XAT 2025 Question Paper

FOR XAT EXAM PREPARATION

XAT 2025
Question Paper
EXAM YEAR TYPE

XAT 2025 Question Paper

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Xavier Aptitude Test — Question Paper with Answer Key

4 Sections • Quantitative Aptitude & DI · Decision Making · Verbal Ability & LR · General Knowledge • 95 Questions • 5
options (A–E)

Instructions: Every question has five options (A)–(E); choose the single best answer. Caselets, data sets and reading passages
appear in shaded boxes above the questions they belong to. The answer key is given at the end.
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Section I — Quantitative Aptitude & Data Interpretation
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Questions 1–28 · 28 questions
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1.
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There are 25 rooms in a hotel. Each room can accommodate at the most three people. For each room,
the single occupancy charge is Rs. 2000 per day, the double occupancy charge is Rs. 3000 per day, and
the triple occupancy charge is Rs. 3500 per day. If there are 55 people staying in the hotel today, what is
the maximum possible revenue from room occupancy charges today?
(A) Rs. 72500
(B) Rs. 82500
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(C) Rs. 77500

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(D) Rs. 92500
(E) Rs. 87500
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2. The market value of beams, made of a rare metal, has a unique property: the market value of any such
beam is proportional to the square of its length. Due to an accident, one such beam got broken into two
pieces having lengths in the ratio . Considering each broken piece as a separate beam, how much
gain or loss, with respect to the market value of the original beam before the accident, is incurred?
(A) 74.23% gain
(B) 42.60% loss
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(C) 31.77% loss
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(D)

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(E)
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a , respectively. If the area of
ag ABCD is a rectangle, where the coordinates of C and D are and
the rectangle is 24, which of the following is a possible equation representing the line AB?
(A)

(B) None of the other options is correct
(C)

(D)

(E)
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4. Adu and Amu have bought two pieces of land on the Moon from an e-store. Both the pieces of land have
the same perimeters, but Adu's piece of land is in the shape of a square, while Amu's piece of land is in
the shape of a circle. The ratio of the areas of Adu's piece of land to Amu's piece of land is:
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

5. Ramesh bought a mobile from a local store. He paid of the price via UPI and of the price via cash.
He agreed to pay the balance amount a year later. While paying back the balance amount, Ramesh paid
10% interest on the balance amount. If the interest paid was Rs. 6000, what was the original price of the
mobile?
(A) Rs. 120000
(B) Rs. 110000
(C) Rs. 100000
(D) Rs. 90000
(E) Rs. 150000

6. A straight line has the equation , where is some real number. The straight line
intersects another straight line at the point . If has a slope of 1, which of the following is
definitely FALSE?
(A) The distance between the y-intercepts of the two lines is 6
(B) The distance from the origin to one of the lines is
(C) The line passes through the point
(D) The distance between the x-intercepts of the two lines is 4
(E) The distance from the origin to one of the lines is

7. In a computer game, each move requires pressing a button. When the button is pressed for the first
time, as a move, the computer randomly chooses a cell from a grid of sixteen cells and puts an "X"
mark on that cell. When the button is pressed subsequently, the computer randomly chooses a cell from
the remaining unmarked cells and puts an "X" mark on that cell. This goes on till the end of the game.
The game ends when either all the cells in any one row, or all the cells in any one column, are marked
with "X". What is the maximum possible number of times a player has to press the button to finish the
game?
(A) 16
(B) 10
(C) 6
(D) 13
(E) 4

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8. If , , and are all positive integers, with , then which of the following conditions is BOTH
NECESSARY AND SUFFICIENT for the expression to be a positive integer?
(A) is divisible by 3
(B) None of the other conditions is both necessary and sufficient
(C) , , and are divisible by 3
(D)

(E) and are divisible by 3

9. A solid trophy, consisting of two parts, has been designed in the following manner: the bottom part is a
frustum of a cone with the bottom radius 30 cm, the top radius 20 cm, and height 40 cm, while the top
part is a hemisphere with radius 20 cm. Moreover, the flat surface of the hemisphere is the same as the
top surface of the frustum. If the entire trophy is to be gold-plated at the cost of Rs. 40 per square cm,
what would the cost for gold-plating be closest to?
(A) Rs. 1,12,000
(B) Rs. 3,60,000
(C) Rs. 4,73,000
(D) Rs. 5,23,000
(E) Rs. 3,72,000

10. An industrial robot manufacturing company is tasked to design humanoid robots to be used in
warehouses where the robots need to pick items from a stack of shelves. The height of the topmost shelf
from the ground is 7 feet. To operate, the robot has to move on a track, running parallel to the stack of
shelves. The track is fixed 1 foot away from the base of the stack of shelves. Further, the robot cannot
raise its arms by more than from the horizontal plane. If the robot's arms are attached to its
shoulder, what should be the minimum height of the robot from the ground to the shoulder for its arms
to reach the topmost shelf?
(A) feet
(B) 7 feet
(C) feet
(D) None of the other options is correct
(E) feet

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There are five dustbins along a circular path at different places. Ramesh takes multiple rounds of the

se g la him a different number of steps
path every morning, always at the same speed. He noticed that it took
a that starting from any of the
to walk between any two consecutive dustbins. Ramesh also noticed
dustbins, it took a minimum 800 steps to reach every second dustbin. On the other hand, starting from
any of the dustbins, it took a maximum 1260 steps to reach every third dustbin. If Ramesh's one step is
0.77 metre, and the width of the path is negligible, which the following can be the radius of the circular
path?
(A) 230 metres
240 metres
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(B)

(C) 260 metres
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(D) 250 metres
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(E)
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12. For how a
many distinct real values of does the equation below hold true? (Consider .)

(A) 1
(B) Infinitely many
(C) 2
(D) 0
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(E) Depends on the value of

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la two are not. The farmer wants to do organic farming
13. A farmer has a quadrilateral parcel of land with a perimeter of 700 feet. Two opposite angles of that
parcel of land are right angles, while the g
a remaining
on that parcel of land. The cost of organic farming is Rs. 400 per square foot.
Consider the following two additional pieces of information:
I. The length of one of the sides of that parcel of land is 110 feet.
II. The distance between the two corner points where the non-perpendicular sides of that parcel of land
intersect is 255 feet.
To determine the amount of money the farmer needs to spend to do organic farming on the entire
parcel of land, which of the above additional pieces of information is/are MINIMALLY SUFFICIENT?
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II only
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(B)
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a (E) The amount cannot be determined even with the additional pieces of information.

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14. Consider the quadratic function having two irrational roots, with and being
two positive integers, such that .
If all such permissible pairs are equally likely, what is the probability that is greater than 9?
(A)

(B)

(C) None of the other answers is correct.
(D)

(E)

15. Eight employees of an organization have been rated on a scale of 1 to 50 for their performance. All
ratings are integers. The overall average rating of the eight employees is 30. While the five employees
with the highest ratings average 38, the five employees with the lowest ratings average 25.
Which of the following, about the ratings obtained by the eight employees, is DEFINITELY FALSE?
(A) The second highest rating obtained is 38.
(B) The median of the eight ratings is 37.5.
(C) The lowest rating obtained is 1.
(D) The highest rating obtained is 40.
(E) The third lowest rating obtained is 37.

16. Arun selected an integer between 2 and 40, both inclusive. He noticed that the greatest common
divisor of the selected integer and any other integer between 2 and 40, both inclusive, is 1.
How many different choices for such an are possible?
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 1
(D) 12
(E) 0

QUESTIONS 17 TO 19

In an 8-week course, a professor administered a test at the end of each week. Each of the eight tests was
scored out of 4 marks, and a student could only receive a non-negative integer score. Two students, Ravi
and Sumana, took the eight tests. In the first test, Ravi and Sumana scored the same marks. From the
second to eighth tests, Ravi scored the exact same non-zero marks. Sumana scored the same marks as
Ravi from the fifth test onwards. Ravi's total marks in the first three tests was the same as Sumana's
total marks in the first two tests. Also, Sumana's marks in the first test, total marks of the first two tests,
and total marks of the eight tests are in a geometric progression.

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17. Which of the following CAN be true?
(A) Ravi scored 4 marks in the third test
(B) Sumana scored 2 marks in the first test
(C) Ravi scored 0 marks in the fifth test
(D) Sumana scored 3 marks in the second test
(E) Sumana scored 4 marks in the eighth test

18. If Ravi scored 4 marks in the first test, how many marks did Sumana score in the third test?
(A) 3
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2

19. If Ravi scored 1 mark in the second test, what is the maximum possible value of Sumana's total marks in
all the eight tests together?
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 9
(D) Cannot be uniquely determined from the given information
(E) 8

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QUESTIONS 20 TO 22

g a '000) of males and females in
lRs.
The plots below depict and compare the average monthly incomes (in
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ten cities of India in the years 2005 and 2015. The ten cities, marked A-J in the records, are of different
population sizes. For a fair comparison, to adjust for inflation, incomes for both the periods are scaled to
2025 prices. Each red dot represents the female average monthly income for a particular city and year,
while each blue dot represents the male average monthly income. The gender gap is the absolute value of
male income minus female income for a given year.

