 44 min
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B. 93 min

C. 66 min

D. 37 min

Q.34 If the marked price of a bedcover is 80% more than its cost price and a discount of 35%
is announced on it, then find the profit percentage.
Ans A. 17%
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B. 15%

C. 16%

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D. 19%
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Q.35 The cost of a washing machine is 25% less than the cost of a TV. If the cost of the
washing machine increases by 88% and that of the TV decreases by 57%, then what is
the percentage change in the total cost of 6 washing machines and 3 TVs?
Ans A. Increase by 30%

B. Decrease by 23%

C. Increase by 36%

D. Decrease by 31%

Q.36 Evaluate 2cot245° + 3sec230°− 4sin230°.
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Ans A. 5
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B. 8
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C. 7
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D. 6 a
Q.37 If the height of a triangle is increased by 20% and its base is decreased by 15%, then
what will be the percentage change in its area?
Ans A. Decrease by 3%

B. Increase by 3%

C. Decrease by 2%

D. Increase by 2%
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Q.38

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The volume (in m3) of a cube with edges of 41 m, is:
s e m
s e
Ans A. 68987

g l a
g l a B. 69087
a
a C. 68753

D. 68921

Q.39

Ans A. 42 years

B. 35 years

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C. 40 years

D. 39 years

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Q.40 A salesman marks his goods 10% above the cost price and gives a discount of 80% on
them. Find his loss percentage.
Ans A. 79%

B. 77%

C. 70%

D. 78%

Q.41 A car travels 158 km in the first hour and 110 km in the second hour. What is the
average speed (in km/hr) of the car for the whole journey?
Ans A. 137

B. 141

C. 127

D. 134

Q.42 A person saves 20% of his income. If his expenditure is ₹320, then his income (in ₹) is:
Ans A. 440

B. 400

C. 256

D. 64

Q.43 One pipe can fill a tank in 3 minutes, while another pipe can empty the completely filled
tank in 6 minutes. If both the pipes are opened together when the tank is empty, how
many minutes will it take to fill one-half of the tank?
Ans A. 3

B. 6

C. 7

D. 4

Q.44 The mode and median of a data are 70.2 and 58, respectively. What is the mean of the
data? (Use empirical formula.)
Ans A. 51.9

B. 48.2

C. 45.5

D. 59.4

Q.45 Laxmi, Dhruv and Gauri started a business in partnership investing in the ratio of
13:6:12, respectively. At the end of the year, they earned a profit of ₹37,200, which is
75% of their total investment. How much did Dhruv invest (in ₹)?
Ans A. 9,600

B. 9,692

C. 9,336

D. 9,766

Q.46

Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 49

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Q.47
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m Ans A. 37410
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C. 38610

D. 38400

Q.48 The Rajdhani Express and Garib Rath Express run in the same direction with speeds of
114 km/hr and 60 km/hr, respectively, and their lengths are the same. What is the length
of the Rajdhani Express if it completely crosses the Garib Rath express in 144
seconds?
Ans A. 1078 m

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B. 1084 m
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C. 1070 m

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D. 1080 m

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Q.49

Ans A. 15

B. 23

C. 25

D. 32

Q.50
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The amount on a sum of ₹8,300 at 10% per annum compound interest, compounded

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annually, in 2 years will be:
Ans A. ₹10,479
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B. ₹10,985
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C. ₹10,043
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D. ₹9,983

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Town T is to the north of Town R. Town S is to the south of Town Q. Town R is to the
south of Town P. Town Q is to the south of Town R. What is the position of Town Q with
respect to Town P?
Ans A. East

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B. South
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C. North

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D. West

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In a row of 42 people facing north, Kunal is 11th from the left end. If Riya sits 5th to the
a right of Kunal, what is Riya’s position from the right end of the line?
Ans A. 26th

B. 24th

C. 25th

D. 27th

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Q.53 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘-’
are interchanged and ‘x’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

8 ÷ 2 + 15 x 5 - 8 = ? + 5
Ans A. 28

B. 24

C. 22

D. 26

Q.54 RPMZ is related to WURT in a certain way. In the same way, LIGM is related to QNLG. To
which of the given options is NKHN related, following the same logic?
Ans A. RPNG

B. SPMH

C. RQNH

D. SQMG

Q.55 Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only two people sit to
the left of A. Only one person sits between B and C. F sits to the immediate left of A. B
sits to the immediate right of E. C sits third to the right of D. Who sits at the extreme left
end of the line?
Ans A. D

B. C

C. E

D. A

Q.56 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers.)

(Left) 5 * 1 & 1 6 $ © * 3 8 # © € 1 & © 1 © 8 % 4 (Right)

How many such numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans A. 1

B. 5

C. 4

D. 2

Q.57 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

HLE23, JJH21, LHK19, NFN17, ?
Ans A. PDP18

B. PEQ18

C. PEP15

D. PDQ15

Q.58 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. NR−OV

B. MQ−OS

C. TX−VZ

D. HL−JN

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 49

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Q.59 Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single digit
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numbers only).

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(Left) 7 2 4 5 9 1 6 3 8 7 4 2 6 1 5 9 3 7 4 8 2 1 (Right)
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counted only once, regardless of repetitions)? ag l
Ans A. Three

B. Two

C. None

D. One

Q.60 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
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known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
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statements.

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Statements:
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All wheels are cars.

a
All wheels are buses.
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All buses are trucks.

Conclusions:
(I) All wheels are trucks.
(II) Some buses are cars.
Ans A. Only conclusion (I) follows.

B. Only conclusion (II) follows.

C. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

D. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

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Q.61 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
(Left) 745 329 157 278 381 (Right)
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(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
NOTE - All operations to be done from left to right.

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a
What will be the resultant if the third digit of the highest number is added to the second
digit of the lowest number?15164
Ans A. 6

B. 8

C. 10

D. 9

Q.62 What should come in place of ? in the given series?
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2 3 6 15 42 ?6040
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Ans A. 123

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a
B. 124

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a
a D. 122

Q.63 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(13.3, 12.5, 11.8)
(45.6, 44.8, 44.1)
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Ans A. (39.4, 38.6, 37.8)

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B. (27.9, 27.1, 26.4)

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C. (69.5, 68.7, 68.6)

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D. (71.7, 70.9, 70.1)
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 27 of 49

Q.64 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
No Pianos are Guitars.
Some Guitars are Violins.
All Violins are Drums.

Conclusions:
(I) No Pianos are Violins.
(II) Some Guitars are Drums.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) is true

B. Only conclusion (I) is true

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) is true

D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) are true

Q.65 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

91 78 65 52 39 ?
Ans A. 28

B. 30

C. 26

D. 24

Q.66 Omkar starts from Point Y and drives 29 km towards the south. He then takes a left
turn, drives 75 km, turns right and drives 33 km. He then takes a right turn and drives
37 km. He takes a right turn, drives 62 km to stop at Point Z. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point Y again? (All turns
are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 41 km towards the west

B. 37 km towards the east

C. 36 km towards the east

D. 38 km towards the west

Q.67 Each of the digits in the number 12568436 is arranged in ascending order from left to
right. What will be the sum of the digits that are third from the left and third from the
right in the new number thus formed?
Ans A. 9

B. 12

C. 10

D. 11

Q.68 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 2 7 4 7 7 3 3 3 1 4 8 9 8 8 2 8 5 6 7 9 7 1 3 3 1 6 2 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
even number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. 5

B. 3

C. 2

D. 4

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 28 of 49

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Q.69 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
m
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below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

. e m
m
LNP−MOQ
as
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MOQ−NPR
Ans A. RTV−RUV
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B. RST−RTV

C. RTV−SUW

D. RST−SUW

Q.70 A,B,C,D,E,F and G are sitting in a straight line facing North.
No one sits to the right of B. Only three people sit between B and G. Only two people sit
between G and D. A sits third to the left of C. F sits to the immediate right of C.
How many people sit to the left of E?
m
Ans A. 1
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B. 3

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C. 2
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ag
D. 4

Q.71 In a certain code language, "OXGP" is coded as "62" and "DSNL" is coded as "75".
What is the code for "VBQT" in that language?
Ans A. 70

B. 68

C. 61

D. 63

m
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Q.72 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘–’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

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70 – 45 × 5 – 40 ÷ 4 + 48 = ?

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Ans A. 211

B. 153 ag
C. 191

D. 172

Q.73 In a certain code language,
‘A + B’ means ‘A is the son of B’,
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’,
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’ and
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.
m
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How is M related to S if ‘M + N ÷ O × P – S’?

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Ans

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A. Father’s brother

l as
l as B. Daughter’s son

ag
ag C. Brother’s son

D. Mother’s brother

Q.74 In the following triad, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

SANK - NSAK - KNAS
KITE - TKIE - ETIK
Ans A. ZONE - NZOE - ONEZ

B. SWAT - WSAT - TWAS
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C. DOLE - DLOE - ELOD

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s
D. FIRM - RFIM - MRIF
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g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 29 of 49

Q.75 In a certain code language, ‘drinking is dangerous’ is coded as ‘cd pk os’, ‘avoid
dangerous habit’ is coded as ‘os mp ls’ and ‘please avoid drinking’ is coded as ‘rk pk
mp’. How is ‘dangerous’ coded in that language?
Ans A. os

B. ls

C. mp

D. rk

Q.76 Seven people, J, K, L, M, N, O and P are sitting in a straight row, facing north. Only two
people sit to the right of O. Only three people sit between N and O. P sits second to the
left of J. P is not an immediate neighbour of N. L sits to the immediate left of M. Who
sits at the extreme right end of the line?
Ans A. J

B. M

C. K

D. P

Q.77 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

DEU7 VWM24 NOE41 FGW58 ?
Ans A. PYO75

B. XYF75

C. XYO75

D. XSO75

Q.78 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. LO - HL

B. HK - DG

C. KN - GJ

D. NQ - JM

Q.79 In a row of 52 students facing North, Roshan is 6th from the left end. If Disha is 29th to
the right of Roshan, what is Disha's position from the right end of the row?
Ans A. 16th