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Average monthly incomes (Rs. '000, 2025 prices) of males and females in ten Indian cities, 2005 and 2015

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(B) I a
(C) D
(D) E
(E) C

21. Which of the following statements, about the average monthly incomes of the 10 cities, as represented
in the plots, is DEFINITELY FALSE?
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(A) In terms of 2025 prices, the average gender gap of the 10 cities combined in 2015 was less .co
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(B)

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than the median monthly income of women of the 10 cities combined,
(C) In terms of 2025 prices, the average monthly income of men of the 10 cities combined was less
than Rs. 30,000 in 2005.
(D) In terms of 2025 prices, in more than half of the 10 cities, average monthly incomes of men were
more in 2005, compared to 2015.
(E) In terms of 2025 prices, the average monthly income of women of the 10 cities combined was less
than Rs. 22,000 in 2015.

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22. Rs. 100 in 2025 is worth Rs. 60 in 2015 prices, and Rs. 25 in 2005 prices. Based on the given plots,
which of the following statements, about the unscaled incomes, i.e., the incomes before scaling to 2025
prices, CANNOT be correct?
(A) Average unscaled income for both genders increased in all 10 cities from 2005 to 2015
(B) Average unscaled income of women was about Rs. 15,000 in 2015 in City H
(C) Average unscaled income of men in City E increased by about 140% from 2005 to 2015
(D) Average unscaled income of women in City G increased by about 120% from 2005 to 2015
(E) The unscaled gender gaps reduced in all 10 cities from 2005 to 2015

QUESTIONS 23 TO 25

The diagram below represents a road network connecting five towns, namely Meereen, Lannisport,
Winterfell, Oldtown, and Gulltown. The maximum speed limits along any stretch of road are as shown in
the diagram. A straight road connects Meereen to Gulltown, passing through Oldtown. Another straight
road, running west to east, connects Meereen to Winterfell, passing through Lannisport. Two roads,
perpendicular to the Meereen-Winterfell road and running south to north, connect Lannisport to
Oldtown and Winterfell to Gulltown, respectively. Driving at the maximum speed, it takes 1 hour from
Meereen to Oldtown, 2 hours from Oldtown to Gulltown, and 45 minutes from Gulltown to Winterfell.

Road network connecting Meereen, Lannisport, Winterfell, Oldtown and Gulltown, with maximum speed limits marked on each stretch

23. Tyrion Lannister drove from Meereen to Oldtown, then from Oldtown to Lannisport, and finally from
Lannisport to Winterfell, always taking the shortest paths. He always drove at a speed 10 km/hr below
the maximum speed limits for the stretches he took. What was his total driving time closest to?
(A) 3 hrs 19 mins
(B) 4 hrs 20 mins
(C) 7 hrs 28 mins
(D) 6 hrs 42 mins
(E) 7 hrs 50 mins

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24. Missandei starts from Gulltown towards Oldtown by the shortest path, driving at the maximum
permissible speed. From Oldtown, she drives at a speed of 10 km/hr towards Lannisport. When
Missandei starts from Gulltown, Varys starts at the same time from Lannisport to Oldtown along the
shortest path, always driving at the maximum permissible speed. If they don't stop anywhere, at what
point will they meet?
(A) Approximately 13.33 km south of Oldtown
(B) Approximately 54.33 km north of Lannisport
(C) Approximately 57.33 km north of Lannisport
(D) Approximately 6.67 km south of Oldtown
(E) Cannot be uniquely determined from the given information

25. The capital city, King's Landing, located 40 km to the south of Gulltown on the road connecting
Gulltown to Winterfell, did not have a straight road connecting to Meereen. Now, a new expressway is
being built to connect these two towns by a straight road. What should be the maximum speed limit
allowed on this expressway so that it cuts down the travel time, from Meereen to King's Landing, from
the fastest possible route through the road network shown in the diagram, by 20 minutes?
(A) 100 km/hr
(B) 130 km/hr
(C) 139 km/hr
(D) 120 km/hr
(E) 157 km/hr

QUESTIONS 26 TO 28

GadRev is a firm that reviews different latest gadgets through a team of four reviewers (R1, R2, R3, and
R4). Recently the reviewers reviewed four different tech gadgets (A, B, C, and D) on a scale of 1 to 5 (all
integer values) where 1 denotes poor and 5 denotes excellent. The table below shows the ratings, along
with the average rating given by each reviewer and the average rating received by each gadget. Some of
the individual ratings in the table have been deleted.

GadRev ratings table: reviewers R1-R4 against gadgets A-D, with some ratings deleted and row/column averages shown

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What rating provided by Reviewer R1 to Gadget A can help determining the remaining ratings
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(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 5
(E) 3

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27. In how many different ways could Reviewer R2 have rated Gadget B so that the ratings lead to the same
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averages for the gadgets and the reviewers as shown in the table?

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(E) 3

28. How many different valid combinations of the missing ratings are possible?
(A) 4
(B) 1
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Section II — Decision Making
Questions 29–49 · 21 questions

QUESTIONS 29 TO 31

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Aarya had always been a mediocre student. Luckily, after finishing her undergraduate degree from a
. IT company.
c. o engineering college, she secured a decent but modestly paying job at asreputable
tier-two
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e mHowever, after a year on the job, Aarya found her role mundane. When her lbest
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l as Shruti, left to pursue an MBA from a top-tier business school, citing significant
ag career growth and
ag potential salary increase upon graduation, Aarya felt intrigued and inspired to follow the same path.
Shruti appreciated Aarya’s aspirations, telling her that doing an MBA from a top-tier business school
could not only land Aarya a lucrative job but also it could fast-track her career progression. However,
Aarya was concerned whether she would be able to balance between her MBA entrance exam
preparation and her current job. Aarya considered resigning to focus entirely on MBA entrance exam
preparation, but Shruti cautioned her that top-tier business schools might view a career break
unfavourably, as they prefer continuous professional engagement.

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29. The CEO of Aarya’s IT firm tied up with a premier business school to reserve thirty seats in an online
management certificate program, aimed at grooming working professionals. The CEO, however,
declared that the employees participating in this program will have to sign a three-year bond with the
firm. Further, the CEO added that though good performance was a criterion for selection, he would hold
authority to take a final call.
Aarya, well aware of her academic limitations, was unsure about the time available to prepare for the
MBA entrance exams. She contemplated going for the management certificate program, instead of
preparing for the MBA entrance exams.
Which of the following considerations will BEST help Aarya decide whether to apply for the online
management certificate program?
(A) Aarya keeps getting appreciated for her performance by the HR department.
(B) Shruti attempted the MBA entrance exams twice, before she could get selected.
(C) Aarya feels that the online program is light enough to manage while working full time.
(D) Aarya wants to be part of a very good alumni network.
(E) Those who complete this online management certificate program do well in their career.

30. After working hard on MBA entrance exam preparations for one year, Aarya received an admission offer
from the two-year agribusiness program of a premier business school. While she aspired to be a part of
that premier business school, she had no interest in agribusiness. While deliberating, she received an
offer from a brand new, but buzzworthy, global one-year executive MBA program in General
Management, in a mid-tier business school. The program boasted excellent placement for its first batch
of students. While the program was typically geared towards students with a considerable industry
experience, being new, it also allowed some exceptions for “well-deserving students” with little or no
experience.
Aarya was worried whether, being a candidate with a minimal experience, she would be a good fit in the
executive MBA program. Which of the following considerations would BEST help Aarya in taking
admission in the one-year executive MBA program?
(A) The executive MBA program offers generous scholarships to women with IT experience.
(B) Aarya does not have the confidence to spend another year in MBA entrance-exam preparation.
(C) The agribusiness program is not the flagship program of the premier business school.
(D) Aarya has a better chance of furthering her career in a field of her interest through the executive
MBA program.
(E) The unique structure of the executive MBA program has gained a lot of attention from the new
start-ups.

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31. After working hard on MBA entrance exam preparations for one year, Aarya received two admission
offers: one from the two-year agribusiness program of a premier business school, and another one from
a brand new, but buzzworthy, global one-year executive MBA program in General Management in a
mid-tier business school. As she did not have much interest in agribusiness, Aarya opted to enrol in the
one-year executive MBA program, and promptly submitted her first instalment of fees towards
admission. She was very happy that she would soon embark on her MBA journey.
To her shock, a few days later, she received a call from the authorities of the mid-tier business school.
They informed her that due to a technical glitch in their system, more admission offers were made than
the available seats. Consequently, candidates lower on the merit list, including Aarya, were being
offered a choice from the following options: a deferred admission next year to the same program, or a
full refund of the fees. They also said, if interested, Aarya could right now join a similar program,
starting in a newly launched campus of the same business school, where many seats were available.
Aarya considered the whole episode a breach of trust, and wondered, if it would at all be worthwhile to
be associated with this business school now or in the future. Which of the following considerations will
BEST restore her faith in this business school?
(A) A deferment by a year will give her a chance to build on her work experience.
(B) The business school runs many management training programs on ethical leadership for
corporates.
(C) A similar incident happened three years back in another business school, and all deferred
candidates eventually got good placements.
(D) Many mid-tier business schools give offers to more candidates than available seats to tackle
rejections.
(E) The business school owned the mistake, and tried their best to help the affected candidates.

QUESTIONS 32 TO 34

Ned Flanders and Homer Simpson Partners Limited is a law firm, known for its unwavering
commitment to client satisfaction. They treat the clients as family members who have grown along with
the firm. Further, they are highly regarded in the industry, consulted by the country’s top organizations.
Among the founders, Homer Simpson is flamboyant, while Ned Flanders is serious. Together, they bring
a dynamic balance to the team.

The organization believes in a strong socialization ritual that bonds the new lawyers (newcomers) with
the existing members. Also, the socialization ritual ensures that newcomers fully understand the nature
of their work and integrate seamlessly into the company’s culture. During their first week, newcomers
are overloaded with a barrage of artificial tasks, unexpected client calls, and a challenging meeting with
the founders. This results in newcomers getting overwhelmed, and doubting their decision to join the
firm, only for the founders to meet them and reveal that this is one big prank and a way to welcome
them to the organization. This socialization ritual has served them well for the past two decades.
However, not all the newcomers appreciate the utility of this ritual.

One of the lawyers, Ms. Lisa Simpleton, who joined in 2023 and went through the same socialization
ritual, found it unwelcoming. She believes that other newcomers might also share the same opinion. Lisa
thinks that the current generation, especially post-COVID, needs more friendly welcome, and the firm
must put an end to this ritual.

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When a new batch of lawyers joins in 2024, Lisa feels that it is her moral responsibility to reprieve the
newcomers from the ensuing stress. However, Lisa, like the othersla
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a and performance are under evaluation.
probation for two years. During the probation period, her skills
Upon successful completion of this twoyear assessment, she will be eligible for confirmation. Since she
is yet to be confirmed, she wants to be seen as fitting within the organization’s culture.
Which of the following options will BEST enable Lisa to save the newcomers from the socialization
ritual, without being singled out for questioning the organization’s culture?
(A) Seek a meeting with Ned Flanders, suggesting him to put an end to this practice.
Meet one of the newcomers in secret and tell her about this practice.
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(B)

(C)
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Organize a generic workshop for newcomers regarding workplace politics.
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(D)
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Join a team of lawyers, petitioning to the founders to end this practice.
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Be silent this year until her performance review is over and she is confirmed.
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33. a batch of lawyers joins the organization in 2024, they receive an anonymous email, warning
When a new
them about the socialization ritual, just as it is about to start. Though no newcomer paid heed to the
mail, the founders are furious. They call a meeting, and announce that while employees are welcome to
express their opinions, this cowardly act of sending an anonymous email shall not be tolerated.
The watercooler discussions murmur Lisa’s name. Lisa is pleased that someone shares her perspective
on the socialization ritual and has acted. However, she did not write the aforementioned email. As her
name continues to be mentioned, she feels overwhelmed and wonders if she needs to do something
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about it.
Which of the following actions by Lisa can BEST enable her to defuse the situation?

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(A) She should apologize to the founders, taking accountability for creating a climate that resulted in
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someone sending the anonymous email.
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(B) She should simply focus on her work, and hope that the founders would ignore the rumours.
(C) She should send a public email clarifying that while she has reservations about the practice, she is
not the author of the anonymous email.
(D) She should meet the founders and share that while she has reservations about the practice, she did
not send the anonymous email.
(E) She should publicly apologize for having questioned the tradition of the organization to put all
doubts to rest.
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34. It is 2025: a new batch of lawyers has joined the firm.
Some lawyers from the 2024 batch have approached the founders to express their appreciation for the
intent behind the socialization ritual. They shared that the experience offered them a glimpse of the
world they are about to enter. However, they feel that the ritual has become archaic in its execution,
showing its age and necessitating some fresh thinking.
As they leave, Ned feels that the time has come to abandon the ritual due to changing times. However,
Homer disagrees; he thinks that exposing the employees to what the profession has to offer, in the first
week, is very critical. Moreover, it helps the organization know whether the newcomer is ready for such
a profession. Further, he adds that the socialization ritual has been effectively helping them for decades
in grooming the talents of their organization.
Which of the following actions should the founders BEST take, if they still want to welcome their
newcomers by exposing them to the harsh reality of the profession, while being empathetic to the
demands of the times?
(A) They should, in their website, share details about how tough the workload is going to be.
(B) They should get a mental health professional to design their socialization ritual.
(C) They should stick to what they are doing but hire a mental health professional who the newcomers
can refer to if they feel the need.
(D) They should invite suggestions from their young lawyers regarding formulating a new socialization
ritual.
(E) They should talk to their competitors in the same industry and check what kind of practices they
follow.

QUESTIONS 35 TO 37

Mr. Zubin Mistry is the owner and the chief editor of the newspaper The Pluralist, renowned for its high
reporting standards and outstanding writing quality. The Pluralist’s authentic reporting distinguishes it
from other newspapers that sensationalize news. They are responsible employers, known to be highly
supportive towards their employees. Its news editing team is led by Ms. Ramya Kattabomman, a
respected veteran in the newspaper reporting industry, wellknown for her stringent adherence to the
ethical standards of newspaper reporting.

Mr. Aditya Swaroop Verma, an award-winning senior journalist, has brought in an exposé into the
activities of a mining company, operating in an ecologically vulnerable area. In his hardhitting
reporting style, he has presented interviews with tens of people, delineating how the mining company
has used illegal means to start mining in that area. These mining activities may lead to the destruction of
the local ecological balance. However, Aditya Swaroop is unable to obtain an interview with the
management of the mining company.

Aditya Swaroop’s investigative report article offers significant revelations about the alleged illegal
activities of the mining company which were hardly covered in the media otherwise. Nevertheless, his
sources have requested for complete anonymity.

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35. Ramya is trying to decide whether to publish the article. While publishing the article may enhance the
reputation of The Pluralist, there are possibilities of political and economic backlash for reporting on
the powerful mining company. She has consulted the legal team of the newspaper, who have warned
that the report, relying mostly on anonymous sources, is likely to be legally vulnerable. On the other
hand, Aditya Swaroop is a senior journalist, well known and well respected for the quality of his
investigative reporting. The topic of the report is time sensitive: if the report is not published within the
next 2-3 days, the mining company would get an important government project in the same area.
Which of the following reasons will BEST enable Ramya to publish the article?
(A) Ramya should publish the article because her legal team is mostly over cautious about any
possibility of backlashes.
(B) Ramya should publish the article given the time-sensitive nature of the report.
(C) Ramya should publish the article because any investigation by Aditya Swaroop has enhanced the
reputation of The Pluralist till date.
(D) Ramya should publish the article because a similar article was published on another mining
company last week in another news daily.
(E) Ramya should publish the article because the same news can get published by a competitor known
for breaking such news.

36. After the article is published next morning in The Pluralist, it goes viral. However, the mining company
pushes back with a public declaration, contesting some of the findings of the article. While the potential
inaccuracies do not entirely invalidate the article, they substantially undermine its message if proven
true.
When Ramya asks Aditya Swaroop to bring in further proof to publish a rebuttal, he informs her that
his sources, for a vital part of the article, were two employees recently fired by the mining company.
And, they now admit that they were not completely honest in their initial interaction with him. Though
some points raised in the article might still be valid, it is difficult to separate the inaccuracies given the
unreliability of the sources. Ramya immediately brings it to the attention of Zubin, while admitting that
she hastily permitted the publication of the article.
What is the MOST responsible action should Zubin take, keeping in view the recent developments due
to the inaccuracies of the article?
(A) Retract the entire article, and publish Ramya’s apology in the newspaper.
(B) Retract the entire article, and publish that Aditya Swaroop will no longer be with the newspaper.
(C) Publish a follow-up article disclosing the identity of the sources used for the article, attributing the
responsibility of the errors to them.
(D) Publish an article accusing the mining company of bullying witnesses to change their versions.
(E) Publish a modified version of the article next day, defending the investigative journalism of Aditya
Swaroop.

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After the article is published in The Pluralist, the mining company pushes back with a public

se declaration, contesting some of the findings of the article.
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This has hit Aditya Swaroop’s reputation because he trusted unreliable sources. Nevertheless, he is
confident about the illegal activities of the mining company; he wants to redeem himself. He
approaches Zubin with a request to go back to the mining company project to find new sources and
rewrite an article with reliable pieces of evidence. Though his fresh investigation will require time and
money, it might also enhance the reputation of the newspaper.
Zubin respects Aditya Swaroop and wants his reputation to be restored. However, Zubin is confident
that continuing to work on the mining company project will not yield any results.
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Which of the following actions by Zubin will BEST enable Aditya Swaroop to enhance his diminishing
reputation?
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(B)

(C) Tell Aditya Swaroop that he plans to delegate the mining company project to a fresh team, who will
work in consultation with Aditya Swaroop.
(D) Ask Aditya Swaroop to focus on mentoring new and young journalists instead of working on any
investigative report for some time.
(E) Assign a new investigative project to Aditya Swaroop, advising him to focus on the new project
without worrying about the past project.
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QUESTIONS 38 TO 40

Humane Dynamix is a leadership training organization based in Mumbai. Established in 2015, the
organization is gradually becoming a leader in behavioral training. In the organization, trainers are
assigned to training projects based on their expertise. Corporates seek behavioral training services on a
regular basis, from Humane Dynamix, for upskilling their executives. Humane Dynamix is headed by
the Chief Executive Officer (CEO), to whom the Training Assignment Officer (TAO) reports. The TAO
position rotates among the senior trainers for a fixed tenure; the CEO assigns this position to a senior
trainer.