B. 18th

C. 17th

D. 15th

Q.80 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

508 518 529 541 554 ?
Ans A. 562

B. 566

C. 568

D. 564

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 49

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Q.81 Who gave assent to the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025, making it a law?
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Ans A. Chief Justice of India

m . s e
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B. President of India

g l a
a
C. Vice President of India

D. Prime Minister of India

Q.82 What was the theme for National Girl Child Day 2025 celebrated in January?
Ans A. Empowering Girls for a Bright Future

B. Empowering Girls to Make them Independent

C. Empowering Girls for a Better Nation

D. Empowering Girls for a Better Future
m
m .co
.co m
Q.83 In April 2025, India voted in favour of the International Maritime Organisation (IMO’s)
global carbon pricing system for which of the following sectors?
m s e
Ans
s e
A. Road transport
l a
l a ag
ag
B. Railways

C. Aviation

D. Maritime shipping

Q.84 Which of the following authorities in India issued new directives aimed at regulating
asbestos exposure and its disposal in October 2025?
Ans A. High Court of Delhi

B. Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)

C. National Green Tribunal (NGT)
m
D. Supreme Court of India
m .co
s e
Q.85
la
What is the primary purpose of the PathGenie software developed by the Ministry of
Science and Technology in 2025?
g
Ans A. To support vaccine production planning a
B. To analyze medical imaging data

C. To manage large-scale clinical trial databases

D. To accelerate the process of drug discovery

Q.86 In 2025, India suspended which of the following bilateral agreements related to water
sharing with Pakistan?

m
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Ans A. Ganga

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B. Tashkent

e m
e m C. Indus

l as
l as D. Shimla
ag
ag Q.87 According to the North Eastern Region Sustainable Development Goals Index Report,
2023-24, released in July 2025, which district secured the highest score at 81.43 points?
Ans A. Dibrugarh

B. Udalguri

C. Dimapur

D. Hnahthial

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 31 of 49

Q.88 Who won the 2025 Norway Chess Open tournament?
Ans A. Fabiano Caruana

B. Hikaru Nakamura

C. Gukesh Dommaraju

D. Magnus Carlsen

Q.89 Under what theme is the ‘Swachhata Hi Seva’ campaign, in alignment with the
Government of India’s vision of a clean and garbage-free India, being observed in
2025?
Ans A. Swachhotsav

B. Clean India Green India

C. Swachhata Abhiyan 2.0

D. Swachh Survekshan

Q.90 Which of the following banks revised Priority Sector Lending (PSL) guidelines for Small
Finance Banks from FY 2025–26, reducing the PSL target to 60% of Adjusted Net Bank
Credit (ANBC) or Credit Equivalent of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure (CEOBE), whichever
is higher?
Ans A. Bank of Baroda

B. Reserve Bank of India

C. State Bank of India

D. Punjab National Bank

Q.91 World Health Day, observed every year to draw attention to a major global health topic,
falls on which of the following dates?
Ans A. 7 April

B. 8 March

C. 1 December

D. 24 October

Q.92 In 2025, according to the Supreme Court, the average waiting period for adopting an
infant or young child in India under the legal framework is significant, leading some
parents to consider illegal adoptions. What is the approximate average waiting period
cited by the Court?
Ans A. 4.5 years

B. 3.5 years

C. 1.5 years

D. 2.5 years

Q.93 Which of the following countries hosted the 8th International Solar Alliance Assembly
in October 2025?
Ans A. France

B. Bhutan

C. India

D. Australia

Q.94 Which of the following was announced in the Union Budget 2025-26 (presented on 1
February 2025) to boost value-addition and marketing for a regional crop in Bihar?
Ans A. Central Rice Milling Corporation

B. Establishment of a Makhana Board

C. A dedicated Potato Export Authority

D. National Pulses Development Fund

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 49

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Q.95 Vithya Ramraj shares India’s 400 m hurdles national record with which legendary Indian
m
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athlete as of 2025?

. e m
s
Ans A. Kamaljeet Sandhu
m a
se B. Hima Das

C. PT Usha ag l
D. Shiny Wilson

Q.96 In August 2025, the Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-
SPACe) selected which of the following consortia to develop India’s first indigenous
commercial Earth-Observation satellite constellation?
Ans A. Ananth Technologies Limited, Astrome Technologies Private Limited and Bharti Space Technologies Limited Consortium

B. PixxelSpace India Private Limited, Dhruva Space Private Limited and SatSure Analytics India Private Limited Consortium
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C. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited, Bharat Electronics Limited and NewSpace India Limited Consortium
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D. Skyroot Aerospace Private Limited, Agnikul Cosmos Private Limited and Bellatrix Aerospace Private Limited Consortium

e m l as
Q.97
s
Who won the Japanese Grand Prix, 2025?