Companies, desirous of hiring Humane Dynamix, share their training needs with the organization. The
TAO assigns a trainer to the client. Typically, the satisfied client requests for a particular trainer that the
client is satisfied, giving repeat business to Humane Dynamix from the same client company. However,
the TAO takes the final call. Years of training experience plays a big role in client satisfaction, and hence,
senior trainers conduct most training programs while the newly recruited trainers apprentice with them.
However, the senior trainers have the autonomy to decide on who they want to accept as an apprentice.

Further, during a training program, the senior trainer takes most of the sessions, if not all, while the
apprentice helps the senior trainers to organize their sessions, and occasionally take a few
sessions. As the apprentices gain experience, they start getting their own independent projects, but that
typically takes quite some time.

Dheeraj, a senior trainer, takes over as the TAO. As soon as he assumes the office, the CEO shares a
concern with him: “We have a lot of young trainers who we have recently recruited. Since they are not
known to the outside world, they do not get enough opportunities. Many of them are impatient to prove
their mettle. Unless they are assigned more programs, we risk losing them rapidly.”

38. Dheeraj knows that his senior colleagues are very good at training, and, hence, they conduct most of the
training programs. They keep the clients satisfied and, consequently, bring repeat business. However,
as asked by the CEO, Dheeraj needs to do something to enable the young trainers get more
opportunities and increase their training engagements.
Which of the following options should Dheeraj execute to BEST enable the young trainers to get more
training opportunities, without affecting their relationships with the client companies?
(A) Dheeraj should explore for those clients who would be comfortable working with the young
trainers.
(B) Dheeraj should request the repeat clients to switch to the services of the young trainers who bring a
lot of energy to their sessions.
(C) Dheeraj should mandate that the senior trainers must allow the young trainers to take at least
thirty percent of their training sessions.
(D) Dheeraj should assign some of the repeat projects from the satisfied clients with particular senior
trainers to the young trainers.
(E) Dheeraj should request the CEO to urge the senior colleagues in giving up some of their existing
clients in the interest of others’ careers.

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39. Dheeraj decided to assign some of the repeat clients, at random, to their young trainers, to address the
concerns of the CEO. Many young trainers appreciated him for giving them more opportunities.
Sudha Iyer, a senior trainer, popular for her training programs in “Deceptive Communication
Methods,” was surprised to see that some of her long-standing clients were assigned to a young person.
She was concerned that the clients would feel shortchanged. Moreover, she was chagrined that she was
not even consulted. This led to the reduction in her number of training hours.
Since, Humane Dynamix incentivizes trainers who cross a mandated number of training hours every
year, Sudha was also concerned about her possible revenue loss. Sudha wanted Dheeraj to stop
assigning established clients to the young trainers. Which of the following actions would BEST help
Sudha to stop Dheeraj from assigning her programs to the young trainers?
(A) She should approach the CEO and request that Dheeraj be removed from his role as the TAO.
(B) She should contact the client companies and ask them to reject Dheeraj's assigned trainers.
(C) She should confront the CEO and share that his concerns should not be addressed at the cost of her
revenues.
(D) She should propose training the young trainers in her innovative methods so that they become
independent in future.
(E) She should share with Dheeraj that assigning her client companies to novice trainers will lead to
loss of those clients.

40. Dheeraj assigned a repeat client of Nandini Hegde, another very senior trainer, to Kirti Gowda, a
promising young trainer.
A few days later, the client company reached out to Nandini, off the record, and informed her that they
were very unhappy with Kirti’s training. They also shared that Dheeraj, when informed about this, had
claimed that the client would appreciate Kirti with more exposure to her training programs.
What BEST can Nandini do to regain the client for herself, without appearing to be against the
organization’s focus on providing the young trainers more opportunities?
(A) Tell the client that to ensure quality, they must demand her exclusively as the trainer for their
upcoming training programs.
(B) Propose to Dheeraj that in future assignments with the client, Kirti be a co-trainer with Nandini to
help improve her performance.
(C) Engage in a follow up conversation with the client, requesting that they communicate their
concerns to the CEO of Humane Dynamix directly.
(D) Share the client’s feedback with Kirti, and ask her to opt out of future training assignments with
that client.
(E) Arrange a meeting with Dheeraj, informing him that she is aware of the situation, and Dheeraj’s
actions may lose the client for Humane Dynamix.

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QUESTIONS 41 TO 43

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TrueColor, an event management company in eastern India, had been in a business of inviting
Tollywood singers to a city called Tivanna, and made money out of selling tickets of their concerts. The
stars were paid a fixed fee regardless of the number of tickets sold. The company had a specialized team
that negotiated the singers’ fee with their managers. However, for selling the tickets of such events, they
were reliant on an external media agency called Zedius. Zedius had a long-standing relationship with
TrueColor, and had been instrumental in achieving a target of 50,000 tickets for each of the flagship
events.
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Mr. Sukanta Rao joined TrueColor as an inhouse sales and marketing manager, a position exclusively
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s earlier stint, he had seen that similar cities sell more than 75,000 tickets for such
over time, reaching 100,000 was plausible for TrueColor. a g
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41. Sukanta felt that the aspirational target can be achieved only if Zedius is replaced. However, he is not
sure if he should make any major changes in his first year.
Which of the following reasons will BEST help Sukanta NOT to start making major changes
immediately?
(A) Zedius has managed TrueColor’s marketing for the last five years.
(B) The owners of Zedius are respected citizens of Tivanna.
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(C)
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. ticket sales by whatever means necessary.
Sukanta needs more time to learn about the dynamics of the eastern market.
(D)
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TrueColor recruited Sukanta specifically to increase
(E)
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For around a decade, ticket sales have consistently

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42. Just two weeks before the flagship event, Adil received a few emails from competing media agencies
that accused Zedius of selling phony tickets in the “black” market. When Adil enquired with the security
agency in charge of gatekeeping the events, they told him that they had no mechanism to check the
authenticity of tickets.
Which of the following options will BEST help Adil to ignore the accusations from the competing media
agencies, and maintain status quo?

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In Tivanna, the competing media agencies keep defaming each other out of fierce competition.

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ag Tivanna being a small city, a few prominent personalities have to be allowed in without tickets.
(E)

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43. The following year, Sukanta discussed with Adil that unless they got into the ticket selling process, they
might not be able to improve the ticket numbers. However, this would mean moving away from Zedius,
and the transition could cause short-term pains since TrueColor would be entering into unchartered
territory. Further, Sukanta added that TrueColor would achieve self-sufficiency over couple of years.
Adil was concerned about the risk of taking over an activity that the organization was not competent at,
but understood Sukanta’s point. In the interest of building long-term competencies, he authorized
Sukanta to take it forward. Sukanta did not renew Zedius’s contract in the following year; instead, he
recruited a skeletal team of three freshers from a premier business school as his support staff.
As the event approached, the team dedicated themselves to executing their plan. However, by the time
the ticket sales window closed, they managed to sell only 40,000 tickets. This shift in strategy provoked
considerable dissent within the company, challenging Sukanta's decision.
Disturbed by the situation, witnessing the internal turmoil, Adil must now navigate the company's
immediate reaction.
Which of the following should now be Adil’s BEST course of action?
(A) He should make Sukanta and his team to go back to Zedius immediately.
(B) He should wait and watch as the investment in Sukanta may need more time to bear result.
(C) He should engage a different media agency which is working for TrueColor’s main competitor.
(D) He should dismiss Sukanta’s team and let the earlier media agency to take over.
(E) He should threaten Sukanta that if sales do not improve by next year, he and his team will be fired.

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QUESTIONS 44 TO 46

KindCare hospital, located in the small industrial town of Chinar, is one of the largest hospitals within
50-kilometers radius. It is well-regarded among the locals for emergency services.
However, for critical surgeries, they prefer to travel to the nearest city Shamili, which is 100 kilometers
away.

When KindCare was established 50 years ago, the town was still in its early stages of development.
Consequently, the hospital needed to incorporate several facilities within its premises, including a 24-
hour cafeteria, to accommodate needs of the patients and their relatives who would come from nearby
places. Another facility that KindCare built and takes pride in is its state-of-the-art testing lab. It is the
most sought-after testing lab in Chinar even today when many independent labs have come up around
KindCare. Moreover, many other facilities have also come up in the surrounding area of the hospital
such as pharmacies, food joints, hotels etc. Further, a standalone pharmacy chain has gained a strong
foothold in Chinar as they expand their reach into Tier-3 cities.
When it comes to KindCare, a significant proportion of its patients are outpatients with a substantial
number seeking emergency services. As the sole 600-bed hospital in the region, KindCare plays a crucial
role in medical services, and receives generous funding from two major corporations operating locally,
further enabling KindCare to cater to the growing medical needs of the community.
During the COVID-19 pandemic, KindCare made significant investment in enhancing internet
connectivity, enabling many doctors, and the majority of administrative staff, to seamlessly work
remotely. This investment also allowed KindCare to bring in doctors from other cities through remote
care.