l a ag
ag
Ans A. Fabio Di Giannantonio

B. Lando Norris

C. Oscar Piastri

D. Max Verstappen

Q.98 In 2025, at the World Cup staged in Foz Do Iguacu, Brazil, which Indian boxer earned a
gold medal in the 70kg division due to an opponent's withdrawal?
Ans A. Vijendra Singh

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B. Hitesh Gulia

C. Vikas Krishan

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D. Shiva Thapa

las
Q.99
ag
Which organisation launched the BHARATPOL portal to enhance real-time information
sharing for Indian law enforcement agencies in January 2025?
Ans A. Intelligence Bureau (IB)

B. Research and Analysis Wing (RAW)

C. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)

D. National Investigation Agency (NIA)

Q.100 In 2025, the Government of India consolidated 29 labour laws into how many labour
m
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codes to simplify labour regulations?
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Ans A. 6

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a
B. 8

s e g l
g l a C. 4
a
a D. 2

"

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m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 33 of 49

Test Date 05/02/2026
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

Section : General Science

Q.1 In mitosis, how do the chromosomes in daughter cells compare with those in the
parent cell?
Ans A. Daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

B. Daughter cells contain twice the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

C. Daughter cells lose all chromosomes during division.

D. Daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

Q.2 When two bodies interact, the action and reaction forces _________.
Ans A. act on the same body

B. act on different bodies

C. produce the same effect on both bodies

D. act in the same direction

Q.3 What is the term used for the division of cytoplasm following nuclear division?
Ans A. Chromatin condensation

B. Interphase

C. Cytokinesis

D. Karyokinesis

Q.4 Which of the following metals can be shaped into leaves by pressure of the fingers?
Ans A. Iron

B. Silver

C. Sodium

D. Gold

Q.5 An electric heater draws 5 A of current when connected to a 70 V source. If the potential
difference is increased to 126 V, what will be the new current drawn by the heater?
Ans A. 9 A

B. 8 A

C. 3 A

D. 90 A

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 34 of 49

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Q.6 Corrosion causes damage to the metal body, especially:
m
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Ans A. in both dry air and oil

m . s e
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B. by galvanisation

g l a
a
C. in dry air

D. in moist air

Q.7 In terms of chromosome contribution, which of the following is correct?
Ans A. Father contributes only X chromosome

B. Both parents contribute either X or Y

C. Mother always contributes X, father contributes X or Y

D. Mother can contribute X or Y
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.co m
Q.8 Which of the following sound frequencies is inaudible to humans?

m s e
a
Ans A. 2000 Hz

s e l
a ag
B. 25,000 Hz
l
C. 50 Hz

D. 5000 Hz
ag
Q.9 If a fertilised egg reaches the uterus but finds the lining thin and not spongy, what
could happen?
Ans A. Menstruation is delayed but still occurs.

B. The egg gets fertilised again.

C. The embryo fails to implant properly and is expelled.
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D. The egg survives longer than usual.

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Q.10
s
What happens to the uterine lining in human females if the egg is not fertilized?

la
g
Ans A. It remains intact for the next cycle.

B. It thickens further for another week. a
C. It breaks down and is discharged as blood and mucus.

D. It is reabsorbed into the body.

Q.11 What is the geometric relationship between the principal axis and the reflecting surface
of a spherical mirror at the point of the pole P?
Ans A. The principal axis is normal (perpendicular) to the mirror at its pole.

B. The principal axis intersects the mirror at an oblique angle.
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C. The principal axis is parallel to the mirror surface.

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D. The principal axis is tangent to the mirror surface.

l as
l asQ.12 Evaporation takes place at which temperature?
ag
ag Ans A. Only at boiling point

B. Only below freezing point

C. At any temperature

D. Only at 100°C

Q.13 The maximum number of electrons in a shell is given by:
Ans A. 2n

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B. 2n2

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C.
e m l as
l as ag

D. n2

ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 49

Q.14 In daily life, the principle of force on a current-carrying conductor is used in which of
the following devices?
Ans A. Electric heater

B. Electric fuse

C. Electric bell

D. Electric motor

Q.15 Which statement best defines the term 'formula unit mass' as used in the context of
ionic compounds?
Ans A. It is the mass of one mole of a molecular compound.

B. It is the total number of atoms in a molecule of a covalent compound.

C. It is the product of the atomic masses of all elements in a compound.

D. It is the sum of the atomic masses of all atoms present in a formula unit of an ionic compound.

Q.16 Which of the following is NOT made up of connective tissue?
Ans A. Blood

B. Bone

C. Cartilage

D. Muscles

Q.17 ___ generally has long, unstable carbon chains.
Ans A. Water

B. Glucose

C. Vegetable oil

D. Table salt

Q.18 In India, biodiversity hotspots are primarily located in __________.
Ans A. Central India and the Deccan Plateau

B. the Cold desert of Ladakh

C. the Mediterranean, Sardinia and Sicily

D. the Western Ghats and Eastern Himalayas

Q.19 Which of the following is NOT an example of work done?
Ans A. Pushing a wall

B. Lifting a brick from the floor

C. Pulling a trolley along a flat surface

D. Sliding luggage on the floor

Q.20 Materials that have NOT been broken down by the action of bacteria or saprophytes,
but somehow degraded by physical processes, are called:
Ans A. Dividable

B. Non-biodegradable

C. Decaying

D. Biodegradable

Q.21 Which of the following is NOT an example of the third law of motion?
Ans A. The swimmer pushes the water backward with her hands.

B. A rocket moving upward due to gases expelled downward.

C. Foot pushes the ground backward and ground pushes the foot forward.

D. Pushing a stationary car and making it move.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 49

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Q.22 In a fluid, the buoyant force acting on a submerged or floating object always acts
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_________.

. e m
s
Ans A. vertically downward
m a
se B. along the direction of motion of the object

C. in a direction depending on the shape of the object ag l
D. vertically upward

Q.23 Consider the following statements regarding the characteristics of compounds and
select the correct option.

Statement 1: Elements react to form new compounds.
Statement 2: Each new substance formed is of variable composition.
Statement 3: The constituents can be separated only by chemical or electrochemical
reactions.
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Ans
m
A. Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
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B. Only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

m s em
s e
C. Statements 1, 2 and 3 are incorrect.
l a
l a ag
ag
D. Only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Q.24 According to the sign convention for spherical mirrors, which option is correct about
the focal length of a concave mirror?
Ans A. Always negative

B. Sometimes negative

C. Always positive

D. Sometimes positive

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Q.25 Refer to the two statements given below and select the correct option.

e m
Statement A: Carboxylic acids are strong acids that completely ionise in water.
s
Statement B: Ethanoic acid is a weak acid compared to hydrochloric acid.

la
Ans A. Both statements A and B are correct.

B. Both statements A and B are incorrect. ag
C. Statement A is incorrect but B is correct.

D. Statement A is correct but B is incorrect.

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 In △ ABC, BD ⟂ AC at D and ∠ DBC = 76°. E is a point on BC such that ∠ CAE = 53°. What
is the measure of ∠ AEB?
m
Ans
m
A. 78°
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m .co B. 67°
s e m
s e C. 55°
g l a
g l a D. 53°
a
a Q.27 A man buys 9 identical articles for a total of ₹16. If he sells each of them for ₹2, then his
profit percentage will be ______%.
Ans A. 12.11

B. 12.5

C. 11.11

D. 13.5

m .
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s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 37 of 49

Q.28 ₹10,896 is divided among A, B and C in such a way that if ₹91, ₹4 and ₹57 are deducted
from their respective shares, they have money in the ratio 3:8:6. Find the difference
between B’s and C’s original shares.
Ans A. ₹1,414

B. ₹1,211

C. ₹1,164

D. ₹1,364

Q.29 A bus travels 240 km in 6 hours. If it travels at the same speed, how far will it travel in
4.5 hours?
Ans A. 160 km

B. 175 km

C. 140 km

D. 180 km

Q.30 A pendulum makes an angle of swing A (in degrees), such that sinA = 1/2. Find the
value of sin3A.
Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.31 The amount on a sum of ₹7,500 at 16% per annum compound interest, compounded
annually, in 2 years will be:
Ans A. ₹10,861

B. ₹10,092

C. ₹10,160

D. ₹9,117

Q.32 What is the mode of the following data?

75, 70, 80, 70, 80, 71, 80, 66, 87, 82, 68, 73, 80, 75, 66, 64, 66, 87, 90, 68, 89, 82, 81, 81, 65,
81, 80
Ans A. 80

B. 70

C. 90

D. 75

Q.33 Successive discounts of 16% and 22% are equivalent to what single discount?
Ans A. 31.71%

B. 34.48%

C. 34.23%

D. 36.95%

Q.34 The mode and median of a data is 72.8 and 31, respectively. What is the mean of the
data? (Use empirical formula)4245
Ans A. 5.8

B. 15.8

C. 10.1

D. 7.2
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 38 of 49

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Q.35
m
The value of the square root of the expression is 2. Then

. co the value of m is _______.
s e m
m a
se l
Ans A. 7

B. 8
ag
C. 6

D. 4

Q.36 A, B, and C can do a piece of work in 3, 3, and 12 days respectively. How long (in days)
will they take to do thrice the same work, working together?
Ans A. 12

m
B. 8

C. 5
m .co
D. 4

m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.37
l
Ans A. 15470
ag
B. 14420

C. 14025

D. 17790

Q.38 A boy bought 4 long and 5 short notebooks for ₹305. If the difference in prices of the
long and short notebooks is ₹20, then find the price (in ₹) of each long and short
notebook, respectively.
m
Ans A. 62; 42

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B. 44.50; 24.50
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C. 45; 25
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D. 39; 19 a
Q.39 A dealer purchased an oven for ₹651. After allowing a discount of 86% on its marked
price, he still gains 68%. Find the marked price of the oven.
Ans A. ₹7,940