Further, COVID-19 was a wakeup call for KindCare to enhance their infrastructure. Though KindCare
made significant improvements, they kept the major renovations on hold due to the constant flow of
patients. KindCare believes that if the held renovations are not taken up on an urgent basis now, the
operations at the hospital will get obstructed.

44. KindCare feels that it needs to be better prepared before a similar situation like COVID-19 chances
upon the city again. The hospital decides to invest immediately in improving their infrastructure.
However, this would mean that, temporarily, it should either reduce, or shut down the operations of a
few departments.
It is considering the following options:
A) Reduce their outpatient capacity to half
B) Shut down the cafeteria for the period of renovation
C) Ask their administrative staff to work remotely
D) Strip the pharmacy operations down to emergency and critical medications
E) Shut down the medical lab, and arrange medical tests from a local lab
Which of the following combinations will LEAST affect the functioning of the hospital?
(A) ACD
(B) BCD
(C) ABC
(D) BCE
(E) ABE

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KindCare needs to maintain a large inventory of medicines and other auxiliary supplies in their storage

se g la Care Unit and the emergency
unit. The storage unit ensures adequate and timely supply to Intensive
a that the storage unit be shut down
services, and always runs to capacity. The renovation team suggests
for seven days for urgent renovation. However, the hospital building being old, in the past, renovation
work had stretched beyond estimated time.
Which of the following actions BEST ensures KindCare operates efficiently during the renovation of the
storage unit?
(A) Renovate the storage unit part by part while halving the capacity of the emergency services until
the renovation completes.
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(C) Shut down them
espace, about one hour away from the hospital, for seven days.
cafeteria until further notice and relocate the storage unit.
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(D) Rent a large
(E) Startabuilding

46. KindCare Hospital has to renovate its storage unit, given the complexity of the medicines and the need
to store other critical supplies. The renovation is supposed to take seven days. However, as the work
starts, the team entrusted with the work realizes that the work will take more than 15 days. KindCare
feels that even this revised estimate is modest. Already the outpatient services are affected, and people
visiting the hospital are being turned away. Stretching it further will attract a strong public resentment.
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Which of the following actions offers the MOST sustainable solution for KindCare to reduce the number
of patients being turned away?

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(A) Resume some operations from rented spaces, scattered around the region.
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(B)

renovation.
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(C) Arrange with a larger hospital, in Shamili, to take over their critical patients.
(D) Bring in a reputed renovation team at triple the cost, which guarantees to finish this work in three
days.
(E) Stop the renovation work immediately, and resume normal operations.

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QUESTIONS 47 TO 49

Sundaram Stores operated in a gated community, situated about 30 Kilometers away from the main
town. The store owner Mr. Sundareswaran Pichaimuthu, or Sundaram as he was called by everyone,
secured a space in the gated society through a competitive bidding process. The residents’ association,
led by Mr. Thangamoorthy Selvaganapathy, selected Sundaram over three other bidders, based on his
willingness to pay the highest rent. Desperate to augment his post-retirement income, Sundaram agreed
to pay a very high rent, banking on the prospect of generating exceptional revenue from the gated
community.

Sundaram was awarded the contract to establish the store, with provisions for a review every three
years. Feeling elated during the meeting with the residents’ association to finalize the contract, he
enthusiastically committed to offering a 15% discount on all groceries and stationary, cementing
goodwill and reinforcing the partnership established through the contract. The association was
delightedly taken aback by his generous assurance. Sundaram hoped to make up the difference through
volume.

Although his sales were strong during the initial months, he soon realized that the SUV-owning
residents of the gated community primarily made their purchases at large, branded retail chains in the
main town. These stores offered deeper discounts, which he could not afford to compete with. However,
gradually, Sundaram store became their go-to store for daily essentials and occasional urgent big
purchases such as replacing a broken mixer-grinder.

47. While reviewing his monthly accounts, Sundaram realized that he was barely breaking even, primarily
due to the substantial rent he was paying to the residents’ association. He realized that while his sales
were stagnated, the rental costs were contractually scheduled to increase every three years. He was
determined to do something to increase his profits.
Which of the following will be the MOST sustainable way to increase Sundaram’s profits?
(A) He should meet with the residents’ association to negotiate a lower rent.
(B) He should advertise about his shop through a leaflet in the gated community.
(C) He should remove all the discounts he was offering and sell at the maximum retail price.
(D) He should offer to procure items unavailable at his shop from the town on residents’ demand.
(E) He should introduce “cheap Wednesdays” where he will sell groceries at 40% discount.

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48. To increase his profits, Sundaram diversified into selling vegetables. Earlier, a vegetable vendor used to
visit the gated community once every week. The vendor, after seeing dismal sales ever since Sundaram
started selling vegetables, stopped visiting the gated community. The residents’ association did not like
losing the rent they were receiving from the vendor. Additionally, the maintenance staff of the gated
community benefitted from receiving vegetables either for free or at extremely low prices, as the vendor,
reluctant to take back the unsold stock, chose to distribute them at little to no cost. This enabled the
residents’ association to retain maintenance staff whose attrition rate was increasing with more gated
communities coming up in the nearby area.
Which of the following options will BEST address the concerns of the residents’ association arising out
of Sundaram getting into selling vegetables?
(A) The residents’ association should request for bids from various shop owners to open another
grocery store in the vacant place.
(B) The residents’ association should ask Sundaram to use the erstwhile space for selling vegetables
and pay rent for the same.
(C) The residents’ association should impose a fine on Sundaram since he was not contracted to sell
vegetables.
(D) The residents’ association should discount the rent for the vegetable vendor to increase
competition and ask him to continue.
(E) The residents’ association should ask Sundaram to give a specific quantity of vegetables to the
maintenance staff for free.

49. Sundaram is a happy man now. He has managed to get contracts with two more nearby gated
communities. He feels like the grocery king of the suburb.
However, his happiness is short-lived as Rush’em, a new startup, begins making waves among gated
communities. This app-based startup promises to deliver any grocery item within 15 minutes,
leveraging its own large warehouses. Earlier, Rush’em was confined to the main town, but now, the
startup has expanded its delivery services to the suburbs, including gated communities where
Sundaram operates. Of course, for the suburbs, Rush’em promises delivery within 60 minutes, given
the distance.
Though not an official slogan, the rumour in the market is that Rush’em’s founder inspired her
employees by shouting “Rush’em or Crash’em, but Push’em through that door!” Sundaram started
losing business to Rush’em. He felt rushed, pushed, and was wondering if his business would come
crashing.
What should Sundaram BEST do to ensure that his revenues do not come down due to Rush’em?
(A) Sundaram should not bother since the nearest town is 30 kilometers away.
(B) Sundaram should explore starting his own delivery startup Finish’em, dedicated to the suburb,
competing with Rush’em.
(C) Sundaram should employ a few helpers who will do home delivery of his products within 10
minutes across the three gated communities.
(D) Sundaram should demand that his rent be reduced to one-third since Rush’em has free access to
these societies
(E) Sundaram should start giving discounts on every product he sells.

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m Section III — Verbal Ability & Logical Reasoning as
se Questions 50–75 · 26 questions
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50.
Read the following sentences carefully.
A. The dean asked for additional funding.
B. The boss discussed about the new project with his team.
C. Radhika is good in data interpretation.
D. Neil is transitioning into a new phase of life.
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E. Rajat emphasized on the need for consistency in XAT preparation.
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F. This car is superior to the previous one in terms of efficiency.
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Which of the following options contains only grammatically CORRECT sentences?
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(B)

(C)
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C, E & F
(D) A, B & C
(E) A, D & F

51.
Read the following sentences carefully.
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A. There are less cars on the road today.
B. She is nicer than her sister.
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C. I have been here from Monday.
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D. I know how to swim.
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E. She is the girl that won the case competition.
F. The media are divided on the issue.
Which of the following options contains only grammatically CORRECT sentences?

(A) D, E & F
(B) A, D & F
(C) B, C & E

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(E)

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52.
Read the following excerpt carefully.

When each_________________ generation grows up, it looks down on the next as if we all forget
what it feels like to be______________. When most____________ think about their own youthful
indiscretions, they do so with a wink and a laugh. But when the same people think about those in
today’s generation doing something similar, they _________________sound the alarm about a
decline in morality in next generation.

From the options below, choose the one that meaningfully fills up the blanks.

(A) young, young, seniors, carefully
(B) old, older, youngsters, sincerely
(C) succeeding, next, people, naturally
(D) preceding, succeeding, folks, cautiously
(E) successive, young, adults, hypocritically

53.
Read the following statements and answer the question that follows.

A. Whatever that might be on Europa—far from the Sun, and beneath kilometers of ice
—it will not be sunlight.
B. The final ingredient for a habitable world is a source of energy for life to exploit.
C. On Earth almost every living thing ultimately depends on photosynthesis for its
energy, including the rich ecosystems in the ocean depths, discovered in the 1980s and
which helped the idea of life on Europa gain a foothold.
D. Their inhabitants do not benefit from sunlight directly, but their metabolisms are
powered by chemicals created in the photosynthesizing, oxygen-rich surface oceans
far above.
E. That is a bit of a problem.