B. ₹7,978

C. ₹7,740

D. ₹7,812
m
m .co
Q.40

m .co
6336 is divisible by 9. What should be added to or subtracted from this number so that
it will be divisible by 11?
s e m
s e
Ans A. 1
g l a
g l a B. -1 a
a C. 0

D. 3

Q.41 Two pipes, A and B, can fill a tank in 30 minutes and 45 minutes, respectively, while a
third pipe, C, can empty the tank in 24 minutes. Pipes A and B are opened together, and
after 6 minutes, pipe C is also opened. What will be the total time required to fill the
tank?
Ans A. 54 minutes

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B. 57 minutes

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C. 51 minutes
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D. 48 minutes
l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 39 of 49

Q.42 The ratio of income to expenditure of a person is 8:5. What percentage of his income is
his saving?5482
Ans A. 25.4%

B. 20.8%

C. 31.3%

D. 37.5%

Q.43 Sarah's age is 5 years more than twice her sister Emma's age. If the sum of their ages is
29 years, how old is Emma?
Ans A. 7 years

B. 6 years

C. 5 years

D. 8 years

Q.44

11128
Ans A. 119 minutes

B. 125 minutes

C. 118 minutes

D. 128 minutes

Q.45

Ans A. 38

B. 28

C. 32

D. 36

Q.46 If six cubes of 10 cm edge are joined end to end, the surface area (in cm2) of the
resulting solid will be:
Ans A. 1300

B. 2350

C. 2600

D. 3900

Q.47 A solid metallic cylinder of radius 5 cm and height 12 cm is melted and recast into
smaller solid cylinders each of radius 2 cm and height 3 cm. Find the ratio of the total
surface area of one small cylinder to the total surface area of the original cylinder.
Ans A. 1 : 7

B. 2 : 15

C. 1 : 8

D. 2 : 17

Q.48 Find the ratio between the fourth proportional of 10, 15 and 18 to the mean proportional
of 9 and 4.
Ans A. 7:4

B. 10:5

C. 12:9

D. 9:2

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 40 of 49

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Q.49 The cost of a washing machine is 25% less than the cost of a TV. If the cost of the
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washing machine increases by 30% and that of the TV decreases by 19%, then what is

. the percentage change in the total cost of 8 washing machines and 4 TVs?
e m
m as
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Ans A. Decrease by 13%

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B. Increase by 10.4%

C. Increase by 11.2%
a
D. Decrease by 6%

Q.50 Which is the greatest number that divides 47, 59 and 74 to leave the same remainder?
Ans A. 3

B. 5

C. 7
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D. 2

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Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning
l as
l as ag
ag
Q.51 If ‘+’ means ‘−’, ‘−’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then what will come in
place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

97 − 11 ÷ 67 + 864 × 16 = ?
Ans A. 1080

B. 1055

C. 1097

D. 1066

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Q.52 In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the son of B’,
A - B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
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A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
and A & B means ‘A is the father of B’.
las
How is K related to V if ‘K & T - R x Z + V’?
ag
Ans A. Son

B. Father

C. Son's wife's brother

D. Son's wife's father

Q.53 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers

m
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

m
(Left) 2 5 6 4 9 7 8 4 3 1 7 8 3 5 6 4 8 5 7 1 2 9 7 5 8 6 4 (Right)
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How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
s e m
s e even number and immediately followed by an odd number?

g l a
g l a Ans A. Two
a
a B. Zero

C. Four

D. Three

Q.54 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

KIE 88 CAW 95 USO 102 MKG 109 ?

m .
Ans A. ECY 116

B. EDX 116

m .co s e m
C. EBX 115
s e l a
D. EGJ 115
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 41 of 49

Q.55 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right.

(Left) 4 3 1 3 5 3 6 2 3 7 8 4 6 9 7 4 5 2 3 7 4 2 1 5 7 9 8 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
even number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
Ans A. 4

B. 5

C. 3

D. 6

Q.56 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north.
Only three people sit to the left of C. Only D sits to the right of B. Only three people sit
between B and F. A sits at some place to the left of G but at some place to the right of E.
How many people sit to the right of A?
Ans A. 3

B. 5

C. 4

D. 2

Q.57 If ‘+’ means ‘÷’, ‘−’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘−’, ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then what will come in place of
the question mark (?) in the following equation?

608 + 76 × 6 − 37 ÷ 259 = ?
Ans A. 45

B. 33

C. 41

D. 39

Q.58 Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F, are sitting in a row, facing north. A sits third to the left of
E. E sits second to the left of F. D sits to the immediate right of E. B sits to the
immediate left of C. How many people sit between C and F?
Ans A. Three

B. One

C. None

D. Two

Q.59 In a certain code language, ‘move the rocks’ is coded as ‘ld an ur’ and ‘rocks block
roads’ is coded as ‘mp cq an’. How is ‘rocks’ coded in the given language?
Ans A. cq

B. mp

C. an

D. ur

Q.60 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking
down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
/ subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)
15 - 3 - 5
24 - 4 - 61419
Ans A. 35 - 5 - 8

B. 63 - 7 - 11

C. 50 - 3 - 19

D. 20 - 2 - 10

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 42 of 49

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Q.61 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
m
. co 7, 14, 28, 56, 112, ?

s e m
m a
se
Ans A. 192

g l
B. 216

C. 232
a
D. 224

Q.62 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
(Left) 745 768 729 716 721 (Right)
(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
NOTE - All operations to be done from left to right.

What will be the resultant if the second digit of the second highest number is added to
m
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the third digit of the lowest number?2423
m
.co m
Ans A. 14

m s e
B. 10

s e l a
a ag
C. 13
l
D. 12
ag
Q.63 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘-’
are interchanged and ‘x’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

9 ÷ 2 + 24 x 6 - 3 = ? + 5
Ans A. 22

B. 18

C. 20
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D. 24

e m
Q.64
s
Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers

la
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

ag
(Left) 7 4 1 2 4 9 7 5 3 6 1 5 2 7 5 4 8 3 9 6 5 7 3 9 1 4 2 (Right)

How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
Ans A. One

B. More than three

C. Two

D. Three
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.co
Q.65 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

e m
e m 50 ? 40 70 30 80

l as
l asAns A. 55
ag
ag B. 75

C. 60

D. 65

Q.66 All 60 people are standing in a row facing north. Sandeep is 20th from the right end
while Kiran is 10th from the left end. How many people are there between Sandeep and
Kiran?
Ans A. 29

B. 27
m .
C. 30

m .co s e m
D. 28
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 43 of 49

Q.67 IS69 is related to LO61 in a certain way. In the same way, WE43 is related to ZA35. To
which of the following is GI91 related, following the same logic?
Ans A. JE83

B. KD84

C. KF82

D. NF82

Q.68 MLPO is related to NMQP in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, GFJI is related to HGKJ. To which of the given options is ONRQ related,
following the same logic?
Ans A. PORR

B. PNRR

C. PPRV

D. POSR

Q.69 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

IOS 17, LRV 23, OUY 29, RXB 35, ?9640
Ans A. UBE 43

B. UAE 41

C. SZE 42

D. UZC 41

Q.70 Five people, A, B, C, D and E, are sitting in a row, facing north. D sits at the extreme left
end of the row. E sits third to the right of A. B sits to the immediate right of A. How
many people sit between D and E?
Ans A. 3

B. 0

C. 2

D. 1

Q.71 In a row of all 76 students facing the north, Mr. Hepa is 9th from the left end. If Mr. Annu
is 56th to the right of Mr. Hepa, what is Mr. Annu's position from the right end of the
row?
Ans A. 11th

B. 10th

C. 9th

D. 12th

Q.72 Town X is to the north of Town P. Town X is to the east of Town Y. Town W is to the
south of Town Y. Town Z is to the east of Town W. Town Z is to the north of Town P.
What is the position of Town X with respect to Town Z?
Ans A. East

B. West

C. North

D. South

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 44 of 49

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Q.73 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
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co
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to

. that group?
e m
m
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
as
se l
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. IFH
ag
B. QOP

C. JGI

D. ZWY

Q.74 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
m
.co
position in the letter-cluster.)
m
.co m
Ans A. VW−ZA

m s e
B. EF−HL

s e l a
a ag
C. MN−QR
l
D. OP−ST
ag
Q.75 Karthik starts from Point Y and drives 86 km towards the east. He then takes a right
turn, drives 41 km, turns right and drives 61 km. He then takes a right turn and drives
92 km. He takes a left turn, drives 25 km. He then turns right, drives 31 km and stops at
Point Z. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in
order to reach Point Y again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 84 km towards the south

B. 86 km towards the north

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.co
C. 85 km towards the west

m
D. 82 km towards the south

s e
Q.76
la
Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
g
a
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

BDH:EGK
KMQ:NPT
Ans A. ITD:YDS

B. BTD:FGY

C. HQW:KTZ

D. COD:NCX

m
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Q.77 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
m
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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
e m
e m statements.

l as
l as Statements:
ag
ag All rings are kettles.
All dogs are bottles.
No rings are bottles.

Conclusions:
(I): Some kettles are not dogs.
(II): No rings are dogs.
Ans A. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

B. Only conclusion (I) follows

C. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
m .
.co m
D. Only conclusion (II) follows

m s e
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 45 of 49

Q.78 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

0 ? 12 24 40 60
Ans A. 10

B. 4

C. 8

D. 2

Q.79 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some easels are brushes.
Some canvases are brushes.