Which of the following sequences is the MOST logically ordered?

(A) D, E, C, B, A
(B) C, E, B, A, D
(C) A, B, E, D, C
(D) B, A, E, C, D
(E) E, D, B, C, A

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54.
Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

No man knows how bad he is till he has tried very hard to be good. A silly idea is current that good
people do not know what temptation means. This is an obvious lie. Only those who try to resist
temptation know how strong it is. After all, you find out the strength of the German army by fighting
against it, not by giving in. You find out the strength of a wind by trying to walk against it, not by lying
down. A man who gives in to temptation after five minutes simply does not know what it would have
been like an hour later. That is why bad people, in one sense, know very little about badness — they
have lived a sheltered life by always giving in.

Which of the following options can be BEST concluded from the passage?

(A) To claim to know anything we must apply it in a situation and then judge ourselves.
(B) How we label ourselves depends entirely on how much we have fought for that label.
(C) Unless we are put to test for our beliefs, we do not know what our true beliefs are
(D) Most of the population does not know what being bad or being good actually is.
(E) To claim to be good people, we should know what temptation means

55.
Read the following statements and answer the question that follows.

A. The treaty tests of a budget deficit no bigger than 3% of the GDP and a public debt converging
towards a ceiling of 60% of a GDP seemed impossible for Italy to pass by 1999.

B. That Belgium also had a public debt above 100 percent of GDP helped, as did a special euro tax Mr.
Prodi introduced.

C. Into the uncompromising environment came the first of a series of external shocks. One of the
earliest was entry into the European single currency, the euro, in 1999.

D. But when it became clear in 1997 that Spain was determined to join from the start, Romano Prodi,
then Italian prime minister, decided that Italy, as a founder member of the bloc, must be there too.

E. Germany had more or less designed the 1992 Maastricht treaty’s convergence criteria to keep out a
profligate, chronically indebted Italy.

Which of the following sequences is the MOST logically ordered?

(A) A, B, C, D, E
(B) C, E, A, D, B
(C) E, A, B, C, D
(D) E, D, B, A, C
(E) C, B, D, E, A

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m Read the following passage and answer the question that follows. a s
se g l
a as it is said, it is sayable and loses all its
The lovely thing about the unsayable is that it is unsaid. As soon
mystery and ambiguity. Art exists so that the unsayable can be said without having to actually say it. We
cloud it in secrecy and obfuscation. The mind is free to roam and all things can be imagined, under the
cover of darkness. How nice that is. The unsayable. How tired we are of having things explained to us.
Having things said. How nice it is when people just shut … up."

Which of the following options can be BEST inferred from the passage?
m
(A)
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Art unfolds the mystery of human tongues.
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(B)
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Any piece of art defies expression.
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(C)
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Art echoes the language that is unintelligible
l a
(D)
g la an art metamorphoses into another piece of art.
Explaining ag
(E) a
Art expresses what humans cannot communicate in words

57.
Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

Employees complaining about mundane tasks are often ignored. There is a listlessness that settles
around them. A bored employee may continue to produce good results, but that can also be because the
tasks are repetitive, and the outcomes are expected.
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Which of the following options can be BEST inferred. from the passage?
s em
(A)
g la good performers
Mundane tasks create listlessness around
(B) Boredom is a serious problem thataneeds immediate attention
(C) Listlessness settles around good performers who are bored
(D) A bored employee must be a bad performer for the organization to take notice
(E) Good performance makes organizations overlook their employees’ state of mind.

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58.
Observe the cartoon below carefully and answer the question that follows.

(Cartoon by Tom Toro, originally published in The New Yorker on November 18, 2024. Used for
educational purposes)

Which of the following options BEST explains the underlying message depicted in the cartoon?

(A) Our understanding of others, based on our beliefs, may not be true.
(B) Our sense of duty for others can overwhelm our sense of self.
(C) Love is about caring for others even if it wears you out.
(D) Our interpretation of others’ reality is mostly arbitrary.
(E) Our sense of identity is based on how others interpret us.

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QUESTIONS 59 TO 61

You may laugh at a hat, but what you are making fun of, in this case, is not the piece of felt or straw, but
the shape that men have given it, -- the human caprice whose mould it has assumed. It is strange that so
important a fact, and such a simple one too, has not attracted to a greater degree the attention of
philosophers. Several have defined man as "an animal which laughs." They might equally well have
defined him as an animal which is laughed at; for if any other animal, or some lifeless object, produces
the same effect, it is always because of some resemblance to man, of the stamp he gives it or the use he
puts it to.

Here I would point out, as a symptom equally worthy of notice, the ABSENCE OF FEELING which
usually accompanies laughter. It seems as though the comic could not produce its disturbing effect
unless it fell, so to say, on the surface of a soul that is thoroughly calm and unruffled. Indifference is its
natural environment, for laughter has no greater foe than emotion. I do not mean that we could not
laugh at a person who inspires us, with pity, for instance, or even with affection, but in such a case we
must, for the moment, put our affection out of court and impose silence upon our pity. In a society
composed of pure intelligences there would probably be no more tears, though perhaps there would still
be laughter; whereas highly emotional souls, in tune and unison with life, in whom every event would be
sentimentally prolonged and re-echoed, would neither know nor understand laughter. Try, for a
moment, to become interested in everything that is being said and done; act, in imagination, with those
who act, and feel with those who feel; in a word, give your sympathy its widest expansion: as though at
the touch of a fairy wand you will see the flimsiest of objects assume importance, and a gloomy hue
spread over everything. Now step aside, look upon life as a disinterested spectator: many a drama will
turn into a comedy. It is enough for us to stop our ears to the sound of music, in a room where dancing is
going on, for the dancers at once to appear ridiculous. How many human actions would stand a similar
test? Should we not see many of them suddenly pass from grave to gay, on isolating them from the
accompanying music of sentiment? To produce the whole of its effect, then, the comic demands
something like a momentary anesthesia of the heart. Its appeal is to intelligence, pure and simple.

59.
What does the author BEST mean when they say, “it seems as though the comic could not produce its
disturbing effect unless it fell, so to say, on the surface of a soul that is thoroughly calm and unruffled?”

(A) Comics are the most effective when the audience is unaware of the context.
(B) Unless one is emotionally detached from the event, it is impossible to appreciate a comical view.
(C) Relaxed people tend to find edgy or disturbing comedy funnier
(D) To appreciate humour with an unsettling tone, people benefit from being in a calm state.
(E) Comical behaviour disturbs those more deeply whose minds are calm and composed

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m Based on the passage, which of the following statements CANNOT a s
se l be inferred?

(A) ag a sense of distance.
Comic happens in a setting of emotional detachment, having
(B) Inanimate objects can become a subject of laughter because they may project human
characteristics
(C) When strong emotions are involved, laughter cannot be evoked.
(D) When you laugh at a hat, you laugh at a human being it represents
(E) Humour only springs from experiences that demand momentary anesthesia
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61.
Based on the passage, which of the following statements will the author BEST agree with?
m s e
s e l a
(A)
lisa simply a funny way of being serious.
Life is a tragedy when seen in close up but a comedy in long-shot.
g ag
(B)

(C)
a
Comedy
Comedy is but tragedy, cunningly disguised and popularized for the multitude
(D) A person who knows how to laugh at himself will never cease to be amused
(E) Comedy is an escape, not from truth but from despair.

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QUESTIONS 62 TO 64

Recently, a team of social scientists launched an experiment to test that hypothesis. They recruited 1,500
entrepreneurs in West Africa—a mix of women and men in their 30s, 40s, and 50s—who were running
small startups in manufacturing, service, and commerce. They randomly assigned the founders to one of
three groups. One was a control group: they went about their business as usual. The other two were
training groups: they spent a week learning new concepts, analyzing them in case studies of other
entrepreneurs, and applying them to their own startups through role-play and reflection exercises. What
differed was whether the training focused on cognitive skills or character skills. In cognitive skills
training, the founders took an accredited business course created by the International Finance
Corporation. They studied finance, accounting, HR, marketing, and pricing, and practiced using what
they learned to solve challenges and seize opportunities. In character skills training, the founders
attended a class designed by psychologists to teach personal initiative. They studied proactivity,
discipline, and determination, and practiced putting those qualities into action. Character skills training
had a dramatic impact. After founders had spent merely five days working on these skills, their firms’
profits grew by an average of 30 percent over the next two years. That was nearly triple the benefit of
training in cognitive skills. Finance and marketing knowledge might have equipped founders to
capitalize on opportunities, but studying proactivity and discipline enabled them to generate
opportunities. They learned to anticipate market changes rather than react to them. They developed
more creative ideas and introduced more new products. When they encountered financial obstacles,
instead of giving up, they were more resilient and resourceful in seeking loans. Along with
demonstrating that character skills can propel us to achieve greater things, this evidence reveals that it’s
never too late to build them … Character doesn’t set like plaster—it retains its plasticity. Character is
often confused with personality, but they’re not the same. Personality is your predisposition—your basic
instincts for how to think, feel, and act. Character is your capacity to prioritize your values over your
instincts. Knowing your principles doesn’t necessarily mean you know how to practice them, particularly
under stress or pressure. It’s easy to be proactive and determined when things are going well. The true
test of character is whether you manage to stand by those values when the deck is stacked against you. If
personality is how you respond on a typical day, character is how you show up on a hard day. Personality
is not your destiny—it’s your tendency. Character skills enable you to transcend that tendency to be true
to your principles. It’s not about the traits you have—it’s what you decide to do with them. Wherever you
are today, there’s no reason why you can’t grow your character skills starting now.