Conclusions:
(I): Some brushes are canvases.
(II): All easels are canvases.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows

B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

C. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

D. Only conclusion (I) follows

Q.80 In a certain code language, ‘dirt is there’ is coded as ‘mp rc gp’ and ‘clean the dirt’ is
coded as ‘hk mp bo’. How is ‘dirt’ coded in that language?
Ans A. mp

B. hk

C. gp

D. bo

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 Which of the following three-city groups emerged as the top ‘Swachh Shehar’ in the
(more than 10 lakhs population) Swachh Survekshan 2024-25 awards hosted by the
Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs?
Ans A. Pune, Indore, Surat

B. Jaipur, Hyderabad, Kochi

C. Mumbai, Bengaluru, Patna

D. Ahmedabad, Bhopal, Lucknow

Q.82 Where did President of India Droupadi Murmu launch India’s first home-grown anti-
cancer CAR-T cell therapy?
Ans A. Indian Institute of Technology Delhi

B. Indian Institute of Technology Madras

C. Indian Institute of Technology Bombay

D. All India Institute of Medical Sciences, New Delhi

Q.83 How many Padma Bhushan awards were announced in 2025?
Ans A. 25

B. 21

C. 23

D. 19

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 46 of 49

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Q.84 Who among the following was sworn in as the Chief Justice of India on 24 November
m
co
2025?

. e m
s
Ans A. Surya Kant
m a
se B. N. V. Ramana

C. D. Y. Chandrachud ag l
D. Ranjan Gogoi

Q.85 Which novel by Nell Stevens exploring queerness in Victorian London was reviewed in
June 2025?
Ans A. The Devil's Party

B. Dream Count

C. The Original
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.co
D. The Emperor of Gladness

em
Q.86
e m
Who was the chief guest at India’s 76th Republic Day parade in 2025?
l as
Ans
l as
A. Vladimir Putin
ag
ag
B. Joe Biden

C. Emmanuel Macron

D. Prabowo Subianto

Q.87 Under the Environment Audit Rules, 2025, who is eligible to conduct environmental
audits, and how are auditors assigned to project entities?
Ans A. Registered Environment Auditors; random assignment method

B. Industry-nominated auditors; allocation by industry association
m
.co
C. Self-selected auditors; nomination by state government

D. Project-appointed auditors; voluntary selection
e m
las
Q.88
g
In September 2025, the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) held
a
detailed review meetings on preparedness to prevent paddy stubble burning during
the harvest season with which two state governments?
Ans A. Punjab and Rajasthan

B. Haryana and Uttar Pradesh

C. Punjab and Haryana

D. Haryana and Uttarakhand

m
.co
Q.89 The Indian hockey legend PR Sreejesh was recognized with what specific prestigious

m
honour by President Droupadi Murmu on 28 April 2025, at Rashtrapati Bhavan?
Ans

m .co A. Arjuna Award

s e m
s e B. Padma Bhushan

g l a
g l a C. Padma Shri
a
a D. Padma Vibhushan

Q.90 During the June 2025 Monetary Policy Committee meeting, the Reserve Bank of India
cut cash reserve ratio (CRR) by how many bps?
Ans A. 100

B. 75

C. 150

D. 50
m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 47 of 49

Q.91 Under what theme was the International Day for Biological Diversity celebrated in 2025?
Ans A. Biodiversity and Sustainable Tourism

B. Biodiversity: Food, Water and Health for All

C. Protect Biodiversity in Drylands

D. Harmony with Nature and Sustainable Development

Q.92 Who among the following has received the National Geoscience Award for Lifetime
Achievement in 2023?
Ans A. Prof. Suraj Mohan Banerjee

B. Prof. Neeraj Mohan Banerjee

C. Prof. Dheeraj Mohan Banerjee

D. Prof. Agraj Mohan Banerjee

Q.93 In May 2025, India attacked which country with a BrahMos missile?
Ans A. Afghanistan

B. Iran

C. Iraq

D. Pakistan

Q.94 In July 2025, two high-speed unmanned aerial targets were successfully destroyed
using the Akash Prime weapon system in which Union Territory of India?
Ans A. Puducherry

B. Lakshadweep

C. Ladakh

D. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Q.95 Which national team secured its first-ever title at the 2025 IIHF Women’s Asia Cup held
in Al‑Ain, UAE?
Ans A. China

B. Philippines

C. Iran

D. Japan

Q.96 In June 2025, what was the reduced repo rate?
Ans A. 5.50%

B. 6.00%

C. 5.25%

D. 5.75%

Q.97 In which city was the 15th edition of the Hockey India Senior Men National
Championship 2025 conducted?
Ans A. Jhansi

B. Ranchi

C. Lucknow

D. Bhopal

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 48 of 49

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Q.98 Which two ministries are involved in the Nurturing Aspirations through Vocational
m
co
Training for Young Adolescent Girls (NAVYA) initiative?

. e m
s
Ans A. Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD), and Ministry of Education
m a
se g l
B. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, and Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD)

a
C. Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD), and Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE)

D. Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, and Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD)

Q.99 For which sports has Murlikant Rajaram Petkar received Arjuna Awards (Lifetime) for
his outstanding performance in the year 2024?
Ans A. Para gliding

B. Athletics

C. Hockey
m
m .co
.co
D. Para-Swimming

em
Q.100
e m
Which institute secured Rank 1 in the inaugural SDG category of NIRF 2025?
l as
Ans
l
A. IIT Bombay
as ag
ag
B. IIT Madras

C. IIT Kanpur

D. IIT Delhi

"

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a

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m .co s e m
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a

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 49 of 49