62.
Which of the following views would the author BEST agree with?

(A) Putting our values and principles to practice requires transcending our personality.
(B) Our values and principles are always put to test by our personality.
(C) Our behavior is a function of our character not our personality.
(D) Character skills risk abandoning your personality along with your instincts.
(E) Because principles clash with your personality, character is needed.

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63.
Which of the following can be BEST inferred from the passage?

(A) Cognitive skills unlike character skills are always reactive.
(B) Being aware of your character skills enable you to exercise them.
(C) Sustainable success in life requires strong character skills.
(D) Character skills can compensate for poor cognitive skills.
(E) Character skills can be built only if one believes in them.

64.
Based on the passage, why would character skills help entrepreneurs more than cognitive skills?

(A) Character skills are industry agnostic in application.
(B) One can be poor in finance and quantitative skills but really good in character skills
(C) Character skills prepare you for an uncertain future.
(D) Entrepreneurs are already aware of their business and are only missing character skills.
(E) Character skills enable you to generate opportunities rather than capitalize on existing ones.

QUESTIONS 65 TO 67

This fluidity and situational dependence is uniquely human. In other species, in-group/outgroup
distinctions reflect degrees of biological relatedness, or what evolutionary biologists call “kin selection.”
Rodents distinguish between a sibling, a cousin, and a stranger by smell—fixed, genetically determined
pheromonal signatures—and adapt their cooperation accordingly. Those murderous groups of chimps
are largely made up of brothers or cousins who grew up together and predominantly harm outsiders.
Humans are plenty capable of kin-selective violence themselves, yet human group mentality is often
utterly independent of such instinctual familial bonds. Most modern human societies rely instead on
cultural kin selection, a process allowing people to feel closely related to what are, in a biological sense,
total strangers. Often, this requires a highly active process of inculcation, with its attendant rituals and
vocabularies. Consider military drills producing “bands of brothers,” unrelated college freshmen
becoming sorority “sisters,” or the bygone value of welcoming immigrants into “the American family.”
This malleable, rather than genetically fixed, path of identity formation also drives people to adopt
arbitrary markers that enable them to spot their cultural kin in an ocean of strangers—hence the
importance various communities attach to flags, dress, or facial hair. The hipster beard, the turban, and
the “Make America Great Again” hat all fulfill this role by sending strong signals of tribal belonging.
Moreover, these cultural communities are arbitrary when compared to the relatively fixed logic of
biological kin selection. Few things show this arbitrariness better than the experience of immigrant
families, where the randomness of a visa lottery can radically reshuffle a child’s education, career
opportunities, and cultural predilections. Had my grandparents and father missed the train out of
Moscow that they instead barely made, maybe I’d be a chain-smoking Russian academic rather than a
Birkenstock-wearing American one, moved to tears by the heroism during the Battle of Stalingrad rather
than that at Pearl Harbor. Scaled up from the level of individual family histories, our big-picture group
identities—the national identities and cultural principles that structure our lives—are just as arbitrary
and subject to the vagaries of history.

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se l other?

(A) Both rodents and humans carry a genetically determineda
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pheromonal signature.
(B) Both rodents and humans can reign their instincts.
(C) Both rodents and humans make their groups exclusive of brothers and cousins.
(D) Both rodents and humans divide the world between “us” and “them.”
(E) Both rodents and humans are hostile towards outsiders.

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66.
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What does the author BEST mean when they say, “This fluidity and situational dependence is uniquely
human?” e m
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(A)
l as a g
Humans' kin selection is not based on instinctual familial bonds while relating to strangers.
(B)
a
Humansg use cognitive architecture to detect any potential cues about social coalitions and
alliances.
(C) Humans are uniquely progressive and ever evolving.
(D) The implicit traits that humans associate with can change over time
(E) Humans’ in-group/out-group thinking is influenced by their space and time.

67.
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What does the author BEST mean when they refer to the Battle of Stalingrad and Pearl Harbour?

(A)
e m
Our identities and emotional attachments are subject to erratic interpretation of history.
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Humans’ relationship with any specificaplace depends upon their lineage and ancestry
gl when they develop association with a particular cultural
(B)

(C) Humans do not follow any specificalogic
community
(D) Humans’ interpretation of specific events depends on their emotional association with them.
(E) Humans are capable of selective violence towards each other.

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QUESTIONS 68 TO 70

Work, for many on the career track, is greedy. The individual who puts in overtime, weekend time, or
evening time will earn a lot more—so much more that, even on an hourly basis, the person is earning
more.…The greediness of work means that couples with children or other care responsibilities would
gain by doing a bit of specialization. This specialization doesn’t mean catapulting back to the world of
Leave It to Beaver. Women will still pursue demanding careers. But one member of the couple will be on
call at home, ready to leave the office or workplace at a moment’s notice. That person will have a
position with considerable flexibility and will ordinarily not be expected to answer an e-mail or a call at
ten p.m. That parent will not have to cancel an appearance at soccer practice for an M&A. The other
parent, however, will be on call at work and do just the opposite. The potential impact on promotion,
advancement, and earnings is obvious. The work of professionals and managers has always been greedy.
Lawyers have always burned the midnight oil. Academics have always been judged for their cerebral
output and are expected not to turn their brains off in the evenings. Most doctors and veterinarians were
once on call 24/7. The value of greedy jobs has greatly increased with rising income inequality, which
has soared since the early 1980s. Earnings at the very upper end of the income distribution have
ballooned. The worker who jumps the highest gets an ever-bigger reward. The jobs with the greatest
demands for long hours and the least flexibility have paid disproportionately more, while earnings in
other employments have stagnated. Thus, positions that have been more difficult for women to enter in
the first place, such as those in finance, are precisely the ones that have seen the greatest increases in
income in the last several decades. The private equity associate who sees the deal through from
beginning to end, who did the difficult modeling, and who went to every meeting and late-night dinner,
will have maximum chance for a big bonus and the sought-after promotion. Rising inequality in earnings
may be one important reason why the gender pay gap among college graduates has remained flat in the
last several decades, despite improvements in women’s credentials and positions. It may be the reason
why the gender earnings gap for college graduates became larger than that between men and women in
the entire population in the late 1980s and early 1990s. Women have been swimming upstream, holding
their own but going against a strong current of endemic income inequality. Greedy work also means that
couple equity has been, and will continue to be, jettisoned for increased family income. And when couple
equity is thrown out the window, gender equality generally goes with it, except among same-sex unions.
Gender norms that we have inherited get reinforced in a host of ways to allot more of the childcare
responsibility to mothers, and more of the family care to grown daughters.

68.
Which of the following statements CANNOT be inferred from the passage?

(A) Flexibility in work may result in relatively lesser income.
(B) The root of all problems in the world is greed.
(C) Women can be equally greedy as men.
(D) Many of those toiling hard on the career track are greedy
(E) Jobs that extract the most out of the workforce also pay more

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69.
Which of the following about greedy work is CORRECT, as per the passage?

(A) Organizations prefer only those who surrender their everything to the organization
(B) With more women coming into the workforce, work itself is becoming greedier.
(C) Work that requires more time investment and dedication tend to pay more, and hence are sought
after
(D) Greedy work is a result of greedy corporations, who reward greedy people
(E) Employees willing to sacrifice their leisure and time with families must be rewarded with higher
pay

70.
Based on the passage, which of the following options BEST summarizes the author’s views?

(A) In heterosexual unions, women must pay a price to see their husbands rise to fame.
(B) Greedy work reinforces extant gender norms, leading to gender pay gap.
(C) Greedy work is the single most important reason for the gender pay gap we see in the society.
(D) Greedy work results in a men’s club, ensuring that women do not get to be a part.
(E) As women try to fight against gender norms, greedy work is their most formidable enemy

QUESTIONS 71 TO 72

Look how you turned on
the ceiling fan—it’s too high,
see how it shakes and trembles.
You walk into this room
with your hot ideas
and the ceiling fan has to work harder
to cool down the room
for us. You walk into this room
with your crazy eyes
and the ceiling fan
wants to fly loose. It dreams
of becoming a spider lily.

71.
Which of the following statements BEST conveys the theme of the poem?

(A) The poem talks about inner conflict resolved by an attempt to restore balance
(B) The poem conveys fear and anxiety due to the loss of stability.
(C) The poem conveys a subtle art of argumentation and counter-argumentation
(D) The poem talks about a conflict between transformation and escapism
(E) The poem conveys quest for self during emotional turmoil

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What does the author BEST mean, when she says, “You walk into this room with your hot ideas and the
ceiling fan has to work harder to cool down the room for us?” g
a
(A) That the person’s presence makes the ceiling fan lose its ability to handle intense energy.
(B) That the person brings with him passionate intellectual and emotional energy
(C) That the person’s presence develops self-doubt in others.
(D) That the person’s hostile presence makes others feel unwelcomed
(E) That the person’s presence creates palpable tension in the room.
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QUESTIONS 73 TO 75

l s
No one argues that the
a that those who would abolish inheritance taxes, say, are implicitly endorsing
inequality may complain a
a g
hereditary privilege. But no one defends hereditary privilege outright or disputes the principle that
careers should be open to talents.

Most of our debates about access to jobs, education, and public office proceed from the premise of equal
opportunity. Our disagreements are less about the principle itself than about what it requires. For
example, critics of affirmative action in hiring and college admissions argue that such policies are
inconsistent with equality of opportunity, because they judge applicants on factors other than merit.
Defenders of affirmative action reply that such policies are necessary to make equality of opportunity a

o m
reality for members of groups that have suffered discrimination or disadvantage.
. c
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At the level of principle at least, and political rhetoric, meritocracy has won the day. In democracies
s
laor ethnicity, gender or class, to compete on equal terms
throughout the world, politicians of the center-left

a g
that will enable all citizens, whatever their race
and to rise as far as their efforts and talents will take them. When people complain about meritocracy,
the complaint is usually not about the ideal but about our failure to live up to it: The wealthy and
powerful have rigged the system to perpetuate their privilege; the professional classes have figured out
how to pass their advantages on to their children, converting the meritocracy into a hereditary
aristocracy; colleges that claim to select students on merit give an edge to the sons and daughters of the
wealthy and the well-connected. According to this complaint, meritocracy is a myth, a distant promise
yet to be redeemed.
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(A) g and privilege cannot
wealth
ag undermine meritocracy.
(B) Equality of opportunity is widely accepted in principle, but there is disagreement about how to
achieve it.
(C) Meritocracy is a popular ideal in political rhetoric, promoted across the political spectrum.
(D) Hereditary privilege is not openly defended but can be perpetuated through policies like the
abolition of inheritance taxes.
(E) Meritocracy is seen by some as an unfulfilled promise, with the system still skewed in favour of the
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74.
Which of the following can be BEST concluded from the passage?

(A) Meritocracy is a utopian system that is difficult to implement as the wealthy rigs the system.
(B) In an unequal society, any attempt to execute meritocracy perpetuates inequality.
(C) Meritocracy is desired by everybody, but despised by those rejected by it.
(D) Meritocracy is accepted by everyone, but not understood by anyone.
(E) Everybody admires meritocracy, until it is they or their children’s career on the line.

75.
Based on the passage, which of the following will the defenders of affirmative action identify as the
main problem in the implementation of the meritocratic system?

(A) Meritocratic system does not acknowledge the initial disadvantages in opportunities.
(B) Meritocratic system supports those having hereditary privileges.
(C) Meritocratic system rewards individuals based on the outcome they produce.
(D) Meritocratic system intentionally favours the rich.
(E) Meritocratic system is based on structural bias.

Section IV — General Knowledge
Questions 76–95 · 20 questions

76.
Which award is given to outstanding coaches in sports and games in India?

(A) Arjuna Award

(B) Dronacharya Award

(C) Dhyan Chand Award

(D) Vashistha Award

(E) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award

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77.
Match the following renowned Indian personalities with their respective awards.

NAMES AWARD

1. Shri Ratan Naval Tata A. Dadasaheb Phalke Award

2. Manmohan Singh B. Grammy Awards

3. Zakir Hussain C. Carnegie Medal of Philanthropy

4. Shyam Benegal D. World Statesman Award

(A) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A

(B) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

(C) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D

(D) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C

(E) 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B

78.
Which term is commonly used to describe the strategy employed by firms where they
reduce the product size or quality while maintaining the same price?

(A) Reduflation

(B) Skimpflation

(C) Shrinkflation

(D) Inflation

(E) Deflation

79.
Samantha Harvey won the 2024 Booker Prize for her space novel, based on the events
on a single day, of lives of six astronauts in the international space station as they
revolve around the Earth, wondering about what is happening at the Earth.

(A) Orbital

(B) Creation Lake

(C) James

(D) Held

(E) The Safekeep

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In which state is Dhimsa recognized as the official folk dance?

(A) Maharashtra ag
(B) Jharkhand

(C) Chhattisgarh

(D) Himachal Pradesh

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81.
s e l a
a
Who was the world’s first female to be elected as the prime minister of a country?
g l ag
(A) a Meir
Golda

(B) Margaret Thatcher

(C) Indira Gandhi

(D) Benazir Bhutto

(E) Sirimavo Bandaranaike
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82.
g lafinals of the World Chess Championship
Who did Gukesh Dommmaraju defeat in the
2024? a
(A) Ding Liren

(B) Hiraku Nakamura

(C) Deep Blue Supercomputer

(D) Ian Nepomniachtchi
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(E)

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83.
Match the following authors with their respective works.

AUTHORS BOOKS

1. Andy Weir A. Dune

2. Cixin Liu B. The Time Machine

3. Stephen Hawking C. The Brief History of Time

4. HG Wells D. The Martian

5. Frank Herbert E. The Three Body Problem

(A) 1-E, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C, 5-D

(B) 1-D, 2-E, 3-C, 4-B, 5-A

(C) 1-C, 2-D, 3-E, 4-A, 5-B

(D) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D, 5-E

(E) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-E, 5-A

84.
What is the name of the AI-based app recently launched by the central government of
India to provide study materials in regional languages?

(A) Bhasha Sangam

(B) Diksha

(C) Prabandh

(D) Anuvadini

(E) Bhasini

85.
Where is the world’s only floating national park located?

(A) Tripura

(B) Jharkhand

(C) Manipur

(D) Assam

(E) Chhatisgarh

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86.
Which two players made history by winning India's first ever medal at the Asian Table
Tennis Championships?

(A) Manika Batra & Sathiyan Gnanasekaran

(B) Sreeja Akula & Mouma Das

(C) Neha Aggarwai & Ankita Das

(D) Madhurka Patkar & Archana Kamath

(E) Ayhika Mukherjee & Sutirtha Mukherjee

87.
Who qualifies for a free e-visa under the "Chalo India" initiative?

(A) Indian tourists

(B) Non-Resident Indian

(C) Non-Indian friends of Indian diaspora

(D) Foreign diplomats

(E) International students interested in higher education

88.
In which country is Mount Marapi Volcano, which recently erupted, located?

(A) Mexico

(B) China

(C) Panama

(D) Indonesia

(E) United States of America

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 42 of 46

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(B) The Chief of Defence Staff

(C) The Defense Minister

(D) The President

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s em RIKSBANK PRIZE in ECONOMIC Sciences in memory of Alfred Nobel
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oflhow institutions are formed and affect prosperity?
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(A) Daron Acemoglu, Simon Johnson & James A. Robinson

(B) Claudia Goldin

(C) Ben Bernanke, Douglas Diamond & Phillip Dybvig

(D) Paul R Milgrom & Robert B Wilson
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As of December 31 2024, which of the following countries is not a NATO member?

(A) Poland

(B) Ukraine

(C) Lithuania

(D) Italy
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92.
Who was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2024?

(A) Narges Mohammadi

(B) Ales Bialiatski and the Center for Civil Liberties

(C) World Food Programme

(D) Motaz Azaiza

(E) Nihon Hidankyo

93.
Match the following Airlines with the countries where they are headquartered?

AIRLINES COUNTRIES

1. AirAsia A. Singapore

2. AZAL B. South Korea

3. Jeju Air C. Azerbaijan

4. Indigo D. India

5. Tigerair E. Malaysia

(A) 1-D, 2-C, 3-E, 4-A, 5-B

(B) 1-B, 2-E, 3-D, 4-A, 5-C

(C) 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-E, 5-B

(D) 1-E, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D, 5-A

(E) 1-C, 2-A, 3-E, 4-B, 5-D

94.
Which company recently acquired MGM Studios to enhance its streaming service content?

(A) Jio

(B) Amazon

(C) Netflix

(D) Disney

(E) Apple

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95.
Which shipyard built INS Tushil, a stealth guided missile-frigate, commissioned on Dec 9, 2024?

(A) Honkong United Dockyards, Hong Kong

(B) Guangzhou Shipyard International, China

(C) Yantar Shipyard, Russia

(D) Naval Group Shipyard, France

(E) Navantia Shipyard, Spain

Answer Key

Section I — Quantitative Aptitude & Data Interpretation (Q1–Q28)

Q.No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans C B C D A A D E C C

Q.No 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans D E C D D A B B C B

Q.No 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28

Ans C E C D D B E E

Section II — Decision Making (Q29–Q49)

Q.No 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38

Ans E D E D D D C A E C

Q.No 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48

Ans E B C A B B C D C D

Q.No 49

Ans C

Section III — Verbal Ability & Logical Reasoning (Q50–Q75)

Q.No 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59

Ans E D E D C B E E A B

Q.No 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69

Ans E A A C C D E D B C

Q.No 70 71 72 73 74 75

Ans B B E A B A

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 45 of 46

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. cSection IV — General Knowledge (Q76–Q95) e m
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se Q.No 76 77 78 79 80 81 ag l 82 83 84 85

Ans B A C A E E A B D C

Q.No 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95

Ans E C D D A B E D B C

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